IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS 1. Immediately fill the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue / Black Ball Point Pen. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited. 2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully. 3. The test is of 3 hours duration. 4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 288. 5. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry having 30 questions. Each part consists of Two sections. 6. For each question in Section 1, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken all the bubble(s) corresponding to only the correct answer(s) and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. No negative marks will be awarded for incorrect answers in this section. For each question in Section 2 , you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to only the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases, (1) marks will be awarded. 7. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in any question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per instructions 6 above. Filling the Top-half of the ORS : Use only Black ball point pen only for filling the ORS. Do not use Gel / Ink / Felt pen as it might smudge the ORS. 8. Write your Roll no. in the boxes given at the top left corner of your ORS with black ball point pen. Also, darken the corresponding bubbles with Black ball point pen only. Also fill your roll no on the back side of your ORS in the space provided (if the ORS is both side printed). 9. Fill your Paper Code as mentioned on the Test Paper and darken the corresponding bubble with Black ball point pen. 10. If student does not fill his/her roll no. and paper code correctly and properly, then his/her marks will not be displayed and 5 marks will be deducted (paper wise) from the total. 11. Since it is not possible to erase and correct pen filled bubble, you are advised to be extremely careful while darken the bubble corresponding to your answer. 12. Neither try to erase / rub / scratch the option nor make the Cross (X) mark on the option once filled. Do not scribble, smudge, cut, tear, or wrinkle the ORS. Do not put any stray marks or whitener anywhere on the ORS. 13. If there is any discrepancy between the written data and the bubbled data in your ORS, the bubbled data will be taken as final. Date : 08-12-2013 Duration : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 288 JEE MAIN TEST-2 (JMT-2) TARGET : JEE (MAIN+ADVANCED) 2014 0 CODE Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose. DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR Name of the Candidate Roll Number I have read all the instructions and shall abide by them. -------------------------------- Signature of the Invigilator I have verified all the information filled in by the Candidate. -------------------------------- Signature of the Candidate COURSE : VIJETA (JP) REVISION TEST
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IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS1. Immediately fill the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue / Black Ball Point Pen.
Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the TestBooklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.
3. The test is of 3 hours duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 288.
5. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Mathematics, Physics and Chemistryhaving 30 questions. Each part consists of Two sections.
6. For each question in Section 1, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken all the bubble(s)corresponding to only the correct answer(s) and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. No negativemarks will be awarded for incorrect answers in this section.
For each question in Section 2 , you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble correspondingto only the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases, (�1) markswill be awarded.
7. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in anyquestion will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordinglyas per instructions 6 above.
Filling the Top-half of the ORS :Use only Black ball point pen only for filling the ORS. Do not use Gel / Ink / Felt pen as it might smudge theORS.
8. Write your Roll no. in the boxes given at the top left corner of your ORS with black ball point pen. Also, darkenthe corresponding bubbles with Black ball point pen only. Also fill your roll no on the back side of your ORSin the space provided (if the ORS is both side printed).
9. Fill your Paper Code as mentioned on the Test Paper and darken the corresponding bubble with Black ballpoint pen.
10. If student does not fill his/her roll no. and paper code correctly and properly, then his/her marks will not bedisplayed and 5 marks will be deducted (paper wise) from the total.
11. Since it is not possible to erase and correct pen filled bubble, you are advised to be extremely careful whiledarken the bubble corresponding to your answer.
12. Neither try to erase / rub / scratch the option nor make the Cross (X) mark on the option once filled. Do notscribble, smudge, cut, tear, or wrinkle the ORS. Do not put any stray marks or whitener anywhere on theORS.
13. If there is any discrepancy between the written data and the bubbled data in your ORS, the bubbled data willbe taken as final.
Date : 08-12-2013 Duration : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 288
JEE MAIN TEST-2 (JMT-2)TARGET : JEE (MAIN+ADVANCED) 2014 0
CODE
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
DO
NO
T B
RE
AK
TH
E S
EA
LS
WIT
HO
UT
BE
ING
INS
TR
UC
TE
D T
O D
O S
O B
Y T
HE
INV
IGIL
AT
OR
Name of the Candidate Roll Number
I have read all the instructions andshall abide by them.
-------------------------------- Signature of the Invigilator
I have verified all the informationfilled in by the Candidate.
-------------------------------- Signature of the Candidate
COURSE : VIJETA (JP) REVISION TEST
RESONANCE JPJMT2081213C0 - 1
(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)
PART-A
SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 24 questions. Each
question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)
for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is
correct.
1. If A = sin�1
1713
sincot 1 then
(1) A = tan�1 32
(2) A = tan�1
13
2
(3) A = cosec�1 23
(4) A = cot�1 32
2. If 0h
lim
)a(f)ha(f
= c where f(x) is a continuous
function such that f(x) > 0 for all x R and [ . ]
denotes greatest integer function then which
of the following statements is always true ?
(1) If x = a is a point of local minima then c N
(2) If x = a is a point of local maxima then c N
(3) If x = a is a point of local minima then c �
(4) If x = a is a point of local maxima then c �
3. If A and B be positive acute angles satisfying
3 sin2 A + 2 sin2 B = 1 and 3 sin 2A � 2 sin 2B = 0,
then
(1) B = /4 � A/2
(2) A = /4 � 2B
(3) B = /2 � A/4
(4) A = /4 � B/2
4. If 0lim
32
sinb�
cosa1 = 1, then the value
of a + b is � , find the value of .
(1) 4
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 0
5. The maximum values of x
xloge is
(1) 1
(2) e2
(3) e
(4) e1
RESONANCE JPJMT2081213C0 - 2
(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)
6. If f(x) =)1x(n
)1�e(sin 2x
, x 2 is continuous at
x = 2, then f(2) =
(1) 0
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) f(2) is not possible
7. Let f(x) = xx ; x (1, ) and g(x) be inverse
function of f(x) then g (x) must be
(1) )xn1(x1
(2) )))x(g(n1(x1
(3) ))x(g(n1(.)x(g1
(4) non existent
8. Rolle's Theorem holds for the function
f(x) = x3 + bx2 + cx, 1 x 2 at x = 34
, then the
value of b + c is
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5
9. A curve passes through the point (2, 0) and
the slope of the tangent at any point (x, y) is
x2 � 2x for all values of x. The point of local
maximum on the curve is
(1)
34
,0
(2)
32
,0
(3)
32
,1
(4)
34
,2
10. If f(x) = ||x|2 � 2|x| � 3| then f(x) is non
differentiable at x equal to
(1) � 1,0,1
(2) 1, 2
(3) �3, �1, 0, 1, 3
(4) �3, 0, 3
11. If in a ABC, acos2
2C
+ ccos2
2A
= 2b3
,
then the sides a, c, b
(1) are in A.P.
(2) are in G.P.
(3) are in H.P.
(4) satisfy a + c = 2b
RESONANCE JPJMT2081213C0 - 3
(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)
12. If f() = (sin + cosec )2 + (cos + sec )2 ,
then minimum value of f() is
(1) 7
(2) 8
(3) 9
(4) 4
13. The set (ABC) (ABC) C is
equal to
(1) BC
(2) A C
(3) BC
(4) A (B C)
14. The value of
cos�1
2sec
412
cos4
32sincot 111
is
(1) 0
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 2
15. If 2
3 33/4 log x log x 5/4x 3 then x can not
assume
(1) one positive integral value
(2) one irrational value
(3) two positive rational values
(4) two distinct positive integral values
16.x
lim1/2 1/3 1/4 1/n
1/2 1/3 1/n
2.x 3.x 4.x ..... n.x
(3x � 4) (3x � 4) ... (3x � 4)
( h e r e
n N, n 2) is equal to
(1) 3
2
(2) 23
(3) 21
(4) 3
1
17. A solution (x, y) of the system of equation
x � y = 1/3 and cos2 (x) � sin2 (y) = 1/2 is
given by
(1) (2/3, 1/3)
(2) (5/3, 4/3)
(3) (13/6, 11/6)
(4) (5/12, 1/12)
RESONANCE JPJMT2081213C0 - 4
(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)
18. Let R = {(3, 3), (6, 6), (9, 9), (12, 12), (6, 12),
(3, 9), (3, 12), (3, 6)} be a relation on the set
A = {3, 6, 9, 12}, the relation is
(1) Reflexive and Transitive only
(2) Reflexive only
(3) an Equivalence relation
(4) Reflexive and Symmetric
19. If f(x) is a differentiable function satisfying
f (x) < 2 for all x R and f(1) = 2, then greatest
possible integral value of f(3) is
(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) Data insufficient
20. Let R be the relation on the set of real
numbers defined by a R b. If |a � b| 1. Then R
is
(1) Reflexive and symmetric
(2) Symmetric only
(3) Transitive only
(4) Anti-symmetric only
21. If f(x) = 2x
2x
2x
,
,
,
a
x3x
x3
2
. Find range of values
of 'a' for which f(x) is strictly monotonically
increasing at x = 2.
(1) [0, 14]
(2) [4, 14]
(3) R
(4) (4, 14)
22. If the thrice repeated roots of equation
x4 + ax3 + bx2 + cx � 1 = 0 is 1, then a + b + 2c
is equal to
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) �1
(4) 2
23. The curves x3 � 3xy2 = a and 3x2y � y3 = b,
where a and b are constants, cut each other
(1) at an angle 3
(2) at an angle 4
(3) orthogonally
(4) at an angle 6
RESONANCE JPJMT2081213C0 - 5
(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)
24. If 0xlim
2x
)x(f = 2, then 0x
lim
[f(x)] equals,
(where [.] denotes the greatest integer
function)
(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 0
(4) limit does not exist
SECTION - II
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 6 questions. Each
question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)
for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is
correct.
25. If sin A + sin B = 3 (cos B � cos A), then value
of sin3A + sin3B is equal to
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) � 1
26. Let f : R 1,2,3 R be a function defined by
1 2 3
f x .x 1 x 2 x 3
Then f(x) is
(1) one-one
(2) many one
(3) monotonocally increasing function
(4) monotonocally decreasing function
27. If f(x) = 1 � x � x3 , then all real values of x
satisfying the inequality
1 � f(x) � f 3(x) > f(1 � 5x) are
(1) (�2, 0) (2, )
(2) (�, �2)
(3) (1, 2)
(4) (0, 2)
28. If f(x) =
3x,1qxpx
3x2,6x5x
2x,bax
2
2 is differentiable
every where, then
(1) a = �1, p = � 94
(2) b = 2, q = 35
(3) a = 1, b = 2
(4) a = �1, q = �35
RESONANCE JPJMT2081213C0 - 6
(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)
29. If , ,
2,0 then the value of
sinsinsin)sin(
is
(1) less than 1
(2) greater than 1
(3) equal to 2
(4) greater than 2
30. If f(x) is continuous, increasing function
such that domain of g(x) = x)x(f is R
and h (x) = x1
1
, then domain of
(x) = )))x(h(h(h�)))x(f(f(f is
(1) R
(2) {0, 1}
(3) R � {0, 1}
(4) R+ � {1}
RESONANCE JPJMT2081213C0 - 7
(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)
PART-B
SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 24 multiple choice
questions. Each question has choices (1),
(2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE
is correct.
31. The r.m.s. value of current flowing through
the resistor in a series L�C�R a.c. circuit
is I = / R. Now the inductor and
capacitor are connected in parallel and
joined in series with the resistor as shown
in figure. The current in the circuit is now.
(Symbols have their usual meaning)
(1) equal to I
(2) more than I
(3) less than I
(4) zero
32. A conductor o f leng th i s p laced
horizontally perpendicular to a horizontal
uniform magnetic f ield B. Suddenly a
charge Q is passed through it and it is
found to jump to height h. Choose the
correct relation : (Take acceleration due
to gravity g)
(1) gm
QBh
2
222
(2) gm
QB2h
2
222
(3) gm2
QBh
2
222
(4) mgQB2
h222
RESONANCE JPJMT2081213C0 - 8
(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)
33. If a charged particle of charge to mass
ratio mq
is entering in a magnetic field
of strength B at a speed v = (2d)(B), then
which of the following is correct :
(1) angle subtended by charged particle
at the centre of circular path is 2.
(2) the charge will move on a circular path
and will come out from magnetic field at a
distance 4d from the point of insertion.
(3) the time for which particle will be in
the magnetic field is B
2
.
(4) the charged particle will subtend an
angle of 900 at the centre of circular path
34. A point charge is moving in clockwise
direction in a circle with constant speed.
Consider the magnetic field produced by
the charge at a point P (not centre of the
circle) on the axis of the circle.
(1) only the magnitude of the magnetic field
remains constant
(2) only the direction of the magnetic field
remains constant
(3) magnetic f ield is constant in both
direction and magnitude
(4) both magni tude and di rect ion of
magnetic field change
35. A small ring of mass m is connected with
a particle of same mass by an ideal string
& the whole system is released as shown
in figure. Coefficient of friction between
ring A and wire is 3/5, ring A will starts
sliding when connecting string will make
an angle with the vertical, then will be
: (particle is free to move and ring can
slide only)
(1) 30º (2) 45º
(3) 60º (4) None of these
RESONANCE JPJMT2081213C0 - 9
(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)
36. Rod AB is placed against a block which is
moving towards right with a speed of
1m/s. If at an instant when the rod makes
an angle 600 with the horizontal and end A
is sliding towards left with a speed of
1m/s. Then the speed of the point of
contact 'B' of the rod is :
(1) 1m/s
(2) 3
m / s2
(3) 1
m / s2
(4) 3
7 m/s
37. A particle starts from rest from the top of
an inclined plane and again comes to rest
on reaching the bottom most point of
incline plane. If the coefficient of friction
on some part of inclined plane is 3tanand
rest portion is smooth then the ratio of the
rough length of the inclined plane to
smooth length would be: (' ' is the plane
angle)
(1) 3:1
(2) 2
sin
cos
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 2 :1
38. I f par t ic le move under the ef fect of
superposition of two SHM simultaneously
and it is given x = 10(1 � cost)m and
y = 10 sint m : ( = 22/7) then distance
travelled by a particle in 227
sec.
(1) 10 m
(2) 20 m
(3) 70 m
(4) zero
RESONANCE JPJMT2081213C0 - 10
(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)
39. A rocket is projected vertically upwards. It
explodes at the topmost point of i ts
trajectory into three identical fragments.
One of the f ragments comes straight
vertical downward in time t1 while the other
two f ragments land at a t ime t2 after
explosion. Then the height at which the
explosion occured in terms of t1 and t2 .
(1) 2ttg 21
21
21
t2t
tt2
(2) 2
ttg3 21
21
21
t2t
tt2
(3) 2ttg 21
21
21
tt2
t2t
(4) 2ttg 21
21
21
tt2
t2t
40. Three particles each of mass m can slide
on fixed frictionless horizontal circular
tracks in the same horizontal plane as
shown in the figure. The coefficient of
restitution being e = 0.5. Assuming that m2
and m3 are at rest initially and lie along a
radial line before impact and the spring is
in i t ia l ly unst re tched, then maximum
extension in spring in subsequent motion.
(1) km
V43
0
(2) k5m
V43
0
(3) k5m2
V43
0
(4) km
V53
0
RESONANCE JPJMT2081213C0 - 11
(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)
41. A frame made of three uniform rod placed
on smooth Horizontal surface. Which is free
to move any where, shape of frame is H
shown in figure A, B and C part are uniform
and point B is mid point of the rod, middle
rod is rigidly attached at the midpoint of rod
A and rod C. Now a horizontal force F
(perpendicualr rod B) is applied such as
whole system move with pure trarslational
motion. Then x0 in the term of 0 is.
(1) 6
� 0
(2) 12
� 0
(3) 12
0
(4) 0127
42. In a binary star system mass 2m and 3m
revolve about their centre of mass, which is at
rest. If radius of star of mass 3m is r0 then the
time period of revolution of binary star system
is:
(1) GM2
rr
25 0
0 (2) GM
rr5 00
(3) GM2
rr5 00 (4) None of these
43. At t = 0 spring is in its natural length and velocity
of two block shown in figure then which of the
following option is incorrect
(1) length of spring is maximum at a time
t = K8m3
7
(2) length of spring is minimum at a time
t = K3m2
2
(3) Acceleration of the two block is zero at a
time t = K3m2
(4) Acceleration of the two block never be equal
to zero, while acceleration of centre of mass
is always zero.
RESONANCE JPJMT2081213C0 - 12
(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)
44. Initially A and B (ends of the conducting
rod) are moving with velocity ' V ' and are
connected to two stationary balls A and B
with conducting wires as shown, after
some time (when the rod has reached into
the magnetic field) wires are cut:
(1) A will become positively charged & B
will become negatively charged
(2) A will become negatively charged & B
will become positively charged
(3) If rod is moving in y direction then A
become negat ive ly charged and B
positively charged.
(4) If rod is moving in y direction then A
is positively charged & B is negatively
charged.
45. An e lec t romagnet ic wave t ravels in
vaccum represented by,
)tkzcos()j�Ei�E(E 21
then select incorrect option :
(1) wave travels along positive z-direction
(2) the associated magnet ic f ie ld is
)tkzcos()j�Ei�E(c1
B 21
(3) The associated magnet ic f ie ld is
)tkzcos()j�Ei�E(c1
B 21
(4) The given electromagnetic wave is
plane polarized light
46. In the fraunhaufer diffraction from a single
slit illuminated by polychromatic light, the
first minimum with wavelength 1 is found
to be coincident with the third minimum at
2. Then the relationship between these
two wavelengths is
(1) 31 = 22
(2) 31 = 2
(3) 1 = 32
(4) 21 = 32
RESONANCE JPJMT2081213C0 - 13
(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)
47. A polaroid is placed at 45º to an incoming
light of intensity 0. Now the intensity of light
passing through polaroid after polarisation
would be :
(1) 0 (2) 0/2
(3) 0/4 (4) zero
48. In the given figure switch (1) is connected
for long time, then at t = 0, switch '1' is
opened and switch '2' is connected. Then
after time t = 0, when inductor coil and
capacitor both has same energy first time
will be :
(1) LC4
5
(2) LC4
3
(3) LC4
(4) LC6
49. A car of mass 500 kg is accelerating up
an inc l ined p lane 1 in 50 wi th an
acceleration 1 m/s2.The power delivered
by the engine at an instant is 600 Watts.
The speed of the car at this instant is
(neglect air resistance and rolling friction)
(take g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 2 m/s
(2) 1 m/s
(3) 6 m/s
(4) 10 m/s
50. A small block of mass 4 kg is placed inside
a cart of mass 2 kg placed on horizontal
surface. A force 10 N is applied on the cart
as shown.Neglect friction everywhere.The
acceleration of the cart with respect to the
ground is :
(1) 5/3 m/s2
(2) 2.5 m/s2
(3) 5 m/s2
(4) 1m/s2
RESONANCE JPJMT2081213C0 - 14
(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)
51. A man carries a weight tied at the end of a
stick 23
m long, which is placed on his
shoulder. He holds the other end of the
stick with his hand. In order that the force
on his shoulder may be three times the
weight hanging at the end, the distance
between his hand and the shoulder should
be (neglect weight of the stick)
(1) 0.25 m
(2) 0.3 m
(3) 0.4 m
(4) 0.5 m
52. A capacitor of capacitance C is ful ly
charged by connecting it across a battery
of emf V, and then disconnected and
reconnected to the same battery but
polar i ty is reversed. Long t ime af ter
changing polarity, the total heat dissipated
in the connecting wires in the process is :
(1) 2CV
(2) 2CV23
(3) 2CV2
(4) 2CV25
53. An electric field given by 2E 4 i� 3(y 2) j
passes Gaussian cube of side 1m placed
with one corner at origin such that its sides
represents x, y and z axes. The magnitude
of net charge enclosed within the cube is
(1) 40 (2) 30
(3) 50 (4) zero
54. Two cells of emf 1 and 2 (2 < 1) are
joined as shown in figure :
W hen a potent iometer is connected
between X and Y it balances for 300 cm
length against 1. On connecting the same
potentiometer between X and Z it balances
for 100 cm length against 1 and 2. Then
the ratio 1
2
is :
(1) 31
(2) 43
(3) 41
(4) 32
RESONANCE JPJMT2081213C0 - 15
(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)
SECTION - II
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice
questions. Each question has choices (1),
(2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE
is correct.
55. Two inductor coils of self inductance 3H
and 6H respectively are connected with a
resistance 10 and a battery 10 V as
shown in figure. At t = 0 the switch 'S' is
closed then the ratio of the magnetic flux
at steady state in the inductors L1 and L2
is :
(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1 : 1
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 3
56. A uniform current carrying ring of mass m
and radius R is connected to a massless
string as shown. A uniform magnetic field
B0 exist in the region to keep the ring in
equilibrium in horizontal position. The
current in the ring is: (Take acceleration
due to gravity g)
(1) 0RB
mg
clockwise as seen from above
the ring
(2) 0RB
mg
ant iclockwise as seen f rom
above the ring
(3) 0RB2
mg
clockwise as seen from above
the ring
(4) 0RB2
mg
ant iclociwise as seen f rom
above the ring
RESONANCE JPJMT2081213C0 - 16
(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)
57. In the figure shown a block A moving with
velocity 10m/s on a horizontal surface
collides with another block B (of same
mass) at rest initially. The coefficient of
restitution is 21
. Neglect friction every
where. The distance between the blocks
at 5s after the collision takes place is :
BA10m/s
(1) 20 m
(2) 10 m
(3) 25 m
(4) 30 m
58. A particle is acted upon by a force whose
component 's variat ions with t ime are
shown in diagrams. Then the magnitude
of change in momentum of the particle in
0.1 sec will be
t=0.1 sec
30 N
Fx
0
t=0.1 sec
80 N
Fy
0
t=0.1 sec
� 50 N
Fz
0
(1) 2 kg secm
(2) 10 kg secm
(3) 12 kg secm
(4) 25 kg secm
RESONANCE JPJMT2081213C0 - 17
(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)
59. In the series LCR circuit as shown in
figure, the heat developed in 80 seconds
and amplitude of wattless current is :
(1) 4000 J, 3A
(2) 8000 J, 3A
(3) 4000 J, 4A
(4) 8000 J, 5A
60. Moment of inertia of a uniform solid cone
about an axis passing through its centre
of gravity and paral lel to its base is
(m is mass of cone, its height is h and its
radius R = h)
(1) 3
10MR2
(2) 53
MR2
(3) 103
MR2
(4) 163
MR2
RESONANCE JPJMT2081213C0 - 18
(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)
PART- CAtomic masses : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24,Al = 27, Si = 28, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5,Zn = 65, As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, Hg = 200, Pb = 207]
SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 24 questions. Each question has five choices (1), (2), (3), and (4) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
61. D-Glucose upon treatment with bromine-
water gives :
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
62.
H OH
CHO
HO H
H OH
H OH
CH OH2
D-Glucose
HO H
CHO
HO H
H OH
H OH
CH OH2
D-Mannose
The above structures are related to each
other as :
(1) identical substance
(2) diastereomers
(3) enantiomers
(4) epimers
RESONANCE JPJMT2081213C0 - 19
(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)
63. RNA forms loop structure because
(1) It always contain uracyl instead of thymine
(2) of presence of nearby complementary
bases
(3) all RNAs have to from loop structure to
function
(4) they are always single stranded
64. A protein attached to carbohydrate moiety
is called as :
(1) Lipoprotein
(2) Nucleoprotein
(3) Apoprotein
(4) Glycoprotein
65.
The correct name of the product obtained
is:
(1) cis-1,2-dibromocyclohexane
(2) cis-1,4-dibromocyclohexane
(3) trans-1,2-dibromocyclohexane
(4) trans-1,4-dibromocyclohexane
66. Which of the following statements is
correct?
(1) �NO2 group activates the benzene ring
for attack of electrophile at ortho and para
position.
(2) �NH2 group activates the benzene ring
for attack of electrophile at ortho and para
position.
(3) Both�NO2 group as well as �NH2 group
activate the benzene ring for attack of
electrophile at ortho and para position.
(4) Neither �NO2 group nor �NH2 group
activate the benzene ring for attack of
electrophile at ortho and para position.
67. The isoelectric point of an amino acid is :
(1) The pH at which it exists in the acidic
form
(2) The pH at which exists in the basic form
(3) The pH at which it exists in the Zwitterion
form
(4) The pH which is equal to its pKa value
RESONANCE JPJMT2081213C0 - 20
(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)
68. Which of the following statements is true for
the reaction given below ?
4KMnOalkaline P
(1) P is a meso compound 2, 3-butanediol
formed by syn addition.
(2) P is a meso compound 2, 3-butanediol
formed by anti addition.
(3) P is a racemic mixture of d- and l- 2, 3-
butanediol formed by anti addition.
(4) P is a racemic mixture of d- and l- 2, 3-
butanediol formed by syn addition.
69. Which one of the following combinations is
found in DNA?
(1) Guanine and guanidine
(2) Guanidine and cytosine
(3) Guanine and cytosine
(4) Adenine and guanidine
70. Compound 'X' on heating with Zn dust gives
compound 'Y' which on treatment with O3
followed by reaction with Zn dust gives
propionaldehyde. The structure of 'X' is :
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
71. 2, 3-Dimethylbut-2-ene when reacted with
bromine forms a compound which upon
heating with alcoholic KOH produce the
following major product :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
RESONANCE JPJMT2081213C0 - 21
(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)
72. The compound which reacts with excess
bromine to produce 2, 4, 6-tribromophenol,
is :
(1) 1, 3-cyclohexadiene
(2) 1, 3-cyclohexanedione
(3) salicylic acid
(4) cyclohexanone
73. Ethyl acetate reacts with NH2NHCONH2 to
form
(1) CH3CONHCONHNH2
(2) CH3CON(NH2)CONH2
(3) CH3CONHNHCONH2
(4) CH3CH2NHNHCONH2
74. The compound X (C7H9N) reacts with
benzensulfonyl chloride to give Y
(C13H13NO2S) which is insoluble in alkali.
The compound X is :
(1)
NH 3CH
(2)
NH2
CH3
(3) CH3
NH2
(4) H C3
NH2
75. The configurations of the carbon atoms
C2 and C3 in the following compound are
respectively
(1) 2R, 3R
(2) 2S, 3S
(3) 2R, 3S
(4) 2S, 3R
RESONANCE JPJMT2081213C0 - 22
(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)
76. Major product of mononitration of the
following compound is :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
77. The product obtained from the following
sequence of reactions is
(1) propanal (2) 2-propanol
(3) 1-propanol (4) propane
78. The product (P) of the following reaction is :