1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this page. 2. This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of questions. 3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet. (ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. (iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Number should be entered on the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. 4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the correct response against each item. Example : where (3) is the correct response. 5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark your response at any place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair means, such as change of response by scratching or using white fluid, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. 9. You have to return the Original OMR Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed to carry original question booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination. 10. Use only Black Ball point pen provided by C.B.S.E. 11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. 12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. 13. In case of any discrepancy in the English and Hindi versions, English version will be taken as final. Number of Pages in this Booklet : 32 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75 Instructions for the Candidates ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖÙ£ÖμÖÖë Ûê ×»Ö‹ ×®Ö¤ì¿Ö 1. ‡ÃÖ ¯Öéš Ûê ‰ ¯Ö¸ ×®ÖμÖŸÖ Ã£ÖÖ®Ö ¯Ö¸ †¯Ö®ÖÖ ¸Öê»Ö ®Ö´²Ö¸ ×»Ö×ÜÖ‹ … 2. ‡ÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Ö¡Ö ´Öë ¯Ö“ÖÆ¢Ö¸ ²ÖÆã×¾ÖÛ »¯ÖßμÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö Æï … 3. ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖ ¯ÖÏÖ¸´³Ö ÆÖê®Öê ¯Ö¸, ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ßÖÛ Ö †Ö¯ÖÛ Öê ¤ê ¤ß •ÖÖμÖêÝÖß … ¯ÖÆ»Öê ¯ÖÖÑ“Ö ×´Ö®Ö™ †Ö¯ÖÛ Öê ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ßÖÛ Ö ÜÖÖê»Ö®Öê ŸÖ£ÖÖ ˆÃÖÛ ß ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ •ÖÖÑ“Ö Ûê ×»Ö‹ פ μÖê •ÖÖμÖëÝÖê, וÖÃÖÛ ß •ÖÖÑ“Ö †Ö¯ÖÛ Öê †¾Ö¿μÖ Û ¸®Öß Æî : (i) ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ßÖÛ Ö ÜÖÖê»Ö®Öê Ûê ×»Ö‹ ¯Öã×ßÖÛ Ö ¯Ö¸ »ÖÝÖß Û ÖÝÖ•Ö Û ß ÃÖß»Ö Û Öê ± Ö›Ì »Öë … ÜÖã»Öß Æã‡Ô μÖÖ ×²Ö®ÖÖ Ã™ßÛ ¸-ÃÖß»Ö Û ß ¯Öã×ßÖÛ Ö Ã¾ÖßÛ Ö¸ ®Ö Û ¸ë … (ii) Û ¾Ö¸ ¯Öéš ¯Ö¸ ”¯Öê ×®Ö¤ì¿ÖÖ®ÖãÃÖÖ¸ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ßÖÛ Ö Ûê ¯Öéš ŸÖ£ÖÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®ÖÖë Û ß ÃÖÓÜμÖÖ Û Öê †“”ß ŸÖ¸Æ “ÖîÛ Û ¸ »Öë ×Û μÖê ¯Öæ¸ê Æï … ¤Öê ÂÖ¯Öæ ÞÖÔ ¯Öã ×ßÖÛ Ö ×•Ö®Ö´Öë ¯Öé š/¯ÖÏ ¿®Ö Û ´Ö ÆÖë μÖÖ ¤ã²ÖÖ¸Ö †Ö ÝÖμÖê ÆÖë μÖÖ ÃÖß׸ μÖ»Ö ´Öë ®Ö ÆÖë †£ÖÖÔŸÖ ×Û ÃÖß ³Öß ¯ÖÏÛ Ö¸ Û ß ¡Öã×™¯ÖæÞÖÔ ¯Öã×ßÖÛ Ö Ã¾ÖßÛ Ö¸ ®Ö Û ¸ë ŸÖ£ÖÖ ˆÃÖß ÃÖ´Ö μ Ö ˆÃÖê »ÖÖî™ÖÛ ¸ ˆÃÖÛê ãÖÖ®Ö ¯Ö¸ ¤æÃÖ¸ß ÃÖÆß ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ßÖÛ Ö »Öê »Öë … ‡ÃÖÛê ×»Ö‹ †Ö¯ÖÛ Öê ¯ÖÖÑ“Ö ×´Ö®Ö™ פ μÖê •ÖÖμÖëÝÖê … ˆÃÖÛê ²ÖÖ¤ ®Ö ŸÖÖê †Ö¯ÖÛ ß ¯ÖÏ ¿®Ö-¯Öã ×ßÖÛ Ö ¾ÖÖ¯ÖÃÖ »Öß •ÖÖμÖê ÝÖß †Öî ¸ ®Ö Æß †Ö¯ÖÛ Öê †×ŸÖ׸ŒŸÖ ÃÖ´ÖμÖ ×¤μÖÖ •ÖÖμÖê ÝÖÖ … (iii) ‡ÃÖ •ÖÖÑ“Ö Ûê ²ÖÖ¤ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ßÖÛ Ö Û Ö ®ÖÓ²Ö¸ OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛ ¯Ö¸ †Ó×Û ŸÖ Û ¸ë †Öî¸ OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛ Û Ö ®ÖÓ²Ö¸ ‡ÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ßÖÛ Ö ¯Ö¸ †Ó×Û ŸÖ Û ¸ ¤ë … 4. ¯ÖÏŸμÖêÛ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö Ûê ×»Ö‹ “ÖÖ¸ ˆ¢Ö¸ ×¾ÖÛ »¯Ö (1), (2), (3) ŸÖ£ÖÖ (4) פ μÖê ÝÖμÖê Æï … †Ö¯ÖÛ Öê ÃÖÆß ˆ¢Ö¸ Ûê ¾Öé¢Ö Û Öê ¯Öê®Ö ÃÖê ³Ö¸Û ¸ Û Ö»ÖÖ Û ¸®ÖÖ Æî •ÖîÃÖÖ ×Û ®Öß“Öê פÜÖÖμÖÖ ÝÖμÖÖ Æî : ˆ¤ÖƸÞÖ : •Ö²Ö×Û (3) ÃÖÆß ˆ¢Ö¸ Æî … 5. ¯ÖÏ¿®ÖÖë Ûê ˆ¢Ö¸ Ûê ¾Ö»Ö ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö ¯Öã×ßÖÛ Ö Ûê †®¤¸ פ μÖê ÝÖμÖê OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛ ¯Ö¸ Æß †Ó×Û ŸÖ Û ¸®Öê Æï … μÖפ †Ö¯Ö OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛ ¯Ö¸ פ μÖê ÝÖμÖê ¾Öé¢Ö Ûê †»ÖÖ¾ÖÖ ×Û ÃÖß †®μÖ Ã£ÖÖ®Ö ¯Ö¸ ˆ¢Ö¸ דÖÅ®ÖÖÓ×Û ŸÖ Û ¸ŸÖê Æï, ŸÖÖê ˆÃÖÛ Ö ´Öæ»μÖÖÓÛ ®Ö ®ÖÆà ÆÖêÝÖÖ … 6. †®¤¸ פ μÖê ÝÖμÖê ×®Ö¤ì¿ÖÖë Û Öê ¬μÖÖ®Ö¯Öæ¾ÖÔÛ ¯ÖœÌë … 7. Û ““ÖÖ Û Ö´Ö (Rough Work) ‡ÃÖ ¯Öã×ßÖÛ Ö Ûê †×®ŸÖ´Ö ¯Öéš ¯Ö¸ Û ¸ë … 8. μÖפ †Ö¯Ö OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛ ¯Ö¸ ×®ÖμÖŸÖ Ã£ÖÖ®Ö Ûê †»ÖÖ¾ÖÖ †¯Ö®ÖÖ ®ÖÖ´Ö, ¸Öê»Ö ®Ö´²Ö¸, ± Öê®Ö ®Ö´²Ö¸ μÖÖ Û Öê‡Ô ³Öß ‹êÃÖÖ ×“ÖÅ®Ö ×•ÖÃÖÃÖê †Ö¯ÖÛ ß ¯ÖÆ“ÖÖ®Ö ÆÖê ÃÖÛê , †Ó×Û ŸÖ Û ¸ŸÖê Æï †£Ö¾ÖÖ †³Ö¦ ³ÖÖÂÖÖ Û Ö ¯ÖÏ μÖÖêÝÖ Û ¸ŸÖê Æï, μÖÖ Û Öê‡Ô †®μÖ †®Öã×“ÖŸÖ ÃÖÖ¬Ö®Ö Û Ö ¯ÖÏ μÖÖêÝÖ Û ¸ŸÖê Æï, •ÖîÃÖê ×Û †Ó×Û ŸÖ ×Û μÖê ÝÖμÖê ˆ¢Ö¸ Û Öê ×´Ö™Ö®ÖÖ μÖÖ ÃÖ±ê ¤ ÃμÖÖÆß ÃÖê ²Ö¤»Ö®ÖÖ ŸÖÖê ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖ Ûê ×»ÖμÖê †μÖÖêÝμÖ ‘ÖÖê×ÂÖŸÖ ×Û μÖê •ÖÖ ÃÖÛ ŸÖê Æï … 9. †Ö¯ÖÛ Öê ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖ¯ŸÖ ÆÖê ®Öê ¯Ö¸ ´Öæ »Ö OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛ ×®Ö¸ßõÖÛ ´ÖÆÖê ¤μÖ ÛÖê »ÖÖ î ™Ö®ÖÖ †Ö¾Ö¿μÖÛ Æî †Ö î ¸ ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖׯŸÖ Ûê ²ÖÖ¤ ˆÃÖ ê †¯Ö®Ö ê ÃÖÖ£Ö ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖ ³Ö¾Ö®Ö ÃÖ ê ²ÖÖƸ ®Ö »Ö ê Û ¸ •ÖÖ μÖ ë … ÆÖ»ÖÖ Ó ×Û †Ö¯Ö ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖׯŸÖ ¯Ö¸ ´Ö æ »Ö ¯Ö Ï ¿®Ö-¯Ö ã ×ßÖÛ Ö ŸÖ£ÖÖ OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛ Ûß ›ã ¯»ÖßÛê ™ ¯Ö Ï ×ŸÖ †¯Ö®Ö ê ÃÖÖ£Ö »Ö ê •ÖÖ ÃÖÛ ŸÖ ê Æï … 10. Ûê ¾Ö»Ö C.B.S.E. «Ö¸Ö ¯ÖÏ ¤Ö®Ö ×Û μÖê ÝÖμÖê Û Ö»Öê ²ÖÖ»Ö ¯¾ÖÖ‡Õ ™ ¯Öê ®Ö Û Ö Æß ‡ÃŸÖê´ÖÖ»Ö Û ¸ë … 11. ×Û ÃÖß ³Öß ¯ÖÏÛ Ö¸ Û Ö ÃÖÓÝÖÞÖÛ (Ûî »ÖÛã »Öꙸ) μÖÖ »ÖÖÝÖ ™ê²Ö»Ö †Öפ Û Ö ¯ÖÏ μÖÖêÝÖ ¾ÖÙ•ÖŸÖ Æî … 12. ÝÖ»ÖŸÖ ˆ¢Ö¸Öë Ûê ×»Ö‹ Û Öê‡Ô ®ÖÛ Ö¸ÖŸ´ÖÛ †ÓÛ ®ÖÆà Æï … 13. μÖפ †ÓÝÖÏê•Öß μÖÖ ØÆ¤ß ×¾Ö¾Ö¸ÞÖ ´Öë Û Öê‡Ô ×¾ÖÃÖÓÝÖ×ŸÖ ÆÖê, ŸÖÖê †ÓÝÖÏê•Öß ×¾Ö¾Ö¸ÞÖ †Ó×ŸÖ´Ö ´ÖÖ®ÖÖ •ÖÖ‹ÝÖÖ … [Maximum Marks : 150 Time : 2 1 / 2 hours] PAPER-III POLITICAL SCIENCE (To be filled by the Candidate) Signature and Name of Invigilator OMR Sheet No. : ............................................... Roll No. (In words) 1. (Signature) __________________________ (Name) ____________________________ 2. (Signature) __________________________ (Name) ____________________________ Roll No.________________________________ 02 (In figures as per admission card) J 1 6 J-02-16 1 P.T.O.
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J-02-16-III (Pol. Sc.) Inst · 2020. 7. 12. · Paper-III 2 J-02-16 POLITICAL SCIENCE PAPER – III Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2)
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1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top ofthis page.
2. This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type ofquestions.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question bookletwill be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requestedto open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accepta booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an openbooklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questionsin the booklet with the information printed on thecover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questionsmissing or duplicate or not in serial order or anyother discrepancy should be got replaced immediatelyby a correct booklet from the invigilator within theperiod of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the QuestionBooklet will be replaced nor any extra time will begiven.
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Numbershould be entered on the OMR Sheet and the OMRSheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (1), (2), (3)and (4). You have to darken the circle as indicated below onthe correct response against each item.Example :where (3) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMRSheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark yourresponse at any place other than in the circle in the OMRSheet, it will not be evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the spaceallotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose youridentity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfairmeans, such as change of response by scratching or usingwhite fluid, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return the Original OMR Sheet to the invigilatorsat the end of the examination compulsorily and must notcarry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are,however, allowed to carry original question booklet andduplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination.
10. Use only Black Ball point pen provided by C.B.S.E.11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.13. In case of any discrepancy in the English and Hindi versions,
English version will be taken as final.
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 32 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75Instructions for the Candidates ¯Ö¸üßõÖÖÙ£ÖμÖÖë Ûêú ×»Ö‹ ×®Ö¤ìü¿Ö
Roll No.________________________________0 2(In figures as per admission card)
J 1 6
J-02-16 1 P.T.O.
Paper-III 2 J-02-16
POLITICAL SCIENCE PAPER – III
Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.
1. Who among the following said that political theory stands for an abstract model of the
political order ? (1) T.P. Jenkin (2) R.A. Dahl (3) W.T. Bluhm (4) Weinstein 2. Which one of the following statements is not true ? (1) Classical political theory is qualitative. (2) Behavioural political theory is quantitative. (3) Post-behavioural political theory is both qualitative and quantitative. (4) Behavioural theory is not specially concerned with Anglo-American model. 3. Which one of the following statements is not true ? (1) Neo-liberalism refers to significant revival of interest in classical liberalism. (2) Neo-liberal ideas were taken up by the political parties of the New Right in Britain. (3) The revival of classical liberalism occurred as a reaction against the onset of a world
recession in the 1970s. (4) T.H. Green accepted the classical liberal notion of liberty only. 4. Who among the following dismissed John Rawl’s concept of social justice as a ‘mirage’ ? (1) Macpherson (2) Friedrich Hayek (3) Isaiah Berlin (4) Robert Nozick 5. Who among the following said that ideology should neither be thought of as liberating or
oppressive, nor as true or false. It can be any these things ? (1) Andrew Heywood (2) John Rawls (3) Andrew Gamble (4) Bill Coxall 6. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I (Year)
List – II (Event)
(a) 1917 (i) Mao started his historic ‘Long March’. (b) 1918 (ii) Mao participated in the first Congress of the CCP. (c) 1921 (iii) Mao became a Library Assistant in Peking University (d) 1934 (iv) Mao met Liu Shao-Chi
Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Ûæú™ü : (a) (b) (c) (d) (1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Paper-III 4 J-02-16
7. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below : List – I
(Philosopher) List – II (Idea)
(a) Machiavelli (i) Revolt against Reason (b) Hobbes (ii) Moral Indifference (c) Locke (iii) Instinct of self-preservation (d) Rousseau (iv) Natural Right to Property
Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 8. Who among the following said : “Most religious men I have met are politicians in
disguise. I, however, who wear the guise of a politician in disguise, am at heart a religious man” ?
(1) Bipin Chandra Pal (2) C.R. Das (3) M.K. Gandhi (4) M.A. Jinnah 9. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the codes given below : Assertion (A) : Platonic theory of ideas is based upon the theory of knowledge. Reason (R) : For him, knowledge is perception. Codes : (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true. 10. Who among the following said : “Aristotle’s new general science of politics was not only
empirical and descriptive, but even in some respects independent of any ethical purpose, since a statesman might need to be expert in governing even a bad state.” ?
(1) E. Barker (2) G.H. Sabine (3) E.B. England (4) G.C. Field 11. For Locke, which of the following statements is not true ? (a) The state must be a constitutional state. (b) Government must posses discretionary power. (c) It is a tolerant state. (d) The right to property is not a natural right. Select the correct answer from the codes given below : (1) (a) and (c) (2) (a) and (b) (3) (b) only (4) (d) only
J-02-16 5 Paper-III
7. ÃÖæ“Öß – I ÛúÖê ÃÖæ“Öß – II Ûêú ÃÖÖ£Ö ÃÖã´Öê×»ÖŸÖ Ûú¸ëü †Öî¸ü ®Öß“Öê פü‹ ÝÖ‹ Ûæú™ü ÛúÖ ¯ÖϵÖÖêÝÖ Ûú¸üŸÖê Æãü‹ ÃÖÆüß ˆ¢Ö¸ü “Öã×®Ö‹ : ÃÖæ“Öß – I
12. For Rousseau, which of the following statements is not true ? (a) Two original instincts i.e. self-love and sympathy make up man’s nature. (b) A thinking man is a depraved animal. (c) Family is the only natural society. (d) General will is not a group mind. Select the correct answer from the codes given below : (1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c) (3) (c) only (4) (d) only 13. For J.S. Mill, which of the following statements is not true ? (a) Pleasures differ in quality as well as in quantity. (b) Mill makes use of the non-utilitarian arguements. (c) The felicific calculus is absurd. (d) Pleasures can be objectively measured. Select the correct answer from the codes given below : (1) (b) and (c) (2) (a) and (b) (3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (d) only 14. Arrange the following works of Amartya Sen in chronological order of his publications.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below : (a) Idea of Justice (b) Inequality Re-examined (c) Development as Freedom (d) Choice, Welfare and Measurement Codes : (1) (d), (b), (c), (a) (2) (a), (b), (c), (d) (3) (c), (d), (a), (b) (4) (b), (a), (d), (c) 15. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the codes given below : Assertion (A) : There was great deal of similarity between the ideas of Mazzini and those
of Aurobindo. Reason (R) : Both believed that faith in God was the basis of morality, that politics could
not be separated from morality. Codes : (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true. 16. Identify the correct sequence in which general systems theory has been adopted in social
sciences ? i. Psychology ii. Sociology iii. Anthropology iv. Political Science Select the correct answer from the codes given below : Codes : (1) i, ii, iii and iv (2) iii, ii, i and iv (3) ii, iii, iv and i (4) iii, i, ii, and iv
16. ÃÖÖ´ÖÖוÖÛú ×¾Ö–ÖÖ®Ö ´Öë †¯Ö®ÖÖ‹ ÝÖ‹ ÃÖÖ´ÖÖ®µÖ ¾µÖ¾ÖãÖÖ ×ÃÖ¨üÖÓŸÖ Ûêú ÃÖÆüß ÛÎú´Ö Ûúß ¯ÖÆü“ÖÖ®Ö Ûúßו֋ : i. ´Ö®ÖÖê×¾Ö–ÖÖ®Ö ii. ÃÖ´ÖÖ•Ö¿ÖÖÃ¡Ö iii. ®Öé×¾Ö–ÖÖ®Ö iv. ¸üÖ•Ö®Öß×ŸÖ ×¾Ö–ÖÖ®Ö ®Öß“Öê פü‹ ÝÖ‹ Ûæú™ü ÛúÖ ¯ÖϵÖÖêÝÖ Ûú¸üŸÖê Æãü‹ ÃÖÆüß ˆ¢Ö¸ “Öã×®Ö‹ : Ûæú™ü : (1) i, ii, iii †Öî ü iv (2) iii, ii, i †Öî ü iv (3) ii, iii, iv †Öî ü i (4) iii, i, ii, †Öî ü iv
Paper-III 8 J-02-16
17. The term ‘legitimation crisis’, in terms of erosion of confidence in public institutions resulting in coercive apparatus of states, was developed by :
(1) David Apter (2) S.P. Huntington (3) Edward Shills (4) Habermas 18. Which of the following is not true of a Constitution ? (1) It safequards the political institutions. (2) It is the source of all authority of the organs of the government. (3) It promotes trans-national security. (4) It incorporates fundamental laws. 19. Who among the following are European thinkers associated with the theory of political
elites ? (a) Pareto (b) Mosca (c) Schumpeter (d) Lasswell Select the correct answer from the codes given below : (1) (a) and (b) (2) (a), (b) and (c) (3) (a), (b) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) 20. Who among the following do not make any distinction between interest groups and
pressure groups ? (a) Jean Blondel (b) Myron Weiner (c) Robert C. Bone (d) James Coleman Select the correct answer from the codes given below : (1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c) (3) (a) and (d) (4) (d) only 21. Identify the basic contentions of Dependency theory. Select the correct answer from the
code given below : (a) Development of colonies is viewed as Whiteman’s burden. (b) Third world nations provide natural resources and cheap labour. (c) Industrialization and market economy are conducive for development. (d) Advanced western nations perpetuate a state of dependency by various means. Codes : (1) (b) and (c) (2) (b) and (d) (3) (a) and (c) (4) (a) and (d) 22. Which of the following is/are the common feature(s) between the Indian political system
and the US political system ? (a) Residuary powers belong to the centre. (b) Residuary powers are with the states. (c) Presidents have the power of pocket veto. (d) Upper houses have some nominated members. Select the correct answer from the codes given below : (1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (b), (c) and (d) (3) (c) and (d) (4) (c) only
23. Which one of the following types of bureaucracy exhibits a bias towards party interests ? (1) Guardian bureaucracy (2) Caste bureaucracy (3) Patronage bureaucracy (4) Merit bureaucracy 24. In a single transferable vote system, each voter is required to : (1) Indicate one preference more than the seats to be filled up. (2) Indicate one preference less than the total seats to be filled up. (3) Indicate as many preferences as there are candidates to be elected. (4) Indicate only a single preference. 25. Which of the following are true of presidential system of government ? (a) President is both Head of the State and Head of the Government. (b) It is based on separation of powers. (c) President’s term of office is fixed. (d) Secretaries are responsible to the president as well as to the Senate. Select the correct answer from the codes given below : (1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a), (b), (c), (d) (3) (a), (b) and (d) (4) (a), (c) and (d) 26. Which of the following Houses has had the longest speeches by the members ? (1) House of Lords (2) Lok Sabha (3) US Senate (4) Swiss Council of States 27. Which of the following statements are correct about the Vice-Presidents of India and
America ? (a) Both the Vice-Presidents are elected for a fixed term. (b) They are the presiding officers of the upper house. (c) They appoint the committees of the house. (d) They have a casting vote in case of a tie. Select the correct answer from the codes given below : Codes : (1) (a), (b) and (d) (2) (b) and (c) (3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) 28. Which one of the following characteristics is not true of Anomic interest groups ? (1) They are spontaneous groups that are formed suddenly. (2) They are formed on the basis of prior organisation and planning. (3) Eruption of violent behaviour at times to ventilate the discontentment. (4) They are short lived and transitory as they cease to operate once the purpose is
29. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : In the advanced liberal democracies of the western nations, military is subordinate to the civilian authority.
Reason (R) : Military plays a key role in countries where democracy has not been institutionalized.
Codes : (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (3) (A) is correct, but (R) is false. (4) (A) is false, but (R) is correct. 30. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I (Writer)
List – II (Concept/Model)
(a) Robert Mitchels (i) Communication Model (b) James Burnham (ii) Power Elites (c) C.Wright Mills (iii) Managerial Revolution (d) Harold Lasswell (iv) Iron Law of oligarchy
Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) (2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) 31. Which of the following statement/s about the Right to negative vote is/are correct ? Select
the correct answer from the codes given below : I. The Election Commission of India wanted that ‘None of the above’ button on
Electronic voting machine should be offered to voters. II. The public interest litigation, in the Supreme Court for NOTA option was filed by
the Association for Democratic Reforms. III. Elections in a constituency will be held again if NOTA gets the highest votes. IV. The candidate with highest number of votes will be declared elected even if she/he
receives less than the NOTA votes. Codes : (1) Only I and II are correct. (2) Only II and III are correct. (3) Only III and IV are correct. (4) Only I and IV are correct. 32. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the codes given below : Assertion (A) : Federalism is not dead in India. Reason (R) : New regions are constantly demanding statehood. Codes : (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (4) (R) is true, but (A) is false.
ˆ´´Öߤü¾ÖÖ¸ü ÛúÖê ×®Ö¾ÖÖÔ×“ÖŸÖ ‘ÖÖê×ÂÖŸÖ ×ÛúµÖÖ •ÖÖ‹ÝÖÖ … Ûæú™ü : (1) Ûêú¾Ö»Ö I †Öî¸ü II ÃÖÆüß Æïü … (2) Ûêú¾Ö»Ö II †Öî ü III ÃÖÆüß Æïü … (3) Ûêú¾Ö»Ö III †Öî ü IV ÃÖÆüß Æïü … (4) Ûêú¾Ö»Ö I †Öî¸ü IV ÃÖÆüß Æïü …
33. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? (1) Laxmi Kant Pandey v/s Union of India : Inter-country adoption of Indian babies. (2) S.P. Gupta v/s President of India and others : enabling citizens to file public interest
litigation for social cause. (3) Mohini Jain v/s State of Karnataka : enjoyment of pollution-free water and air. (4) Olga Tellis vs/ Bombay Municipal Corporation : right to livelihood. 34. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I (Presidents of India)
List – II (Tenure)
(a) Varahgiri Venkatgiri (i) July 1987 – July 1992 (b) Dr. Zakir Hussain (ii) July 1977 – July 1982 (c) R. Venkatraman (iii) August 1969 –August 1974 (d) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy (iv) May 1967 – May 1969
Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
35. Which one of the following is the correct break-up of the composition of Lok Sabha Constituencies ? Total
36. According to the Supreme Court of India, the foundation of ‘composite culture’, as
mentioned in clause (f) of Article 51 A, is : (1) the diverse culture of India (2) the Sanskrit language and literature (3) the secular fabric of India (4) the values evolved during the freedom movement
37. Which of the following Fundamental Rights are granted only to citizens of India ? Select the correct answer from the code given below :
I. Cultural and educational rights. II. Equality before the law. III. Right against exploitation. IV. Protection from discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex or place
of birth. Codes : (1) I and II only (2) II and IV only (3) III and IV only (4) I and IV only
ˆ¢Ö¸ü “Öã×®ÖµÖê … I. ÃÖÓÃÛéú×ŸÖ †Öî¸ü ׿ÖõÖÖ ÛúÖ †×¬ÖÛúÖ¸ü II. ×¾Ö×¬Ö Ûêú ÃÖ´ÖõÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖ®ÖŸÖÖ III. ¿ÖÖêÂÖÞÖ Ûêú ×¾Ö¹ý¨ü †×¬ÖÛúÖ¸ü IV. ¬Ö´ÖÔ, ®ÖûÖ, •ÖÖןÖ, Ø»ÖÝÖ †£Ö¾ÖÖ •Ö®´Ö ãÖÖ®Ö Ûêú †Ö¬ÖÖ¸ü ¯Ö¸ü ³Öê¤ü³ÖÖ¾Ö Ûêú ×¾Ö¹ý¨ü ÃÖã¸üõÖÖ Ûæú™ü : (1) Ûêú¾Ö»Ö I †Öî¸ü II (2) Ûêú¾Ö»Ö II †Öî ü IV (3) Ûêú¾Ö»Ö III †Öî ü IV (4) Ûêú¾Ö»Ö I †Öî¸ü IV
Paper-III 16 J-02-16
38. Which of the following statement/s about the Government of India Act, 1935 is/are not true ? Select the correct answer from the code given below :
I. In six of the provinces, the legislature was bi-cameral. II. The Governor-General had the power to make permanent acts but not ordinances. III. The residuary powers of legislation were vested in the Central Legislature. IV. Education as a subject was with Central Legislature. V. Separate representation was provided only to the Muslim community. Codes : (1) I, II, III and V (2) II, IV and V (3) II, III, IV and V (4) I, III, IV and V 39. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (v) (2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (4) (ii) (i) (iv) (v) 40. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given
below : I. Subject to legislation by Parliament, the power to declare any area as a ‘Scheduled
area’ is given to the President. II. The 5th Schedule of the Constitution deals with administration of ‘Scheduled Areas’
in Assam, Meghalaya and Tripura. III. The Government of the states having ‘Scheduled Areas’ have to submit reports to
the President regarding the administration of such ‘Areas’. IV. The executive power of the Union shall extend to giving directions to the respective
states regarding administration of the ‘Scheduled Areas’. Which of the above statements are correct ? Codes : (1) Only I and III (2) Only I and IV (3) Only I and II (4) Only II and III 41. Which one of the following is correctly matched about the outcome of the XVI Lok Sabha
elections ? (1) National Democratic Alliance : 336 seats and 35 percent vote share. (2) United Progressive Alliance : 54 seats and 23 percent vote share. (3) Left Front : 10 seats and 4.8 percent vote share. (4) Congress : 44 seats and 17 percent vote share.
I. ”ûÆü ¯ÖÏÖ®ŸÖÖë ´Öë ¾µÖ¾ÖãÖÖׯÖÛúÖ ×«üÃÖ¤ü®ÖßµÖ £Öß … II. ÝÖ¾ÖÔ®Ö¸ü •Ö®Ö¸ü»Ö ÛúÖê ãÖÖµÖß †×¬Ö×®ÖµÖ´Ö ²Ö®ÖÖ®Öê ÛúÖ †×¬ÖÛúÖ¸ü £ÖÖ ®Ö ×Ûú †¬µÖÖ¤êü¿Ö ²Ö®ÖÖ®Öê ÛúÖ … III. ×¾Ö¬ÖÖµÖ®Ö Ûúß †¾Ö׿Ö™ü ¿Ö׌ŸÖµÖÖÓ Ûëú¦üßµÖ ¾µÖ¾ÖãÖÖׯÖÛúÖ Ûêú ¯ÖÖÃÖ £Öà … IV. ×¾ÖÂÖµÖ Ûêú ºþ¯Ö ´Öë ׿ÖõÖÖ Ûëú¦üßµÖ ¾µÖ¾ÖãÖÖׯÖÛúÖ Ûêú ¯ÖÖÃÖ £Öß … V. Ûêú¾Ö»Ö ´Öã×Ã»Ö´Ö ÃÖ´Öã¤üÖµÖ ÛúÖê ¯Öé£ÖÛú ¯ÖÏןÖ×®Ö׬֟¾Ö ¯ÖÏÖ¯ŸÖ £ÖÖ … Ûæú™ü : (1) I, II, III †Öî ü V (2) II, IV †Öî ü V (3) II, III, IV †Öî ü V (4) I, III, IV †Öî ü V 39. ÃÖæ“Öß – I ÛúÖê ÃÖæ“Öß – II Ûêú ÃÖÖ£Ö ÃÖã´Öê×»ÖŸÖ Ûú¸ëü †Öî¸ü ®Öß“Öê פü‹ ÝÖ‹ Ûæú™ü ÛúÖ ¯ÖϵÖÖêÝÖ Ûú¸üŸÖê Æãü‹ ÃÖÆüß ˆ¢Ö¸ü “Öã×®Ö‹ :
×¾ÖßÖÖ׸üŸÖ ÆüÖêÝÖß … ˆ¯Ö¸üÖêŒŸÖ ´Öë ÃÖê ÛúÖî®Ö ÃÖÖ Ûú£Ö®Ö ÃÖÆüß Æîü ? Ûæú™ü : (1) Ûêú¾Ö»Ö I †Öî¸ü III (2) Ûêú¾Ö»Ö I †Öî¸ü IV (3) Ûêú¾Ö»Ö I †Öî¸ü II (4) Ûêú¾Ö»Ö II †Öî ü III
42. Match List – I with List – II and give the correct answer from the codes given below : List – I
(Author) List – II (Book)
(a) R.M. Jenkins (i) State Politics in India (b) Myron Weiner(ed) (ii) Language Religion and Politics in North India (c) Christophe
Jafferlot (iii) Regional Reflections Comparing Politics Across
India’s States (d) Paul R. Brass (iv) India’s Silent Revolution : The rise of the Low
Castes in North Indian Politics Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (2) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii) (3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (4) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) 43. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(1) Rajni Kothari – Congress system (2) Yogendra Yadav – Third Electoral System (3) Paul Brass – Disintegration of Congress
organisation (4) James Manor – Post-Congress polity
44. Who among the following wrote, “In the context of society today, the caste system and
much that goes with it are wholly incompatible, reactionary, restrictive, and barriers to progress.” ?
(1) B.R. Ambedkar (2) Jawaharlal Nehru (3) M.K. Gandhi (4) R.M. Lohia 45. Consider the following statements about lower courts and identify the false statements
from the codes given below : (a) The Panchayat Courts have only civil jurisdiction. (b) The Munsiff Courts are lower in hierarchy to the court of Subordinate Judges. (c) The Sessions cases are the more serious civil cases in the Court of the District
Judge. Codes : (1) (a) only (2) (a) and (b) (3) (a) and (c) (4) (a), (b) and (c)
46. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below : List – I (Books)
List – II (Authors)
(a) The Art of Judgment : A Study of Policy Making (i) Thomas R. Dye (b) Understanding Public Policy (ii) Herbert Simon (c) The New Science of Management Decision (iii) Sir Geoffrey Vickers (d) Personality and Organization (iv) Chris Argyris
Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) (2) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) (3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) 47. At present, Public Account Committee consists of 22 members : (1) 15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha. (2) 14 from Lok Sabha and 8 from Rajya Sabha. (3) 12 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha. (4) 11 from Lok Sabha and 11 from Rajya Sabha. 48. A horizontal grouping of specialized activities is attained in an organization that is : (1) Centralized (2) Integrated (3) Decentralized (4) Disintegrated 49. Which of the following statements about the Right to Information Act 2005 is/are
correct ? (a) The Act came into force in October 2005. (b) It repealed the Official Secrets Act, 1923. (c) It has not repealed the Freedom of Information Act, 2002. (d) It is available to Indian citizens only. Choose the correct answer from the codes given below : (1) (a) and (c) (2) (b) and (d) (3) (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (d) 50. Which one of the following is not included as a cause for disciplinary action against
public servants by L.D. White ? (1) Inefficiency (2) Long absence from duty (3) Immorality (4) Intoxication 51. The names associated with behavioural theory of organization are : (a) Chester Barnard (b) J.L. Moreno (c) Thomas Carlyle (d) A.H. Maslow Select the correct answer from the codes given below : (1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (3) (b) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d)
J-02-16 21 Paper-III
46. ÃÖæ“Öß – I ÛúÖê ÃÖæ“Öß – II Ûêú ÃÖÖ£Ö ÃÖã´Öê×»ÖŸÖ Ûú¸ëü †Öî¸ü ®Öß“Öê פü‹ ÝÖ‹ Ûæú™ü ÛúÖ ¯ÖϵÖÖêÝÖ Ûú¸üŸÖê Æãü‹ ˆ¢Ö¸ü “Öã×®Ö‹ : ÃÖæ“Öß – I (¯ÖãßÖÛëú)
52. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : Decision making is a process of selection and the aim is to select the best alternative.
Reason (R) : Decision making involves rationality. Codes : (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true. 53. Riggsian Agraria model is characterized by which of the following ? (a) Clan-based organization (b) Communalistic value (c) Impersonal human actions (d) Divine authority source Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (b), (c) and (d) (3) (a), (b) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) 54. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the codes given below : Assertion (A) : “The issue of decentralisation is more complex in concept and practice
than is generally acknowledged”. Reason (R) : ‘The dual role approach to decentralisation is a kind of rehearsal of the area
function dichotomy in a new setting.’ Codes : (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true. 55. Which one of the following was not supported by Taylor in his Scientific Management
theory ? (1) Efficiency evaluation experts (2) Concept of ‘Economic Man’ (3) Functional foremanship (4) Standardization of tools 56. Chester Barnard developed a concept in respect of acceptance of authority by a
subordinate from his manager. Identify it. (1) Motivation matrix (2) Decision making authority (3) Zone of indiffernce (4) Zone of coercive authority 57. Summarising the defects of bureaucracy, W.A. Robson did not include : (1) Excessive sense of self-importance. (2) Generalist dominated administrative system. (3) Indiffernce towards the feelings of individual citizens. (4) A failure to recognize the relations between the governors and the governed.
58. Max Weber and Fred W. Riggs have a commonality between them in the context of : (1) They constructed ideal type models. (2) They studied administrative systems in their environmental settings. (3) They concentrated on the problems of change. (4) They used deductive approach. 59. Upward communication is basically unconventional, but can be improved by : (a) Management to give evidence that it is really interested in the opinions of
employees. (b) Superior should state his own position before he listens to subordinates. (c) Chief should act upon the ideas and problems reported to him. (d) Superior should ask his subordinates for reactions to his own ideas. Select the correct answer from the codes given below : (1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (a) and (c) (3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d) 60. How many ways to embezzlement of government money have been mentioned by
Kautilya in his Arthasastra ? (1) 75 (2) 40 (3) 50 (4) 30 61. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I (Secretary General of UN)
List – II (Tenure)
(a) Kofi Annan (i) January 1972 to December 1981 (b) Boutros-Boutros Ghali (ii) January 1982 to December 1991 (c) Javier Perez de Cuellar (iii) January 1997 to December 2006 (d) Kurt Waldheim (iv) January 1992 to December 1996
Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 62. Which of the following rights is not included in the second generation human rights ? (1) Right to education (2) Right to health (3) Right to be free from torture and slavery (4) Right to housing
63. Which one of the following peace keeping operations of the United Nations is not an example of first generation peacekeeping operations ?
(1) UN Transitional Authority in Cambodia (2) UN Truce Supervision Organization (3) UN Emergency Force (4) UN Disengagement Observer Force 64. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I (Writer)
List – II (Idea)
(a) Immanual Wallerstein (i) Game theory (b) Von Newmann (ii) End of history (c) Morgenthau (iii) Realism (d) Francis Fukuyama (iv) Dependency theory
Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) (4) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii) 65. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the codes given below : Assertion (A) : Non-alignment policy was more relevant during cold war period. Reason (R) : Non-aligned countries are divided on ethnic and religious differences. Codes : (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true. 66. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the codes given below : Assertion (A) : American foreign policy supported the democratic regimes. Reason (R) : At times the military systems were also supported by America. Codes : (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
73. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Economic and Social Council of U.N. ? Choose your answer from the codes given below :
(i) The Council has 54 members. (ii) The Council generally hold several short sessions and many preparatory meetings,
and panel discussions with the members of civil society throughout the year. (iii) It also holds a three-week substantive session in July. (iv) Voting in the Council is by simple majority, each member has one vote. Codes : (1) (i), (ii), (iii) (2) (ii), (iii), (iv) (3) (i), (ii), (iv) (4) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) 74. According to Karen. A. Mingrt , which of the following conditions is not essential to make
first generation peacekeeping operations most effective ? (1) A clear and practical mandate or purpose for the operation. (2) U.S. forces must also be present in the peace-keeping operations. (3) Consent of the parties involved as to the mandate and composition of the force. (4) Strong financial and logistical support of the members of the UN Security Council. 75. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I (Term)
List – II (Contents)
(a) Preventive diplomacy
(i) It is like classical peace-keeping. It refers to the deployment of a UN force in the field with the consent of all parties.
(b) Peace making (ii) It involves developing social, political and economic infra-structure to prevent further violence and consolidate peace.
(c) Peace keeping (iii) It involves confidence-building measures, fact finding and preventive deployment of UN authorised forces.
(d) Post-conflict peace building
(iv) It is designed to bring hostile parties to agreement essentially through peaceful means.
Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)