1. Which of the following is NOT a step in the Continual Service
Improvement (CSI) model?a) What is the vision?b) Did we get
there?c) Is there budget?d) Where are we now?2. What is the RACI
model used for?a) Documenting the roles and relationships of
stakeholders in a process or activityb) Defining requirements for a
new service or processc) Analyzing the business impact of an
incident d) Creating a balanced scorecard showing the overall
status of Service Management3. What is the main reason for
establishing a baseline?a) To standardize operationb) For knowing
the cost of services providedc) For roles and responsibility to be
cleard) For later comparison4. Which of the following is NOT an
objective of Service Operation?a) Through testing, to ensure that
services are designed to meet business needsb) To deliver and
support IT servicesc) To manage the technology used to deliver
servicesd) To monitor the performance of technology and processes5.
Which of the following statements is CORRECT about patterns of
demand generated by the customers business?a) They are driven by
patterns of business activityb) It is impossible to predict how
they behavec) It is impossible to influence demand patternsd) They
are driven by the delivery schedule generated by capacity
management6. Which of the following is NOT one of the ITIL core
publications?a) Service Optimizationb) Service Transitionc) Service
Designd) Service Strategy7. Which of the following statements is
CORRECT?1. Only one person can be responsible for an activity2.
Only one person can be accountable for an activitya) All of the
aboveb) 1 onlyc) 2 onlyd) None of the above8. Which is the correct
sequence of events in the selection of a technology tool?a) Select
Product, Requirements, Selection Criteria, Evaluate Productb)
Selection Criteria, Requirements, Evaluate Product, Select
Productc) Requirements, Selection Criteria, Select Product,
Evaluate Productd) Requirements, Selection Criteria, Evaluate
Product, Select Product9. Which of the following are the three main
types of metrics as defined in Continual Service Improvement
(CSI)?1. Process Metrics2. Supplier Metrics3. Service Metrics4.
Technology Metrics5. Business Metricsa) 1, 2 and 3b) 2, 4 and 5c)
1, 3 and 4d) 1, 2 and 410. The priority of an Incident refers to?a)
The relative importance of the Incident based on impact and
urgencyb) The speed with which the Incident needs to be resolvedc)
The number of staff that will be assigned to work on the Incident
so that it is resolved in timed) The escalation path that will be
followed to ensure resolution of the incident11. The goal of
Service Asset and Configuration Management is to?a) Account for all
financial assets of the organizationb) Provide a logical model of
the IT infrastructure, correlating IT services and different IT
components needed to deliver the servicesc) Build service models to
justify the ITIL implementationsd) Implement ITIL across the
organization12. Which are the missing Service Operation processes
from the following?1. Incident Management2. Problem Management3.
Access Management4. ?5. ?a) Event management and Request
Fulfillmentb) Event Management and Service Deskc) Facilities
Management and Event Managementd) Change Management and Service
Level Management13. Which of the following identifies two Service
Portfolio components within the Service Lifecycle?a) Requirements
Portfolio and Service Catalogueb) Service Knowledge Management
System and Service Cataloguec) Service Knowledge Management System
and Requirements Portfoliod) Requirements Portfolio and
Configuration Management System14. Which of the following areas
would technology help to support during the Service Design phase of
the Lifecycle?1. Hardware and Software design2. Environmental
design3. Process design4. Data designa) 1, 3 and 4 onlyb) 1, 2 and
3 onlyc) All of the aboved) 2, 3 and 4 only15. Business drivers and
requirements for a new service should be considered during?a)
Review of the router operating system patchesb) Review of the
current capabilities of IT service deliveryc) The Post
Implementation Review (PIR) of a changed) Decommissioning legacy
servers16. The BEST definition of an event is?a) An occurrence
where a performance threshold has been exceeded and an agreed
Service Level has already been impactedb) An occurrence that is
significant for the management of the IT infrastructure or delivery
of servicesc) A known system defect that generates multiple
incident reportsd) A planned meeting of customers and IT staff to
announce a new service or improvement program17. What does the
Service V model represent?a) A strategy for the successful
completion of all Service Management projectsb) The path to Service
Delivery and Service Support for efficient and effective
utilization of resourcesc) Levels of Configuration and testing
required to deliver a Service Capabilityd) The business perspective
as perceived by the customer and the user of services18. Technical
Management is NOT responsible for?a) Maintenance of the technical
infrastructureb) Documenting and maintaining the technical skills
required to manage and support the IT infrastructurec) Defining the
Operational Level Agreements for the technical teamsd) Diagnosis
of, and recovery from, technical failures19. The following options
are considered within which process?1. Big bang vs. Phased2. Push
and Pull3. Automated vs. Manuala) Incident Managementb) Release and
Deployment Managementc) Service Asset and Configuration
Managementd) Service Catalogue Management20. Which of the following
activities is Service Level Management responsible for?a) Design
the configuration management system from a business perspectiveb)
Create technology metrics to align with customer needsc) Create a
customer facing service catalogued) Train service desk on how to
deal with customer complaints about service21. When analyzing an
outcome for creation of value for customers, what attributes of the
service should be considered?a) Objectives, Metric, Desired
outcomeb) Business Objectives, IT objectives, Process metricsc)
Desired outcome, Supplier metrics, IT objectivesd) People,
Products, Technology22. Setting policies and objectives is the
primary concern of which of the following elements of the Service
Lifecycle?a) Service Strategyb) Service Strategy and Continual
Service Improvementc) Service Strategy, Service Transition and
Service Operationd) Service Strategy, Service Design, Service
Transition, Service Operation and Continual Service Improvement23.
Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of Event
Management?a) The ability to detect events, make sense of them and
determine the appropriate control actionb) The ability to implement
monitoring toolsc) The ability to monitor and control the
activities of technical staffd) The ability to report on the
successful delivery of services by checking the uptime of
infrastructure devices24. Consider the following statements:1. CSI
provides guidance on how to improve process efficiency and
effectiveness2. CSI provides guidance on how to improve services3.
CSI provides guidance on the improvement of all phases of the
service lifecycle4. CSI provides guidance on the measurement of
processes and servicesWhich of the above statements is CORRECT?a) 1
and 2 onlyb) 2 onlyc) 1, 2 and 3 onlyd) All of the above25. Which
of the following statements are CORRECT about Functions?1. They
provide structure and stability to organizations2. They are
self-contained units with their own capabilities and resources3.
They rely on processes for cross-functional coordination and
control4. They are costlier to implement compared to processesa) 1,
2 and 3 onlyb) 1, 2 and 4 onlyc) All of the aboved) None of the
above26. If an organization is able to become more proactive in its
ITSM processes, what is likely to happen to support costs?a) They
are likely to increase graduallyb) They are likely to increase
dramaticallyc) They are likely to gradually reduced) They are
likely to reduce initially and then gradually return to current
level27. Which of the following statements about Supplier
Management is INCORRECT?a) Supplier Management negotiates internal
and external agreements to support the delivery of servicesb)
Supplier Management ensures that suppliers meet business
expectationsc) Supplier Management maintains information in a
Supplier and Contracts Databased) Supplier Management should be
involved in all stages of the service lifecycle, from Strategy
through Design and Transition to Operations and Improvement28.
Which of the following BEST describes a Local Service Desk
structure?a) A Service Desk that also provides onsite technical
support to its usersb) A Service Desk where analysts only speak one
languagec) A Service Desk that is situated in the same location as
the users it servesd) A Service Desk that could be in any physical
location but uses telecommunications and IT systems to make it
appear that they are in the same location29. What is the role of
the Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB)?a) To assist the Change
Manager in ensuring that no urgent changes are made during
particularly volatile business periodsb) To assist the Change
Manager in implementing emergency changesc) To assist the Change
Manager in evaluating emergency changes and to decide whether the
change should be approvedd) To assist the Change Manager in
speeding up the emergency change process so that no unacceptable
delays occur.30. Which of the following is a good use of a
baseline?a) The desired end state of a projectb) A marker or
starting point for later comparisonc) The current desktop models in
used) The type of testing to be done for a release31. The main
objective of Availability Management is?a) To monitor and report
availability of services and componentsb) To ensure that all
targets in Service Level Agreements (SLAs) are metc) To guarantee
availability levels for services and componentsd) To ensure that
service availability matches or exceeds the agreed needs of the
business32. Operations Control refers to?a) The managers of the
Technical and Applications Management functionsb) Overseeing the
execution and monitoring of IT operational events and activitiesc)
The tools used to monitor and display the status of the IT
Infrastructure and Applicationsd) The situation where the Service
Desk is required to monitor the status of the infrastructure when
Operators are not available33. Which off the following is a
characteristic of every process?1. It is measurable2. It is
timely3. It delivers a specific result4. It responds to a specific
event5. It delivers its primary result to a customer or
stakeholdera) 1, 2, 3 and 4 onlyb) 1, 2, 4 and 5 onlyc) 1, 3, 4 and
5 onlyd) All of the above34. Which of the following is NOT an
example of a Service Request?a) A user calls the Service Desk to
order a toner cartridgeb) A user calls the Service Desk because
they would like to change the functionality of an applicationc) A
Manager submits a request for a new employee to be given access to
an applicationd) A user logs onto an internal website to download a
licensed copy of software from a list of approved options35. A
Service Level Package is best described as?a) A definite level of
utility and warranty associated with a core service packageb) A
description of customer requirements used to negotiate a Service
Level Agreementc) A description of the value that the customer
wants and for which they are willing to payd) A document showing
the Service Levels achieved during an agreed reporting period36.
Incident Management has a value to the business by?a) Helping to
control infrastructure cost of adding new technologyb) Enabling
users to resolve Problemsc) Helping to align people and process for
the delivery of serviced) Contributing to the reduction of
impact37. A Service owner is responsible for which of the
following?a) Recommending improvementsb) Designing and documenting
a Servicec) Carrying out the Service Operations activities needed
to support a Serviced) Producing a balanced scorecard showing the
overall status of all Services38. The four stages of the Deming
Cycle are?a) Plan, Measure, Monitor, Reportb) Plan, Check, Re-Act,
Implementc) Plan, Do, Act, Auditd) Plan, Do, Check, Act39. What is
the CORRECT order of the first four activities in the 7 Step
Improvement Process?a) Define what you should measure, define what
you can measure, gather data and process datab) Gather data,
process data, analyze data and present datac) What is the vision,
where are we now, what do we want to be, how do we get there?d)
Gather data, process data, define what you should measure and
define what you can measure40. Which of the following statements is
CORRECT for all processes?a) They define activities, roles,
responsibilities, functions and metricsb) They create value for
stakeholdersc) They are carried out by a Service Provider in
support of a Customerd) They are units of organizations responsible
for specific outcomes
1. The ITIL V3 core is best described as?a) An Operations
Lifecycleb) An IT Management Lifecyclec) A Service Lifecycled) An
Infrastructure Lifecycle2. Which aspect of Service Design is
missing from the list below?1. The design of services2. The design
of Service Management systems and tools3. The design of technology
architecture and management systems4. The design of the processes
required5. ?a) The design of Functionsb) The design of Service
Level Agreementsc) The design of applicationsd) The design of
measurement systems, methods and metrics3. Which of the following
Roles is responsible for identifying opportunities for
improvement?1. Service Owner2. Continual Service Improvement (CSI)
Manager3. Process Ownera) 1 and 2 onlyb) 1 and 3 onlyc) All of the
aboved) 2 and 3 only4. Learning and improvement is the primary
concern of which of the following elements of the Service
Lifecycle?a) Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition,
Service Operation and Continual Service Improvementb) Service
Strategy, Service Transition and Service Operationc) Service
Operation and Continual Service Improvementd) Continual Service
Improvement5. Which of the following is the most appropriate
approach to carrying out Service Operations?a) The internal IT view
is most important as Service Operations has to monitor and manage
the infrastructureb) Service Operations should maintain a balance
between an internal IT view and an external business viewc) The
external business view is most important as Service Operations is
the place where value is realized and the customer obtains the
benefit of the servicesd) IT Operations does not take an internal
or external view as they execute processes defined by Service
Design6. Which of the following statements about the Service Desk
are CORRECT?1. The Service Desk is a function that provides a means
of communication between IT and its users for all operational
issues2. The Service Desk is always the owner of the Incident
Management processa) 2 onlyb) 1 onlyc) All of the aboved) None of
the above7. How does an organization use Resources and Capabilities
in creating value?a) They are used to create value in the form of
output for production managementb) They are used to create value in
the form of goods and servicesc) They are used to create value to
the IT organization for Service Supportd) They are used to create
value to the IT organization for Service Delivery8. In which core
publication can you find detailed descriptions of the following?1.
Service Portfolio Management2. Demand Management3. Financial
Managementa) Service Operationsb) Service Strategyc) Service
Transitiond) Continual Service Improvement9. Which of the following
statements BEST describes the role of Communication during Service
Operation?a) Communication is defined as part of all processes and
is executed in Service Operationb) Communication is a separate
process that needs to be defined and executed with Service
Operationc) Good communication is essential for successful Service
Operation, just as it is for any other phase of the Lifecycled)
Communication is more important in Service Operation than in any
other stage of the Service Lifecycle10. A Process owner is
responsible for which of the following?a) Purchasing tools to
support the Processb) Ensuring that targets specified in an SLA are
metc) Carrying out activities defined in the Processd) Monitoring
and improving the Process11. Demand Management is primarily used
to?a) Increase customer valueb) Eliminate excess capacity needsc)
Increase the value of ITd) Align business with IT cost12. Which of
the following is NOT an advantage of organizing Continual Service
Improvement (CSI) using the RACI model?a) Facilitates clear
communication and workflow practice across all parties involved in
the CSI programb) Clarifies the roles and responsibilities of
individual in the CSI program which could otherwise be overlapping
and confusingc) Identifies where internal Service Level Agreements
(SLAs) can be established to implement CSId) Provides a clear focus
for matching the CSI processes to financial planning13. Which of
the following are objectives of the Release and Deployment
Management process?1. To ensure there are clear release and
deployment plans2. To ensure that skills and knowledge are
transferred to operations and support staff3. To ensure there is
minimal unpredicted impact on production services4. To provide cost
justifiable IT capacity that is matched to the needs of the
businessa) 1, 2 and 3 onlyb) All of the abovec) 1 and 3 onlyd) 1, 3
and 4 only14. Which of the following questions is NOT answered by
Service Portfolio Management?a) How should our resources and
capabilities be allocated?b) What opportunities are there in the
market?c) Why should a customer buy these services?d) What are the
pricing or chargeback models?15. Which of the following statements
are NOT included in Access Management?1. Verifying the identity of
users requesting access to services2. Setting the rights or
privileges of systems to allow access to authorized users3.
Defining security policies for system access4. Monitoring the
availability of systems that users should have access toa) 3 and 4
onlyb) 1 and 3 onlyc) 2 and 3 onlyd) 1 and 2 only16. Application
Management is NOT responsible for?a) Documenting and maintaining
the technical skills required to manage and support Applicationsb)
Managing applications through their lifecyclec) Assisting in the
decision to build or buy new softwared) Developing operational
functionality required by the business17. If something cannot be
measured, it should not be documented within which of the
following?a) The Glossary of Termsb) A Service Level Agreementc) An
Incident Management recordd) A Configuration Item (CI)18. What is
the purpose of the Request Fulfillment Process?a) Dealing with
Service Requests from the usersb) Making sure all requests within
an IT Organization is fulfilledc) Ensuring fulfillment of Change
Requestsd) Making sure the Service Level Agreement is met19. Which
of the following areas would technology help to support during the
Service Transition phase of the lifecycle?1. Data mining and
workflow tools2. Measurement and reporting systems3. Release and
Deployment technology4. Process Designa) 1, 2 and 3 onlyb) 1, 3 and
4 onlyc) 2, 3 and 4 onlyd) All of the above20. Which of the
following statements is CORRECT about good practice?a) It can be
used to drive an organization forwardb) It is something that is in
wide industry usec) It is always documented in international
standardsd) It is always based on ITIL21. Consider the following
statements:1. A Process should be traceable to a specific trigger2.
A characteristic of the Process is that it is performance driven
and able to be measuredWhich of the above statements are CORRECT?a)
1 onlyb) All of the abovec) None of the aboved) 2 only22. Warranty
of a service means which of the following?a) The service is fit for
purposeb) There will be no failures in applications and
infrastructure associated with the servicec) All service-related
problems are fixed free of charge for a certain period of timed)
Customers are assured of certain levels of availability, capacity,
continuity and security23. The objective of Service Asset and
Configuration Management is most accurately described as?a) To
understand the performance characteristics of assets and
Configuration Items (CIs) in order to maximize their contribution
to service levelsb) To manage service assets and CIs from an
operational perspectivec) To ensure that assets and CIs deliver the
business outcomes they were designed to achieved) To define and
control the components of services and infrastructure and maintain
accurate configuration records24. A Service Catalogue should
contain which of the following?a) The version information of all
softwareb) The organizational structure of the companyc) Asset
informationd) Details of all operational services25. Facilities
Management refers to?a) The Management of IT services that are
viewed as utilities, such as printers or network accessb) The
Management of an outsourcing contractc) The Management of the
physical IT environment, such as a Data Centerd) The procurement
and maintenance of tools that are used by IT operations staff to
maintain the infrastructure26. When planning and implementing a
Continual Service Improvement (CSI) initiative, which of the
following benefits is LEAST useful in supporting a business case?a)
Reduce technology investment by $5m due to more accurate capacity
and performance modeling processesb) Reduce support manpower demand
by 30% due to automated incident and problem management processesc)
Improve employee morale and therefore create better relationships
between IT and business unitsd) Reduce Problem resolution by 50%
and minimize critical system outages27. Which of the following
would NOT be stored in the Definitive Media Library (DML)?a) Master
copies of softwareb) Backups of application datac) Software
licensesd) Master copies of controlled documentation28. The
objective of the Change Management process is most accurately
described as?a) Ensuring that all changes are recorded, managed,
tested and implemented in a controlled mannerb) Ensuring that
changes to IT infrastructure are managed efficiently and
effectivelyc) Ensuring that all changes have appropriate back-out
plans in the event of failured) Protecting services by not allowing
changes to be made29. Functions are best described as?a) Without
their own body of knowledgeb) Closed loop systemsc) Self-Contained
units of organizationsd) Focusing on transformation to a goal30.
What is the best definition of an Incident Model?a) The template
used to define the Incident logging form used to report Incidentsb)
A type of Incident involving a standard (or model) type of
Configuration Item (CI)c) A set of pre-defined steps to be followed
when dealing with a known type of Incidentd) An Incident that is
easy to solve31. Which of the following statements CORRECTLY
defines Insourcing and Outsourcing delivery model options?a)
Insourcing relies on internal resources; outsourcing relies on
external organization(s) resourcesb) Insourcing relies on external
organization(s) resources; outsourcing relies on internal
resourcesc) Insourcing relies on co-sourcing; outsourcing relies on
partnershipsd) Insourcing relies on knowledge process outsourcing;
outsourcing relies on application service provisioning32. Why
should monitoring and measuring be used when trying to improve
services?a) To validate, direct, justify and interveneb) To
validate, measure, monitor and changec) To validate, plan, act and
improved) To validate, assign resources, purchase technology and
train people33. A benefit of using Service Design tools is?a) To
help ensure that standards and conventions are followedb) To help
ensure that events are detected as quickly as possiblec) To help
enable different applications to work togetherd) To help implement
architectures that support the business strategy34. Which of the
following is the CORRECT description of the Four Ps of Service
Design?a) A four step process for the design of effective Service
Managementb) A definition of the people and products required for
successful designc) A set of questions that should be asked when
reviewing design specificationsd) The four major areas that need to
be considered in the design of effective Service Management35.
Consider the following statements:1. Service Transition provides
guidance on moving new and changed services into production2.
Service Transition provides guidance on testing3. Service
Transition provides guidance on the transfer of services to or from
an external service providerWhich of the above statements is
CORRECT?a) 1 and 2 onlyb) 1 onlyc) All of the aboved) 1 and 3
only36. Which is the first activity of the Continual Service
Improvement (CSI) model?a) Assess the current business situationb)
Understand high-level business requirementsc) Agree on priorities
for improvementd) Create and verify a plan37. An Incident occurs
when:1. A user is unable to access a service during service hours2.
An authorized IT staff member is unable to access a service during
service hours3. A redundant network segment fails, and the user is
not aware of any disruption to service4. A user contacts the
Service Desk about slow performance of an applicationWhich of the
above statements is CORRECT?a) All of the aboveb) 1 and 4 onlyc) 2
and 3 onlyd) None of the above38. Which process reviews Operational
Level Agreements (OLAs) on a regular basis?a) Supplier Managementb)
Service Level Managementc) Service Portfolio Managementd) Contract
Management39. The 7 Step Improvement Process can most accurately be
described as?a) The Seven Ps of Continual Service Improvement
(CSI)b) A service improvement methodology based on the Deming
Cyclec) A set of roles and responsibilities for managing service
improvementsd) A process for defining what is to be measured,
gathering the data, processing the data and using it to take
corrective action40. The Information Security Policy should be
available to which groups of people?a) Senior business managers and
all IT staffb) Senior business managers, IT executives and the
Security Managerc) All customers, users and IT staffd) Information
Security Management staff onlyAnswers to ITIL V3 Sample Paper 2:01.
c. 02. d. 03. c 04. d. 05. b. 06. d. 07. b. 08. b. 09. c. 10. d.11.
b. 12. d. 13. a. 14. b. 15. a. 16. d. 17. b. 18. a. 19. a. 20.
b.21. b. 22. d. 23. d. 24. d. 25. c. 26. c. 27. b. 28. a. 29. c.
30. c31. a. 32. a. 33. a. 34. d. 35. c. 36. b. 37. a. 38. b. 39. d.
40. c.
1. Which of the following best means Combination of Internal
& External Sourcing? A. Internal Sourcing-. B. External
Sourcing C. Co-Sourcing D. Managed Services2. Major Incidents
require? A. Separate procedures B. Less urgency C. Longer
timescales D. Less documentation 3. Which of the following CANNOT
be stored and managed by a tool? A. Knowledge B. Information C.
Wisdom D. Data 4. The spell check module of a word-processing
software package contains a number of errors. The Development
department has corrected these errors in a new version. Which
process is responsible for ensuring this updated version is tested?
A. Configuration Management B. Incident Management C. Problem
Management D. Release Management 5. The Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle can
be used to plan and implement Service Management Processes: How
many times should each stage of the cycle be visited? A. There
should be a single Plan and Do, and then Check and Act should be
carried out multiple times to Implement Continual Improvement B.
Each stage should be carried out once in the order
Plan-Do-Check-Act C. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple
times to Implement Continual Improvement D. There should be a
single %n. then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated multiple
times to Implement Continual improvement 6. Consider the following
statements: 1. Processes should be implemented in such a way that
the Role and Function in an organization are defined 2. The RACI
model Is beneficial to design Function Which of the above
statements are CORRECT? A. 1 Only B. Both of the above C. Neither
of the above D. 2 only7. Which of the following is the process
rather than a department? A. Application Management B. Operations
Management C. Service Desk D. Availability Management 8. Which of
the following statements fully describes the aim of Release and
Deployment Management? A. To build, test and deliver the capability
to provide the services specified by Service Design and that will
accomplish the stakeholders requirements and deliver the Intended
objectives B. To ensure that each release package specified by
Service Design consists of a set of related assets and service
components that are compatible with each other C. To ensure that
all release and deployment packages can be tracked, installed,
tested, verified, and/or uninstalled or backed out if appropriate
D. To record and manage deviations, risks, and issues related to
the new or changed service9. Which of the following may be defined
in a process? 1. Roles 2. Activities 3. Functions 4. Guidelines 5.
Standards 6. Governance Framework A. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only B. All of
the above C. 1. 2, 5 and 6 only D. 1, 2, 4, and 5 only 10. A
Service Provider is? A. An organization supplying services to one
or more external customers B. An organization supplying services to
one or more internal customers or external customers C. An
organization supplying services to one or more internal customers
D. An organization supplying IT services11. Which ITIL process has
the objective of helping to monitor the IT services by maintaining
a logical model of the IT infrastructure and IT services? A.
Capacity Management B. Change Management C. Configuration
Management D. Financial Management for IT services 12. The Design
Manager Is responsible for the overall coordination and deployment
of quality solution designs for services and processes. Which of
the following are NOT responsibilities included In this role? A.
Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition Packages B.
Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved
services, technology architecture, processes or measurement systems
that meet all the agreed current and future IT requirements of the
organization C. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they
are reflected in the Service Design process and the service designs
that are produced D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of
the Service Design and supporting processes13. Of which ITIL
process are Reliability, Serviceability and Maintainability
components? A. IT Service Continuity Management B. Service Level
Management C. Problem Management D. Availability Management14.
Which of the following statements is true about Access Management?
A. The Process responsible for allowing Users to make use of IT
Services, data, or other Assets. B. Access Management helps to
protect the Confidentiality, Integrity and Availability of Assets
by ensuring that only authorized Users are able to access or modify
the Assets. C. Access Management is sometimes referred to as Rights
Management or Identity Management. D. All of above15. What aspects
would you not expect to see in a Service Level report designed for
the customer? A. The average utilization level of the Service Desk
B. The level of availability realized and the time not available
per period C. The percentage of incidents that was resolved within
the target D. The successful and reverted Changes during a specific
period 16. Availability Management is responsible for availability
of? A. Services and Resources B. Services and Business Processes C.
Resources and Business Processes D. Services, Resources and
Business Processes 17. What is the difference between a process and
a project? A. A process is continuous and has no end date, whereas
a project has a finite lifespan. B. A project is continuous and has
no end date, whereas a process has a finite lifespan. C. A process
stops when the objective has been achieved, whereas a project does
not stop when the objective is met. D. In a project the focus is
not on the result, whereas with a process the result is important
18. Which of the following is the correct set of steps for the
Continual Service improvement (CSI) Model? A. Devise a strategy;
Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the
Solution; continually improve B. Where do we want to be?; How do we
get there?; How do we check we arrived; How do we keep the momentum
going? C. identifies the required business outcomes; Plan how to
achieve the outcomes; Implement the plan; Check the plan has been
properly implemented; improve the solution D. What is the vision?;
Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?;
Did we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going? 19. What is
the meaning of the term Serviceability? A. The degree of
availability of the IT services that can be offered B. The degree
of support that the Service Desk provides to the customer C. The
degree to which the provision of IT services can be supported by
maintenance contracts D. The degree to which the services agreed in
the Service Level Agreement (SLA) are complied with 20. A user
reports a PC problem to the Service Desk. A Service Desk
representative determines that the PC is defective and indicates
that according to the services catalogue, the PC will be replaced
within three hours. Which ITIL process is responsible for having
this user's PC replaced within three hours? A. Availability
Management B. Change Management C. Configuration Management D.
Service Level Management 21. Which of the following statements is
CORRECT? A The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the
Known Error Data Base (KEDB) B. The Service Knowledge Management
System (SKMS) is part of the CMS C. The KEDB and the CMS form part
of the larger SKMS D. The CMS is partof the Configuration
Management Data Base (CMDB) 22. Information is regularly exchanged
between Problem Management and Change Management. What information
is this? A. Known Errors from Problem Management, on the basis of
which Change Management can generate Requests for Change (RFCs) B.
RFCs resulting from Known Errors C. RFCs from the users that
Problem Management passes on to Change Management D. RFCs from the
Service Desk that Problem Management passes on to Change Management
23. Which form of outsourcing provides domain based business
expertise? A. Application Service Provision B. Business Process
Outsourcing C. Knowledge Process Outsourcing D. Co-Sourcing 24.
Where are activities documented with the aim of improving an IT
service? A. Service Catalogue B. Service Improvement Program C.
Service Level Agreement (SLA) D. Service Quality Plan (SQP) 25.
Changes are divided into categories. What criterion defines a
category for a change? A. The consequences of the change such as
limited, substantial, significant, etc. B. The speed with which the
change is made C. The sequence in which the change is made D. The
Request for Change number that the change is assigned 26. In IT
Service Continuity Management various precautionary measures are
taken, for example using an emergency power provision. Which of the
following ITIL processes could also initiate this kind of measure?
A. Availability Management B. Capacity management C. Change
Management D. Incident Management 27. What is a request to replace
something within the IT infrastructure called? A. Replacement
Request B. Request for Change C. Request for Release D. Service
Request 28. Which ITIL process manager requires a report specifying
the duration of an interruption of a Configuration Item? A.
Availability Manager B. Incident Manager C. Problem Manager D.
Service Level Manager29. Which of the following steps from the
continual improvement Model is missing? 1. What Is the vision? 2.
Where are we now? 3. Where do we want to be? 4. How do we get
there? 5. Did we get there? 6.? A. What is the ROI B. How much did
it cost. C. How do we keep the momentum going. D. What is the
VOI?30. Which of the following best describes the goal of
Information Security Management Process? A. To align IT security
with business security and ensure that information security is
effectively managed in all service and Service Management
activities. B. To ensure that that the information security risks
are appropriately managed and enterprise information resources are
used responsibly. C. To provide a focus for all aspects of IT
security and manage all IT security activities. D. To provide the
strategic direction for security activities and ensures objectives
are achieved 31. Which of the following statements about Supplier
and Contract Database (SCD) are correct? 1. A database or
structured Document used to manage Supplier Contracts throughout
their Lifecycle. 2. The SCD contains key Attributes of all
Contracts with Suppliers3. Its never part of the Service Knowledge
Management System. 4. Maintaining it is responsibility of Supplier
management process A. 1 & 2 only B. 1, 2 & 3 C. 1, 2 &
4 D. All of above 32. Which of the following will complete the Four
P's of Service Design? 1. Perspectives 2. Positioning 3. Plan 4.
??? A. People B. Product C. Patterns D. Partners 33. What does Mean
Time to Repair (MTTR) mean? A. Average uptime of a service B.
Average downtime of a service C. Average time between two
consecutive incidents D. Average time of the breakdown-free period
within a measured period34. Which of the following statements is
true about the term Event? A. A change of state which has
significance for the management of a Configuration Item or IT
service. B. The term Event is also used to mean an Alert or
notification created by any IT Service, configuration Item or
Monitoring tool. C. Events typically require IT Operations
personnel to take actions, and often lead to Incidents being logged
D. All of above 35. Which of the following is the best description
of the contents of the Definitive Media Library (DML)? A. Copies of
all software versions that are needed B. Copies of all live
software programs C. Authorized versions of all software used on
the infrastructure D. Software awaiting user acceptance testing36.
Application Portfolio 1. A database or structured Document used to
manage Applications throughout their Lifecycle. 2. The Application
Portfolio contains key Attributes of all Applications. 3. The
Application Portfolio is sometimes implemented as part of the
Service Portfolio, or as part of the Configuration Management
System. Which of the above statements is correct? A. 1 only B. 2
& 3only C. All of above D. 1 & 2 only37. Which of the
following best describes Fault Tolerance? A. The ability of an IT
Service or Configuration Item to continue to operate correctly
after Failure of a Component part. B. The ability of a third-party
supplier to meet the terms of their contract. Often this contract
will include agreed levels of availability, reliability and/or
maintainability for a supporting service or component. C. A measure
of how quickly and effectively a service, component or CI can be
restored to normal working after a failure. D. A measure of how
long a service, component or CI can perform its agreed function
without interruption 38. Which of the following questions is NOT
answered by Capacity Plan? A. Capacity Forecasts B. Recommendations
C. Components and resource forecasts D. Countermeasures for
risks39. How can an organization determine the effectiveness of the
Service Level Management process? A. By checking contracts with
suppliers B. By measuring customer satisfaction C. By defining
service levels D. By reporting on all incidents40. What is the
first activity when implementing a release?A. Designing and
building a releaseB. Testing a releaseC. Compiling the release
scheduleD. Communicating and preparing the release