Instruments Question Bank

Instruments Feedback Supplement Last amended 8/02/02

Temperature 1. Which formula is used to derive total temperature, TT, from static

temperature, TS?

(a) TT = TS(1 + 0.2M2) (b) TT = TS(1 + 0.2KRM2) (c) TT = TS ÷ (1 + 0.2KRM2) (d) TT = TS(1 – 0.2M2)

2. TAT is

(a) SAT + ram rise in temperature due to adiabatic compression (b) ram rise in temperature due to adiabatic compression (c) SAT – ram rise in temperature due to adiabatic compression (d) SAT + correction for the ratio of Mach number to TAS

3. Total Air Temperature is always ..............than Static Air temperature

and the difference varies with.........................

(a) warmer altitude (b) colder altitude (c) warmer CAS (d) colder CAS

Altimeter 1. An aircraft is flying at an indicated altitude of 16,000ft. The outside air

temperature is –30ºC. What is the true altitude of the aircraft?

(a) 16,200ft (b) 15,200ft (c) 18,600ft (d) 13,500ft

2. Density altitude is:

(a) the altitude in the standard atmosphere at which density is equal to density in the standard atmosphere

(b) the pressure altitude corrected for the prevailing temperature (c) the temperature altitude (d) pressure corrected

Bristol Groundschool Instruments Feedback

3. QNH is

(a) the airfield barometric pressure (b) the setting that will give an altimeter indication of zero at the

airfield (c) the equivalent sea level pressure at the airfield (d) the setting that will indicate the aircraft height

4. A vibrator may be fitted to an altimeter to overcome

(a) friction (b) hysterysis (c) lag (d) pressure error

5. On board an aircraft true altitude is shown from

(a) the standard atmosphere (b) the pressure altitude (c) the density altitude (d) the temperature altitude

6. An aircraft at a constant true altitude flies into a colder air mass. The

altimeter will

(a) over read (b) under read (c) read correctly (d) either over or under read depending on the ISA deviation

7. An aircraft is flying at a constant indicated altitude over a warm

airmass. The altimeter reading will be

(a) correct (b) greater than the true altitude (c) less than the true altitude (d) oscillating about the correct altitude

8. There are two altimeters on an aircraft. One is compensated for

position error and one is not. What will happen?

(a) one will over read at high TAS (b) ATC will receive erroneous information from the SSR (c) the ADC compensates and there will be no error (d) one will under read at high TAS

9. An aircraft has two static sources either side of the fuselage, the one on

the right is blocked. In a sideslip to the right which of the following statements will be correct?

(a) The altimeter will over read (b) The altimeter will under read (c) The altimeter will read correctly (d) The altimeter could over read or under read


ASI 1. CAS is IAS corrected for

(a) position and instrument error (b) temperature error (c) density error (d) compressibility

2. VMO is calculated from

(a) CAS (b) TAS (c) COAS (d) EAS

3. Descending from FL 390 at maximum groundspeed the pilot will be

limited by

(a) VMO initially then MMO at a specified altitude (b) MMO initially then VMO at a specified altitude (c) VNE initially then MMO at a specified altitude (d) VNO initially then VNE at a specified altitude

4. VNO is the maximum speed

(a) at which the pilot can fully deflect the controls (b) which should only be exceeded in still air and with caution (c) in level flight and should never be exceeded (d) for flap or gear extension

5. At a constant weight, irrespective of altitude the aircraft always lifts off

at the same

(a) EAS (b) TAS (c) groundspeed (d) CAS

6. If an ASI is fitted with a “barber’s pole” what does it indicate?

(a) VMO and altitude (b) VMO and temperature (c) VNO (d) VNE

7. If an ASI pitot source is blocked, the drain hole is blocked and the

static source is open the ASI will

(a) read zero (b) under read (c) over read (d) behave like an altimeter


8. VFE is the maximum speed that

(a) the flaps can be operated (b) the flaps can be extended in the take-off configuration (c) the flaps can be extended in the landing configuration (d) the flaps can be extended in a specified configuration

9. If the pitot tube and drains are blocked by icing in the cruise during

the descent the ASI will

(a) read a constant airspeed (b) under read (c) over read (d) read zero

10. At sea level in ISA conditions TAS

(a) equals CAS (b) is greater than CAS (c) is less than CAS (d) is greater than EAS

11. The upper and lower limits of the yellow arc on an ASI are Lower limit Upper limit

(a) VLO VNE (b) VLE VNE (c) VNO VNE (d) VLO VLE

12. The blue line on the ASI of a twin engine piston aircraft indicates

(a) VYSE (b) VNO (c) VFE (d) VMCA

13. The white arc on an ASI indicates

(a) VSO at the lower end and VLE at the upper end (b) VS0 at the lower end and VFE at the upper end (c) VF0 at the lower end and VFE at the upper end (d) VS1 at the lower end and VLO at the upper end

14. If the pitot tube in an unpressurised aircraft is leaking and the pitot

drain is blocked the ASI will

(a) under read (b) over read (c) over read in the climb and under read in the descent (d) under read in the climb and over read in the descent


15. An ASI circuit consists of pressure sensors. The pitot probe measures

(a) total pressure and static pressure (b) dynamic pressure (c) static pressure (d) total pressure

16. When descending through an isothermal layer at constant CAS the TAS

(a) increases at a linear rate (b) increases at an exponential rate (c) remains the same (d) decreases

Mach Meter 1. The machmeter consists of

(a) an airspeed indicator with a Mach scale (b) an airspeed indicator with an altimeter capsule (c) an altimeter corrected for density (d) an altimeter combined with a VSI

2. The indications of a Mach meter are independent of:

(a) temperature (b) static pressure (c) differential static and dynamic pressure (d) dynamic pressure

3. Mach number is defined as the ratio of

(a) IAS to LSS (b) TAS to LSS (c) CAS to LSS (d) EAS to LSS

4. An aircraft flying level at FL270 at constant CAS experiences a

reduction in OAT. The Mach number

(a) decreases (b) increases (c) remains the same (d) increases or decreases depending on whether the temperature is

greater or less than ISA 5. The speed of sound at sea level in ISA conditions is:

(a) 664kt (b) 661kt (c) 595kt (d) 580kt


6. The speed of sound at 28,000ft and –28ºC is:

(a) 625kt (b) 620kt (c) 600kt (d) 610kt

7. The speed of sound at 30,000ft and –40ºC is:

(a) 560kt (b) 595kt (c) 580kt (d) 661kt

8. A constant CAS is maintained in the climb. The Mach number

(a) remains constant (b) increases (c) decreases (d) increases then decreases

VSI 1. If the static vent on an unpressurised aircraft becomes blocked what

should you do?

(a) open the window (b) break the VSI glass (c) compute the altitude mathematically (d) select the standby pitot source

2. Lag on a VSI is reduced by

(a) a bi-metallic strip (b) two dashpots that respond to acceleration (c) electronic compensation (d) a return spring


ADC 1. The air data computer obtains altitude information from

(a) outside air temperature (b) barometric data from the static source (c) time elapsed for a signal to travel to the surface and back (d) the difference between absolute and dynamic pressure

2. What are the inputs to the Air Data Computer?

(i) OAT (ii) dynamic pressure (iii) TAT (iv) static pressure (v) electrical power (vi) pitot pressure (vii) AOA

(a) (i) (ii) (v) and (vi) (b) all seven (c) (iii) (iv) and (vi) (d) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) and (vii)

3. The advantages of an Air Data Computer over a traditional pitot and

static system are

(i) position error and compressibility are corrected (ii) lag is reduced (iii) many instruments can be supplied (iv) it acts as an altimeter following a failure

(a) (i) (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) (ii) and (iv) (c) (ii) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) (iii) and (iv)

Gyroscopes 1. A two axis gyro measuring vertical changes will have

(a) one degree of freedom, a vertical axis (b) two degrees of freedom, a vertical axis (c) one degree of freedom, a horizontal axis (d) two degrees of freedom, a horizontal axis


2. The properties of a gyro are

(i) rigidity (ii) precession (iii) inertia

(a) (i) (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (i) and (ii)

3. A DGI has

(a) one degree of freedom and a horizontal spin axis (b) two degrees of freedom and a horizontal spin axis (c) two degrees of freedom and a vertical spin axis (d) one degree of freedom and a vertical spin axis

4. The vertical reference of a data generator unit is

(a) vertical axis with two degrees of freedom (b) horizontal axis with one degree of freedom (c) vertical axis with one degree of freedom (d) horizontal axis with two degrees of freedom

5. A rate integrating gyro is used in the

(i) inertial attitude unit (ii) autopilot system (iii) stabiliser servo mechanism (iv) inertial navigation unit (v) rate of turn indicator

(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) and (v) (c) (ii) (iii) and (v) (d) (ii) (iii) and (iv)

6. The factors which will affect a turn indicator are

(i) angle of bank (ii) aircraft speed (iii) aircraft weight

(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) (ii) and (iii)


7. The indications from a Rate of Turn indicator are

(a) inversely proportional to TAS (b) proportional to TAS (c) independent of TAS (d) proportional to weight

8. When the turn indicator is used in association with an attitude

indicator it will show

(i) angular velocity about the yaw axis (ii) direction of turn (iii) angular velocity about a true vertical axis (iv) speed of turn

(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)

9. The maximum drift of a gyroscope because of earth rate is

(a) 90º an hour (b) 180º an hour (c) 15º an hour (d) 5º an hour

10. An aircraft is flying a northerly true track from latitude 05ºS to latitude

05ºN. The apparent wander rate is:

(a) 0º an hour (b) +5º an hour (c) -5º an hour (d) 10º an hour

11. The errors of a DGI are

(i) earth rate (ii) transport wander (iii) banking when pitched up (iv) annual movement of the poles (v) mechanical problems

(a) (ii) (iii) and (v) (b) (iii) (iv) and (v) (c) (i) (ii) (iii) and (v) (d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) and (v)


12. When turning through 90º at a constant attitude and bank a classic artificial horizon will indicate:

(a) too much nose up and too low a bank angle (b) too much nose up and too high a bank angle (c) too much nose up and the correct bank angle (d) correct attitude and bank angle

13. In order to obtain heading information from a gyro stabilised platform

the gyros should have

(a) one degree of freedom and a vertical axis (b) two degrees of freedom and a horizontal axis (c) one degree of freedom and a horizontal axis (d) two degrees of freedom and a vertical axis

14. The properties of a turn indicator are

(i) one degree of freedom (ii) two degrees of freedom (iii) two springs connected to the aircraft frame (iv) a spin axis in the longitudinal plane (v) a spin axis parallel to the yaw axis (vi) a horizontal spin axis

(a) (i) and (vi) (b) (ii) and (v) (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (vi)

15. Which instrument uses a gravity erecting device on a vertical

gyroscope?

(a) a directional gyro unit (b) an artificial horizon (c) a turn indicator (d) a remote indicating magnetic compass

16. If a turn and slip indicator shows the needle displaced to the left and

the ball to the right it indicates:

(a) a right turn with not enough bank (b) a left turn with too much bank (c) a left turn with not enough bank (d) a right turn with too much bank

17. If the needle and ball of a turn and slip indicator are both displaced to

the right what does it indicate?

(a) a turn to the left and too much bank (b) a turn to the right and too much bank (c) a turn to the left and too little bank (d) a turn to the right and too little bank


18. What angle of bank would be required for a rate one turn at 120kts?

(a) 12º (b) 18º (c) 30º (d) 35º

19. The purpose of the latitude nut in a DI is to correct for

(a) latitude error (b) earth rate (c) transport wander (d) coriolis error

20. In a slightly banked turn the turn needle will indicate

(a) roll rate (b) yaw rate (c) angular velocity about the vertical axis (d) pitch rate

21. An artificial horizon has

(a) one degree of freedom and a horizontal axis (b) two degrees of freedom and a horizontal axis (c) one degree of freedom and a vertical axis (d) two degrees of freedom and a vertical axis

22. The rigidity of a gyro is improved by

(a) increasing the rpm and concentrating the mass on the periphery of the rotor

(b) increasing the rpm and concentrating the mass at the hub of the rotor

(c) decreasing the rpm and concentrating the mass on the periphery of the rotor

(d) decreasing the rpm and concentrating the mass at the hub of the rotor

23. An aircraft fitted with a classic artificial horizon conducts a level right

turn visually at a constant angle of bank and speed. After 270º the artificial horizon indication is:

(a) nose up, turn over reads (b) nose up, turn under reads (c) nose up wings level (d) correct in bank and pitch


24. In a DGI what error is caused by movement of the gyroscope relative to the earth?

(a) Earth Rate (b) Transport Wander (c) Real Wander (d) Latitude Error

25. An aircraft is turning right while taxying. The correct turn and slip

indications are

(a) needle left, ball right (b) needle left, ball left (c) needle right, ball left (d) needle right, ball right

Compasses 1. An aircraft fitted with a direct reading magnetic compass landing in a

northerly direction will indicate

(a) no change (b) an oscillation about north (c) a turn towards east (d) a turn towards west

2. Which of the following will not affect a direct reading magnetic

compass?

(a) ferrous metals (b) non-ferrous metals (c) electrical equipment (d) magnetic fields

3. The main cause of error in a direct reading magnetic compass is

(a) parallax (b) turning (c) magnetic deviation (d) latitude error

4. The torque motor of a gyro stabilised magnetic compass

(a) takes its input from the flux valve (b) moves the heading pointer (c) moves the selsyn stator (d) precesses the directional gyro


5. A factor leading to an error on a direct reading magnetic compass would be

(a) crosswinds, particularly on east/west headings (b) parallax because of oscillations of the compass card (c) acceleration on east/west headings (d) turning through east/west headings

6. An aircraft fitted with a direct reading magnetic compass takes off on a

westerly heading in the northern hemisphere. The compass will indicate:

(a) a turn to the north (b) a turn to the south (c) an oscillation about west (d) no turn

7. In a gyro magnetic compass the flux gate transmits information to the

(a) heading indicator (b) error detector (c) amplifier (d) erecting system

8. An aircraft is taking off on a runway heading of 045º in still air with no

deviation, the airfield is on an agonic line in the northern hemisphere. What will the compass indicate?

(a) The compass indicates less than 045º (b) The compass indicates more than 045º (c) The compass stays on 045º if the wings are level (d) The compass stays on 045º

9. True heading can be converted into magnetic heading using a compass

and

(a) a deviation card (b) a map with isogonal lines (c) a map with isoclinal lines (d) a fly-by card

10. The flux valve in a remote indicating magnetic compass

(a) is supplied with AC (b) is fed with DC (c) is made of perm-alloy magnetic steel (d) has its own self-exciter unit

11. A compass swing is used to

(a) align magnetic north with true north (b) align compass north with magnetic north (c) align compass north with true north (d) align true north with the lubber line


12. Which of the following will affect a direct reading magnetic compass?

(a) hard iron affected by geomagnetic force (b) soft iron (c) hard iron and soft iron effect hard iron (d) mild iron

13. An aircraft fitted with a direct reading magnetic compass is landing in a

southerly direction in the southern hemisphere. The compass will indicate:

(a) an 180º turn to the east (b) no turn (c) a turn to the west (d) an oscillation about 180º

Inertial Navigation 1. What is the Schuler period?

(a) 21 minutes (b) 84 minutes (c) one oscillation in azimuth (d) 63 minutes

2. The Inertial Reference Mode Panel of an IRS is programmed with co-

ordinates during alignment in order to

(a) establish the trihedron with reference to the earth (b) establish true or magnetic heading (c) check the function of the laser gyros (d) compensate for aircraft movement

3. The selections available on an IRS Mode Select Unit are, in order,

(a) OFF ATT ALIGN NAV (b) OFF STBY ALIGN ATT NAV (c) OFF STBY ALIGN NAV ATT (d) OFF ALIGN NAV ATT


FMS and EFIS 1. What is displayed on the Primary Flight Display?

(a) engine data (b) the flight path (c) weather (d) system data

2. The inputs to the FMS are

(i) radio aids (ii) engine parameters (iii) air data (iv) route data (v) terminal data (vi) operating data

(a) (i) (iii) (iv) and (vi) (b) (ii) (iii) (iv) and (v) (c) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) and (vi) (d) (i) (ii) (iii) and (vi)

3. A cost index of zero on an FMS is

(a) minimum time (b) minimum range (c) maximum range (d) maximum time

4. The first page on an FMS CDU is

(a) PERF INIT (b) TAKEOFF REF (c) INDEX (d) IDENT

5. Which of the following are valid FMS CDU entries for published

waypoint identifiers stored in the database (5 characters maximum)?

(i) Airport ICAO identifier (ii) Waypoint name (iii) Navaid identifier (iv) Runway number (v) Airport 3 letter code (vi) Navaid name

(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) (ii) (iii) and (iv) (c) (iii) (iv) and (v) (d) all six are valid


Warning & Recording 1. A radio altimeter is

(a) ground based and measures the true altitude (b) ground based and measures the true height (c) aircraft based and measures the true altitude (d) aircraft based and measures the true height

2. A modern radio altimeter uses the frequency band:

(a) VHF (b) SHF (c) UHF (d) HF

3. What is the frequency for a low altitude radio altimeter?

(a) 150GHz - 700GHz (b) 1200 MHz - 1500 MHz (c) 4200 MHz - 4400MHz (d) 3 GHz

4. Radio altimeters use:

(a) AM (b) FM (c) pulse modulation (d) pulse FM

5. The radio altimeter is used for accurate height indication between:

(a) 50ft and 2450ft (b) 0ft and 5000ft (c) 50ft and 2700ft (d) 0ft and 2500ft

6. When an aircraft is on the ground, the radio altimeter will read zero

because of:

(i) gain reduction in received signal (ii) compensation for the aerial height above ground (iii) compensation for the beam width (iv) allowance for signal path within the aircraft (v) co-located transmit and receive aerials (vi) frequency modulation of the transmitted signal

(a) (i) and (vi) (b) (ii) (iv) and (v) (c) (i) (iv) and (vi) (d) (ii) and (iv)


7. The input(s) to a basic stall warning system are:

(a) angle of attack (b) IAS (c) Slat/flap position (d) MNO

8. JAR OPS requires the Flight Data Recorder to be fitted:

(a) at the back of the aircraft (b) at the front of the aircraft (c) in the wings (d) in the undercarriage bay

9. A Flight Data Recorder fitted to an aircraft of over 5700lbs after April

1998 must be capable of recording specified parameters for not less than:

(a) 10 hours (b) 25 hours (c) 30 minutes (d) 60 minutes

10. Which of the following aircraft, weighing over 5700kg, require a Flight

Data Recorder to be fitted?

(i) turboprop (ii) piston engine (iii) turbojet

(a) (i) (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii) (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iii)

11. The Flight Data Recorder starts running:

(a) at the beginning of the take-off run (b) before the aircraft starts moving under its own power (c) when the gear is retracted (d) when the aircraft lines up on runway

12. According to JAR OPS when must the Cockpit Voice Recorder on a 50

seat turbo prop aircraft begin and end recording?

(a) from the first time power is applied to the aircraft to the time all power is removed

(b) from before the aircraft is capable of moving under its own power to after the aircraft is no longer capable of moving under its own power

(c) from lift off to when the weight on wheels switch is made on landing

(d) from commencement of the taxy to turning off the runway after landing


13. The Flight Data and Cockpit Voice Recorders for an aircraft over

5700kg and registered before 1998 must record certain parameters for:

(a) 25 hours and 30 minutes respectively (b) 24 hours and 60 minutes respectively (c) 15 hours and 60 minutes respectively (d) 48 hours and 15 minutes respectively

14. Which of the following will be recorded by a Cockpit Voice Recorder?

(i) cabin crew conversations (ii) cabin crew conversation on intercom (iii) PA announcements when not selected on flight deck (iv) Radio conversations (v) PA announcements only when selected on the flight deck (vi) Navigation aid identification (vii) The aural environment of the flight deck

(a) (iv) and (vii) (b) (ii) (iii) (iv) and (v) (c) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (vi) and (vii) (d) (iv) (v) (vi) and (vii)

15. An altitude alerting system must at least be capable of alerting the crew

on:

(i) approaching selected altitude (ii) excessive deviation from selected altitude (iii) excessive vertical speed (iv) excessive terrain closure (v) abnormal gear/flap combination

(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) (ii) (iii) and (iv) (c) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) and (v) (d) (i) (ii) and (iii)

16. The Altitude Alert system:

(a) alerts by visual and aural signals when approaching the selected altitude

(b) activates a warning light when close to the selected altitude (c) engages autotrim on reaching selected altitude (d) disengages autotrim on reaching selected altitude


17. TCAS II obtains information from:

(i) pressure encoding from mode S transponder (ii) radio altimeter (iii) aircraft specific configurations (iv) inertial reference unit (IRU)

(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) (ii) and (iv) (c) (i) (ii) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) (ii) and (iii)

18. Where is TCAS displayed?

(i) on its own screen (ii) on the EFIS (iii) combined with the weather radar (iv) LCD variometer

(a) (i) (ii) (iii) and (iv) (b) (i) and (ii) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iv)

19. What is the correct pilot response to TCAS RA?

(a) Disengage the autopilot and smoothly and immediately follow the climb or descent commands

(b) Request permission to manoeuvre from ATC (c) Monitor the autopilot as it follows the TCAS command, advise ATC

as soon as possible (d) Attempt to identify the intruder visually

20. What symbol is used to represent a TCAS RA?

(a) yellow circle (b) red lozenge (c) red square (d) red circle

21. What corrective action is given by TCAS?

(i) turn left or right (ii) climb or descend (iii) contact ATC (iv) increase climb or descent (v) stop climb or descent (vi) monitor vertical speed

(a) (ii) (iv) (v) and (vi) (b) (i) (ii) and (iii) (c) (ii) and (vi) (d) (i) (ii) and (vi)


22. When an intruder aircraft is fitted with a Mode C transponder TCAS II may give:

(a) TA only (b) TA and RA in horizontal plane (c) TA and RA in vertical plane (d) RA only

23. Which if the following is a corrective RA:

(a) monitor vertical speed (b) turn left, turn left (c) traffic, traffic (d) climb, climb

24. “Other traffic” which is assessed as not being a threat would be

indicated by a TCAS system as:

(a) A solid red square (b) a solid white or cyan diamond (c) a hollow white or cyan diamond (d) a solid yellow circle

25. Which of the following are modes of the GWPS?

(i) excessive sink rate (ii) altitude loss after take-off or go-around (iii) excessive glideslope deviation (iv) high climb rate (v) flaps in the incorrect position (vi) high altitude descent (vii) stall

(a) all seven (b) (i) (ii) (iii) and (v) (c) (i) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) (ii) (iii) (v) and (vi)

26. Which heights is GPWS is active between?

(a) 0ft and 2500ft (b) 50ft and 2450ft (c) 0ft and 2450ft (d) 50ft and 5000ft

27. A GPWS system requires:

(a) lights and bells (b) sound (c) lights and synthesised voice warnings (d) lights


28. In the event of GPWS Mode 3 parameters being infringed in flight what will be heard on the flight deck?

(a) DON’T SINK, DON’T SINK followed by WHOOP WHOOP, PULL UP

if the sink rate exceeds a certain value (b) SINK RATE, SINK RATE followed by WHOOP WHOOP, PULL UP (c) DON’T SINK, DON’T SINK continuously (d) SINK RATE, SINK RATE continuously

29. What are the inputs to the Stick Shaker?

(i) Mass of the aircraft (ii) Angle of attack (iii) Wing flap position (iv) Gear position (v) TAT (vi) Pressure altitude

(a) (i) (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii) (iii) and (iv) (c) (ii) (iii) and (v) (d) (i) (v) and (vi)

30. What invention since the eighties has resulted in far fewer hull losses?

(a) SSR (b) GPWS (c) TCAS (d) INS

31. In the event of a system failure, an abnormal or an emergency condition

EICAS provides

(a) visual warning messages and audio alerts (b) visual warning messages only (c) audio alerts only (d) only quantitative indications

32. The colours used by EICAS for different levels of alert are: Level A Level B Level C

(a) Red Amber Green (b) Amber Green White (c) Red Amber White (d) Amber Green Blue


33. "BITE" is a self test sequence for GPWS. When is this system self test initiated and what would indicate to the pilot that a fault is detected?

(a) The test is initiated automatically when power is supplied to the

GPWS and the aural and visual warnings would not be complete. (b) The test is initiated automatically by the "weight on wheel"

switches and the fail warning would illuminate (c) The test is initiated manually by the pilot and the aural and visual

warnings would not be complete. (d) The test is initiated manually by the pilot and the fail caption

would illuminate 34. The symbol for TCAS proximate traffic is:

(a) a solid red square (b) a hollow white diamond (c) a solid white or cyan diamond (d) a solid yellow circle

35. A CVR requires which of the following?:

(i) A microphone (ii) To meet the required crash resistance standards (iii) To have it's own battery (iv) To have a Flight Data Recorder fitted

(a) (i) (ii) and (iv) (b) (ii) (iii) and (iv) (c) (i) only (d) (i) and (ii)

Engine Monitoring & Fuel Gauging 1. A vibration meter measures:

(a) frequency in Hz (b) relative amplitude (c) period in seconds (d) acceleration in g

2. Put the following in order of pressure measurement, from lowest to

highest:

(i) bourdon tube (ii) bellows (iii) capsule

(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (b) (iii) (ii) (i) (c) (ii) (i) (iii) (d) (i) (iii) (ii)


3. Which of the following are used to measure temperature?

(i) thermocouple (ii) resistance (iii) reactance (iv) mercury

(a) (i) (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) (ii) and (iv) (c) (ii) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) (iii) and (iv)

4. What is the working principle of a capacitive fuel gauge?

(a) di-electric resistivity (b) height of fuel (c) volume of fuel (d) changes in capacitive reactance

5. What measures inlet pressure?

(a) Bellows (b) Bourdon tube (c) Aneroid capsule (d) Differential pressure capsule

6. A capacitive type fuel gauging system may measure mass due to:

(a) Fuel dielectric constant being equal to that of air and proportional to density

(b) Fuel dielectric constant being equal to that of air and inversely proportional to density

(c) Fuel dielectric constant being twice that of air and proportional to density

(d) Fuel dielectric constant being twice that of air and inversely proportional to density

7. What does a bourdon tube measure?

(a) Temperature (b) Pressure (c) Density (d) Volume

8. What type of pressure sensor is used to measure the output of a LP fuel

pump? (the low pressure warning light)

(a) Aneroid capsule (b) Bellows capsule (c) differential capsule (d) bourdon tube


9. A millimetric voltmeter measuring electromotive force between a hot and cold junction of the thermocouple can be graduated to read temperature if:

(a) the hot junction is kept at a constant temperature (b) the cold junction is maintained at 15ºC (c) the hot junction is maintained at 15ºC (d) the cold junction is maintained at a constant temperature

10. What does a bellows measure?

(a) temperature (b) pressure (c) volume (d) resistance

11. What are the disadvantages of a float gauging system?

(i) it is subject to acceleration errors (ii) it gives a non-linear indication (iii) it cannot compensate for changes in fuel density (iv) it cannot compensate for temperature changes (v) it is only accurate at high level (vi) it requires an AC electrical supply

(a) (i) (iii) and (iv) (b) (ii) (iii) and (vi) (c) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) and (v) (d) all six

12. Compared with a volumetric flow meter, a mass flow meter

compensates for?

(a) temperature (b) density (c) volume (d) pressure

13. Certain piston engine aircraft have a red arc (it is more often yellow)

inside the green arc on the RPM gauge. This arc indicates a range of RPM that should be avoided

(a) because of engine vibration (b) because of propeller vibration (c) because of excessive cylinder head temperatures (d) because of low boost

14. A modern jet or turboprop aircraft is likely to be fitted with

(a) venturi fuel flowmeters (b) vane type fuel flow meters (c) variable orifice fuel flow meters (d) torque mass flow meters


15. Where is torque measured in a turboprop engine?

(a) accessory gearbox (b) at the turbine (c) reduction gearbox (d) at the constant speed unit pump

16. A squirrel cage tacho generator system uses

(a) single phase AC whose frequency varies with the speed of the

engine converted to a square wave pulse delivered to a servo driven instrument

(b) three phase AC whose frequency varies with the speed of the engine delivered to a three phase synchronous motor and drag cup

(c) a tacho probe and phonic wheel measuring speed sending information to a squirrel cage motor and drag cup

(d) a direct engine drive to a squirrel cage motor 17. If a fuel tank with a capacitive contents gauging system has some water

in it and no fuel.

(a) the gauge will show full (b) the gauge will show the mass of the water (c) the gauge will show near empty (d) the needle will freeze

18. The advantage of a float type fuel gauging system is

(i) simplicity (ii) it compensates for variations in density (iii) it reads fuel quantity by mass (iv) it compensates for changes in aircraft attitude

(a) (i) only (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)

19. A cylinder head temperature gauge measures

(a) the temperature of the hottest cylinder (b) the average temperature of all the cylinders (c) the temperature of the coolest cylinder (d) the average temperature of the two hottest opposing cylinders

20. A ratiometer is

(a) a moving coil indicator using torque generated by a single current that will misread if supply voltage falls

(b) a device that monitors the voltage ratio between two generators (c) a moving coil indicator which uses the ratio of two currents to

position a needle and is unaffected by voltage changes (d) a meter that indicates the engine pressure ratio


21. What is the purpose of a synchroscope?

(a) to indicate that two AC generators are frequency synchronised before paralleling

(b) to indicate the difference in rpm of engines or propellers on multi-engine aircraft from a master engine or propeller

(c) to inspect HP compressor blades on a jet engine (d) to synchronise rudder inputs in a YAW SAS system

22. EGT is measured

(a) at the HP turbine outlet (b) in the combustion chamber (c) in the jet pipe (d) at the HP compressor outlet

23. A float type fuel gauging system

(a) will be affected by variations in system voltage if it uses a ratiometer

(b) will be affected by variations in system voltage if it uses a variometer

(c) will not be affected by variations in system voltage if it uses a galvanometer

(d) will be affected by variations in system voltage if it uses a galvanometer

24. What is the advantage of a single phase tachogenerator compared to a

DC tachogenerator?

(a) less wiring is used (b) the frequency is more stable (c) the voltage is more stable (d) there is less component wear and radio interference

25. The purpose of the FADEC is to:

(i) control fuel flow (ii) control thrust (iii) control oil consumption (iv) prevent over temperature conditions (v) prevent overspeed (vi) prevent surges (vii) boost output thrust (a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (b) (i) (ii) (iv) (v) (vi) (c) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vii) (d) (i) (ii) (iv) (vii)


26. What are the inputs to FADEC?

(i) Thrust lever angle (ii) Air Data Computer (iii) TGT (iv) EPR/N1 (v) Autopilot (vi) Air/Ground Logic (vii) Autothrottle/ Thrust Management (viii) EICAS/ECAM (a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (vi) (vii) (b) (i) (iii) (iv) (vii) (viii) (c) (iii) (iv) (vii) (viii) (d) (i) (iii) (iv) (v) (viii)

27. Turbine outlet pressure is detected with

(a) capsules (b) bellows (c) bourdon tubes (d) diaphragms

Autoflight 1. The flight director shown on the right is

commanding

1010

20

10

20

10

(a) fly up and right (b) fly up and left (c) fly down and right (d) fly down and left

2. Where are the flight director modes

displayed?

(a) PFD (b) ND (c) ECAM (d) FD control panel


3. The autopilot is selected to heading hold mode, and the aircraft is flying on a heading of 270º. If you change the required heading on the autopilot panel to 360º:

(a) the flight director will be displaced to the right until you reach

360º (b) the flight director will be displaced to the right until 10º before

360º (c) the heading command bar will disappear and the heading hold

will disengage (d) the flight director will be displaced to the right until the turn

command is satisfied it will then be centralised until about 10º before 360º is reached at which time it will displace to the left to command a roll out.

4. What are the basic functions of an autopilot?

(i) pitch attitude (ii) wings level (iii) altitude hold (iv) heading hold (v) speed hold

(a) all five (b) (i) & (ii) (c) (i) (ii) & (iii) (d) (i) (ii) (iii) & (iv)

5. At 50 feet agl during an autoland, what happens to the glideslope

signal?

(a) it continues to control descent (b) it is disconnected (c) it is factored for range (d) it is used to flare the aircraft

6. What is the wavelength of an ILS localiser signal?

(a) centimetric (b) hectometric (c) metric (d) decometric

7. A yaw damper indicator will indicate to the pilot:

(a) rudder position (b) rudder position due to pedal displacement (c) yaw damper movement of rudder position (d) yaw damper movement on ground only


8. The autothrottle is set to climb at a constant mach number. If the temperature does not change, what happens to the CAS?

(a) increases (b) decreases (c) increases, but only if the outside air temperature decreases (d) may either decrease or increase

9. Autothrottle mode can be checked by the pilot, using:

(a) position of throttles (b) thrust control computer (c) navigation display (d) primary flying display

10. The interception of the localiser beam by the autopilot is:

(a) on a constant magnetic course (b) a mode using an interception verses range computation (c) a mode using an interception verses radio deviation law (d) on a constant heading

11. Engagement of the autopilot is not possible when:

(i) the electrical supply is faulty (ii) the controlled turn knob is not set to centre off (iii) there is a synchronisation fault (iv) there is a fault in the attitude reference unit

(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (i) and (iii) (c) (ii) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) (ii) (iii) and (iv)

12. The correction to the control surface deflection made by the autopilot

computer in order to stabilise the longitudinal attitude is made all the more significant if:

(i) the difference between reference attitude and instantaneous

attitude is large (ii) the rate of change of difference between reference attitude and

instantaneous attitude is large (iii) the temperature is low (iv) the pressure altitude is high

(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) (ii) and (iii) (c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) (ii) (iii) and (iv)


13. What are the autopilot minimum requirements in order to fly single pilot IFR?

(a) Altitude hold and heading hold (b) Altitude hold, heading hold, VOR tracking facility and speed hold (c) Altitude hold only (d) Heading and speed hold

14. When flying level in the cruise the..............holds height and

the.........holds the speed:

(a) Autopilot Autopilot (b) Auto-throttle Auto-throttle (c) Auto-throttle Autopilot (d) Autopilot Auto-throttle

15. At what height during a semi-automatic landing is the autopilot

disengaged?

(a) 100ft (b) 45ft (c) decision height (d) 15ft

16. If a go-around is initiated from an auto-approach:

(i) the autothrottle selects maximum power (ii) the autopilot controls the climb (iii) the autopilot retracts flap and landing gear to reduce drag (iv) the pilot performs the climb (v) the pilot retracts the flap and landing gear to reduce drag

(a) (i) (ii) & (v) (b) (i) (iv) & (v) (c) (i) (iii) & (iv) (d) (i) (ii) & (iii)

17. An auto-land system which can continue to automatically land the

aircraft after a single failure is called:

(a) Fail passive (b) Fail soft (c) Fail safe (d) Fail active

18. Where are the auto-throttle modes annunciated?

(a) PFD (b) Overhead panel (c) ND (d) EICAS


19. The autopilot is engaged with no modes selected. What is the autopilot providing?

(a) wing levelling (b) altitude hold (c) auto-stability with possibly auto-trim (d) LNAV and VNAV

20. When is an Autoland procedure complete?

(a) at the markers (b) at the beginning of the ground roll (c) at the decision height (d) at the flare

21. During a CAT 2 ILS approach height is indicated by:

(a) GPS (b) Marker (c) Radio altimeter (d) Barometric altitude

22. An autopilot capable of altitude hold and heading hold is a minimum

requirement for:

(a) single pilot operation in VMC & IMC (b) single pilot operation under IFR and at night (c) aircraft over 5700kg (d) dual pilot operation under IFR

23. During a fully automatic landing the autopilot:

(a) and the auto-throttle control the approach at least until the flare (b) and the auto-throttle control the approach at least until the roll-

out (c) and the auto-throttle control the approach at least until decision

height (d) controls the approach at least until the roll-out, the pilot controls

the power 24. A landing is considered to be fully automatic when:

(i) the autopilot flies the ILS to Decision Height, and then disengages (ii) the autothrottle maintains speed until Decision Height, and then

disengages (iii) the autothrottle disengages thrust at 50ft (iv) the autopilot flies the ILS until the flare (v) the flare and ground roll are automatic

(a) (ii) (iii) & (v) (b) (i) & (ii) (c) (iv) & (v) (d) (i) & (iv)


25. In an autopilot system which of the following are modes for stabilising the aircraft?

(i) yaw damper (ii) pitch attitude holding (iii) VOR tracking (iv) IAS & Mach hold (v) Horizontal wing holding (vi) Altitude holding

(a) (i) (ii) & (iv) (b) (i) (ii) & (v) (c) (i) (v) & (vi) (d) (ii) (iv) & (vi)

26. In an autopilot system which of the following are aircraft flight path

modes?

(i) yaw damper (ii) pitch attitude holding (iii) VOR tracking (iv) IAS & Mach hold (v) Horizontal wing holding (vi) Inertial heading holding

(a) (i) (ii) & (iv) (b) (iii) (iv) & (vi) (c) (ii) (iv) & (vi) (d) (i) (iv) & (vi)

27. An autopilot system which cannot continue an auto-land with one

autopilot failed is called:

(a) fail passive (b) fail safe (c) fail operational (d) fail redundant

28. Auto-throttle can hold which of the following?

(i) speed (ii) mach no (iii) altitude (iv) N1/EPR (v) VOR capture (vi) Vertical profile

(a) (i) (ii) & (iii) (b) (i) (ii) & (iv) (c) (i) (ii) & (v) (d) (i) (ii) & (vi)


29. In a yaw damper system

(a) the ailerons are moved in proportion to the Mach Number (b) the ailerons are moved in proportion to rate of angular velocity (c) the rudder is moved in proportion to the Mach Number (d) the rudder is moved in proportion to rate of angular velocity

30. “LOC ARMED” lights up on the FD mode annunciator, this means:

(a) The localiser beam is captured (b) The localiser is armed and awaiting capture (c) The localiser alarm is on (d) The localiser and glideslope are captured

31. What does the autopilot pitch and rotate the aircraft around?

(a) the landing wheel datum (b) the manoeuvre point (c) the datum point (d) the centre of gravity

32. During a semi-automatic landing

(a) the autopilot flies the approach and is disengaged no earlier than DH

(b) the autothrottle controls airspeed down to approximately 30ft and automatically disengages

(c) the autopilot flies the approach, flare and roll-out (d) the autothrottle controls approach speed and disengages

automatically at DH 33. If only a single autopilot is used to climb, cruise and approach it is:

(a) fail passive with redundancy (b) fail operational and will not disconnect in the event of a failure (c) fail soft and will not disconnect in the event of a failure (d) fail safe and will disconnect in the event of a failure

34. An autopilot delivers roll commands to the controls

(a) proportional to TAS, but below a specified maximum (b) at a set bank angle of 27º (c) at a set bank angle of 15º (d) proportional to the deviation from the selected heading


35. Which of the following statements is true regarding autopilot (A/P) and autothrottle (A/T)?

(a) A/P holds IAS/MACH when climbing in LVL CHG and A/T

controls thrust (b) A/T holds altitude in cruise with ALT HOLD, A/P controls

IAS/Mach (c) A/P holds speed in descent in V/S mode, A/T controls rate of

descent (d) A/P holds attitude in the climb mode, A/T controls IAS/MACH in

speed 36. Auto-trim is fitted to an autopilot

(i) to provide control about lateral axis (ii) to prevent snatching on engaging A/P (iii) to prevent snatching on disengaging A/P (iv) and may not allow the autopilot to engage if unserviceable (v) to relieve hinge loads on the elevator (a) (ii) (iii) and (v) (b) (ii) and (iv) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii)

37. Synchronization in an autopilot

(i) is to prevent snatch on disengagement (ii) is to prevent snatch on engagement (iii) is to cancel rudder control inputs (iv) may not allow the autopilot to engage if unserviceable

(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iv) (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)

38. A Mach trimmer prevents Mach tuck

(a) at low Mach numbers (b) at high Mach numbers (c) at low altitudes (d) at all Mach numbers

39. Once ALT HOLD is engaged turning the barometric setting knob

clockwise will

(a) cause the aircraft to climb (b) cause the aircraft to descend (c) make no difference (d) cause the autopilot to disengage


40. When an aircraft in VOR coupled mode approaches the overhead of a VOR station the autopilot

(a) disconnects VOR steering while leaving VOR mode engaged and

holds course over the VOR resuming VOR steering when through the overhead.

(b) temporarily disconnects and operates in roll CWS (c) continues steering by VOR signals (d) temporarily switches to LNAV steering

41. In a closed loop system a device in which a small input operates a large

output in a strictly proportionate manner is called:

(a) an amplifier (b) an autopilot (c) feedback (control loop) (d) a servomechanism

42. Mach Trim operates

(a) only when the Autopilot is engaged (b) only at high altitude (c) only at high Mach numbers (d) all the time

43. What prevents snatch on autopilot disengagement?

(a) synchronisation (b) autotrim (c) Yaw SAS (d) flying control servo motor function

44. When LVL CHG (level change) is selected on an autopilot in order to

climb the speed is controlled by.................and ................... thrust is applied

(a) the autothrottle system full (b) the autopilot pitch channel full (c) the autopilot pitch channel moderate (d) the autothrottle system moderate

45. A two axis autopilot is the minimum required by JAR OPS for:

(a) IFR and VFR single pilot operations (b) night and IFR single pilot operations (c) aircraft over 5700kg MAUM (d) IFR two pilot operations


46. The diagram below shows an Attitude Indicator with flight director coupled in VOR steering and a Horizontal Situation Indicator showing the selected VOR bearing. Which of the following options is the correct interpretation of the display?

9 036

1215

1821 24

2730

33

1010

20

10

20

10

(a) The aircraft is on course with a cross wind left to right. (b) The aircraft is on course with a cross wind right to left. (c) The aircraft is left of the selected VOR radial. (d) The aircraft is right of the selected VOR radial.

Misc 1. An aircraft has a groundspeed of 100kts on a 3º glidepath. The rate of

descent is:

(a) 500ft/min (b) 300ft/min (c) 250ft/min (d) 600ft/min

2. An RMI compass rose is stuck on a heading of 090º. The ADF pointer

indicates 225º. What is the relative bearing to the beacon?

(a) 000º (b) 135º (c) 225º (d) It cannot be determined


Answers Temperature 1 b 2 a 3 c

Altimeters 1 b 2 b 3 c 4 a 5 b 6 a 7 c 8. A poorly phrased question. We think the examiners mean ‘There are

two static sources and two altimeters on an aircraft. One static source is compensated during installation to give zero position error and the other is not. What will happen?’

Position error, which means the (static) port is in the wrong position, is generally greater at low IAS as the angle of attack is ‘abnormal’. This, and the fact that we are not told if the error is an over read or under read strikes out answers (a) and (d). Position errors are determined during flight testing and corrections can be applied in the ADC so (c) looks most likely. If the position error is compensated the SSR pressure altitude readout from the ADC will be correct. Answer (c).

9. The use of two static ports normally removes local errors caused by

manoeuvering. In this case the right hand port is blocked so only the left port is sensing static. In a sideslip to the right the left port will be behind the fuselage and experience local low pressure. This will cause the altimeter to over read. Answer (a)

ASI 1 a 9 b 2 d 10 a 3 b 11 c 4 b 12 a 5 d 13 b 6 b 14 a 7 d 15 d 8 a 16 d


Mach Meter 1 b 5 b 2 a 6 d 3 b 7 b 4 c 8 b

VSI 1 b 2 b

ADC 1 b 2 d 3 a

Gyroscopes 1 b 11 c 21 d 2 d 12 a 22 a 3 b 13 c 23 b 4 a 14 a 24 b 5 a 15 b 25 c 6 a 16 c 7 b 17 b 8 b 18 b 9 c 19 b 10 a 20 c

Compasses 1 a 11 b 2 b 12 c 3 b 13 b 4 d 5 c 6 a 7 b 8 a 9 b 10 a

Inertial Navigation 1 b 2 a


3. The IRS does not have a standby selection so it is Answer (d). Had the

question asked about a stand-alone INS it would have been (c). The exact answers are unknown, lets hope the examiners are not as picky as us!

FMS & EFIS 1. The Primary Flight Display is the Electronic Attitude Direction

Indicator. It shows attitude, speed, Flight Director, Autopilot and Flight Director modes, radio height and ILS deviation. Collectively this describes the aircraft flight path, from a pilot’s point of view rather than a navigator’s. Answer (b)

2. Some of these inputs are automatic, some manual. They are all inputs.

Answer (c) 3. A cost index of 000 represents maximum range, on the B737 the

highest value is 200 which represents minimum time. Max range means the most economical use of fuel. Answer (c)

4. The FMS normally starts on IDENT. Answer (d) 5. The 737-400 Flight Crew Technical manual states that (i) to (iv) are

valid entries.

Warning & Recording 1. The rad alt is fitted to the aircraft and measures the height of the

wheels in the approach attitude above the ground. Altitude is height above mean sea level. Answer (d)

2. Radio Altimeters operate in the SHF band from 4200MHz to 4400MHz.

Answer (b) 3. Radio Altimeters operate in the SHF band from 4200MHz to 4400MHz.

Answer (c) 4. Because the Radio Altimeter sweeps its frequency between 4200MHz

and 4400MHz it is called frequency modulated (FM), Answer (b). Yes, some military radio altimeters are pulse FM but these systems are not taught and this answer is not considered correct for these exams.

5. The radio altimeter normally operates from 2500ft down to touchdown.

Some older Rad Alts run from 5000ft down but this is a very poor second choice and not in the answers anyway. Answer (d)

6. The radio altimeter is zeroed to wheel height in the touchdown position.

This means that the signal delays in the aircraft have to be


compensated for and the indication must be compensated so it does not read aerial height. Answer (d)

7. A basic stall warning system only needs angle of attack. Answer (a) 8. The FDR must be fitted as far back as possible. Answer (a) 9. FDRs must record for 25 hours when fitted to aircraft over 5700kg or

more than 9 seats. Modern aircraft registered after 1988 and with an AUW of less than 5700kg need only record for 10 hours. Answer (b)

10. FDRs are required on all aircraft over 5700kg. Answer (a) 11. Both the FDR and CVR must run from before the aircraft starts to

move under its own power until after it stops. Answer (b) 12. Both the FDR and CVR must run from before the aircraft starts to

move under its own power until after it stops. Answer (b) 13. Aircraft over 5700kg need a 25 hour FDR. Registered before 1998 they

need a 30 minute CVR and after 1998 a two hour CVR. Answer (a) 14. The CVR must record

Voice comms transmitted or received on the flight deck by radio the aural environment of the flight deck including the audio

signals from each boom and mask microphone in use Voice comms between flight crew members on the flight deck by

intercom Navigation aid identification introduced into a headset or speaker Voice comms of flight crew members on the flight deck using the

PA

Answer (d) 15. The altitude alert system displays a light at 750ft to go to the selected

altitude which goes out at 250ft to go. Deviations of more than 250ft result in a tone and the light coming on. The JAR OPS requirement is to alert the crew when approaching a selected altitude and to alert the crew by at least an audible tone when deviating from the selected altitude. Answer (a)

16. The altitude alert system displays a light at 750ft to go to the selected

altitude which goes out at 250ft to go. Deviations of more than 250ft result in a tone and the light coming on. The JAR OPS requirement is to alert the crew when approaching a selected altitude and to alert the crew by at least an audible tone when deviating from the selected altitude. The feedback on this question was not clear. Answer (b)

17. TCAS certainly takes data from Mode S. The rad alt is used to inhibit

descent commands near the ground. Configuration is also an input as the aerial transmission pattern changes when full flap is selected. Aircraft attitude is fed from the IRS. Answer (d) Some of this information can only be extracted from the aircraft maintenance


manuals so it is possible that the examiner is unaware of it in which case (a) might be the right answer, it might be worth flagging this up if you get this question in the exam.

18. Another difficult question. TCAS is normally displayed on a combined

VSI/TCAS display or on the PFD and ND in an EFIS aircraft. Variometer is an odd word, possibly suffering in the translation from French. Glider rate of climb and descent indicators are called variometers. Some light aircraft without EFIS use a combined weather radar and EFIS display. Overall it depends what the examiner is thinking of, if the question relates to transport aircraft I would choose (a), otherwise it might be (b). This is worth a note in the exam so the examiner is clear you understand.

19. TCAS RAs are Resolution Advisories telling you how to resolve the

problem in the pitching plane. It is not an autopilot manoeuvere so disconnect the AP and smoothly and promptly follow the command. Answer (a)

20. TCAS RAs are red boxes. Red for danger and boxes because if you don’t

follow an RA that’s where you will be. Answer (c) 21. TCAS RAs give pitch commands only. A selection of CLIMB or

DESCEND, INCREASE CLIMB OR INCREASE DESCENT, STOP CLIMB OR STOP DESCENT or MONITOR VERTICAL SPEED is available. Answer (a)

22. Intruder aircraft equipped with Mode A with height reporting or Mode S

can result in a TA and possibly an RA. If there is no height reporting on the intruder an RA is impossible so TA only. RAs only work in the vertical plane, Answer (c)

23. A corrective RA tells you to do something different to what you are

doing. All RAs are corrective except MONITOR VERTICAL SPEED which is a preventative RA. Answer (d)

24. “Other traffic” is non-threatening traffic that is not near (proximate).

The symbol is a hollow diamond, white on EFIS and cyan on a combined EVSI/TCAS display. Answer (c)

25. GPWS modes are

excessive sink rate Mode 1 terrain closure rate Mode 2 height loss after take-off or go-around Mode 3 below 500ft with no gear selected Mode 4A below 200ft without full flap selected Mode 4B excessive glideslope deviation Mode 5 passing the bugged RA DH Mode 6

Answer (b)

26. GPWS is active 2450ft to 50ft. Answer (b)


27. The only JAR OPS requirement is an audible warning. Answer (b) 28. Dodgy feedback on this one. If the question asks for the alert the

answer could be (c) as WHOOP WHOOP etc is a warning not an alert. I have adjusted the question to remove the doubt but do read the exam version carefully.

29. This question is referenced to a textbook that describes a stick shaker

system on a 1960’s aircraft, it also happens to be correct for a modern aircraft although there may be many more inputs that have not been mentioned. The primary input is alpha, always correct. The flap position is used to modify the alpha output with flap selected and the gear position stops the system going off on the ground. Answer (b)

30. The only new item since the eighties is TCAS, although the statement

that there have been noticeably fewer hull losses is open to question. Answer (d) was made up but the three others are all in the exam. Answer (c)

31. EICAS provides Warnings or Level A alerts for situations that require

immediate crew action. These are red messages accompanied by the red master warning light on the glareshield panel in front of the pilots, associated aural warnings like fire bells will be given. Level B alerts, Caution messages, are amber with an aural tone sounding twice and the amber master caution light illuminating. Level C messages are white and provide no audio tone or additional light. Answer (a)

32. EICAS provides Warnings or level A alerts for situations that require

immediate crew action. These are red messages accompanied by the red master warning light on the glareshield panel in front of the pilots, associated aural warnings like fire bells will be given. Level B alerts, Caution messages, are amber with an aural tone sounding twice and the amber master caution light illuminating. Level C messages are white and provide no audio tone or additional light. Answer (c)

33. BITE stands for Built In Test Equipment. It is a press to test function

used in the pre-start checks. When pressed the GPWS system lights come on and there is a sequence of audio alerts and warnings. If the system is not functioning then the lights and audio will not be complete. Answer (c)

34. Proximate traffic, within 6nm and 1200ft, is a solid white or cyan

diamond. An RA is a red square and a TA is a yellow or amber circle. The hollow diamond is ‘other traffic’. The exam questions may use the word ‘lozenge’ instead of ‘diamond’. Answer (c)

35. Assuming the question and answers are the same as the exam this is

quite tricky. Certainly a CVR must have its own microphone to record the cockpit environment but it does not need its own power supply other than to operate the Emergency Locator Beacon, which it must have. Does this count as an implied requirement for its own power supply? Neither JARs, FARs nor ICAO set crash resistance standards for CVRs but do state that the ‘record container’ should be placed in a position which minimises the chance of it being destroyed or damaged


in a crash. We are doubtful about answers (ii) and (iii), and (iv) is definitely wrong so, given these choices, Answer (c).

Engine Monitoring & Fuel Gauging 1. Vibration meters don’t have any particular unit on them, they are

described as showing relative amplitude. Answer (b) 2. A capsule is the least efficient followed by bellows followed by a

bourdon tube but the question does not ask about efficiency. One could argue the sensitivity of bellows make them better suited for low pressure sensing than capsules but there is no answer that matches that. Check the exam answers carefully. Answer (b)

3. Temperature is measured with mercury in thermometers,

thermocouples are used for high temperatures such as cylinder heads and TGT, resistivity is used for low temperatures. The bi-metallic strip is not mentioned here, this measures temperature by differential expansion. Answer (b)

4. Capacitive gauging systems work by sensing the capacitive reactance of

the fuel or air in the tanks. Fuel has twice the capacitance of air so a full tank has twice the capacitive reactance as an empty tank. A datum or reference capacitor in the tank compensates for fuel density so that fuel mass or weight is correctly indicated. Answer (d)

5. We assume they mean jet engine inlet pressure, some old engines like

the Avon used bellows, modern ones use pressure transducers but these often also incorporate minute bellows. Answer (b)

6. Capacitive gauging systems work by sensing the capacitive reactance of

the fuel or air in the tanks. Fuel has twice the capacitance of air so a full tank has twice the capacitive reactance as an empty tank. Generally, the denser the fuel the greater the capacitance, a datum or reference capacitor in the tank compensates for fuel density so that fuel mass or weight is correctly indicated. Dielectric is the proper term for the stuff between the plates of a capacitor, in this case the fuel. Answer (c)

7. A bourdon tube measures pressure. Answer (b) 8. Dodgy feedback here. This is the most sense we can make out of this

question. The only pressure sensors at the LP fuel pump outlet are the LP fuel low pressure light switches which most systems show as transducers. The B737 maintenance manual shows a bellows symbol next to the pressure switch so, short of data, we are going for (b)

9. The current flow in a thermocouple is proportional to temperature

difference between the hot junction in the jet pipe and the cold junction in the cockpit. For hot junction temperature to be read out at the gauge the cold junction must be at a constant temperature. Answer (d)

10. Bellows measure pressure, Answer (b)


11. Float gauging systems just show volume. They only work properly in

one attitude but do give relatively linear indications. They are subject to errors as the fuel sloshes around and as it expands (changes its density) under higher outside air temperatures. They use DC power. Answer (a)

12. Mass flow meters don’t really compensate for anything, they detect the

angular acceleration that is proportional to mass. The examiner’s probably thinks (b) is the right answer.

13. The exam question says it is red, it is usually yellow and around 2000

to 2200rpm. It is not a good area to operate in because of prop vibration. Answer (b), all the wrong answers are made up by us.

14. The correct answer is mass flow meters but we don’t know if that was

one of the choices, “vane type” was there, they could mean variable orifice types or turbine flowmeters with this description. Neither of these cope well with big ranges of flow rate and temperature found in modern aircraft, mass flow indicators do. Answer (d)

15. Torque is measured on the propeller shaft, at the output of the

reduction gearbox Answer (c) 16. The tachogenerator has a small generator driven by a drive from the

engine which produces 3 phase AC, the frequency of which is proportional to the engine and generator rpm. The AC signal is sent to a squirrel cage or synchronous motor at the instrument which turns a magnet in an aluminium cup. Magnetic fields induced in the cup react with the rotating magnet and a twisting force is created on the cup. This twisting force, opposed by a spring, is used to move the tacho needle. Answer (b)

17. If there is just water in the tank the gauging system will compensate for

the different specific gravity and show the mass of the fuel. Answer (b)

Be very careful about the exact wording of this question. If the tank is full or nearly full of water the indicated mass will be too much for the gauge and show full scale full. If a little water is in the tank but the rest is fuel the water will be at the bottom, covering the reference capacitor and the base of the main capacitors, while fuel covers just the main capacitors. Air has a dielectric constant of 1, Avgas is 2, meaning it has twice the capacitive reactance of air. Pure, distilled, water has a dielectric constant of about 80. The gauging system will look at the difference in capacitance between the reference capacitor and the main capacitors, finding little proportional increase it will indicate just above zero.

18. Answer (a) 19. Answer (a), often with thermocouples.


20. Answer (c). It is unaffected by supply voltage changes as it looks at the ratio of the two currents.

21. Answer (b), usually on propeller aircraft, also on the VC10 22. Answer (a). (c) would be jet pipe temperature, JPT. 23. Float type systems can use a ratiometer or a galvanometer, which

measures small voltages. Ratiometers are not affected by supply voltage changes as they look at the ratio of two currents, galvanometers are. Answer (d)

24. This question came back from the exams horribly incomplete. We do

not know whether the comparison to the DC tachogenerator was part of the question or not and the spoof answers are made up by us.

DC tachogenerators produce a voltage proportional to the rpm from a DC generator driven directly by the engine. DC generators use brushes and commutators which generate sparking and radio interference and wear out quickly. Single phase AC tachogenerators use a brushless AC generator which is rectified to DC and sent to the instrument. The big advantage is no wear and no interference. If the comparison is made between a single phase AC tachogenerator and its 3 phase equivalent the answer would probably be less wiring, two wires rather than six going to the instrument. Answer (d) as it sits, we would appreciate more feedback on this one if you get it!

25. FADEC stands for Full Authority Digital Engine Control and it

regulates the thrust of the engines by controlling the fuel flow to set the demanded thrust without exceeding EGT or TGT limits, without overspeeding and without surging. The wrong answers here are (iii) and (vii). The only answer without either of these is (b).

26. The FADEC controls fuel flow to provide the demanded thrust without

overspeeding or overtemping the engines. The thrust lever must be an input as this is the primary manual demand along with the autothrottle or thrust management system in automatic flight. The ADC provides OAT and TAT, the TGT and EPR probes input current performance and conditions and the air/ground logic tells the FADEC the aircraft is either airborne during the take-off or has landed prior to the application of reverse thrust. The spoof answers here are autopilot, which is not connected to the system, and EICAS/ECAM which is an output, not an input. Answer (a)

27. Bellows are used to detect jet engine pressures. Answer (b)

Autoflight 1. Treat each bar of the FD as a command in isolation. The vertical one is

to the left of the aircraft symbol so fly left, the horizontal one is below the aircraft symbol so fly down. Answer (d)


2. Flight director and autopilot modes are on the PFD. This may also be called the EADI. Answer (a)

3. Answer (d) is correct. If the full explanation is absent then the

examiners may be looking for (b), although it is actually wrong. The diagrams below show a turn to the left but it follows the same pattern as a turn to the right.

The initial turn command is a move of the vertical FD bar out to the left to command a roll.

As the roll command is satisfied the FD vertical bar returns to the central position, commanding no extra roll input in either direction.

At the start of the rollout, about 10º before the desired heading, the FD bar moves slightly to the right to command the rollout.

As the roll out command is satisfied the FD bar returns to the centre again.

4. We can’t find this defined anywhere, the perceived truth seems to be

Answer (b) 5. The glideslope signal is discarded at 50’ radio and the aircraft flies a

rate of descent. Answer (b) 6. A bit naughty this, it isn’t in the syllabus. ILS localiser signals are VHF

which is described as metric as it has wavelengths from 10m to 1m. Answer (c). Lets hope they don’t ask about ILS glideslope signals which are UHF or decimetric.


7. Yaw damper indicators are rare but the B737 has one. It shows the rudder movement caused by Yaw Damper operation only. Answer (c)

8. Best do this on the whizz wheel. Pick a Mach number, height and

temperature, work out the RAS, it is close to CAS. I used M0.8 at 20,000ft OAT –30ºC, this gave a TAS of 485kt and that in turn gave an RAS of 373kt. Running the problem again at M0.8, 30,000ft, OAT-30ºC still gives a TAS of 485kt but an RAS of 298kt. The RAS and the CAS decreases. You can shortcut this calculation and answer it using the theory if you realise that as temperature remains the same and Mach number remains the same the TAS also remains the same and the question therefore could be rephrased as “ the TAS in the climb is constant, what happens to the RAS?” Answer (b)

9. Autothrottle modes are also on the PFD. Answer (d) 10. Localiser interception can be either on a constant track, true or mag, or

a constant heading, true or mag. The answers, however, suggest the examiner is looking for a little more here. The aircraft ‘knows’ how far it is from the ILS centreline by looking at the depth of modulation of the two lobes of the ILS localiser signal (don’t worry, its covered in Module 2), this is the radio deviation. The turn command varies depending on how far off the centreline you are, the interception bit. Answer (c)

11. These are interlocks and they vary from type to type so this question

and ones like it are a bit unfair. The best advice is that if the autopilot needs something to work so that it can work there will probably be an interlock. The turn control knob only appears in primitive autopilots and must be central for autopilot engagement. Answer (d)

12. The autopilot responds to both the amount of the error and the rate at

which the error arises. Control surface deflections vary with speed but would not be greater in denser air so (iii) and (iv) are wrong. Answer (a)

13. Answer (a) 14. Answer (d) 15. A semi-automatic approach is a better term for this. The autopilot flies

the approach to DH and sometimes lower but rarely below 50ft. When the autopilot is disengaged the landing is flown manually. This is normal on an ILS with a 200ft or 100ft decision height. Answer (c)

16. An auto go-around is available after the FLARE mode is armed. The

TOGA button, on the throttles of the 737, is pressed and the aircraft pitches up to achieve first a pitch angle of 15º up then a preset rate of climb. The throttles advance to a reduced go-around thrust. The aircraft is cleaned up manually by the pilots. Answer (i) is a bit dodgy because the power selected is not maximum power but, given the answers the best shot is (a).

17. Answer (d) 18. Answer (a)


19. It would be very non-standard to operate an autopilot this way. This

question goes back to the theory, the modes are outer loop control. Without outer loop control all you have is inner loop stabilisation, basically CWS in roll and pitch. Answer (c)

20. Arguable, some would say towards the end of the ground roll as the

autopilot provides steering down to taxy speed. Given the choices Answer (b)

21. The radio altimeter is used as the DH reference for Category 2 and 3

approaches, we assume this is what is meant. Answer (c) 22. Answer (b) 23. You would expect a fully automatic landing to take you down to

touchdown at least. ROLLOUT is the last autopilot mode in an autoland, Answer (b)

24. A bit dodgy, the autopilot flies the ILS localiser to ROLLOUT and the

glideslope to 45ft/50ft. The autothrottles stay engaged until deselected by pilot selection of reverse thrust or, on some types, they automatically deselect after 2 seconds on the ground. Best answer, (c)

25. Pitch attitude, roll attitude and yaw damper are inner loop stabilisation

functions, the others are outer loop control functions. Answer (b) 26. Flight path modes are outer loop functions. Answer (b) 27. Answer (a) 28. Answer (b) 29. Answer (d) 30. Answer (b) 31. All aircraft manoeuveres, manual or automatic, are around the centre

of gravity. Answer (d) 32. A semi-automatic approach is a better term for this. The autopilot flies

the approach to DH, sometimes lower, but rarely below 50ft. When the autopilot is disengaged the landing is flown manually. The AT may be kept in until automatically deselected by the application of reverse thrust. This is a normal procedure on an ILS with a 200ft or 100ft decision height. Answer (a)

33. Answer (d) 34. This question appears to be a phrase taken from a standard textbook

on autopilots. It is actually talking about an error signal proportional to the deviation from the standard heading which is not the same thing as a control command. It may be that the feedback is in error and the


exam question talks about error signals, it may just be a slightly ‘iffy’ question. It has to be answer (d)

35. Answer (a) 36. The quoted reason for auto-trim is to prevent snatching on dis-

engaging but there is also an interlock in the engage circuit that prevents engagement if the auto-trim is inoperative. Answer (c)

37. The reason for synchronisation is to prevent snatching on engagement

but there is also an interlock in the engage circuit that prevents engagement if the synchronisation is inoperative. Answer (b)

38. An odd question. Mach tuck occurs as the centre of pressure moves

backwards at high subsonic Mach numbers. This is not quite the same as high Mach numbers but we believe (b) is intended to be correct as in “at high Mach numbers in the normal range of operation”

39. The ALT HOLD is based on the captain’s altimeter for the left hand

autopilot and the first officer’s altimeter for the right hand autopilot. Once ALT HOLD is engaged, however, further movements of the subscale do not affect the autopilot. Answer (c)

40. Answer (a). The overhead sensor in the APFDS senses low signal

strength and de-selects VOR steering. The 737 manuals say it holds course, I would think it more likely it holds heading until out the other side as to hold course implies a wind input.

41. It is a servo, as used in flying controls. Answer (d) 42. Mach trim systems operate in both manual and automatic flight to

counter the effect of ‘Mach tuck’ , a pitch down caused by the centre of pressure moving backwards during transonic flight and before the free stream speed of sound. This is usually accomplished by lengthening and shortening a strut in the control runs called a Mach Strut. The Mach trim system is inactive at low Mach numbers, some books quote below M0.715. Answer (c)

43. Synchronisation prevents snatch on engagement, autotrim prevents

snatch on disengagement. Answer (b) 44. The LVL CHG selection in a climb causes full power to be applied to the

engines through the autothrottle system (this is climb power not full take-off thrust) and controls the selected speed with the autopilot pitch channel. In the descent idle power is demanded and, once again, the pitch channel holds the speed. Answer (b)

45. Answer (b) 46. The HSI shows the aircraft on course but the heading, at the top of the

instrument, is the same as the track. If the wind was blowing left to right the aircraft would have to be turned left into wind to maintain the radial. This is what the flight director is demanding, a left turn. Answer (a)


Misc 1. Rate of descent on a 3º glidepath is calculated by multiplying the

groundspeed by five. Answer (a) 2. This question is really part of Radio Navigation. The ADF pointer

always points to the NBD so if the rose is stuck on 090º and the pointer indicates 225º the relative bearing is 225 – 90 = 135º, Answer (b)


Instruments Question Bank

Documents

cockpit voice

horizontal

outer loop

jar ops requirement

squirrel cage

vertical spin

flight data

100ft decision