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SERIES – 9 : EXPLAINATIONS (Days 33-36)
1. Which of the following statement is/are NOT correct ?
1. Karachi session is memorable for its resolution on Fundamental Rights and National
Economic Programme.
2. The Communal Award 1932, provided for a separate electorate only for the depressed
classes.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b
Justification:
Karachi session 1931
It was held to endorse the Gandhi-Irwin or Delhi Pact
Reiterated the goal of Poorna Swaraj
Resolution on Fundamental Rights and the National Economic Programme
(Hence statement 1 is correct)
Background
Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and Rajguru had been executed six days earlier. Even though
Gandhiji had made every attempt to save their lives, there was anger among the people,
especially the youth, as to why he had not refused to sign the Pact on this question. All
along Gandhiji’s route to Karachi he was greeted with black flag demonstrations.
The Congress passed a resolution drafted by Gandhiji by which it, ‘while dissociating itself
from and disapproving of political violence in any shape or form,’ admired ‘the bravery
and sacrifice’ of the three martyrs.
Communal Award, 1932
expression of ‘Divide and Rule’ policy of British
Award allotted to each minority a number of seats in the legislatures to be elected on the
basis of a separate electorate that is Muslims would be elected only by Muslims and Sikhs
only by Sikhs, and so on. Muslims, Sikhs and Christians had already been treated as
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minorities. The Award declared the Depressed Classes (Scheduled Castes of today) also
to be a minority community entitled to separate electorate and thus separated them from
the rest of the Hindus.
(Hence statement 2 is incorrect)
Source: Bipan Chandra
2. Which of the following was/were factor/s responsible for the rise of Socialism in India ?
1. Russian Revolution of 1917
2. Disappointment with the Non-cooperation Movement
3. Economic Depression of 1929.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Only 1 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: d
Justification:
The impact of the Russian Revolution
It overthrew the despotic Czarist regime and declared the formation of the first socialist
state.
The new Soviet regime unilaterally renounced its imperialist rights in China and other parts
of Asia.
It showed if the common people — the workers and peasants and the intelligentsia — could
unite and overthrow the mighty Czarist empire and establish a social order where there was
no exploitation of one human being by another, then the Indian people battling against
British imperialism could also do so.
Socialist doctrines, especially Marxism, the guiding theory of the Bolshevik Party, acquired a
sudden attraction, especially for the people of Asia.
Socialist ideas became even more popular during the 1930s as the world was engulfed by the
great economic depression. Unemployment soared all over the capitalist world. The world
depression brought the capitalist system into disrepute and drew attention towards Marxism
and socialism.
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Impact on India
Socialist ideas now began to spread rapidly especially because many young persons who had
participated actively in the Non- Cooperation Movement were unhappy with its outcome and
were dissatisfied with Gandhian policies and ideas as well as the alternative Swarajist
Several socialist and communist groups came into existence all over the country. In
Bombay, S.A. Dange published a pamphlet Gandhi and Lenin and started the first socialist
weekly, The Socialist;
Bengal, Muzaffar Ahmed brought out Navayug and later founded the Langal in cooperation
with the poet NazruI Islam
Punjab, Ghulam Hussain and others published Inquilab;
Madras, M. Singaravelu founded the Labour-Kisan Gazette.
Student and youth associations were organized all over the country from 1927 onwards.
Hundreds of youth conferences were organized all over the country during 1928 and 1929
with speakers advocating radical solutions for the political, economic and social ills from
which the country was suffering. Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhas Bose toured the country
attacking imperialism, capitalism, and landlordism and preaching the ideology of socialism.
The Revolutionary Terrorists led by Chandrasekhar Azad and Bhagat Singh also turned to
socialism.
Trade union and peasant movements grew rapidly throughout the 1920s.
Within the Congress the left-wing tendency found reflection in the election of Jawaharlal Nehru
as president for 1936 and 1937 and of Subhas Bose for 1938 and 1939 and in the formation of
the Congress Socialist Party. (Hence option d is correct)
Source: Bipan Chandra
3. Which of the following statements is NOT correct with respect to Government of India Act
1935?
a) It proposed for the establishment of an All India Federation
b) Representatives of the states to the federal legislature were to be directly elected by
the people.
c) It provided for the system of Provincial Autonomy
d) Governors appointed by the British Government retained special powers
Solution: b
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Justification:
Government of India Act of 1935
Act provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation to be based on the union of the
British Indian provinces and Princely States. The representatives of the States to the federal
legislature were to be appointed directly by the Princes who were to be used to check and
counter the nationalists.
The franchise was limited to about one-sixth of the adults.
Defence and foreign affairs would remain outside the control of the federal legislature, while
the Viceroy would retain special control over other subjects.
The provinces were to be governed under a new system based on provincial autonomy under
which elected ministers controlled all provincial departments.
Once again, the Governors, appointed by the British Government, retained special powers.
They could veto legislative and administrative measures, especially those concerning
minorities, the rights of civil servants, law and order and British business interests.
(Hence option b is correct)
Source: Bipan Chandra
4. Which of the following was NOT undertaken under the Congress Rule in 1937?
a) All emergency powers acquired by the provincial governments were repealed
b) Bans on illegal political organizations like Hindustan Seva Dal were removed
c) The ban on communist party was not removed
d) It attempted a complete overhaul of the agrarian structure
Solution: d
Justification:
The commitment of the Congress to the defence and extension of civil liberties was as old as
the Congress itself, and it is hardly surprising, therefore, that the Congress Ministries
registered major achievements in this sphere.
All emergency powers acquired by the provincial governments during 1932, through Public
Safety Acts and the like, were repealed
bans on illegal political organizations such as the Hindustan Seva Dal and Youth Leagues and
on political books and journals were lifted. Though the ban on the Communist Party
remained, since it was imposed by the Central Government and could only be lifted on its
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orders, the Communists could in effect now function freely and openly in the Congress
provinces.
All restrictions on the press were removed. Securities taken from newspapers and presses
were refunded and pending prosecutions were withdrawn. The blacklisting of newspapers
for purposes of government advertising was given up.
Confiscated arms were returned and forfeited arms licenses were restored.
The Congress could not attempt a complete overhaul of the agrarian structure by completely
eliminating the zamindari system. This, for following reasons
According to the constitutional structure of the 1935 Act, the provincial Ministries did not
have enough powers to do so.
They also suffered from an extreme lack of financial resources, for the lion’s share of India’s
revenues was appropriated by the Government of India.
The Congress Ministries could also not touch the existing administrative structure, whose
sanctity was guarded by the Viceroy’s and Governor’s powers.
What is more important, the strategy of class adjustment also forbade it. A multi-class
movement could develop only by balancing or adjusting various, mutually clashing class
interests.
(Hence option d is correct)
Source: Bipan Chandra
5. The peasant movements in the 1930s and 1940 s were influenced by ?
1. Great Depression of 1929
2. Civil Disobedience Movement
3. Formation of Congress Socialist Party
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
a) Only 1
b) Only 1 and 2
c) Only 1 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: d
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Justification:
The 1930s bore witness to a new and nation-wide awakening of Indian peasants to their own
strength and capacity to organize for the betterment of their living conditions. This awakening
was largely a result of the combination of particular economic and political developments.
The great Depression that began to hit India from 1929-30
new phase of mass struggle launched by the Indian National Congress in 1930.
Effect of depression
It brought agricultural prices crashing down to half or less of their normal levels dealt a severe
blow to the already impoverished peasants burdened with high taxes and rents. The Government
was obdurate in refusing to scale down its own rates of taxation or in asking zamindars to bring
down their rents. The prices of manufactured goods, too, didn’t register comparable decreases.
All told, the peasants were placed in a situation where they had to continue to pay taxes, rents,
and debts at pre-Depression rates while their incomes continued to spiral steadily downward
Civil Disobedience Movement
was launched in this atmosphere of discontent in 1930, and in many parts of the country it soon
took on the form of a no-tax and no-rent campaign. Peasants, emboldened by the recent success
of the Bardoli Satyagraha (1928), joined the protest in large numbers. In Andhra, for example,
the political movement was soon enmeshed with the campaign against re-settlement that
threatened an increase in land revenue.
In U.P., no-revenue soon turned into no-rent 3nd the movement continued even during the
period of truce following the Gandhi-Irwin Pact. Gandhiji himself issued a manifesto to the U.P.
kisans asking them to pay only fifty per cent of the legal rent and get receipts for payment of the
full amount.
Peasants in Gujarat, especially in Surat and Kheda, refused to pay their taxes and went hijrat to
neighbouring Baroda territory to escape government repression. Their lands and movable
property were confiscated.
In Bihar and Bengal, powerful movements were launched against the hated chowkidara tax by
which villagers were made to pay for the upkeep of their own oppressors.
In Punjab, a no-revenue campaign was accompanied by the emergence of kisan sabhas that
demanded a reduction in land revenue and water-rates and the scaling down of debts.
Forest satyagrahas by which peasants, including tribals, defied the forest laws that prohibited
them from use of the forests were popular in Maharashtra, Bihar and the Central Provinces.
Anti-zamindari struggles emerged in Andhra, and the first target was the Venkatagiri zamindari,
in Nellore district.
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Also, in 1934, with the formation of the Congress Socialist Party (CSP). the process of the
consolidation of the Left forces received a significant push forward. The Communists, too, got
the opportunity, by becoming members of the CSP to work in an open and legal fashion. This
consolidation of the Left acted as a spur to the formation of an all-India body to coordinate the
kisan movement, a process that was already under way through the efforts of N.G. Ranga and
other kisan leaders.
(Hence option d is correct)
Source: Bipan Chandra
6. Which of the following is NOT correct with respect to the freedom struggle in Princely India?
a) Until Quit India movement the Congress did not initiate any political activity in the states.
b) All India states people’s conference was organized in December 1927.
c) Praja Mandals were formed due to the influence of Civil Disobedience Movement.
d) At Tripuri Congress in 1939 Congress decided to involve directly in the political activity
of princely states
Solution: c
Justification:
The advance of the national movement in British India, and the accompanying increase in
political consciousness about democracy, responsible government and civil liberties had an
inevitable impact on the people of the States.
In the first and second decade of the twentieth century, runaway terrorists from British India
seeking shelter in the States became agents of politicization.
A much more powerful influence was exercised by the Non-Cooperation and Khilafat Movement
launched in 1920; around this time and under its impact, numerous local organizations of the
States’ people came into existence. Some of the States in which praja mandals or States’ People’s
Conferences were organized were Mysore, Hyderabad, Baroda, the Kathiawad States, the Deccan
States, Jamnagar, Indore, and Nawanagar.
This process came to a head in December 1927 with the convening of the All India States’
People’s Conference (AISPC) which was attended by 700 political workers from the States. The
men chiefly responsible for this initiative were Baiwantrai Mehta, Manikial Kothari and G.R.
Abhayankar.
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Indian national congress
1) The policy of the INC towards the Indian states had been first enunciated in 1920 at Nagpur
when a resolution calling upon the Princes to grant full responsible government in their States
had been passed.
2) Simultaneously, however, the Congress, while allowing residents of the States to become
members of the Congress, made it clear that they could not initiate political activity in the States
in the name of Congress but only in their individual capacity or as members of the local political
organizations.
3) Given the great differences in the political conditions between British India and the States,
and between the different States themselves, the general lack of civil liberties including freedom
of association, the comparative political backwardness of the people, and the fact that the Indian
States were legally independent entities, these were understandable restraints imposed in the
interest of the movements in the States as ell as the movement in British India.
4) The main emphasis was that people of the States should build up their own strength and their
capacity to struggle for their demands.
5) In 1927, the Congress reiterated as resolution of 1920, and in 1929. Jawaharlal Nehru, in his
presidential address to the famous Lahore Congress, declared that ‘the Indian states cannot live
apart from the rest of India. The only people who have a right to determine the future of the
states must be the people of those states’) In later years, the Congress demanded that the Princes
guarantee fundamental rights to their people.
In the mid thirties, two associated developments brought about a distinct change in the situation
in the Indian States.
Government of India Act of 1935 projected a scheme of federation in which the Indian States
were to be brought into a direct constitutional relationship with British India and the States were
to send representatives to the Federal Legislature. The catch was that these representatives
would be nominees of the Princes and not democratically elected representatives of the people.
They would number one-third of the total numbers of the Federal legislature and act as a solid
conservative block that could be trusted to thwart nationalist pressures. The Indian National
Congress and the AISPC and other organizations of the States’ people clearly saw through this
imperialist maneuver and demanded that the States be represented not by the Princes’ nominees
but by elected representatives of the people. This lent a great sense of urgency to the demand
for responsible democratic government in the States.
assumption of office by Congress Ministries in the majority of the provinces in British India in
1937. The fact that the Congress was in power created a new sense of confidence and expectation
in the people of the Indian States and acted as a spur to greater political activity. The Princes too
had to reckon with a new political reality — the Congress was no longer just a party in opposition
but a party in power with a capacity to influence developments in contiguous Indian States.
The years 1938-39, in fact, stand out as years of a new awakening in the Indian States and were
witness to a large number of movements demanding responsible government and other reforms.
Praja mandals mushroomed in many States that had earlier no such organizations. Major
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struggles broke out in Jaipur, Kashmir, Rajkot, Patiala, Hyderabad, Mysore, Travancore, and the
Orissa States.
These new developments brought about a significant change in Congress policy as well.
Whereas, even in the Haripura session in 1938, the Congress had reiterated its policy that
movements in the States should not be launched in the name of the Congress but should rely on
their own independent strength and fight through local organizations, a few months later, on
seeing the new spirit that was abroad among the people and their capacity to struggle. Gandhiji
and the Congress changed their attitude on this question. The radicals and socialists in the
Congress, as well as political workers in the States, had in any case been pressing for this change
for quite some time.
Following upon this, the Congress at Tripuri in March 1939 passed a resolution enunciating its
new policy: ‘The great awakening that is taking place among the people of the States may lead to
a relaxation, or to a complete removal of the restraint which the Congress imposed upon itself,
thus resulting in an ever increasing identification of the Congress with the States’ peoples’.3 Also
in 1939, the AISPC elected Jawaharlal Nehru as its President for the Ludhiana session, thus
setting the seal on the fusion of the movements in Princely India and British India. The outbreak
of the Second World War brought about a distinct change in the political atmosphere.
(Hence option c is correct)
Source: Bipan Chandra
7. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the capitalist class in India during the
freedom struggle ?
1. Indian capitalist class grew from about the mid-19th century with largely an independent
capital base and not as junior partners of foreign capital.
2. On the whole it was not tied up in a subservient position with pro-imperialist feudal
interests either economically or politically.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c
Justification:
The economic development of the Indian capitalist class in the colonial period was substantial
and in many ways the nature of its growth was quite different from the usual experience in other
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colonial countries. This had important implications regarding the class’s position vis-a-vis
imperialism.
First, the Indian capitalist class grew from about the mid 19th century with largely an
independent capital base and not as junior partners of foreign capital or as compradors. Hence
statement1 is correct.
Second, the capitalist class on the whole was not tied up in a subservient position with pro-
imperialist feudal interests either economically or politically. (Hence statement 2 is correct. )In
fact, a wide cross section of the leaders of the capitalist class actually argued, m 1944-45, in their
famous Bombay plan (the signatories to which were Purshottamdas Thakurdas, J.R.D. Tata, G.D.
Birla, Ardeshir Dalal, Sri Ram, Kasturbhai Lalbhai, A.D. Shroff and John Mathai) for
comprehensive land reform, including cooperativization of production, finance and marketing.’
(Hence option c is correct)
Source: Bipan Chandra
8. Which of the following is NOT correct with respect to Cripps Mission in India?
a) It was sent to seek active co-operations of Indians in World War II
b) It promised India complete Independence and a constitution making body
c) Any province which was not prepared to accept the new constitution would have the right
to sign a separate agreement with Britain regarding future status
d) For the present, British would continue to exercise sole control over defence of the
country
Solution: b
Justification:
Why cripps mission was sent ?
As the war situation worsened, President Roosevelt of the USA and President Chiang Kai-Shek
of China as also the Labour Party leaders of Britain put pressure on Churchill to seek the active
cooperation of Indians in the War. To secure this cooperation the British Government sent to
India in March 1942 a mission headed by a Cabinet minister Stafford Cripps, a leftwing Labourite
who had earlier actively supported the Indian national movement.
Cripps Mission
Even though Cripps announced that the aim of British policy in India was ‘the earliest possible
realization of self- government in India,’ the Draft Declaration he brought with him was
disappointing. The Declaration promised India
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Dominion Status
constitution-making body after the War whose members would be elected by the provincial
assemblies and nominated by the rulers in case of the princely states.
The Pakistan demand was accommodated by the provision that any province which was not
prepared to accept the new constitution would have the right to sign a separate agreement with
Britain regarding its future status
For the present the British would continue to exercise sole control over the defence of the
country. Amery, the Secretary of State, described the Declaration as in essence a conservative,
reactionary and limited offer. Nehru, a friend of Cripps, was to write later: When I read those
proposals for the first time I was profoundly depressed.’
(Hence option b is correct)
Source: Bipan Chandra
9. Which of the following is NOT correct with respect to Cabinet Mission of 1946 ?
1. It was convinced that united India was unviable and hence accommodate the idea of
Pakistan
2. It proposed a center controlling defence, foreign affairs and Pakistan.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a
Justification:
Cabinet Mission
It was convinced that Pakistan was not viable and that the minorities’ autonomy must somehow
be safeguarded within the framework of a united India. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect).
The Mission Plan conceived three sections
A — comprising Madras, Bombay, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, C.P. and Orissa;
B — consisting of Punjab, NWFP and Sind;
C — of Bengal and Assam
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These sections would meet separately to decide on group constitutions.
There would be a common center controlling defence, foreign affairs and communications. After
the first general elections a province could come out of a group. After ten years a province could
call for a reconsideration of the group or union constitution.
Congress Reaction
It wanted that a province need not wait till the first elections to leave a group, it should have the
option not to join it in the first place. It had Congress- ruled provinces of Assam and NWFP
(which were in Sections C and B respectively) in mind when it raised this question.
Muslim League — wanted provinces to have the right to question the union constitution now,
not wait for ten years.
There was obviously a problem in that the Mission Plan was ambivalent on whether grouping
was compulsory or optional. It declared that grouping was optional but sections were
compulsory. This was a contradiction, which rather than removing, the Mission deliberately
quibbled about in the hope of somehow reconciling the irreconcilable.
(Hence option a is correct)
Source: Bipan Chandra
10. Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
Author Sanskrit work under Rashtrakuta
a) Trivikrama Nalachampu
b) Halayudha Kavirahasya
c) Gunabhadra Amogavritti
d) Viracharya Ganitasaram
Solution: c
Justification:
Sanskrit literature during Rashtrakutas
Trivikrama — Nalachampu
Halayudha — Kavirahasya (during the reign of Krishna III)
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Jain literature under Rashtrakutas
Amogavarsha I, who was a Jain patronized many Jain scholars.
Jinasena — Parsvabhudaya (biography of Parsva)
Gunabhadra — Adipurana (life stories of various Jain saints)
Sakatayana — Amogavritti(grammer work)
Viracharya (mathematician) – Ganitasaram
Kannada literature during Rashtrakutas
Amogavarsha — Kavirajamarga (first poetic work in Kannada language)
Pampa – Vikramasenavijaya
Ponna — Santipurana.
(Hence option c is correct)
Source: Tamil Nadu History Class 11.
11. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
1. Angkorwat temple is a Shaivite temple.
2. It is constructed in Dravidian style.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b
Justification:
Cambodia was colonised by Indians in the first century A.D. They influenced the native people
called the Khemers. The ruling dynasty was known as Kambojas and their country was Kamboja
or modern Cambodia. Under the early rulers Saivism and Vaishnavism made steady progress.
The Kamboja Empire at its greatest extent included Laos, Siam, part of Burma and the Malay
Peninsula. Numerous Sanskrit inscriptions give us a detailed history of its kings. A number of
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Hindu literary works like the Vedas, the Ramayana, the Mahabharata, Panini’s grammar, Hindu
philosophical treatises were all known to the people of Cambodia. Like the Pallava kings, they
were called Varmans. Yasovarman and Suryavarman II were two well-known rulers.
Temples were built in South Indian style. There are plenty of Sanskrit inscriptions. The most
famous of these temples was the temple (wat) of Vishnu built by Suryavarman II in his capital
city Angkor. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect). It was popularly called as the Angkorwat Temple.
It is standing on top of a terraced structure. Each terrace is a sort of a covered gallery which
contains numerous relief sculptures. The temple is constructed on the Dravidian style (Hence
statement 2 is correct) and the sculptures depict episodes from the Ramayana and the
Mahabharata. The Kambhoja kingdom declined only in fifteenth century.
(Hence option b is correct)
Source: Tamil Nadu History Class 11.
12. Under the rule of Delhi Sultanate technology, who was the first ruler to establish a separate
military department called diwan-i-arz ?
a) Alauddin Khilji
b) Ghiyasuddin Balban
c) Iltutumish
d) Muhammad bin Tughlak
Solution: b
Justification:
Balban was determined to break the power of the Forty, the Turkish nobles. He spared only the
most obedient nobles and eliminated all others by fair or foul means. Malik Baqbaq, the governor
of Badaun, was publicly flogged for his cruelty towards his servants. Haybat Khan, the governor
of Oudh, was also punished for killing a man who was drunk. Sher Khan, the governor of Bhatinda
was poisoned. Instead of expanding his kingdom, Balban paid more attention to the restoration
of law and order. He established a separate military department – diwan-i-arz – and reorganized
the army. The outskirts of Delhi were often plundered by the Mewatis. Balban took severe action
against them and prevented such robberies. Robbers were mercilessly pursued and put to death.
As a result, the roads became safe for travel.
(Hence option b is correct.)
Source: Tamil Nadu History Class 11.
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13. Which of the following is/are the contribution/s of Muhammad bin Tughlak ?
1. Introduction of Takkavi
2. Establishment of a separate department for agriculture.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c
Justification:
Muhammad bin Tughlaq
He increased the land revenue on the farmers of Doab (land between Ganges and Yamuna rivers)
in order to overcome financial difficulties. A severe famine was also ravaging that region at that
time. It had resulted in a serious peasant revolts. They fled from the villages but Muhammad bin
Tughlaq took harsh measures to capture and punish them. The revolts were crushed. However,
the Sultan realized later that adequate relief measures and the promotion of agriculture were
the real solution to the problem. Hence
He launched a scheme by which takkavi loans (loans for cultivation) were given to the
farmers to buy seed and to extend cultivation.
A separate department for agriculture, Diwan- i- Kohi was established.
Model farm under the state was created in an area of 64 square miles for which the
government spent seventy lakh tankas. This experiment was further continued by Firoz
Tughlaq.
(Hence option c is correct)
Source: Tamil Nadu History Class 11.
14. Which of the following is NOT correct about Firoz Shah Tughlak ?
a) He imposed Jiziya only on the non-Muslims
b) He developed royal factories called karkhanas
c) He abolished the iqtadari
d) He created a new department called Diwan-i-khairat
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Solution: c
Justification:
Firoz Tughlaq
He strictly followed the advice of the ulemas in running the administration.
He pleased the nobles and assured hereditary succession to their properties. Thus the
iqta system was not only revived but also it was made hereditary.
As per the Islamic law he levied the taxes.
Jiziya was strictly imposed on non-Muslims.
first Sultan to impose irrigation tax. But at the same time he dug irrigation canals and
wells. The longest canal was about 200 kilometres from Sutlej to Hansi. Another canal
was between Yamuna and Hissar.
The special tax on 28 items was abolished by him since they were against the Islamic law.
He also developed royal factories called karkhanas in which thousands of slaves were
employed.
About 300 new towns were built during his reign. The famous among them was Firozabad
near Red Fort in Delhi, now called Firoz Shah Kotla.
Old monuments like Jama Masjid and Qutb-Minar were also repaired.
A new department called Diwan-i-Khairat was created to take care of orphans and
widows.
Free hospitals and marriage bureaus for poor Muslims were also established.
Firoz patronized scholars like Barani and Afif.
As he was guided by the ulemas, he was intolerant towards Shia Muslims and Sufis. He
treated Hindus as second grade citizens and imposed Jiziya. In this respect he was the
precursor of Sikandar Lodi and Aurangazeb.
Also he increased the number of slaves by capturing the defeated soldiers and young
persons.
(Hence option c is correct)
Source: Tamil Nadu History Class 11
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15. What does khalisa land under the Delhi Sultanate refer to ?
a) Land assigned to officials
b) Land and revenue under the direct control of Sultans to service the royal court
c) Land granted to religious leaders
d) Land assigned to the nobility
Solution: b
Justification:
After consolidating their position in India, the Delhi Sultans introduced reforms in the land
revenue administration. The lands were classified into three categories:
iqta land – lands assigned to officials as iqtas instead of payment for their
khalisa land – land under the direct control of the Sultan and the revenues collected were
spent for the maintenance of royal court and royal household.
inam land – land assigned or granted to religious leaders or religious institutions.
(Hence option b is correct)
Source: Tamil Nadu History Class 11
16. Who authored the book Tabaqat – i- Nasari which deals with the general history of Muslim
dynasties upto 1260 ?
a) Ziauddin Barani
b) Alberuni
c) Hasan Nizami
d) Minhaj-us-Siraj
Solution: d
Justification:
The Delhi Sultans patronized learning and literature. Many of them had great love for Arabic and
Persian literature. Learned men came from Persia and Persian language got encouragement
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from the rulers. Besides theology and poetry, the writing of history was also encouraged. Some
of the Sultans had their own court historians.
The most famous historians of this period were Hasan Nizami, Minhaj-us-Siraj, Ziauddin Barani,
and Shams-Siraj Afif
Barani’s Tarikhi- Firoz Shahi contains the history of Tughlaq dynasty
Minhaj-us-Siraj wrote Tabaqat-i- Nasari, a general history of Muslim dynasties up to 1260.
(Hence option d is correct)
Source: Tamil Nadu History Class 11
17. Consider the following statements
1. Theosophical Society was founded in Ireland in 1875.
2. It accepted the Hindu beliefs of reincarnation and karma.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b
Justification:
Theosophical Society
founded in United States in 1875. In 1882, the headquarters was shifted to Adayar, on the
outskirts of Madras. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect).
Founders — Madame H.P. Blavatsky (1831-1891) and Colonel M.S. They were inspired by Indian
thought and culture.
The society believed that a special relationship could be established between a person’s soul and
God through contemplation, prayer, revelation, etc.
It accepted the Hindu beliefs in reincarnation and karma, and drew inspiration from the
philosophy of the Upanishads and samkhya, yoga and Vedanta schools of thought. (Hence
statement 2 is correct).
(Hence option b is correct)
Source: Spectrum
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18. Which of the following is/ are correct about vesara architecture ?
1. It was initiated by Pulakesin I.
2. The earliest example of it is the Ravan Phadi cave.
3. Its hallmark is hybridization.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
a) Only 1 and 3
b) Only 3
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) Only 2 and 3.
Solution: c
Justification:
vesara architecture – developed in southern part of the Deccan, i.e., in the region of Karnataka.
It’s hybrid of Nagara and Dravida style of temple architecture. (Hence statement 3 is correct).
Pulakesin I established the early western Chalukya kingdom when he secured the land around
Badami in 543. The early western Chalukyas ruled most of the Deccan till the mid-eighth century
when they were superseded by the Rashtrakutas.
Early Chalukyan activity also takes the form of rock-cut caves while later activity is of structural
temples. The earliest is probably the Ravana Phadi cave at Aihole which is known for its
distinctive sculptural style. One of the most important sculptures at the site is of Nataraja,
surrounded by larger-than-life-size depictions of the saptamatrikas: three to Shiva’s left and four
to his right. The figures are characterised by graceful, slim bodies, long, oval faces topped with
extremely tall cylindrical crowns and shown to wear short dhotis marked by fine incised
striations indicating pleating. They are distinctly different from contemporary western Deccan
or Vakataka styles seen at places such as Paunar and Ramtek. The hybridisation and
incorporation of several styles was the hallmark of Chalukyan buildings.
(Hence statement 1 and 2 are correct).
(Hence option c is correct)
Source: NCERT Class 11-An introduction to Indian Art part 1.
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19. Which of the following is true about Padmavat ?
1. It is a Masnavi.
2. It was originally written in the Persian Nastaliq
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c
Justification:
Padmavat (or Padmawat)
1) It’s an epic poem written in 1540 by Sufi poet Malik Muhammad Jayasi, who wrote it in the
Hindustani language of Awadhi, and originally in the Persian Nastaʿlīq script. (Hence statement
2 is correct).
2) It is the oldest extant text among the important works in Awadhi. A famous piece of Sufi
literature from the period, it relates an allegorical fictional story about the Delhi Sultan Alauddin
Khalji’s desire for the titular Padmavati, the Queen of Chittor. Alauddin Khalji and Padmavati’s
husband Ratan Sen are historical figures, whereas Padmavati is a fictional character.
Mathnawi or masnavi — a poem written in rhyming couplets, or more specifically, “a poem
based on independent, internally rhyming lines”. (Hence statement 1 is correct).
(Hence option c is correct)
Source: Tamil Nadu History Class 11 and Wiki
20. Which of the following is NOT correct about Hill temple architecture in Kashmir ?
a) It has a strong Gandhara influence.
b) They have influences of Hindu, Buddhist and Jain traditions.
c) Use of wood can be seen in these temples.
d) The Karkota Empire was the most significant in terms of architecture.
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Solution: b
Justification:
Hill temple architecture in Kashmir
1) Place of development : hills of Kumaon, Garhwal, Himachal and Kashmir
2) Influence :
Kashmir’s proximity to prominent Gandhara sites (such as Taxila, Peshawar and the northwest
frontier) lent the region a strong Gandhara influence by the 5CE.
This began to mix with the Gupta and post-Gupta traditions that were brought to it from Sarnath,
Mathura and even centres in Gujarat and Bengal.
Brahmin pundits and Buddhist monks frequently travelled between Kashmir, Garhwal, Kumaon
and religious centres in the plains like Banaras, Nalanda and even as far south as Kanchipuram.
As a result both Buddhist and Hindu traditions began to intermingle and spread in the hills.
The hills also had their own tradition of wooden buildings with pitched roofs.
At several places in the hills, therefore, you will find that while the main garbhagriha and
shikhara are made in a rekha-prasada or latina style, the mandapa is of an older form of wooden
architecture. Sometimes, the temple itself takes on a pagoda shape.
The Karkota period of Kashmir is the most significant in terms of architecture. One of the most
important temples is Pandrethan, built during the eighth and ninth centuries.
(Hence option b is correct)
Source: NCERT class 11-An introduction to Indian Art part 1
21. Along with which other territory (ies) was Goa constituted as a union territory by the 12th
Constitution Amendment Act, 1962 ?
a) Dadar and Nagar Haveli
b) Daman and Diu
c) Puducherry
d) Chandigarh
Solution: b)
Goa, Daman and Diu India acquired these three territories from the Portuguese by means of a
police action in 1961. They were constituted as a union territory by the 12th Constitutional
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Amendment Act, 1962. Later, in 1987, Goa was conferred a statehood. Consequently, Daman and
Diu was made a separate union territory.
22. Swayam Prabha’, a Government of India initiative, is a project for
a) Online training of Yoga and Meditation practitioners
b) Promoting entrepreneurship by way of the Government setting up state of the art skilling
centres in collaboration with the private industry
c) Identifying new digital technology innovations to solve the many social problems faced
by the poor and vulnerable in urban setups
d) Providing high quality educational content through DTH channels to teachers, students
and citizens across the country
Solution: d)
The Centre will formally launch Swayam Prabha – a project for telecasting ‘High-quality
educational programmes’ through 32 DTH channels on Sunday at a National Convention on
Digital Initiatives for Higher Education.
Every day, there will be content of four hours that will be repeated six times, thus covering all
24 hours of the day. This will allow the student to choose a time of his own convenience,” said
an official. “The channels will cover curriculum-based course content covering arts, science,
commerce, performing arts, social sciences, engineering, medicine, law, agriculture, etc.”
http://www.thehindu.com/education/schools/coming-direct-to-home-coaching-for-students-
iit-aspirants/article19240986.ece;
Improvisation: http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/more-channels-to-train-
teachers/article22339416.ece;
23. In what ways can extracting the genetic information of different Indian groups (genome
sequencing) be beneficial ?
1. The information can be utilised to help decrease the country’s disease burden
2. The application of this information will contribute to India becoming a knowledge
based-economy
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
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d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
Knowledge is now recognised as the driver of productivity and economic growth, leading to a
new focus on the role of information, technology and learning in economic performance. The
term “knowledge-based economy” stems from this fuller recognition of the place of knowledge
and technology in modern economies.
To gain fully from the genomics revolution, India needs to collect information about the genetics
of its population and train manpower capable of interpreting it. The information that is needed
has to come from a large and sustained collection of data — fully sequenced individual genomes
along with medical histories for the individuals who volunteer for this effort. This knowledge
could then also be quickly applied to the task of managing diseases as well as be used for genetic
counselling that could reduce their incidence in future generations. As an example elsewhere,
the founder group of Ashkenazi Jews have almost eliminated Tay-Sachs disease from their
population by such means.
Q45, CS(P) 2017: http://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/06/19/answer-key-upsc-civil-
services-prelims-exam-2017-general-studies-paper-1/;
We are just providing the source for definition of KBE, no need to refer to it:
https://www.oecd.org/sti/sci-tech/1913021.pdf;
Source/improvisation: http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/towards-a-genomics-
revolution/article22361004.ece;
24. Which among the following is NOT an official language of the United Nations ?
a) Arabic
b) Spanish
c) German
d) Russian
Solution: c)
There are six official languages of the UN. These are Arabic, Chinese, English, French, Russian
and Spanish. The correct interpretation and translation of these six languages, in both spoken
and written form, is very important to the work of the Organization, because this enables clear
and concise communication on issues of global importance.
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A delegate may speak in any official UN language. The speech is interpreted simultaneously into
the other official languages of the UN.
At times, a delegate may choose to make a statement using a non-official language. In such cases,
the delegation must provide either an interpretation or a written text of the statement in one of
the official languages.
Most UN documents are issued in all six official languages, requiring translation from the original
document.
Additional Information:
Minister Sushma Swaraj said the process required a two-thirds majority vote, and that other
countries using Hindi should share the expenditure incurred in making the language an official
one.
Though there are six official languages in the U.N., only two — English and French — were
working languages.
http://www.un.org/en/sections/about-un/official-languages/;
Improvisation: http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/what-is-the-purpose-of-hindi-as-an-
official-language-in-un-asks-tharoor/article22357862.ece;
25. In contrast with the Medical Council of India, the proposed National Medical Council will
1. Centralise all powers from advising universities on curriculum to disciplining errant
doctors
2. Include among its members non-doctors like patient-rights advocates and ethicists
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b.
In contrast with the MCI, which does everything from advising universities on curriculum to
disciplining errant doctors, the NMC distributes powers among four autonomous boards —
those for undergraduate education, postgraduate education, medical assessment and rating, and
ethics and registration. Also, unlike the MCI, the commission includes non-doctors like patient-
rights advocates and ethicists, in line with the medical regulators of the U.K., Australia and
Canada.
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Where the NMC bill trips up is in how it chooses the members of the new regulator. The NMC
Bill’s solution to the pitfalls of the MCI electoral process is for the central government to select
most of the commission’s members… The Bill also misses an opportunity to plan for India’s rural
health-care needs (especially the issue of shortage of doctors) in the coming decades.
http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/prescription-for-the-future/article22413556.ece;
http://www.prsindia.org/billtrack/the-national-medical-commission-bill-2017-5024/;
26. The farthest point from center of Earth is
a) Mount Kenya.
b) Mount Everest.
c) Mount Chimborazo.
d) Mauna Kea
Solution: c
Explanation: Highest above Earth’s Center: The Earth does not have the shape of a perfect
sphere. Instead, its diameter is greatest near the equator. In the diagram above, the gray dashed
line is a perfect circle, and the solid blue line represents the shape of the earth (exaggerated a bit
to make its departure from spherical obvious). Chimborazo is located near the equator where
Earth’s diameter is greatest. This makes the summit of Chimborazo the highest point above the
center of the Earth.
Mauna Kea: Tallest Mountain
Mauna Kea has an altitude of 4,205 meters (13,796 feet) – much lower than Mount Everest.
However, Mauna Kea is an island, and if the distance from the bottom of the nearby Pacific Ocean
floor to the peak of the island is measured, then Mauna Kea is “taller” than Mount Everest.
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Mauna Kea is over 10,000 meters tall compared to 8,850 meters for Mount Everest – making it
the “world’s tallest mountain.”
27. Consider the following statements
1. The sun rays never fall vertically over the state of Manipur.
2. Eris earlier called Ceres 2003 UB313 is a dwarf planet located between Neptune and
Uranus.
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct ?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of the above
Solution: a
Explanation:
Manipur – The state lies at a latitude of 23°83’N – 25°68’N and a longitude of 93°03’E – 94°78’E.
Since it lies beyond Tropic of cancer line , the sun rays do not fall vertically on Manipur. (Hence
statement 1 is correct).
Eris is the largest known dwarf planet in the solar system. It is a trans-Neptunian object (TNO),
orbiting the Sun in a region of space known as the scattered disc, just beyond the Kuiper belt.
(Hence statement 2 is incorrect). Eris is the most distant object ever seen in orbit around the
Sun, even more distant than Sedna, the Kuiper Belt object discovered in 2003. It is almost 10
billion miles from the Sun and more than 3 times more distant than Pluto and takes more than
twice as long to orbit the Sun as Pluto. It has an orbital period of 556.7 years.
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28. Consider the following statements
1. When crossing the International Date Line (IDL) into the Eastern Hemisphere, a person
loses a day.
2. The duration of continuous day or night decreases north ward as one moves from Artic
Circle to North Pole.
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct ?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of the above
Answer: a
The earth rotates from West to East, therefore, time to the East is ahead of time to the West.
When crossing the International Date Line from the Western to the Eastern Hemisphere we are
going ‘forward’ in terms of time and ‘backwards’ in time when crossing from the Eastern to the
Western Hemisphere. (Hence statement 1 is correct).
So, travel east across the International Date Line results in a day, or 24 hours, being subtracted.
Travel west across the International Date Line results in a day being added.
Day length varies with the time of year and the latitude at which you are situated. Because of the
earth’s tilt, areas above the Arctic Circle receive 24 hours of sunlight each summer, but 24 hours
of darkness each winter. The duration increases as we move from Arctic circle to North pole.
(Hence statement 2 is incorrect).
29. An important cause of the slowing down of the Earth’s rotation is the
a) Pull of the moon on the Earth’s Magnetic field
b) Tides caused by the gravity of the moon
c) Gravitational pull of sun
d) None of the above
Solution: b
Explanation:
The side of the Earth facing the Moon is about 6400 kilometers closer to the Moon than the center
of the Earth is, and the Moon’s gravity pulls on the near side of the Earth more strongly than on
the Earth’s center. This produces a tidal bulge on the side of the Earth facing the Moon. These
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tidal bulges are always along the Earth-Moon line and the Earth rotates beneath the tidal bulge.
When the part of the Earth where you are located sweeps under the bulges, you experience a
high tide; when it passes under one of the depressions, you experience a low tide. An ideal coast
should experience the rise and fall of the tides twice a day. In reality, the tidal cycle also depends
on the latitude of the site, the shape of the shore, winds, etc. As the Earth rotates beneath the
tidal bulges, it attempts to drag the bulges along with it. A large amount of friction is produced
which slows down the Earth’s spin. The day has been getting longer and longer by about 0.0016
seconds each century.
(Hence answer is option B).
Rotational speed of earth is not affected by the magnetic lines
Because of the distance the impact of gravitational pull of sun on rotational speed variation is
negligible.
30. Identify the countries which border more than one ocean.
1. East Timor
2. Colombia
3. Thailand
Which of the following is/are correct ?
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 Only
d) All of the above
Answer: d
East Timor – Pacific and Indian Ocean
Colombia – Atlantic and Pacific
Thailand – Indian and Pacific oceans
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31. Consider the following statements
1. Fold mountains are usually composed of sedimentary rocks
2. Block mountains are formed by the process of denudation
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct ?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of the above
Answer: a
Explanation:
Fold Mountains are formed when sedimentary rock strata in geosynclines are subjected to
compressive forces. Fold Mountains form when two tectonic plates move towards each other at
a convergent plate boundary. Fold Mountains form from sedimentary rocks that accumulate
along the margins of continents. (Hence statement 1 is correct).
Block Mountains are formed by faulting. Block mountains also known as Horst. It is formed when
the tensional forces causes the plates on the earth crusts to move apart. This movement causes
the rocks to be stretched. Temperatures are low and the rocks are brittle. Instead of folding, they
break into large blocks. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect).
Due to the compressional forces, the middle section of the rocks are uplifted, resulting it to be
higher than the surrounding land.
An example of the block mountain is the Vosges in France and the Black Forest in Germany which
are separated by the Rhine Valley.
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32. Lakshadweep Island are the product of
a) Volcanic Activity
b) Wave action
c) Sea-floor expansion
d) Reef formation
Answer : d
Explanation : Lakshadweep islands consist of a group of tiny coral islands, located in the
Arabian Sea, about 400 km from the main land (southern tip of the Indian Peninsula). The Union
Territory of Lakshadweep consists of 10 inhabited islands, 17 uninhabited islands, attached
islets, 4 newly formed islets and 5 submerged reefs. These islands are scattered in the Arabian
Sea between North Latitudes 8o 00’ and 12o 13’N and east longitude 71o 00’ and 74o 00’E .
These islands are typically a chain of low islands surrounding a shallow lagoon, consisting
largely of recent sediments on top of older coral limestone.
33. Which of the following statements is NOT correct
a) Oceanic crust are much younger compared to Continental crust.
b) The oceanic crust is made of basalt and gabbro rocks
c) The Earth’s mantle is composed of ultramafic rocks
d) The largest portion of Earth’s volume is occupied by core.
Answer : d
Explanation :
Earth’s crust only accounts for less than 1% of the Earth’s interior. The Earth’s crust is
the outer shell of the Earth. This is the part that has cooled down enough to solidify into
rock. The crust extends down 30 km to 80 km underneath the continents, and only 5 km
beneath the oceans. As you travel down through the crust, temperatures increase. The
crust is broken up into several tectonic plates which “float” on top of the Earth’s mantle.
In some regions, plates are sliding underneath one another, recycling rocks into the Earth.
The crust beneath the middle of the oceans is spreading apart, and new material is welling
up.
Beneath the crust is the largest part of the Earth’s interior: the mantle, which makes up
about 84% of the Earth’s volume. This region extends down to a depth of 2,890 km. As
you travel down through the mantle, temperatures increase immensely;
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At the very center of the Earth lies the core. This is a solid sphere of metal 2,440 km across
surrounded by a layer of liquid metal. Scientists think that mostly made of iron (80%),
with the rest composed of other heavy metals, like nickel, gold, platinum and even
uranium.
The oceanic crust are destroyed along the submergent boundaries ( trenches ) and new
oceanic floor is created along the divergent plate boundary
Mantle is composed of ultramafic rocks
Oceanic crust is composed of basalt
34. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of landforms developed under fluvial cycle
of erosion in terms of where they are formed in the river course ?
a) Gorge-Piedmont plain-Flood plain-Delta
b) Gorge-Flood plain-Piedmont plain-Delta
c) Piedmont Plain-Gorge-Flood Plain-Delta
d) Gorge-Piedmont Plain-Delta-Flood Plain
Answer : a
Explanation :
Piedmont plain are formed along the foothills region.
Gorge are formed at the upper reaches of mountains
Flood plains are formed at lower reaches where the elevation is much lower
Delta plains are formed along coastline
35. The factors that affect wind direction and speed are.
a) Pressure gradient force, coriolis force, moisture content.
b) Coriolis force, pressure gradient force, friction.
c) Friction, moisture content, pressure gradient force.
d) Moisture content, centripetal acceleration, coriolis force.
Answer: b
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Explanation: Moisture does not affect the wind speed and direction
Factors Affecting Wind Motion:
1. Pressure Gradient Force:
This is the force generated due to the differences in horizontal pressure, and it operates from the
high pressure area to a low pressure area. Since a closely spaced gradient implies a steep
pressure change, it also indicates a strong wind speed. The wind direction follows the direction
of change of pressure, i.e. perpendicular to the isobars.
2. Coriolis Force:
Due to the earth’s rotation, winds do not cross the isobars at right angles as the pressure gradient
force directs, but get deflected from their original path. This deviation is the result of the earth’s
rotation and is called the Coriolis Effect or Coriolis force. Due to this effect, winds in the northern
hemisphere get deflected to the right of their path and those in the southern hemisphere to their
left, following Farrel’s Law. The Coriolis force changes wind direction but not its speed. This
deflection force does not seem to exist until the air is set in motion and increases with wind
velocity, air mass and an increase in latitude.
3. Centripetal Acceleration:
Due to inward acceleration of air towards the centre of rotation on the rotating earth, it is
possible for the air to maintain a curved path (parallel to the isobars), about a local axis of high
or low pressure. It is known as centripetal acceleration.
4. Frictional Force:
The irregularities of the earth’s surface offer resistance to the wind motion in the form of friction.
This force determines the angle at which air will flow across the isobars, as well as the speed at
which it will move. It may also alter wind direction. Over the relatively smooth ocean surface,
the friction is minimum, so the air moves at low angles to the isobars and at a greater speed. Over
uneven terrain, however, due to high friction, the wind direction makes high angles with, isobars
and the speed gets retarded.
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36. Consider the following statements regarding ocean currents.
1. At higher latitudes, usually cold currents move along the western coasts of the continents.
2. Alaska current is a warm current moving along coast of USA and Canada.
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct ?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of the above
Answer : b
Explanation: In general the cold currents move eastern coast of continents at higher latitudes.
Example Labrador current , Oyashio current. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect).
Alaska is a warm current. (Hence statement 2 is correct).
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37. Which of the following is NOT a feature of tropical rainforest.
a) More than 200cm of annual rainfall.
b) Nutrient-rich and pH-neutral soil
c) Low annual range of temperature.
d) Dense canopy with little light reaching the forest floor.
Answer : b
Explanation :
Most tropical rainforest soils relatively poor in nutrients. Millions of years of weathering and
torrential rains have washed most of the nutrients out of the soil. Constant warmth and moisture
promote rapid decay of organic matter. When a tree dies in the rainforest, living organisms
quickly absorb the nutrients before they have a chance to be washed away. When tropical forests
are cut and burned, heavy rains can quickly wash the released nutrients away, leaving the soil
even more impoverished. Because of heavy leaching of bases the soil is acidic in nature
38. Between which one of the following pairs of Ports does Panama Canal shorten the distance
to the maximum.
a) Liverpool and shanghai
b) New York and wellington
c) Liverpool and Sydney
d) New York and San Francisco.
Answer : d
Explanation:
Because of the circumnavigation of South America the distance is shortened to maximum
between New York and San Francisco. In rest of the cases the proportion of distance shortened
is lesser.
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39. Consider the following statements regarding HOT deserts.
1. High annual range of temperature.
2. Nomadism
3. Located on eastern margins of continent.
Which of the following are CORRECT ?
a) 2 Only
b) 1 & 2 Only
c) 2 & 3 Only
d) 1 & 3 only
Answer: a
Explanation: The annual range of temperature is lesser and the temperatures are higher
throughout the year. Hot deserts have greater diurnal range of temperature. (Hence statement
1 is incorrect).
Hot deserts are located on the Western margins of continents. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect).
Nomadism is important characteristics of deserts where people or tribe move place to place in
search of pasture and food. (Hence statement 2 is correct).
40. Which of the following are correctly matched.
Forest Tree
1. Tundra Vegetation — Lichens
2. Tropical Deciduous Forest — Mahogany
3. Coniferous Forests — Pine
a) 3 Only
b) 1 Only
c) 1 & 3 Only
d) 1 & 2 Only
Answer: c
Explanation:
Mahogany is found in the Tropical Evergreen forest.
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Tundra Vegetation is found in polar areas of Europe, Asia and North America. Only mosses ,
lichens and very small shrubs are found in these regions
Coniferous forests are mostly found in regions of the Earth that experience long winters and
short summers. Coniferous forests, therefore, are found mainly in the northern hemisphere,
although some are found in the southern hemisphere.Coniferous forests (fir, pine, spruce) make
up one-third of the world’s forests and are found in northern parts of North America, Europe
and Asia where temperatures tend to be lower and winter tends to last longer.
41. Which of the following rivers originate along the slopes of Eastern Ghats
1. Vamshadhara
2. Subranarekha
3. Indravati
4. Vaigai
Which of the following is CORRECT ?
a) 1 and 4
b) 1 and 3
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 2, 3 and 4
Answer: c
Explanation :
Vaigai originates from western ghats and falls in Palk starit.
Subarnarekha rivers originates in chotanagpur plateau near Ranchi and flows through the states
of Jharkand, West Bengal and Odisha.
Vamshadhara and Indravati rivers originate along slopes of Eastern Ghats.
42. Which of the following rivers form natural boundary between various states in India.
1. Ravi
2. Chambal
3. Yamuna
4. Seonath
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 2 & 4
c) 2, 3 Only d) 2, 3 &4
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Answer : a
Explanation:
Ravi river forms boundary between Jammu Kashmir and Punjab.
Chambal river forms boundary between Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh.
Yamuna river forms boundary between Haryana and Uttarpradesh.
Seonath or shivanath is tributary of Mahanadi river entirely located in Chattisgarh
43. Which of the following Ramsar Sites are located in Western Himalayas.
1. Nalasarovar
2. Kanjli
3. Rudrasagar Lake
a) 2 & 3 only
b) 3 Only
c) 1 & 3 Only
d) None of the above
Answer : d
Nalasarovar is in Gujarat
Kanjli is in Punjab plains
Rudrasagar lake is in Tripura
44. Identify the brackish/salt water lakes India.
1. Pangong Tso
2. Sambhar Lake
3. Loktak Lake
a) 1 & 3
b) 2 Only
c) 1 & 2
d) 2 & 3
Answer : c
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Expalnation :
Pangong Tso formed from Tethys geosyncline is a salt water lake.
Sambhar is salt water lake in Rajasthan where evaporation exceeds the precipitation.
Loktak lake is fresh water lake in Manipur
45. Doyang and Dikhu are the prominent river systems of which of the following state.
a) Arunachal Pradesh
b) Mizoram
c) Meghalaya
d) Nagaland
Answer : d
Explanation: The major rivers of Nagaland are Doyang, Dikhu, Dhansiri, Tizu, Tsurong, Nanung,
Tsurang or Disai, Tsumok, Menung, Dzu, Langlong, Zunki, Likimro, Lanye, Dzuza and Manglu. All
these rivers are dendritic in nature.
Of the rivers, Dhansiri, Doyang and Dikhu flow westward into the Brahmaputra.
The Tizu River, on the other hand, flows towards east and joins the Chindwin River in Burma.
46. The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is a regulation that intends to strengthen
and harmonise data protection law frameworks across the
a) European Union
b) G20 group of nations
c) OECD countries
d) NATO countries
Solution: a.
GDPR seeks to create a harmonised data protection law framework across the EU and aims to
give citizens back the control of their personal data, whilst imposing strict rules on those hosting
and ‘processing’ this data, anywhere in the world. The Regulation also introduces rules relating
to the free movement of personal data within and outside the EU.
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GDPR would apply to all firms, regardless of their location, that process personal data of people
living in the EU. Once in force, the GDPR would require companies to notify a data breach within
72 hours of the event.
What is the GDPR: https://www.ibm.com/analytics/us/en/technology/general-data-
protection-regulation/; https://www.eugdpr.org;
Source/Improvisation: http://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/too-few-prepared-for-
gdpr/article22612475.ece;
47. Consider the following statements with reference to inflation trends in the Indian economy
over the past few years:
1. The average Consumer Price Index has steadily declined since 2014-15
2. The average Wholesale Price Index declined in 2015-16 but has been rising since
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=175979
http://www.insightsonindia.com/2018/02/01/quiz-2017-insights-current-affairs-quiz-01-
february-2018/
48. The Technical Education Quality Improvement Programme (TEQIP) is run by
a) Ministry of Labour and Employment
b) Ministry of Human Resource Development
c) Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
d) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
Solution: b.
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The Ministry of Human Resource Development has recruited more than 1200 highly qualified
and motivated graduates from IITs and NITs among others to teach in Engineering Colleges in
the most backward areas for the next 3 years.
Under this project (presently TEQIP-III, assisted by World Bank)), all Government engineering
colleges are selected for direct intervention, and all private engineering colleges are selected for
indirect intervention. The measures are institution-based (ex: governance reforms) and student-
based (ex: improving the quality of teaching).
http://pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1518453
http://mhrd.gov.in/technical-education-12
49. Consider the following statements:
1. It is a low cost, solar energy driven cleanup technique.
2. It is most useful at sites with shallow, low levels of contamination.
3. It is Useful for treating a wide variety of environmental contaminants.
4. It is effective with, or in some cases, in place of mechanical cleanup methods
The above statements refer to:
a) Phytoremediation
b) Bioventing
c) Bioleaching
d) Bioremediation
Solution: a)
http://www.insightsonindia.com/2018/02/03/quiz-2017-insights-current-affairs-quiz-03-
february-2018/
Phytoremediation (‘phyto’ means plant) is a generic term for the group of technologies that use
plants for remediating soils, sludges, sediments and water contaminated with organic and
inorganic contaminants. Phytoremediation can be defined as “the efficient use of plants to
remove, detoxify or immobilise environmental contaminants in a growth matrix (soil, water or
sediments) through the natural biological, chemical or physical activities and processes of the
plants”. Plants are unique organisms equipped with remarkable metabolic and absorption
capabilities, as well as transport systems that can take up nutrients or contaminants selectively
from the growth matrix, soil or water. Phytoremediation involves growing plants in a
contaminated matrix, for a required growth period, to remove contaminants from the matrix, or
facilitate immobilisation (binding/containment) or degradation (detoxification) of the
pollutants. The plants can be subsequently harvested, processed and disposed.
http://www.unep.or.jp/Ietc/Publications/Freshwater/FMS2/1.asp
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50. Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament can amend a repealed legislation retrospectively
2. The finance bill, the passing of which by the Parliament is a part of enactment of the
budget, is a money bill
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c.
Presently, consider statement 1 to be correct. Keep track of the news for any updates on this
issue.
The Union government has, in the Budget, proposed to amend the repealed Foreign Contribution
Regulation Act (FCRA), 1976, retrospectively, a move that will benefit the ruling BJP and the
Congress held guilty by the Delhi High Court for receiving foreign funds from two subsidiaries of
Vedanta, a U.K.-based company. (The Representation of the People Act and the FCRA bar
political parties from receiving foreign funds.)
In 2016, the government amended the FCRA through the Finance Bill route, allowing foreign-
origin companies to finance non-governmental organisations and clearing the way for donations
to political parties by changing the definition of “foreign companies”. The amendment, though
done retrospectively, only made valid the foreign donations received after 2010, the year when
the 1976 Act was amended. The retrospective amendment did not apply to donations prior to
2010.
Justification for Statement 2 (Stages in Enactment of Budget -> Chapter ‘Parliament’, Indian
Polity by M Laxmikanth): The Finance Bill (not financial bill) is introduced to give effect to the
financial proposals of the Government of India for the following year. It is subjected to all
the conditions applicable to a Money Bill.
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/fcra-changes-will-help-bjp-
cong/article22639424.ece;
http://indianexpress.com/article/cities/delhi/fcra-amendment-in-finance-bill-to-help-bjp-
congress-escape-scrutiny-5049589/
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51. The most suitable method for prevention of gully erosion is:
a) Mulching
b) Rock dam structure
c) Ploughing
d) Perimeter runoff control
Answer: (b)
Justification:
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52. The relative proportion of sand, silt and clay in a soil refers to its
a) Profile
b) Horizon
c) Structure
d) Texture
Answer: (d)
Justification:
A soil profile is a vertical cross section of the soil. When exposed, various soil horizons, or layers
of soil, become apparent. Each horizon of soil may be different from the other horizons in
physical or chemical ways. The differences are developed from the interaction of such soil-
forming factors as parent material, slope, native vegetation, weathering, and climate.
Texture indicates the relative content of particles of various sizes, such as sand, silt and clay in
the soil. Texture influences the ease with which soil can be worked, the amount of water and air
it holds, and the rate at which water can enter and move through soil.
Soil structure is defined by the way individual particles of sand, silt, and clay are assembled.
Single particles when assembled appear as larger particles. These are called aggregates. Soil
structure is most usefully described in terms of grade (degree of aggregation), class (average
size) and type of aggregates (form).
53. Which of the following are correctly matched ?
Minerals Region
1. Coal — Appalachian
2. Tin — Andes region
3. Iron-ore — Urals
Which of the following is/are correct
a) 1 Only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)
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Justification:
Appalachian Mountains is rich in coal deposits. The Appalachian Province contains two-fifths
of bituminous coal and nearly all the anthracites.
Bolivia is one the leading producer of Tin in the world. Bolivian Andes are famous for tin
deposits.
Ural has rich deposits of iron ore. Magnitogorsk is an important mining area in Urals.
54. Consider the following statements
1. Ocean Thermal Energy is due to pressure difference at different levels in the ocean.
2. Ladakh a cold desert in Jammu Kashmir has huge solar energy potential.
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct ?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) All of the above
Answer: (b)
Justification:
Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC) is a process that can produce electricity by using
the temperature difference between deep cold ocean water and warm tropical surface waters.
OTEC plants pump large quantities of deep cold seawater and surface seawater to run a power
cycle and produce electricity.
The Ladakh region of Jammu & Kashmir also known as cold desert has a vast potential to
produce 111 giga watts (GWS) of solar power.
The above diagram shows amount of insolation received by different regions.
Barren land, clear sky and greater insolation makes it an ideal location for solar energy projects.
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55. Which one of the following statements is NOT CORRECT ?
a) In intensive subsistence agriculture, animal farming is more developed.
b) Shifting cultivation is characterized by field rotation rather than by crop rotation
c) Plantation agriculture is both capital and labor intensive
d) Nomadic herding is a form of pastoralism which arises in response to climatic
constraints and terrain
Answer: (a)
Justification:
Because of immense population pressure, most of land is utilized for cultivation of more than
one set of crops. Cattle rearing is not well developed because of very low availability of pasture
land. Cattle rearing is well developed in temperate grasslands. Intensive subsistence agriculture
is important feature of south and Southeast Asia.
Shifting agriculture, system of cultivation that preserves soil fertility by plot (field) rotation, as
distinct from crop rotation. In shifting agriculture a plot of land is cleared and cultivated for a
short period of time; then it is abandoned and allowed to revert to its natural vegetation while
the cultivator moves on to another plot. The period of cultivation is usually terminated when the
soil shows signs of exhaustion or, more commonly, when the field is overrun by weeds
Plantation agriculture is a form of commercial farming where crops are grown for profit. The
characteristic features of this type of farming are large estates or plantations, large capital
investment, managerial and technical support, scientific methods of cultivation, single crop
specialization, cheap labor, and a good system of transportation which links the estates to the
factories and markets for the export of the products
Nomadism is practiced in semi and arid regions of tropical regions and tundra. Because of
climatic constraints tribes wander in search of food and pasture.
56. Which of the following are correctly matched ?
1. Nomadic Herding – Tundra Region.
2. Mixed Farming – Eastern USA
3. Commercial Grain Farming – South East Asia.
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Which of the following is/are correct.
a) 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) All the above
Answer: (c)
Justification:
Nomadic Herders of Tundra
On the southern margins of Tundra, there are certain nomadic herders, e.g., Lapps, Yakuts and
Eskimos. These herders have adjusted themselves to the food supply of reindeer. In the northern
parts of Norway, Sweden, Russia and Finland such herders constitute a significant part of the
population.
During the short summer they live on the grassy mountains and in autumn they migrate along
with their herds in coniferous areas of the south in order to meet the fodder requirements of
their herds and to protect them from the freezing conditions of the Tundra climate.
Eastern USA is industrialized and densely populated region. In mixed farming both agriculture
cultivation and cattle rearing is well developed. Mixed farming is important characteristic of
well-developed region with greater population, for e.g. Western Europe.
Commercial grain farming is important feature of temperate grasslands.
57. Consider the following crops cultivated in India.
1. Cardamom
2. Tea
3. Coffee
Which of the above in general are grown under shade of trees or partial sunlight ?
a) 3 Only
b) 1 and 3 Only
c) 2 and 3 Only
d) All the above
Answer: (b)
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Justification:
Cardamom is grown commercially in plantations under the shade of tall forest trees. It is a very
labor-intensive crop to produce. The fruits are picked individually by hand before they are fully
ripe, over a period of several months. In India, cardamom grows under natural conditions of the
evergreen forests in the Western Ghats. It thrives best in tropical forests at altitudes ranging
from 600-1500 metres, receiving a well-distributed rainfall of over 150 cm and a temperature
of 10o – 35o C. Its optimum growth and development is observed in warm and humid places
under the canopy of lofty, evergreen forest trees. It is highly sensitive to wind and drought and,
therefore areas liable to be affected by these conditions are unsuitable. The crop does not survive
in waterlogged or excessive moisture.
Coffee plant requires hot and humid climate with temperature varying between 15°C and 28 °C
and rainfall from 150 to 250 cm. It does not tolerate frost, snowfall, high temperature above 30°C
and strong sun shine and is generally grown under shady trees. Prolonged drought is also
injurious to coffee. Dry weather is necessary at the time of ripening of the berries. Stagnant water
is harmful and this crop is grown on hill slopes at elevations from 600 to 1,600 metres above sea
level.
Tea
Temperature: 21°C to 29°C is ideal for the production of tea. High temperature is
required in summer. The lowest temperature for the growth of tea is 16°C.
Rainfall: 150-250 cm of rainfall is required for tea cultivation.
Soil: Tea shrubs require fertile mountain soil mixed with lime and iron. The soil should
be rich in humus.
Land: Tea cultivation needs well drained land. Stagnation of water is not good for tea
plants. Heavy rainfall but no stagnancy of water, such mountain slopes are good for tea
cultivation.
58. Consider the following statements
1. Intensive subsistence agriculture is important characteristic of fertile plains of South and
South-East Asia with higher density of population.
2. In general per hectare output in commercial agriculture is much higher compared to
Intensive agriculture.
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct ?
a) 1 Only b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2 d) None of the above
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Answer: (b)
Justification:
Fertile alluvial plains of south and south-east Asia practice intensive subsistence
agriculture. For e.g Indus, Gangetic plains.
The per hectare productivity of intensive agriculture is much higher. Fertile soil, greater
labor and agricultural inputs leads to greater productivity.
59. According to most scientists, which of the following is NOT true about the clearing of Tropical
rainforests.
a) It enlarges holes in the ozone layer
b) It causes global warming
c) It negatively impacts the quality of soil.
d) It is partly caused by shifting cultivation.
Answer: (a)
Justification:
Why does the ozone hole form over Antarctica?
The answer is essentially ‘because of the weather in the ozone layer’. In order for rapid ozone
destruction to happen, clouds (known as PSCs, Stratospheric Clouds Mother of Pearl or
Nacreous Clouds) have to form in the ozone layer. In these clouds surface chemistry takes place.
This converts chlorine or bromine (from CFCs and other ozone depleting chemicals) into an
active form, so that when there is sunlight, ozone is rapidly destroyed. Without the clouds, there
is little or no ozone destruction. Only during the Antarctic winter does the atmosphere get cold
enough for these clouds to form widely through the centre of the ozone layer. Elsewhere the
atmosphere is just too warm and no clouds form. The northern and southern hemispheres have
different ‘weather’ in the ozone layer, and the net result is that the temperature of the Arctic
ozone layer during winter is normally some ten degrees warmer than that of the Antarctic. This
means that such clouds are rare, but sometimes the ‘weather’ is colder than normal and they do
form. Under these circumstances significant ozone depletion can take place over the Arctic, but
it is usually for a much shorter period of time and covers a smaller area than in the Antarctic.
Clearing of tropical forests leads to global warming, soil erosion and nutrient depletion.
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60. Consider the following Tropical crops, which are in great demand in Anglo-America and
Europe, are produced in great variety and volume in Latin America and Africa because of
1. Availability of a cultivable land and suitability of soil conditions.
2. Combination of climatic and topographical conditions
3. Lack of mineral resources for trading purpose.
Which of the following is /are correct ?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 2
d) All the above
Answer: (c)
Justification:
Factors influencing the cultivation of crops are topography, climatic conditions and soil.
Because of suitable factors Africa and Latin America are important producers of plantation and
cash crops which is in great in Europe and America. Latin America and Africa are rich in mineral
resource which does not determine cultivation of tropical crops.
61. A triangular population pyramid with a wide base narrowing as the age cohort progress
indicates:
a) Decline
b) Rapid Growth
c) Slow Growth
d) Stability
Answer: (b)
Justification:
Rapid growth pyramids • Have a large base to show high birth rates • Amount of people
decreases as the ages goes up indicating a lower standard of living • Associated with developing
countries like Brazil, Uganda, China.
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Slow growth pyramids • Take on a more rectangular shape • Indicates population is remaining
fairly steady • Birth rates and death rates are similar • Associated with developed countries like
the UK, Germany, Canada.
Negative growth pyramids • Looks like a reverse pyramid • Indicates the population of the
country is decreasing • Death rates are higher than birth rates • Associated with developed
countries like Austria, Japan, Italy.
Stable population: A pyramids with proportional sides – almost equal base, mid-section and
top. It is usually bell shaped pyramid. Countries with stable populations include France,
Scandinavian countries and Canada.
62. A country with a natural increase rate at or about zero is likely to have a
a) Low fertility rate, low standard of living and few people employed in agriculture.
b) Low fertility rate, low standard of living and many people employed in agriculture
c) Low fertility rate, high standard of living and few people employed in agriculture.
d) Low fertility rate, high standard of living and many people employed in agriculture.
Answer: (c)
Justification:
A lower fertility rate indicates a high standard of living. A high fertility rate indicates a low
standard of living. . A country with a high standard of living will have access to technology, and
therefore, will have relatively few people employed in agriculture,
63. Which of the following industries will most likely locate closest to its market.
a) Automobile assembly
b) Ethanol production
c) Telemarketing
d) Textile manufacturing.
Answer: (a)
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Justification:
Automobile manufacturing is a weight-gaining industry. Hence it is located near to market.
Ethanol production is weight-losing industry, so it would be located close to their raw
materials.
Telemarketing is a footloose industry and can locate anywhere.
Textile manufacturing is a raw-material and labor-intensive industry and will usually locate
wherever labor is least expensive.
64. A country’s literacy rate has a positive correlation with all of the following EXCEPT
a) Energy Consumption
b) Per capita Income
c) Percentage of female employment
d) Birth rate.
Answer: (d)
Justification:
A country with higher literacy usually has low birth rate. Greater literacy rate is characteristic of
well developed economies where per capita income, energy consumption and female
employment is higher.
65. Consider the following
1. Aravallis
2. Vindhayas
3. Thar Desert
4. Satpuras
Which of the following extend over the state of Gujarat ?
a) 1 and 4 Only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) All of the above
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Answer: (d)
Justification:
All the four physiographic units extend into Gujarat. Rajpipla hills is part of Satpura range
extending into Gujarat.
66. Khardung La known for one of world’s highest road pass is located in which range.
a) Zanskar range
b) Ladakh range
c) Pirpanjal range
d) Baltoro Kangri
Answer: (b)
Justification:
Khardung La is a mountain pass in the Ladakh region of the Indian state of Jammu and Kashmir.
The pass on the Ladakh Range lies north of Leh and is the gateway to the Shyok and Nubra
valleys. The mountain pass holds a special significance as it is the way to carry supplies to the
Siachen Glacier.
67. Consider the following statements
1. Both Eastern Ghats and Western Ghats extend in the state.
2. Northern part of state is composed of Black soil.
3. The state has the smallest coastline in southern India
Which of the following states has the above features ?
a) Tamil Nadu
b) Andhra Pradesh
c) Kerala
d) Karnataka
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Answer: (d)
Justification:
Both Western and Eastern Ghats extend in Karnataka. Biligirirangana hills are connecting link
between Western and Eastern Ghats.
Northern part of state is part of Deccan plateau .Northern part is predominantly black soil region
With around 320 km coastline it is smallest in South India.
68. Consider the following statements
1. Portions of Thar desert extends into Punjab
2. Shiwaliks extends over the northern part of Haryana.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct.
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of the above.
Answer: (c)
Justification:
Thar Desert, also called Great Indian Desert, arid region of rolling sand hills on the Indian
subcontinent. It is located partly in Rajasthan state, northwestern India, and partly in Punjab and
Sindh (Sind) provinces, eastern Pakistan.
Haryana has the Shivalik hills in the north and a range of Aravalli hills, in South West which runs
through southern Delhi and the Gurgaon district up to Alwar. These hills are known as the Morni
and Tipra ranges. They belong to the outer ranges of the Himalayas.
69. Which of the following pairs of hill station and range/hills is/are correctly matched?
Hill station Range /hills
1. Matheran — Eastern Ghats
2. Saputara — Western Ghats.
3. Pachmarhi — Vindhayas
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Select the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 2 and 3 Only
b) 2 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) 1 and 2 Only
Answer: (b)
Justification :
Matheran is a hill station and a municipal council in Karjat Tahsilin the Raigad district in the
Indian state of Maharashtra. The smallest hill station in India, it is located on the Western Ghats
range at an elevation of around 800 m (2,625 feet) above sea level.
Saputara is situated in the Dang district of Gujarat. This beautiful hill station is situated at an
elevation of about 1000 m above sea level in western ghats.
Pachmarhi is a hill station in Hoshangabad district of Madhya Pradesh state of central India. It
has been the location of a cantonment (Pachmarhi Cantonment) since British Raj. It is widely
known as Satpura ki Rani (“Queen of Satpura”), situated at a height of 1067 m in a valley of the
Satpura Range in Hoshangabad district.
70. Saddle Peak, the highest peak of Andaman and Nicobar islands is located in
a) South Andamans
b) Little Andamans
c) North Andamans
d) Car Nicobar
Answer: (c)
71. Consider the following statements
1. Karaikal, a district of Puducherry is an enclave of Kerala.
2. Telangana does not share boundary with Odisha.
Which of the following statements is/are correct.
a) 1 Only b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2 d) None of the above
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Answer: (b)
Justification:
Karaikal district, part of the discontiguous union territory of Pondicherry, is a small enclave
within Tamil Nadu. Karaikal and the other parts of Pondicherry are former French colonial
territories in India.
Telangana is bordered by the states of Maharashtra to the north, Chhattisgarh to the northeast,
Andhra Pradesh to the southeast and south, and Karnataka to the west.
72. Consider the following statements
1. The Peninsular India was part of Gondwanaland
2. The Gondwana consists of South America, Madgascar, Australia and India.
3. Peninsular plateau is the oldest and stable landmass composed of old crystalline igneous
and metamorphic rocks.
Which of the following is/are correct.
a) 1 & 3 Only
b) 2 & 3 Only
c) 1 & 2 Only
d) All the above.
Answer: (d)
Justification:
Gondwana (originally Gondwanaland) is an hypothesized ancient southern supercontinent
comprising most of the landmasses in today’s southern hemisphere, including Antarctica, South
America, Africa, Madagascar, Australia-New Guinea and New Zealand, as well as Arabia and the
Indian subcontinent, which are in the Northern Hemisphere.
The peninsular plateau is a table land composed of the old crystalline, igneous and metamorphic
rocks. It was formed due to breaking and drifting of the Gondwana land and thus making it a part
of oldest landmass. This plateau has broad and shallow valleys and rounded hills. The peninsular
plateau consists of broad divisions, namely, the central highlands and the Deccan plateau.
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73. Which of the following statement is NOT correct.
a) The width of the Himalayan ranges decreases towards the East
b) Western Himalayas rises abruptly from the plains compared to gradual rise of Eastern
Himalayas
c) Duns are the longitudinal valley lying between lesser Himalayas and shiwaliks
d) Indus and Brahmaputra River are much older compared to Himalayas.
Answer: (b)
Justification:
The width of Himalayas in western part is around 400 km and it decreases towards to the east
which is around 125 km in Arunachal Pradesh
Because of the anti-clockwise rotation (door slam shut movement ) of Indian plate there is
abrupt rise in the heights of Eastern Himalayas whereas because of ease of pressure on western
side western Himalayas have gradual rise in height and greater width
Duns are longitudinal valleys formed as a result of folding when Eurasian plate and Indian plate
collided. They are formed between Lesser Himalayas and Shiwaliks. These valleys are deposited
with coarse alluvium brought down by Himalayan rivers.
River Indus is an antecedent river as it is considered as older than the Himalayas. The deep
gorges of the Indus, the Satluj, the Brahmaputra etc. clearly indicate that these rivers are older
than the Himalayas
74. Consider the following statements
1. Garo and Khasi hills are extensions of Purvanchals in Meghalaya forming water divide
between Brahmaputra and Barak River
2. Rajmahal hills is a denuded fold mountain around which river Ganga meanders and
moves towards the South
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct ?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of the above
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Answer: (d)
Justification:
Garo and Khasi hills are the extensions of peninsular part of the subcontinent. Along with the
Karbi Anglong plateau , the Meghalaya plateau (comprising Garo ,Khasi and Jaintia hills ) is
separated from the Chotanagpur plateau (part of peninsular india ) by Malda fault (in Bengal).
Rajmahalhills are part peninsular plateau located in Jharkand. They are volcanic mountains
formed by Kergulean hotspot. The hills are oriented in a north-south axis with an average
elevation of 200–300 m (600-1,000 ft). The River Ganga meanders around the hills changing
direction of flow from eastwards to southwards.
75. Greater concentration of Sal and Teak forest extends over which topographic region
a) Vindhayan and Satpura ranges of Central Highland.
b) Slopes of Shiwaliks in western Himalayas
c) Purvanchals
d) Aravallis
Answer: (a)
Justification:
Sal and teak forests are best grown in central highlands. Teak and sal are tropical deciduous
trees. Madhya Pradesh has the highest concentration of teak and sal forest in India. Suitable
topographical and climatic conditions of central highlands are suitable for growth of teak and
sal.The extent of teak and sal forest is less in rest of the regions because of climatic conditions.
76. Consider the following pairs
River Merges With
1. Manjra — Krishna
2. Hiran — Narmada
3. Ramganga — Ghaghara
Which of the following is/are CORRECTLY matched
a) 2 & 3 b) 2 Only c) 1 & 2 d) 1 & 3 Only
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Answer: (b)
Justification:
The Manjra is a tributary of the river Godavari. It passes through the states of Maharashtra,
Karnataka and Telangana. It originates in the Balaghat range of hills near Ahmednagar district
at an altitude of 823 metres (2,700 ft) and empties into the Godavari River.
Hiran is a right bank tributary of Narmada river. Hiran River rises in the Bhanrer range in the
Jabalpur district of Madhya Pradesh near the Kundam village at an elevation of 600 m. The river
flows in a generally south-westerly direction for a total length of 188 km to join the Narmada
from the right near Sankal village. Hiranhas the distinction of being the biggest right bank
tributary of the Narmada and drains a total area of 4,792 sq. km.
77. The irregularity in the amount of rainfall in different parts of north Indian plains is mainly
due to
a) Irregular intensity of low pressure in the north-western parts of India.
b) Difference in frequency of cyclones
c) Variation in the location of the axis of low pressure trough.
d) Variations in the amount of moisture carried by winds every year.
Answer:(c)
Justification:
The frequency of the tropical depressions originating from the Bay of Bengal varies from year to
year. Their tracks over India are mainly determined by the position of ITCZ, which is generally
termed as monsoon trough. As the axis of the monsoon trough oscillates, the tracks of these
depressions also vary. This cause wide fluctuations in the direction and the paths these
depressions take leading to variation in intensity and amount of rainfall from year to year.
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78. Which of the following statement is NOT correct.
a) Variability of rainfall is highest in the regions of high rainfall.
b) Duration of south-west monsoon varies in different parts of country based on onset
and withdrawal.
c) Changes in the pressure conditions over Southern Pacific impacts the intensity of
monsoon
d) The intensity and position of high-pressure over Mascarenes affects Indian Monsoon.
Answer: (a)
Justification:
Variability of rainfall in highest in regions of low rainfall. Rainfall variability is highest in North-
western part of India.
Duration of southwest monsoons decreases as we move from southern India to northern and
north-western part of the country.
Changes in pressure and sea surface temperatures in southern pacific leads to El- nino.
High-pressure over Mascarenes along with Somali Jetstream pushes monsoon winds towards
Indian subcontinent.
79. Consider the following
1. The amount rainfall.
2. Altitude
3. Soil type
4. Humidity
The type of natural vegetation in India varies due to variation of which of the following above
factors.
a) 1 & 2 Only
b) 1,2,3
c) 1,2,4
d) All the above
Answer: (c)
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Justification :
Type of vegetation in any region is not dependent on soil type. Rest of the factors determine the
kind of vegetation of a particular region.
80. Consider the following statements
1. River Mahi flows through the rift valley.
2. There are no west flowing rivers in Orissa.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct ?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of the above
Answer: (a)
Justification:
The Mahi is a river in western India, it rises in Madhya Pradesh and, after flowing through the
Vagad region of Rajasthan, enters Gujarat and flows into the Arabian Sea. It is one of the rivers
in India that flows in a rift valley, the other rivers which flow through rift valley include Damodar
River in Chota Nagpur Plateau , Tapti and Narmada river.
There are many west flowing rivers in Orissa and Indravati is one of them
81. Consider the following
1. Tamil Nadu
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Uttarakhand
Which of the above states have population density higher than National Average (2011 census)
a) 2 Only
b) 1 & 2 only
c) 1 Only
d) 2 & 3 Only
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Answer: (c)
Justification :
Tamil Nadu – 555 persons per sqkm
Madhya Pradesh — 236
Uttarakhand — 189
India — 382
82. Consider the following statement
1. Population growth rate started declining after 1971.
2. As per 2011 census the sex ratio of tribal states of Chhattisgarh and Odisha is much lower
compared to national average
Which of the above statement/s is/are CORRECT ?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of the above
Answer : (a)
Justification:
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Sex ratio of Chattisgarh – 992 and Odisha – 979 and India – 940
83. Which of the following statements is NOT correct
a) The largest part of the northern plain is formed by new alluvium deposition of Khadar
region.
b) Punjab plains on western part of northern plains is dominated by doabs.
c) Duars are the terai floodplains that lie south of Himalayan foothills
d) Alluvial plains of the Eastern India recieves higher rainfall compared to western part.
Answer: (a)
Justification :
The largest part of the northern plain is formed of older alluvium. They lie above the flood plains
of the rivers and present a terrace like feature. This part is known as Bhangar. The soil in this
region contains calcareous deposites locally known as kankar. The newer, younger deposits of
the flood plains are called khadar .
Doabs refers to the region between two rivers. Starting from east to west,
Bist Jullundhur Doab – Satluj and Beas
Bari Doab – Beas and Ravi
Rachna Doab – Rabi and Chenab
Chal/Jech Doab – Chenab and Jhelum
Sindh Sagar Doab – Jhelum and Indus
Dooars or Duars are the alluvial floodplains in northeastern India that lie south of the outer
foothills of the Himalayas and north of the Brahmaputra River basin. This region is about 30 km
(19 mi) wide and stretches over about 350 km (220 mi) from the Teesta River in West Bengal to
the Dhanshiri River in Assam. The region forms the gateway to Bhutan. It is part of the Terai-
Duar savanna and grasslands ecoregion. Duar region is rich in wildlife.
The amount of rainfall decreases from East to West.
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84. Which of the following mountains chains has two dissimilar types of vegetation on its two
slopes ?
a) Western Ghats
b) Aravalis
c) Vindhayas
d) Eastern Ghats
Answer: (a)
Justification :
Because of the variation in climatic conditions the vegetation along the western and eastern
slopes are different. Western slopes have Tropical evergreen and semi-evergreen vegetation
whereas the eastern slopes are dominated by Tropical moist and dry deciduous forest.
85. Which of the following conservation sites are located in Shiwalik ranges
1. Rajaji National park
2. Valley of flowers
3. Dachigam National Park
Which of the following is/are CORRECT
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Answer: (b)
Justification:
Rajaji National Park is an Indian national park and tiger reserve that encompasses the
Shivaliks, near the foothills of the Himalayas. The park is spread over 820 km2 and three districts
of Uttarakhand: Saharanpur, Dehradun and Pauri Garhwal.
Valley of flowers is located in Greater Himalayan ranges of Uttarakhand.
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The Zabarwan Range is a short (20 mi (32 km) long) sub-mountain range between Pir Panjal and
Great Himalayan Range in the central part of the Kashmir Valley in the state of Jammu and
Kashmir in India. The Zabarwan mountain range possesses great Himalayan features with rich
wildlife. The Dachigam National Park, spread over 141 km2, is the main feature of the range. The
Dachigam National Park holds the last viable population of Kashmir stag (Hangul) and the largest
population of black bear in Asia.
86. Consider the following
1. Coringa
2. Pichavaram
3. Bartang Island
Which of the following is/are MANGROVE sites in India
a) 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) All the above
Answer: (d)
Justification:
Coringa mangroves is located in Andhra Pradesh. Coringa Wildlife sanctuary is important
conservation site of the region.
Pichavaram mangrove wetland is in Tamil Nadu
One of the biggest mangrove forest is found in Bartang island in Andamans.
87. Consider the Endangered species and their conservation sites of India
1. Nilgiri Tahr — Eravikulam National Park
2. Lion Tailed Macaque — Papikonda National park
3. One-horned Rhinoceros — Orang National park
Which of the following is/are CORRECTLY matched
a) 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1 and 2 only
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Answer: (c)
Justification:
Lion Tailed Macaque is endangered species of Western Ghats .Papikonda National park is
in East Godavari district of Andhra Pradesh.
Nilgiri Tahr is endemic to western ghats found in greater numbers in Eravikulam National
Park in Kerala
Orang national park is in Assam known for conservation of one-horned Rhinoceros.
88. Identify the only conservation site of Lakshadweep Islands
a) Mount Harriett National Park
b) Pitti Bird sanctuary
c) Mahatma Gandhi Marine National park
d) Malvan Marine wildlife sanctuary
Answer: (b)
Justification:
Pitti Bird Sanctuary is a small reef that is approximately 24 north-west of Kavaratti, Pitti is an
important nesting place for pelagic birds such as the sooty tern (Sterna fuliginosa), the greater
crested tern (Sterna bergii) and the brown noddy (Anous stolidus).
89. Alpine shrub and meadows extend over which following states in north-east
a) Mizoram and Tripura
b) Nagaland and Tripura
c) Sikkim and Arunachal
d) Assam and Meghalaya
Answer: (c)
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Justification:
Eastern Himalayas extend over the states of Sikkim and Arunachal. The elevation extends
beyond 6000mts where Alpine shrub and meadows are found.
90. Consider the following
National Park River
1. Corbett National park — Alaknanda
2. Silent Valley National Park — Kaveri
Which of the following is/are CORRECTLY matched
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of the above
Answer: (d)
Justification:
River Ramganga flows through Corbett National park
Small river Kunthipuzha flows through Silent Valley National Park.
91. The first Pelican Bird Festival-2018 was recently organised at
a) Pulicat lake
b) Kolleru lake
c) Ashtamudi wetland
d) Vembanad-Kol wetland
Solution: b.
It was organised by the AP State Tourism Department.
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/tp-andhrapradesh/pelican-festival-at-
kolleru-a-huge-hit/article22653092.ece
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92. Consider the following pairs:
Launch Pad – Location
1. Kennedy Space Centre – San Francisco, California
2. Europe’s Spaceport – Kourou, French Guiana
3. Satish Dhawan Space Centre – Abdul Kalam Island, Odisha
4. Rocket Lab Launch Complex – Mahia Peninsula, New Zealand
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?
a) 1, 2 and 4 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Solution: c.
You can eliminate the 1st given pair easily. Because satellites and missile tests always are
launched from the east coast (http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/why-are-all-
satellites-and-missiles-launched-from-the-east-coast/article7202159.ece)
Kennedy Space Centre – Florida
Europe’s Spaceport – Kourou, French Guiana
Satish Dhawan Space Centre – Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh
Rocket Lab Launch Complex – Mahia Peninsula, NZ
Improvisation (passing reference to the launch pad at Kourou): http://www.thehindu.com/sci-
tech/science/isro-needs-4-years-to-catch-up-with-satellite-demand-dr-
sivan/article22651083.ece
93. Consider the following statements:
1. Mangrove forests only grow at tropical and subtropical latitudes
2. The Sundarbans lies in latitudes north of the Tropic of Cancer
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Solution: a.
Mangrove trees grow in areas with low-oxygen soil, where slow-moving waters allow fine
sediments to accumulate. Mangrove forests only grow at tropical and subtropical latitudes near
the equator because they cannot withstand freezing temperatures.
The Sundarbans lies south of the Tropic of Cancer.
https://oceanservice.noaa.gov/facts/mangroves.html;
Improvisation: http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/sundarbans-
mangroves-struggle-to-find-new-ground/article22785340.ece;
94. Consider the following statements:
1. The Purchasing Managers’ Index (PMI) can be used as an indicator of the economic health
of the manufacturing sector only
2. While the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is an output measure, the PMI is an
indication of the activity at the input, or purchasing level
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b.
In the news (http://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/what-is-the-lowdown-on-
industrial-renewal/article22785218.ece): “Industrial activity, as measured by the government’s
Index of Industrial Production (IIP) and the private sector Purchasing Managers’ Index (PMI),
has improved significantly over the last two months.. Growth in the IIP soared to 8.8% in
November, the highest since October 2015, and stood at a slightly slower but still robust 7.07%
in December.. Similarly, the PMI surged to a 60-month high of 54.7 in December and came in at
52.4 in January (The PMI is usually released at the start of the month, much before most of the
official data on industrial output, manufacturing and GDP growth becomes available. It is,
therefore, considered a good leading indicator of economic activity). These two sets of data are
interesting because not only do they show the picture from both the government and private
sector sides but also highlight different elements of the sectors they measure. While the IIP is an
output measure, the PMI is an indication of the activity at the input, or purchasing, level. If both
show strong growth, the implication is an overall recovery in industrial activity and sentiments.”
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PMI or a Purchasing Managers’ Index (PMI) is an indicator of business activity – it can be
utilised as an indicator for both, the manufacturing and services sectors. It is a survey-based
measures that asks the respondents about changes in their perception of some key business
variables from the month before.
The PMI is derived from a series of qualitative questions. Executives from a reasonably big
sample, running into hundreds of firms, are asked whether key indicators such as output, new
orders, business expectations and employment were stronger than the month before and are
asked to rate them. A figure above 50 denotes expansion in business activity. Anything below 50
denotes contraction. Higher the difference from this mid-point, greater the expansion or
contraction.
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/indicators/what-is-purchasing-
managers-index-pmi/articleshow/6259031.cms;
https://www.investopedia.com/terms/p/pmi.asp
95. Which among the following initiatives by NITI Aayog has a direct bearing on competitive
federalism ?
1. Sustainable Action for Transforming Health
2. Samavesh
3. Champions of Change
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 1 and 3
d) 2 and 3
Solution: a.
SATH (http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=165545): NITI Aayog has launched
SATH, a program providing ‘Sustainable Action for Transforming Human capital’ with the
State Governments. The vision of the program is to initiate transformation in the education and
health sectors. SATH aims to identify and build three future ‘role model’ states each for health
and education systems (NITI Aayog has selected Uttar Pradesh, Assam, and Karnataka to
improve healthcare delivery and key outcomes. In Education, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, and
Jharkhand have been selected for support to better learning outcomes.)
Samavesh (http://niti.gov.in/content/concept) is a programme launched by the NITI Aayog to
link together various lead Knowledge and Research Institutions.
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Champions of Change (http://niti.gov.in/content/champions-change-transforming-india-
through-g2b-partnership) is an initiative organised by NITI Aayog to “transform India through
G2B (Government-to-Business) partnership”.
NITI Aayog and Competitive federalism
Introduction of Digital Transformation Index and Innovation Index for ranking states
Launch of the Health Index, which is to become an annual exercise across the country
evaluating health outcomes.
SATH
School Education Quality Index (SEQI)
Composite Water Management Index
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=176698