IIT-09-STS7-Paper2 Qns.pdf Jsessionid=DNIPNGLEGLCG (3).PDF Jsessionid=DNIPNGLEGLCG

BRILLIANTSHOME BASED FULL-SYLLABUS SIMULATOR TEST SERIES

FOR OUR STUDENTSTOWARDS

IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2009

QUESTION PAPER CODE

Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 243

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

INSTRUCTIONS:

Name: . Enrollment No.:

⊗ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS VII/MPC/P(II) - 1

7

A. General1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 66 questions. The booklet has 26 pages.2. This question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet and on the back page

(page no. 26) of this booklet.3. This question paper contains 2 blank pages for your rough work. No additional sheets will be provided

for rough work.4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic

gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and Enrollment No. in the

space provided on the back page (page no. 26) of this booklet.6. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately.7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.8. Do not break the seals of the questions-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.

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Name of the Centre in box L3. Do not write these anywhere else.10. The ORS has a CODE printed on its lower and upper parts.11. Make sure the CODE on the ORS is the same as that on this booklet and put your signature in ink in

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C. Question paper format: Read the instructions printed on the back page (page no. 26) of this booklet.D. Marking scheme: Read the instructions on the back page (page no. 26) of this booklet.

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MATHEMATICS − PHYSICS − CHEMISTRY

PAPER II

I have read all the instructionsand shall abide by them.

...............................................Signature of the Candidate

I have verified all the informations filled in by the Candidate.

...............................................Signature of the Invigilator

IIT-JEE 2009STS VII/MPC/P(II)/QNS

2

PART A : MATHEMATICS

SECTION I

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 9. Each question has4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. If ω is an imaginary fourth root of unity ∑s = 1

4ls + m ω

s 1 is equal to

(A) 4 m

3(B)

12 m

2ω(C)

4l

ω 1(D)

10 a

ω

2. The value of 0.25

log0.5

1

5+ 1

52

+ 1

53

+ ... to ∞

is

(A) 1

4(B)

5

8(C)

1

16(D)

3

4

3. If the equations λ x2 − x − 1 = 0 and x2 + x − λ = 0 have a common root, then thevalue of λ = ..... (λ ≠ 0)

(A) 1 (B) − 1 (C) 2 (D) − 2

4. The remainder when 17215 is divided by 29 is(A) 12 (B) 7 (C) 1 (D) 18

5. The maximum positive integral value of n such that xn divides

a2+ x

2ab ac

ab b2+ x

2bc

ac bc c2+ x

2

is

(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 4


SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

3

6. A bag contains four tickets numbered as 223, 231, 322 and 333. One ticket isdrawn at random from the bag. If Ei is the event that the ith digit on the ticket is

3, then

(A) E1 and E2 are independent

(B) E1 and E2 are mutually exclusive

(C) E2 and E3 are mutually exclusive

(D) E1, E2, E3 are independent

7. Number of solutions of the equation x3 + 3x2 + 20x + sin x = 0 in [0, 2π] is

(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 4 (D) infinite

8. ∫0

3

x3 5x

2+ 6x dx is equal to

(A) 9

4(B) 3 (C)

16

3(D)

37

12

9. In a right-angled ∆ABC, C = 90° and AB = p. Then,

AB ⋅ AC + BC ⋅ BA + CA ⋅ CB is equal to

(A) p

2

2(B) p2 (C) 2 p2 (D) 4 p2



4

SECTION II

Reasoning Type

This section contains 4 questions numbered 10 to 13. Each question containsSTATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

(A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correctexplanation for statement 1.

(B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correctexplanation for statement 1.

(C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False.

(D) Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True.

10. Statement 1: The number 6 lies between the roots of the equation x2 − 18x + 9 = 0

and

Statement 2: The number k lies between the roots of the equation

f(x) ≡ ax2 + bx + c = 0 if the discriminant > 0 and f(k) < 0

11. Statement 1:2 4 51 2 13 6 4

= 0

and

Statement 2: The value of a determinant is zero, if two rows or two columnscoincide.

12. Statement 1: cos−1

cos π3

= π3

and

Statement 2: cos−1

(cos θ) = θ for all θ



5

13. Statement 1: The function f(x) = 2x3 + 6x2 + 7x + cos x is one-one

andStatement 2: An strictly increasing or strictly decreasing function is one-one

SECTION IIILinked Comprehension Type

This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choicequestions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out ofwhich ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 14 to 16Four letters of the word EARTHQUAKE are to be permuted.

14. The maximum number of different ways of the above permutation is(A) 5040 (B) 2694 (C) 1938 (D) 2190

15. The number of ways of the above permutation if the first and the last letters arerespectively A and E, is(A) 56 (B) 70 (C) 420 (D) None of these

16. The number of ways of the above permutation if the end letters are E and T(A) 168 (B) 84 (C) 24 (D) 86

Paragraph for Question Nos. 17 to 19

A hyperbola passes through the focus of the ellipse x2

25+ y

2

4= 1 and its

transverse and conjugate axes coincide with the x and y coordinate axes respectively.Also the eccentricity of the hyperbola is the reciprocal of the eccentricity of the ellipse.

17. The equation of the hyperbola is

(A) x2

25 y

2

21= 1 (B) x

2

4 y

2

21= 1

(C) x2

21 y

2

4= 1 (D) x

2

25 y

2

4= 1



6

18. Focus of the hyperbola is (A) (2, 0) (B) (5, 0) (C) (0, − 5) (D) (0, 5)

19. The equation of the director circle of the hyperbola is

(A) x2 + y2 = 17 (B) x2 + y2 = 29 (C) x2 + y2 = 25 (D) x2 + y2 = 21SECTION IV

Matrix-Match TypeThis section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in twocolumns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to bematched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questionshave to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example.If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctlybubbled 4 × 4 matrix should be as follows:

p q r s

A p q r s

B p q r s

C p q r s

D p q r s

20.Column I Column II

(A) sec2 (tan−1

3) + cosec2 (cot−1

2) (p)13

5

(B) cosec cos1

12

13(q)

45

2

(C) 45 sin sin1

3

2+

π2

(r)14

5

(D) 3 sin 2 tan1 1

3+ cos tan

12 2 (s) 15



7

21. The function in Column I is the solution of the differential equation in Column II. Column I Column II

(A) 4xy = y4+ c (p)

x dy

x2+ y

2= y

x2+ y

2 1 dx

(B) c y + 1 = e

x2+ 2x2

(q) xdx

dy+ y = x

2+ y

2

(C) y = x tan (c − x) (r) x y3 dy

dx+ y = 0

(D) x2 = c2 + 2cy (s) dy

dx= xy + x + y + 1

22. Column I Column II(A) The Cartesian equation of the (p) 6x + 3y + 2z − 18 = 0

plane through P i 2 j 4kperpendicular to the line joiningP and Q 3i + j + 2k is

(B) The equation of the plane through (q) 2x + 3y + 6z + 28 = 02i + j k passing through the line of intersection of the planesr ⋅ i + 3 j k = 0 andr ⋅ j + 2k = 0 is

(C) The equation of the plane (r) x + 9y + 11z = 0containing the line r = 2i + λ j k andperpendicular to the planer ⋅ i + k = 3 is

(D) The equation of the plane making (s) x − y − z − 2 = 0intercepts OA, OB, OC on thex, y, z axes where the centroid of the ∆ABC is i + 2 j + 3k is



8

PART B : PHYSICS

SECTION I


This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 23 to 31. Each questionhas 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

23. Two wires are bent (shown as joint-circle) with radius r (in xy plane).

The upper half has resistance of 2R Ω and the lowerhalf of R Ω. A current I is passed into circle as shown.The magnetic field at centre is

(A) µ

0I

rz (B)

µ0I

2rz

(C) zero (D) µ

0I

12 rz

24. A sample is kept in a strong neutron-flux to make it temporarily radioactive. Twodifferent decay processes are observed with equal activity when the incident fluxis removed and with activities that differ by a factor of e = 2.718 one hour later.The difference in the decay rates of the two radioactive species is

(A) e seconds (B) 1

es1

(C) one hr−1

(D) 1 s−1

25. The electronic energy of helium atom is − 79 eV. Its first ionisation potential is

(A) 79 eV (B) 13.6 eV (C) 54.4 eV (D) 24.6 eV



9

26. A person of weight W1 is in an elevator of weight W1. The elevator accelerates

vertically up at a rate a and at a certain instant has speed v1. The person climbs

a vertical ladder within the elevator at a speed v2 relative to the elevator. The

persons rate of expenditure of energy is

(A) W1 (B) W1

1 + a

gv

1+ v

2

(C) W1

1 a

gv

2(D) W

11 + a

gv

2

27. An alternating voltage is applied to the circuit shown.The circuit has resonant angular frequency (or

frequencies) given by (where r =C

1

C2

)

(A) 1

LC1

only (B) 1

LC2

only

(C) 1

LC1

and 1

LC2

1 + r (D) 1

LC2

and 1

LC2

1 + 1

r

28. In an Youngs double slit experiment, the two slits are spaced by 3 × 10−3

m andfringe pattern is formed on a screen at a distance 150 cm. The light used was ofwavelength 6667 Å. The third fringe is at 1 mm from central fringe. Then, screenis moved 0.5 m away from source. The distance between central fringe to eighthdark fringe will be

(A) 1.5 × 10−2

m (B) 3.3 × 10−3

m

(C) 6.6 × 10−4

m (D) 0.05 m



10

29. The graph in Figure shows stress - straincurves I, II and III for three differentmaterials taken to fracture limit. Which ofthem will be for a copper (Cu) wire andwhich of them is for glass fibre (G)?

(A) (Cu − I) (G − II)

(B) (Cu − III) (G − I)

(C) (Cu − II) (G − I)

(D) (Cu − I) (G − III)

30. In an experiment (such as being conducted at Large Hadron Collider i.e., LHC inEurope), a proton of energy 10 GeV theoretically acquires a velocity v → c (i.e.,velocity of light). The guiding magnetic field is 1.5 T. The radius of theaccelerating machine called Proton-Synchrotron is (given that 10 GeV is

equivalent to 1.95 × 10−26

kg) (nearly)

(A) 9 m (B) 1.5 m (C) 24 m (D) 18 m31. The angular separation between two distant stars is 1 arc-second. The effective

wavelength of light is 5500 Å. If the stars are to be just resolved, the diameter ofthe objective of a telescope is to be(A) 8.84 cm (B) 13.76 cm (C) 25 cm (D) 5.5 cm

SECTION IIReasoning Type


(A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correctexplanation for statement 1.


(C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False.

(D) Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True.



11

32. Statement 1: For supersonic waves also, Doppler-formula is applicable

and

Statement 2: In case of supersonic waves, source advances more than the wave.

33. Statement 1: Heat loss due to friction is irreversible

and

Statement 2: Reversible process must be extremely slow.

34. Statement 1: In the circuit shown, the value of I willbe minimum if the circuit elementshave the following values:

ε = 10 V, f = 50 Hz, R = 10 Ω, L = 0.2 Hand C = 50.7 F

and

Statement 2: The circuit will be purely resistive in those conditions.

35. Statement 1: Except for the peaks in the Intensity versus Wavelength graphs,X-ray production can be regarded as inverse photoelectric effect

and

Statement 2: Work functions are much smaller than accelerating potentialsin X-ray tubes.

SECTION III

Linked Comprehension Type

This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choicequestions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out ofwhich ONLY ONE is correct.


A particle of mass m is acted upon by a resistive force (in N) given by

FR = − bv

in the following situations.



12

Here, b = constant

v = velocity of object (in m/s).

The ratio b

m is denoted by a symbol γ.

36. In one-dimension, the initial speed of particle is 100 m/s. The value of γ is 2 s−1

.

Then, the distance moved in t = 2.5 s is (Given that e−5

= 3.268 × 10−3

)

(A) 2.5 m (B) 49.7 m (C) 9.8 m (D) 100 m

37. The particle m is projected with a velocity v0 upward near the surface of earth,

where the given force FR is also present. The time taken to reach the maximum

height is

(A) 1

γln 1

v0γ

g(B)

v0

g

(C) 1

γln 1 +

v0γ

g(D)

2v0

g

38. A spherical mass m is dropped off a building fromrest. If the mass experiences FR also, and if starting

point is y = 0, then the expression for y(t) will be:

(A) y = 1

2gt

2(B) y = gt

γ

(C) y = g

γ2

1 eγt

(D) y = gt

γ g

γ2

1 e γt



13


Millikans oil drop experiment provides experimental evidence for the quantisationof charge.

The drops are charged by X-ray ionisation of air. They normally fall under theaction of gravity but an electric field can be applied to the horizontal plates A and B tomonitor the movement of the drops. The terminal velocity of the drop can be measuredby suitable means. Given that η is the coefficient of viscosity of air and r is the radiusof the oil drop.

39. In Millikans apparatus, a negatively charged oil-drop is observed to be falling atuniform speed for a period of 4 s, after which time, the electric field is appliedvertically downwards. Which of the following is correct variation (qualitatively)of velocity v of oil drop with time t?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)



14

40. In a Milliken experiment, a positively charged oil-drop is observed to fall at auniform speed of 4v when the electric field between the plates is zero. Onapplying an electric field ε0, the drop rises at a uniform speed of 2v. On changing

the electric field, the drop is observed to fall at a uniform speed of v. If the changeon the drops remained same, the magnitude and direction of final field are(neglect the upthrust from air)

(A) ε0, vertically upwards (B) ε

0

2, vertically downwards

(C) ε

0

2, vertically upwards (D)

ε0

4, vertically upwards

41. A negatively charged drop is held stationary between the plates with upper plateas positive. The drop acquires additional negative charge. In order to keep thedrop stationary:

(A) reverse the charges on plates.

(B) give positive plate more positive charge.

(C) decrease the potential difference between plates.

(D) move plates closer to each other.

SECTION IV

Matrix-Match Type

This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in twocolumns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to bematched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questionshave to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example.



15

If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctlybubbled 4 × 4 matrix should be as follows:

p q r s

A p q r s

B p q r s

C p q r s

D p q r s

42. In Figure shown, S1 and S2 are two infinite sheets of

mass density σ. The regions are marked as R1, R2 and R3.

(Given that G is universal gravitational constant)

Column I Column II(Case) (Gravitational field I

g)

(A) When a single sheet only is present (p) zero

(B) For two sheets in region R1 (q) 2 π G σ

(C) For two sheets in region R2 (r) 4 π G σ

(D) For two sheets in region R3 (s) π G σ

43. Two large plane metal electrodes P1 and P2 are arranged parallel to each other in

an evacuated tube with separation d. P1 is given positive potential with respect

to P2. An electron starts from rest from mid point of P2 and moves perpendicular

to the plates towards P1.



16

Column I Column II(Quantity on y-axis) (graph)

(A) Speed of electron (p)

(B) de Broglie wavelength of electron (q)

(C) Potential energy of electron (r)

(D) Kinetic energy of electron (s)

44. The quantities given in Column I below are as follows about different mechanicalsystems.n = number of equations relating masses and initial velocities in an elastic

collision between two particles in three dimensionsm = number of equations needed to find final velocities in above collisionl0 = length (in metre) of an open pipe if its second overtone has same frequency

as first overtone of a 2 m long closed pipef = possible number of linear vibrations in system shown below having three

springs S1, S2, S3 and two masses P1, P2

Column I Column II(A) m (p) 6(B) n (q) 1(C) l0 (r) 4

(D) f (s) 2



17

PART C : CHEMISTRY

SECTION I


This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 45 to 53. Each questionhas 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

45. A sample of hard water contains 244 ppm of HCO3

ions. What is the minimum

mass of CaO required to remove HCO3

ions completely from 1 kg of such water

sample?

(A) 112 mg (B) 56 mg (C) 224 mg (D) 100 mg

46. Specific heat of certain elementary gas at constant volume is 315 J kg−1

K−1

and

that at constant pressure is 441 J kg−1

K−1

. 7.0 g of the gas is found to occupy avolume of 4.1 L at 27°C and 1 atm pressure. The atomic mass of the gas is

(A) 42 (B) 21 (C) 63 (D) 100

47. How many mol of butane must be burnt to heat 10 dm3 of water from 30°C to

100°C? Given: ∆Hcombustion of butane is 2.879 × 103 kJ mol−1

, density of water is

1.0 g cm−3

, specific heat of water is 4.184 JK−1

g−1

.

(A) 1.017 mol (B) 2.017 mol

(C) 3.017 mol (D) 2.034 mol

48. Among the following the incorrect statement is

(A) Calamine and siderite are carbonates.

(B) Zinc blende and pyrites are sulphides.

(C) Argentite and cuprite are oxides.

(D) Malachite and azurite are the ores of copper.



18

49. The number and type of bonds between two carbon atoms in calcium carbide are

(A) two sigma, two pi (B) two sigma, one pi

(C) one sigma, one pi (D) one sigma, two pi

50. A certain diatomic molecule AB has a dipole moment 1.6 D and the internucleardistance is 100 pm. The fraction of electronic charge existing on the moreelectronegative atom is

(A) 10% (B) 25% (C) 50% (D) 33%

51. The incorrect IUPAC name is

(A) 2-Methyl-3-butanone

(B) 2, 3-Dimethyl pentane

(C) CH3 − C ≡ C − CH(CH3)2 4-Methyl-2-pentyne

(D) 2-Bromo-3-chlorobutane

52. In the reaction

. Z is

(A) (B) (C) (D)



19

53. In the reaction CH3CHO + HCN → CH3CHOHCN, a chiral centre is produced.

The product is(A) meso compound (B) laevorotatory(C) dextrorotatory (D) racemic mixture

SECTION IIReasoning Type


(A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanationfor statement 1.


(C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False.(D) Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True.

54. Statement 1: All aldehydes in presence of aluminium ethoxide can besimultaneously oxidised to acid and reduced to alcohol to formester.

and

Statement 2: Aldehydes contain − CHO group.

55. Statement 1: Chloroform is always stored in brown bottles to cut off light.

and

Statement 2: CHCl3 → COCl2 + HCl

56. Statement 1: With the passage of time, the rate of radioactive disintegrationdecreases.

and

Statement 2: Radioactive disintegration follows zero order kinetics.



O2

light Phosgene

20

57. Statement 1: Cu(I) and Ni(II) do not form coloured complexes.

and

Statement 2: Ni(II) is 3d8

Cu(I) is 3d10

SECTION III

Linked Comprehension TypeThis section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choicequestions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out ofwhich ONLY ONE is correct.


Halogenated hydrocarbon, commonly termed as alkyl halide, consists of an alkylgroup and a halogen. The physical properties of haloalkanes are strongly affected bythe polarization of the C − X bond and the polarizability of X. The SN2 reaction is

stereospecific and proceeds by backside displacement, thereby producing inversion ofconfiguration at the reaction centre.

58. The reactivity order of halides for dehydro-halogenation is

(A) R − F > R − Cl > R − Br > R − I

(B) R − I > R − Br > R − Cl > R − F

(C) R − I > R − Cl > R − Br > R − F

(D) R − F > R − I > R − Br > R − Cl

59. Compound C4H8Cl2 (A) on hydrolysis gives a compound C4H8O (B) which reacts

with hydroxylamine and does not give any test with Tollens reagent. A and Bare

(A) 1, 1-dichlorobutane and butanal

(B) 2, 2-dichlorobutane and butanal

(C) 1, 1-dichlorobutane and butan-2-one

(D) 2, 2-dichlorobutane and butan-2-one



21

60. Which of the following is an example of exclusively SN2 reaction?

(A) CH3Br + OH− → CH3OH + Br

−

(B)

(C)

(D)

Paragraph for Question Nos. 61 to 63For the galvanic cell Ag AgCl(s), KCl (0.2 M)∥KBr(0.001 M), AgBr(s) Ag

Ksp of AgCl = 2.8 × 10−10

and

Ksp of AgBr = 3.3 × 10−13

at the same temperature, 298 K. (log 4.24 = 0.6275)

61. For the above combination,

(A) Ecell = − 0.059 log Ag

+

cathode

Ag+

anode

(B) Ecell = − 0.059 log Ag

+

anode

Ag+

cathode

(C) Ecell = 0.059 log Ag

+

anode

Ag+

cathode

(D) none of the above



22

62. Ecell value for the given combination is

(A) + 0.037 V (B) 0.0 V (C) − 0.037 V (D) 0.05 V

63. The permitted cell to have spontaneous reaction is

(A) Ag | AgCl(s), KCl (0.2 M) || KBr (0.001 M), AgBr(s) | Ag

(B) Ag | AgBr(s), KBr (0.001 M) || KCl (0.2 M), AgCl(s) | Ag

(C) both A and B

(D) none of the above

SECTION IV

Matrix-Match Type

This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in twocolumns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to bematched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questionshave to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example.

If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctlybubbled 4 × 4 matrix should be as follows:

p q r s

A p q r s

B p q r s

C p q r s

D p q r s

64. Column I Column II(A) Iron (p) Halide ore

(B) Copper (q) Sulphide ore

(C) Zinc (r) Oxide ore

(D) Magnesium (s) Carbonate ore



23

65. Column I Column II

(A) KMnO4 (p) + 1

(B) H3PO4 (q) + 7

(C) KClO4 (r) − 2

(D) N2O5 (s) + 5

66. Column I Column II

(A) CH3Br + OH− → CH3OH + Br

− (p) II order

(B) (CH3)3CBr + H2O → (CH3)3C − OH (q) I order

+ H+ + Br−

(C) 88Ra226 → 86 Rn222 + 2He4 (r) SN1 reaction

(D) CH3COOC2H5 + H2O → (s) SN 2 reaction

CH3COONa + C2H5OH



OH−

24



25



Name: . Enrollment No.:

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.


C. Question paper format:

13. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Part A : Mathematics, Part B: Physics and Part C: Chemistry).Each part has 4 sections.

14. Section I contains 9 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out ofwhich only one is correct.

15. Section II contains 4 questions. Each question contains STATEMENT-1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT-2(Reason).

Bubble (A) if both the statements are TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is the correct explanation ofSTATEMENT-1.

Bubble (B) if both the statements are TRUE but STATEMENT-2 is not the correct explanation ofSTATEMENT-1.

Bubble (C) if STATEMENT-1 is TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is FALSE.

Bubble (D) if STATEMENT-1 is FALSE and STATEMENT-2 is TRUE.

16. Section III contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to beanswered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one iscorrect.

17. Section IV contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in 2 columns. Statements in the first column have to be matched with statements in the second column. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled in the ORS as per the instructions givenat the beginning of the section.

D. Marking scheme:

18. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubblecorresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minusone (−1) mark will be awarded.

19. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubblecorresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minusone (−1) mark will be awarded.

20. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubblecorresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minusone (−1) mark will be awarded.

21. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 6 marks if you darken ALL the bubblescorresponding ONLY to the correct answer. No negative mark will be awarded for an incorrectlybubbled answer.

IIT-09-STS7-Paper2 Qns.pdf Jsessionid=DNIPNGLEGLCG (3).PDF Jsessionid=DNIPNGLEGLCG

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