i3943973IAS-Pre-Mechanical Engineering Previous Paper 1999

1 of 16

1. Match List I with List II and select the

correct answer: List I (Parameter) A. Volume B. Density C. Pressure D. Work List II (Property) 1. Path function 2. Intensive property 3. Extensive property 4. Point function Codes: A B C D a. 3 2 4 1 b. 3 2 1 4 c. 2 3 4 1 d. 2 3 1 4

2. 2. Ratio of specific heats for an ideal gas is given by (symbols have the usual meaning)

a. 11 / pR C−

b. 11 /pC R−

c. 11 /pC R+

d. 11 / pR C+

3. 3. An ideal gas contained in a rigid tank is cooled, such that T2 < T1 and p2 < p1. In the given temperature-entropy diagram, this process path is represented by the line labelled

a. A b. B c. C d. D

4. The heat transferred in a thermodynamic cycle of a system consisting of four processes is successively 0, 8, 6 and -4 units. The net change in the internal energy of the system will be a. -8 b. zero c. 10 d. -10

5. If a system undergoes an irreversible adiabatic process, then (symbols have usual meanings)

a. 0 0DQ and ST

= Δ >∫

b. 0 0dQ and ST

= Δ =∫

c. 0 0dQ and ST

> Δ =∫

d. 0 0dQ and ST

< Δ <∫

6. During a process with heat and work interactions, the internal energy of a system increases by 30 kJ. The amounts of heat and work interactions are respectively a. - 50 kJ and -80 kJ b. - 50 kJ and 80 kJ c. 50kJ and 80kJ d. 50 kJ and - 80 kJ

7. The mathematical conditions at the critical point for a pure substance would be:

a. 2 3

2 30; 0 0p p pandv v v∂ ∂ ∂

< = =∂ ∂ ∂

b. 2 3

2 30; 0 0p p pandv v v∂ ∂ ∂

= < =∂ ∂ ∂

c. 2 3

2 30; 0 0p p pandv v v∂ ∂ ∂

= = <∂ ∂ ∂

d. 2 3

2 30; 0 0p p pandv v v∂ ∂ ∂

= = =∂ ∂ ∂

8. Two-phase regions in the given pressure-volume diagram of a pure substance are represented by

C.S.E-Pre 1999

MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

2 of 16

a. A, E and F b. B, C and D c. B, D and F d. A, C and E

9. Two heat engine cycles (1—2—3—1 and 1—2—3—1) are shown on T-s co-ordinates in Figure-I. On pressure-volume coordinates, these cycles are best represented as

10. Which one of the following hypothetical heat engine cycles represents maximum efficiency?

11. The mean effective pressure of the

thermodynamic cycle shown in the given pressure-volume diagram is

a. 3.0 bar b. 3.5 bar c. 4.0 bar d. 4.5bar

12. In an ideal steam power cycle with the same inlet pressure, the low dryness fraction of steam in the last stage of expansion process can be avoided by a. providing regeneration

3 of 16b. providing reheating c. reducing the superheat d. lowering the condenser pressure

13. The air standard efficiency of Diesel cycle will be less than that of Otto cycle in the case of a. same compression ratio and same heat

input b. same maximum pressure and same

heat input c. same maximum pressure and same

output d. same maximum pressure and same

maximum temperature 14. Match List I (T-s diagrams) with List II

(P-h diagrams) and select the correct answer: List I

List II

Codes; A B C D a. 1 4 2 3 b. 1 4 3 2 c. 4 1 3 2 d. 4 1 2 3

15. The loss due to irreversibility in the expansion valve of a refrigeration cycle shown in the given figure is represented by the area under the line

a. GB b. AG c. AH d. BH

16. 16. The variation of flow through a convergent-divergent nozzle with variation in exit pressure is represented as

4 of 16

17. The critical pressure ratio ( )2 1/P P for

maximum discharge through a nozzle is

a. ( )1

21

nn

n

−

⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟+⎝ ⎠

b. ( )12

1

nn

n−⎛ ⎞

⎜ ⎟+⎝ ⎠

c. ( )12

1

nn

n+⎛ ⎞

⎜ ⎟−⎝ ⎠

d. ( )1

21

nn

n

+

⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟−⎝ ⎠

18. The variation of superheated outlet temperature with variation of load in the case of convective type and radiative type super- heaters is best represented as

19. Consider the following:

1. Safety valve 2. Fusible plug 3. Feed water pump 4. Pressure gauge The essential boiler mountings would include a. 1, 3and 4 b. 3 and 4

c. 1, 2 and 3 d. 1, 2 and 4

20. The blade passage for the nozzle blade row of the first stage of an impulse turbine is best represented as

21. Consider the following statements

regarding an impulse turbine: 1. Relative velocity at the inlet and exit of

the rotor blades are the same. 2. Absolute velocity at the inlet and exit

of the rotor blades are the same. 3. Static pressure within the rotor blade

channel is constant. 4. Total pressure within the rotor blade

cannel is constant. Of these statements a. 1 and 4 are correct b. 2 and 3 are correct c. 1 and 3 are correct d. 2 and 4 are correct

22. The given figure represents velocity diagram for a turbo machine stage. The stage in question is

a. power absorbing and 50% reaction b. power absorbing and impulse c. power generating and 50% reaction d. power generating and impulse

23. For discharge ‘Q’, the specific speed of pump is ‘N’. For half discharge with the same head, the specific speed will be a. Ns

5 of 16b. Ns / 2 c. 2 Ns d. 2 Ns

24. Which one of the following figures represents theoretical head versus discharge curves for a centrifugal pump with forward, radial and backward curved vanes?

25. For an impulse turbine with exit angle ‘φ’,

the maximum hydraulic efficiency is

a. cos12φ⎛ ⎞−⎜ ⎟

⎝ ⎠

b. 1 cos2

φ⎛ ⎞+⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

c. 1 cos2

φ+⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

d. 1 cos2

φ−⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

26. The location of a surge tank in a high head hydraulic power plant would be a. nearer to the dam b. at the powerhouse c. nearest to the powerhouse d. immaterial

27. The average number of fast neutrons produced in the fission of an U-235 atom is nearly a. 1.23

b. 2.46 c. 3.69 d. 4.92

28. Consider the following statements: Uranium oxide is chosen as fuel element in the nuclear reactors, because Uranium oxide 1. is more stable than Uranium 2. does not corrode easily 3. is more brittle 4. has dimensional stability Among these statements a. 1, 2 and 4 are correct b. 1, 2 and 3 are correct c. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct d. 3 and 4 are correct

29. Energy released by the fission of one U-235 atom is nearly a. 2000 MeV b. 1000 MeV c. 200 MeV d. 20 MeV

30. Match List I (Component) with List II (Properties) to the context of nuclear reactors and select the correct answer: List I A. Coolant B. Moderator C. Fuel D. Shield List II 1. Low neutron absorption 2. Low radiation damage 3. High heat transfer coefficient 4. High absorption of radiation Codes;

A B C D a. 3 1 4 2 b. 3 1 2 4 c. 1 3 4 2 d. 1 3 2 4

31. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer: List I (Water Turbines) A. Pelton B. Francis C. Kaplan List II (Application) 1. High head and low discharge 2. High head and high discharge 3. Medium head and medium discharge

6 of 164. Low head and high discharge Codes; A B C a. 1 3 2 b. 1 3 4 c. 2 4 3 d. 3 2 4

32. Match List I with List II in respect of nuclear reactor and select the correct answer: List I A. Poison B. Moderator C. Cladding D. Fission Product List II 1. Hafnium 2. Graphite 3. Zirconium 4. Strontium-90

A B C D a. 2 1 4 3 b. 2 1 3 4 c. 1 2 3 4 d. 1 2 4 3

33. At the interface of a liquid and a gas at rest, the pressure is a. higher on concave side compared to

that on convex side b. higher on convex side compared to that

on concave side c. equal on both sides d. equal to surface tension divided by

radius of curvature on both sides 34. A rectangular tank of base size 3m × 3m

contains oil of specific gravity 0.8 up to a height of 8 m. When it is accelerated at 2.45 m/s2 vertically upwards, the force on the base of the tank will be a. 29400 N b. 38240 N c. 78400 N d. 49050 N

35. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer: List I (Device) A. Barometer B. Hydrometer C. U-tube manometer D. Bourdon gauge List II (Use)

1. Gauge pressure 2. Local atmospheric pressure 3. Relative density 4. Pressure differential Codes;

A B C D a. 2 3 1 4 b. 3 2 1 4 c. 3 2 4 1 d. 2 3 4 1

36. The continuity equation for 3-dimensional flow / / / 0u dx v y w z∂ + ∂ ∂ + ∂ ∂ = is applicable to (symbols have usual meanings) a. steady flow b. uniform flow c. ideal fluid flow d. ideal as well as viscous fluid flow

37. Bernoulli’s equation p/p + v2/2 + gh = constant; is applicable for a. steady, frictionless and incompressible

flow along a streamline b. uniform and frictionless flow along a

streamline when ρ is a function of p c. steady and frictionless flow along a

streamline when ρ is a function of p d. steady, uniform and incompressible

flow along a streamline 38. Two identical pipes of length ‘L’,

diameter‘d’ and friction factor ‘f’ are connected in parallel between two points. For the same total volume flow rate with pipe of same diameter ‘d’ and same friction factor ‘f’, the single length of the pipe will be a. L/2 b. L/ 2 c. 2 L d. L/4

39. Two venturimeters of different area ratios are connected at different locations of a pipeline to measure discharge. Similar manometers are used across the two venturimeters to register the head differences. The first venturimeters of area ratio 2 registers a head difference h, while the second venturimeters registers ‘5h’. The area ratio for the second venturimeters is a. 3 b. 4 c. 5

7 of 16d. 6

40. The thickness of laminar boundary layer at a distance ‘X’ from the leading edge over a flat plate varies as a. X b. X1/2 c. X1/5 d. X4/5

41. Consider the following coefficients: (Re = Reynolds number) 1. 1.328 Re-(0-5) for laminar flow 2. 0.72 Re-(0-2) for turbulent flow 3. 0.072 Re-(0-2) for turbulent flow 4. 1.028 Re-(0-5) for laminar flow The coefficients of drag for a flat plate would include a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 4 c. 1 and 3 d. 3 and 4

42. Which of the following are the special features of her metrically sealed compressor of a refrigerator? 1. The compressor may be reciprocating

to rotary type. 2. No shaft seal is necessary. 3. More

silent in operation. 3. COP is more than that of open

compressor. a. 2 and 4 b. 1, 2 and 3 c. 1, 3 and 4 d. 2, 3 and 4

43. Consider the following statements: The pressure in a capillary tube of a refrigerator decreases because 1. Tube wall offers frictional resistance. 2. Refrigerant accelerates in the tube. 3. Tube transfers the heat. 4. Potential energy decreases. Of these statements a. 1 and 2 are correct b. 1, 2 and 3 are correct c. 2 and 4 are correct d. 3 and 4 are correct

44. Consider the following statements: High condenser pressure in a refrigeration system can occur because 1. The water flow rate is lower than the

desired value.

2. Non-condensable gases are present in the system.

3. Of accumulation of lubricating oil in condenser.

4. Of low charge of refrigerant in the system.

Of these statements 5. 1, 3 and 4 are correct 6. 1, 2 and 3 are correct 7. 1, 2 and 4 are correct 8. 2, 3 and 4 are correct

45. Consider the following statements: Dry compression in reciprocating compressor is preferred because it 1. prevents valve damage. 2. enables use of thermostatic expansion

valve. 3. minimizes irreversibility’s in the

compressor. 4. prevents washing out of lubricating oil

from cylinder walls. Of these statements a. 1 and 2 are correct b. 2 and 3 are correct c. 1 and 4 are correct d. 3 and 4 are correct

46. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer: A. List I (Refrigerant) B. Dichloro-difluoromethane C. Water D. Methyl chloride E. Monochlorodi-fluoromethane 1. List II (Designation) 2. R 718 3. R 22 4. R 40 5. R 12 Codes;

A B C D a. 4 1 2 3 b. 1 4 3 2 c. 1 4 2 3 d. 4 1 3 2

47. Consider the following statements: 1. In Freon 22 system, moisture choking

generally does not occur. 2. Freon 11 is mainly used in large

capacity air-conditioning plants with centrifugal compressors.

8 of 163. Presence of lubricating oil in

evaporator will increase the heat transfer coefficient.

4. 4. Refrigerants that are completely miscible with oil do not cause oil choking.

Of these statements a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct b. 1, 2 and 4 are correct c. 2, 3 and 4 are correct d. 1, 3 and 4 are correct

48. If a sample of moist air of 50% relative humidity at atmospheric pressures isothermally compressed to a pressure of two atmospheres, then a. its relative humidity will reduce to

25% b. its relative humidity will remain

unchanged c. the sample of air will become saturated d. saturation pressure will increase to

twice the value 49. Evaporative regulation of body

temperature fails when the body temperature is a. more than wet bulb temperature but

less than dry bulb temperature b. more than dew point but less than wet

bulb temperature c. more than dew point but less than dry

bulb temperature d. less than dew point

50. Consider the following statements: Effective temperature is NOT a true comfort index because 1. discomfort may be experienced at

extremely high or low humidifies. 2. the radiation effect of surrounding

surfaces has not been taken into account.

3. it presumes the absence of drafts. Of these statements

a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct b. 1 and 2 are correct c. 1 and 3 are correct d. 2 and 3 are correct

51. If wet bulb depression is equal to the sum of range and approach of a cooling tower, then the water a. inlet temperature is equal to the wet

bulb temperature of ambient air

b. outlet temperature is equal to the wet bulb temperature of ambient air

c. inlet temperature is equal to dry bulb temperature of ambient air

d. outlet temperature is equal to dry bulb temperature of ambient air

52. Assertion (A) : An important feature of film lubrication is that once a lubricant film is formed on the mating surfaced by running the bearing with a lubricant having a high degree of oiliness, it is possible to change to a lubricant with a much lower oiliness. Reason (R) Lubricants of high oiliness are liable to decompose or oxidize and hence are not suitable for general lubrication purposes. a. Both A and R are true and R is the

correct explanation of A b. Both A and Rare true but R is NOT the

correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true

53. Assertion (A): Feed—back is necessary in any automatic control system. Reason(R): Feed-back improves stability of the system. a. Both A and R are true and R is the

correct explanation of A b. Both A and Rare true but R is NOT the

correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true

54. Assertion (A): A square section is more economical in bending than the circular section of same area of cross-section. Reason (R): The modulus of the square section is less than that of circular section of same area of cross-section. a. Both A and R are true and R is the

correct explanation of A b. Both A and Rare true but R is NOT the

correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true

55. Assertion (A): In a simply supported beam carrying a concentrated load at the mid-span, both the shear force and bending moment diagrams are triangular in nature without any change in sign. Reason (R): When the shear force at any section of a beam is zero or changes sign,

9 of 16the bending moment at that section is maximum. a. Both A and R are true and R is the

correct explanation of A b. Both A and Rare true but R is NOT the

correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true

56. Assertion (A): Poisson’s ratio of a material is a measure of its ductility. Reason (R): For every linear strain in the direction of force, Poisons ratio of the material gives the lateral strain in directions perpendicular to the direction of force. a. Both A and R are true and R is the

correct explanation of A b. Both A and Rare true but R is NOT the

correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true

57. Assertion (A): Fire tube boilers have quick response to load changes. Reason (R) Fire tube boilers have large water storage capacity and hence small pressure changes can meet student demands. a. Both A and R are true and R is the

correct explanation of A b. Both A and Rare true but R is NOT the

correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true

58. Assertion (A): Brayton cycle is not suitable for reciprocating engines. Reason (R): A reciprocating engine cannot have complete expansion. a. Both A and R are true and R is the

correct explanation of A b. Both A and Rare true but R is NOT the

correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true

59. Assertion (A): In a vapour compression refrigeration system, the condenser pressure should be kept as low as possible. Reason (R): Increase in condenser pressure reduces the refrigerating effect and increases the work of compression. a. Both A and R are true and R is the

correct explanation of A

b. Both A and Rare true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true

60. Assertion (A): During cutting, the diamond tool is kept flooded with coolant. Reason (R): The oxidation of diamond starts at about 450°C. a. Both A and R are true and R is the

correct explanation of A b. Both A and Rare true but R is NOT the

correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true

61. Assertion (A): The grade of a grinding wheel is a measure of hardness of the abrasive used for the wheel. Reason (R): Grading is necessary for making right selection of the wheel for a particular work. a. Both A and R are true and R is the

correct explanation of A b. Both A and Rare true but R is NOT the

correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true

62. Assertion (A): The rate of flow of metal through sprue is NOT a function of the cross-sectional area of sprue, runner and gate. Reason (R): If respective cross-sectional areas of sprue, runner and gate are in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 2, the system is known as unpressurised gating system. a. Both A and R are true and R is the

correct explanation of A b. Both A and Rare true but R is NOT the

correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true

63. Assertion (A): Japanese mass production methods use robots. Reason (R) Japanese production philosophy is to use pull system of manufacture. a. Both A and R are true and R is the

correct explanation of A b. Both A and Rare true but R is NOT the

correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true

10 of 1664. Assertion (A): A body with wide

rectangular cross-section provides a highly stable shape in floatation. Reason (R): The centre of buoyancy shifts towards the tipped end considerably to provide a righting couple. a. Both A and R are true and R is the

correct explanation of A b. Both A and Rare true but R is NOT the

correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true

65. ‘A’ horizontal force of 200 N is applied at ‘A’ to lift the weight ‘W’ at C as shown in the given figure. The value of weight ‘W’ will be

a. 200N b. 400N c. 600N d. 800N

66. Consider the following statements: If the distance s covered by a car on a smooth road in time‘t’ is equal to [t2(t - 1) + 2], then the 1. maximum velocity of the car will be at

t = 1/3 2. velocity of the car is (3t2 — 2t) 3. acceleration of the car is (6t — 2) 4. car will travel a distance of 6 units

starting from rest Which one of the following is correct? a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 2, 3 and 4 c. 1, 3 and 4 d. 1, 2 and 4

67. A person, carrying on his head a jewellery box of weight ‘W’ jumped down from the third storey of a building. Before touching the ground, he would feed a load of magnitude

a. zero b. W/2 c. W d. infinity

68. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer: List I A. Average acceleration B. Instantaneous acceleration C. Uniform motion D. Uniformly accelerated motion List II 1. a = constant 2. a = 0 3. /v tΔ Δ 4.

0lim /

tv t

Δ →Δ Δ

Codes; A B C D a. 2 4 3 1 b. 4 3 2 1 c. 3 4 1 2 d. 3 4 2 1

69. A box rests in the rear of a truck moving with a deceleration of 2 m/s2. To prevent the box from sliding, the approximate value of static coefficient of friction between the box and the bed of the truck should be a. 0.1 b. 0.2 c. 0.3 d. 0.4

70. In the case of a flywheel of mass moment of inertia ‘I’ rotating at an angular velocity ‘ω’, the expression ½ Iω2 represents the a. centrifugal force b. angular momentum c. torque d. kinetic energy

71. Consider the following statements in respect of a body executing simple harmonic motion: 1. Periodic time is the time for one

complete revolution. 2. The acceleration is directed towards

the centre of suspension. 3. The acceleration is proportional to

distance from mean position. 4. The velocity will be maximum when it

passes through mean position. Of these statements

11 of 16a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct b. 2, 3 and 4 are correct c. 1, 3 and 4 are correct d. 1, 2 and 4 are correct

72. A four-bar mechanism ABCD is shown in the given figure. If the linear velocity ‘Vb’ of the point ‘B’ is 0.5 m/s, then the linear velocity ‘Vc’ of point ‘C’ will be

a. 1.25 m/s b. 0.5 m/s c. 0.4 m/s d. 0.2 m/s

73. If a reduction ratio of about 50 is required in a gear drive, then the most appropriate gearing would be a. spur gears b. bevel gears c. double helical gears d. worm and worm wheel

74. A spring of stiffness ‘k’ is extended from a displacement x1 to a displacement x2. The work done by the spring is

a. 2 21 2

1 12 2

kx kx−

b. ( )21 2

12

k x x−

c. ( )21 2

12

k x x+

d. 2

1 212 2

x xk +⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

75. In a reciprocating engine mechanism, the crank and connecting rod of same length r meters are at right angles to each other at a given instant, when the crank makes an angle of 45° with IDC. If the crank rotates with a uniform velocity of ω rad/s, the angular acceleration of the connecting rod will be a. 2ω2r b. ω2r c. ω2/r d. zero

76. A simplified turning moment diagram of a four-stroke engine is shown in the given

figure. If the mean torque Tm’ is 10 Nm, the estimated peak torque Tp’ will be (assuming negative torque demand is negligible)

a. 80 Nm b. 120 Nm c. 60 Nm d. 40 Nm

77. The height of a simple Watt governor running at a speed N is proportional to a. N b. 1/N c. N2 d. 1/N2

78. The controlling force curve of spring-loaded governor is given by the equation F = ar - c, (where r is the radius of rotation of the governor balls and a, c are constants). The governor is a. stable b. unstable c. isochronous d. insensitive

79. Two rotors are mounted on a shaft. If the unbalanced force due to one rotor is equal in magnitude to the unbalanced force due to the other rotor, but positioned exactly 180° apart, then the system will be balanced a. statically b. dynamically c. statically as well as dynamically d. neither statically nor dynamically

80. The primary direct crank of a reciprocating engine is located at an angle 8 clockwise. The secondary direct crank will be located at an angle a. 20 clockwise b. 28 anticlockwise c. 9 clockwise d. 8 anticlockwise

81. The given figure show vibrations of a mass ‘M’ isolated by means of springs and a damper. If an external force ‘F’ (=A sin ωt) acts on the mass and the damper is not used, then

12 of 16

a. /k Mω =

b. 1 /2

k Mω =

c. 2 /k Mω = d. 2 / 2k Mω =

82. The transmitted force through a mass-spring damper system will be greater than that transmitted through rigid supports for all values of damping factors, if the frequency ratio (ω/ωn) is a. more than 2 b. less than 2 c. equal to one d. less than one

83. In a forced vibration with viscous damping, maximum amplitude occurs when the forced frequency is a. equal to natural frequency b. slightly less than natural frequency c. slightly greater than natural frequency d. zero

84. The rotor of a turbine is generally rotated at a. the critical speed b. a speed much below the critical speed c. a speed much above the critical speed d. a speed having no relation to critical

speed 85. The characteristic equation of a closed-

loop automatic control system in time domain is given by D5 + 2D4 + 4D2 + D + 1 = 0. Consider the following statements in this regard: 1. The system is linear. 2. The system is non-linear. 3. The system is stable. 4. The system is unstable. a. 1 and 3 are correct b. 2 and 3 are correct c. 1 and 4 are correct d. 2 and 4 are correct

86. Euler’s formula for the long columns is given by P = kπ2El/l2. For such columns with both ends fixed, the value of k is a. 1

b. 2 c. 4 d. 16

87. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer: List I A. Polar moment of inertia of section B. Buckling C. Neutral axis D. Hoop stress List II 1. Thin cylindrical shell 2. Torsion of shafts 3. Columns 4. Bending of beams Codes; A B C D a. 3 2 1 4 b. 2 3 4 1 c. 3 2 4 1 d. 2 3 1 4

88. A hollow circular shaft having outside diameter ‘D’ and inside diameter ‘d’ is subjected to a constant twisting moment ‘T’ along its length. If the maximum shear stress produced in the shaft is σs, then the twisting moment ‘T’ is given by

a. 4 4

8 sD d

Dπ σ −

b. 4 4

16 sD d

Dπ σ −

c. 4 4

32 sD d

Dπ σ −

d. 4 4

64 sD d

Dπ σ −

89. A load perpendicular to the plane of the handle is applied at the free end as shown in the given figure. The values of Shear Force (SE). Bending Moment (B.M.) and torque at the fixed end of the handle have been determined respectively as 400 N, 340 Nm and 100 Nm by a student. Among these values, those of

a. SF, B.M. and torque are correct b. S.F and B.M. are correct c. BM. and torque are correct

13 of 16d. S.F and torque are correct

90. A cantilever carrying a uniformly distributed load is shown in Figure-I. Select the correct B.M. diagram of the cantilever.

a.

b.

c.

d. 91. Match List I (Feature or application) with

List II (Governor) and select the correct answer: List I A. Gas engines B. Rate of change of engine speed C. Low speeds D. Gramophone mechanism List II 1. Quantity governing 2. Isochronous governor 3. Pickering governor 4. Watt governor 5. Inertia governors Codes; A B C D a. 1 5 4 3 b. 2 5 4 3 c. 3 4 5 2 d. 1 2 5 3

92. The beam is loaded as shown in Figure-I. Select the correct B.M. diagram

a.

b.

c.

d. 93. A Cantilever beam of rectangular cross-

section is 1 m deep and 0.6 m thick. If the beam were to be 0.6 m deep and 1 m thick, then the beam would a. be weakened 0.5 times b. be weakened 0.6 times c. be strengthened 0.6 times d. have the same strength as the original

beam because the cross-sectional area remains the same

94. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched? (E = Young’s modulus, α = Coefficient of linear expansion, T = Temperature rise, A = Area of cross-section. l = Original length) a. Temperature strain with permitted

expansion δ : ( )//

Tα δ−

b. Temperature stress : αTE c. Temperature thrust : αTEA d. Temperature stress with permitted

expansion δ : ( )/E Tα δ− 95. Which one of the following pairs is NOT

correctly matched? a. Uniformly distributed stress : Force

passes through the centroid of the cross-section

b. Elastic deformation : Work done by external forces during deformation is dissipated fully as heat

c. Potential energy of strain: Body is in a state of elastic deformation

d. Hooke’s law : Relation between stress and strain

96. Match List I (Material properties) with List II (Technical definition/requirement) and select the correct answer: List I A. Hardness B. Toughness C. Malleability D. Ductility List II 1. Percentage of elongation 2. Resistance to indentation 3. Ability to absorb energy during plastic

deformation

14 of 164. Ability to be rolled into plates Codes; A B C D a. 3 2 1 4 b. 2 3 4 1 c. 2 4 3 1 d. 1 3 4 2

97. For the given stress condition, σx = 2 N/mm2, σy = 0 and τxy = 0, the correct Mohr’s circle is

98. A measure of Rockwell hardness is the

a. depth of penetration of indenter b. surface area of indentation c. projected area of indentation d. height of rebound

99. Biaxial stress system is correctly shown in

100. In an orthogonal cutting process, rake

angle of the tool is 20° and friction angle is 25.5°. Using Merchant’s shear angle relationship, the value of shear angle will be a. 39.5° b. 42.25° c. 47.75° d. 50.5°

101. The approximate variation of the tool life exponent n of cemented carbide tool is a. 0.03 to 0.08 b. 0.08 to 0.20 c. 0.20 to 0.48 d. 0.48 to 0.70

102. The coating materials for coated carbide tools, includes a. TiC, TiN and NaCN b. TiC and TiN c. TiN and NaCN d. TiC and NaCN

103. The type of wear that occurs due to the cutting action of the particles in the cutting fluid is referred to as a. attritions wear b. diffusion wear c. erosive wear d. corrosive wear

104. To drill a 10 mm diameter hole through a 20 mm thick M.S. plate with a drill bit running at 300 rpm and a feed of 0.25 mm per revolution, time taken will be a. 8s b. 16s c. 24s d. 32s

105. Which one of the following processing sequences will give the best accuracy as well as surface finish? a. Drilling, reaming and grinding b. Drilling, boring and grinding c. Drilling, reaming and lapping d. Drilling, reaming and electroplating

106. Match List I (Unconventional machining process) with List II (Typical application) and select the correct answer: List I

15 of 16A. Electro discharge machining B. Electro chemical machining C. Ultrasonic machining D. Laser beam machining List II 1. Drilling micromoles in very hard

metals 2. Drilling holes in glass 3. Die sinking 4. Machining contours Codes; A B C D a. 4 2 3 1 b. 3 4 1 2 c. 4 3 2 1 d. 3 4 2 1

107. Match List I (Process) with List II (Production of parts) and select the correct answer: List I A. Rolling B. Forging C. Extrusion D. Drawing List II 1. Discrete parts 2. Rod and Wire 3. Wide variety of shapes with thin walls 4. Flat plates and Sheets 5. Solid and hollow parts Codes; A B C D a. 2 5 3 4 b. 1 2 5 4 c. 4 1 3 2 d. 4 1 5 2

108. Match List I (Moulding Process) with List II (Binding Agent) and select the correct answer: List I A. Green sand B. Core sand C. Shell moulding D. CO2 process List II 1. Silicate 2. Organic 3. Clay 4. Plaster of Paris 5. Plastic Codes; A B C D a. 3 2 5 1 b. 3 2 4 1

c. 2 3 5 4 d. 2 3 4 5

109. Open-circuit voltage of 60 V and current of 160 A were the welding conditions for arc welding of a certain class of steel strip of thickness 10 mm. For arc welding of 5 mm thick strip of the same steel, the welding voltage and current would be a. 60 V and 80 A b. 120 V and 160 A c. 60 V and 40 A d. 120 V and 40 A

110. For reaming operation of a blind hole, the type of reamer required is a. straight flute reamer b. right hand spiral fluted reamer c. left hand spiral fluted reamer d. none of the above

111. Which of the following are the processes for thermo-setting materials? 1. Compression 2. Transfer moulding 3. Injection moulding 4. Extrusion Select the correct answer using the codes given below: a. 1 and 4 b. 1 and 2 c. 2 and 3 d. 2, 3 and 4

112. Match List I (Shielding method) with List II (Welding process) and select the correct answer: List I A. Flux coating B. Flux granules C. CO2 D. Vacuum List II 1. Gas metal arc welding 2. Submerged arc welding 3. Shielded metal arc welding 4. Laser beam welding 5. Electron beam welding Codes; A B C D a. 1 2 5 3 b. 1 4 2 5 c. 3 5 1 4 d. 3 2 1 5

113. Consider the following statements: A process layout 1. has machines of same functions

arranged in a place.

16 of 162. is suitable for batch production. 3. has machines of different functions

arranged according to processing sequence.

4. is suitable for mass production Of these statements a. 1 and 2 are correct b. 3 and 4 are correct c. 2 and 3 are correct d. 1 and 4 are correct

114. The inventory carrying cost includes a. expenditure incurred for payment of

bills b. placing an order c. receiving and inspecting d. obsolescence and depreciation

115. Match List I (Therbligs symbols) with List II (Motions) and select the correct answer: List I

A. B.

C.

D. List II 1. Find 2. Rest 3. Transport loaded 4. Assemble Codes; A B C D a. 1 2 3 4 b. 4 3 2 1 c. 3 4 1 2 d. 4 3 1 2

116. A Left hand-Right Hand activity chart is given below:

The cycle time for the operation is a. 2.3 mm. b. 2.5 mm. c. 2.7mm. d. 2.2mm.

117. A company sells 14,000 units of its product. It has a variable cost of Rs. 15 per unit. Fixed cost is Rs. 47,000 and the required profit is Rs. 23,000. Per unit product price (in Rs.) will be a. 60 b. 40 c. 30 d. 20

118. The layout suitable for the low demand and high variety product is: a. Group layout b. Process layout c. Product layout d. Static layout

119. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched? a. Job production ... Process

layout b. Mass production ... Product

layout c. Job production ... Special

purpose machine d. Job production ... Production

on order 120. Dispatching function of production

planning and control refers to a. dispatch of finished goods on order b. movement of in-process material from

shop to shop c. authorizing a production work order to

be launched d. dispatch of bills and invoices to the

customer