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Chest and Vascular Radiology
FRCR Part 2a, Module 1: Chest and Cardiovascular
1 Histiocytosis X of the lungs a) causes thin-walled cysts ?t
thick & thin b) ground glass attenuation is characteristic f c)
affects the lower lobes f d) lymphangioleiomyomatosis can look the
same on a plain radiograph t e) causes pneumothorax t
2 An elderly patient presents with a several weeks history of
cough. A plain radiograph shows patchy infiltrates. On CT there are
multiple areas of consolidation but no lymphadenopathy. The
differential diagnosis includes a) heart failure t b) cryptogenic
organizing pneumonia t Effusion 30%, lym.pathy 30% c) eosinophilic
pneumonia T d) alveolar cell carcinoma t e) pulmonary haemorrhage
t
3 Pulmonary AVMs a) are associated with TIAs t b) are present in
80% patients with hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia f (5-15%)
6% of pAvm patients have HHT c) plain radiographs may show only
pulmonary hypervascularity t d) 90% are calcified on helical CT
f
4 Azygous continuation of the IVC is associated with a) a normal
intrahepatic IVC f b) bilateral bilobed lungs t c) polysplenia t d)
total anomalous pulmonary venous drainage f
5 Kaposis sarcoma a) is an early finding in AIDS f b) is
associated with a pleural effusion in the majority of cases f (30%,
lym 15-25% late feature)
6 Angiography a) the testicular vein is easier to catheterise on
the left than the right using a femoral approach t b) a non-covered
stent in the iliac arteries is contraindicated at the bifurcation f
c) iliac artery stent has double the patency rate of angioplasty at
one year t d) iliac artery stent has a 2% infection rate at 2 years
e) iliac artery stents prevent neointimal hyperplasia f f)
following iliac artery stenting the patient should be heparinised
for 24 hours t
7 Regarding embolisation a) polyvinyl alcohol causes intimal
sloughing T b) platinum coils are thrombogenic f c) the hepatic
artery can only be embolised if the portal vein is patent t d)
unintentional embolisation of the distal systemic arteries is more
common at the beginning of the procedure than the end
8 Intrapulmonary bronchogenic cysts a) 10% calcify ( occasional
calcification) b) are of water attenuation on CT T (50%) c)
typically occur in the lower lobes T d) commonly present with
infection T (76%)
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9 The following are recognised findings in cystic fibrosis a) an
association with situs inversus t b) gallstones t c) splenic artery
aneurysm d) cirrhosis of the liver t
10 Popliteal artery entrapment syndrome a) displaces the
popliteal artery laterally f b) occurs over the age of 50 years
f
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18 The following are recognised associations a) hydrallazine and
SLE t b) doxorubicin and pulmonary fibrosis f c) prostaglandins and
arthropathy d) busulphan and cardiomyopathy f e) lead intoxication
and punctate basophilia t
19 Thymomas are associated with a) Hyperparathyroidism t b)
Anaemia t c) polyarteritis nodosa f d) SLE f e) Cushings syndrome
t
20 Pleural effusion due to rheumatoid disease a) is usually
painless F (pleurisy 21%, effusion3 %) b) is usually bilateral f c)
nodules are perihilar f ( peripheral) d) has a low glucose t e) is
associated with bronchopleural fistula t
21 The following may simulate enlargement of the left atrial
appendage a) partial pericardial defect t b) pulmonary stenosis t
c) persistence of the left SVC f d) corrected transposition of the
great arteries t e) coronary artery fistula
22 Visible bronchial arteries on a frontal chest radiograph are
seen in a) Fallots tetralogy t b) tricuspid atresia t c) mitral
atresia f d) primary pulmonary hypertension ?t e) corrected
transposition of the great arteries f
23 The following investigations are appropriate a) thallium-201
scintigraphy in left-to-right shunt f b) left atrial myxoma and
echocardiography t c) left ventricular aneurysm and fluoroscopy t
d) CT with contrast enhancement in dissecting aneurysm of the
descening aorta t e) cinefluorography in mechanical dysfunction of
a prosthetic cardiac valve t
24 Mediastinal bronchogenic cyst a) usually occurs in the
superior mediastinum f b) is a recognised cause of respiratory
distress in the neonate t ( usually asymptomatic) c) has an
attenuation of 0 to 25 HU at CT t d) commonly calcifies f e) is
commoner on the left f
25 In hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy a) the
inverventricular septum is involved t b) systolic anterior movement
of the mitral valve is seen t c) diastolic left ventricular size is
greater than 6 cm f d) mitral valve prolapse may occur f e)
pericardial effusions are a feature f
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26 The following are features of Hodgkins disease a) alcohol
induced flushing t b) haemolytic anaemia f ( anaemia of chronic
disease) c) prolonged fever F ( pel ebstein fever) d) a disorder of
T-cell immunity t
27 The following is true of primary pulmonary hypertension a)
males are more commonly affected f b) a history of breathlessness
extending over some years t c) ventilation-perfusion scans can
distinguish the condition from multiple pulmonary emboli T
28 The following are features of 1-antitrypsin deficiency a)
wash-in of xenon-133 b) upper lobe involvement f c) atopy f d)
usually presents in childhood f
29 Fat embolism a) can be due to arterial hypoxia f b) presents
as petechiae t c) hypothermia is a cause f d) causes pulmonary
shadowing t e) causes a pleural effusion f
30 Features of chronic alcohol abuse include a) hypertrophic
cardiomyopathy f b) malabsorption t c) fetal cerebellar syndrome d)
avascular necrosis t e) tuberculosis t
31 Ring shadows are seen in the lungs in a) tuberous sclerosis t
b) closed chest trauma t c) sequestrated lung segment t d) primary
pulmonary haemosiderosis f e) alveolar proteinosis f
32 Features of crytogenic fibrosing alveolitis include a) lung
shrinkage t b) pleural effusion t (4-6%) c) carcinoma of the
bronchus t
33 Calcified hilar lymph nodes are seen in a) Sarcoidosis t b)
beryllium exposure t c) systemic sclerosis f d) Treated Hodgkins
disease t e) Histoplasmosis t
34 The following are true of farmers lung a) precipitating
antibodies are present in less than 50% of cases T (20-40%) b)
fibrosis is predominantly lower zone f c) an insidious onset is
recognised t
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35 The following are complications of myocardial infarction a)
bacterial endocarditis T b) mitral regurgitation t c) pericardial
effusion t d) ventricular septal defect t e) ruptured sinus of
Valsalva f
36 Left atrial enlargement is a feature of a) Atrial septal
defect f b) Mitral stenosis t c) Ventricular septal defect t d)
Mitral regurgitation t e) Patent ductus arteriosus t
37 Recognised features of AIDS include a) CNS involvement t b)
Thymoma f c) Lymphadenopathy t d) cytomegalovirus infection t e)
oral candidiasis t
38 Central cyanosis and pulmonary plethora occur in a) truncus
arteriosus t b) Fallots tetralogy f c) total anomalous pulmonary
venous drainage t d) hypoplastic left heart syndrome f e) Ebsteins
syndrome f
39 Regarding pleural effusions a) 5-10 ml of fluid can be
detected on a lateral decubitus chest radiograph b) they are a
feature of fibrosing alveolitis c) in Meigs syndrome, the effusion
is most commonly right-sided d) effusions are frequently left-sided
in acute pancreatitis
40 Traumatic aortic dissection a) displacement of the right
paraspinal line is a recognised feature b) sudden onset acute
hypertension may be a feature c) fewer than 30% arise at the
isthmus
41 Regarding the trachea a) normal tracheal diameter varies with
respiration b) the upper limit of normal tracheal sagittal diameter
on HRCT in men is 27mm at 2cm above the arch of the aorta c) men
and women have similar normal tracheal diameters d) tracheal
diameter decreases with age in normal patients e) normal tracheal
diameter is directly related to patient height
42 Regarding Bronchiectasis a) tracheomegaly is usually
associated with cystic type bronchiectasis b) Kartagener's syndrome
is associated with tracheomegaly in the majority of cases c) the
majority of patients with tracheomegaly have no respiratory
symptoms d) tracheal diameter greater than one standard deviation
above the normal range is found in 15-20% of patients with
bronchiectasis e) bronchography remains a useful test in the
diagnosis of tracheobronchomegaly in patients with
bronchiectasis
43 Regarding the airways a) in tracheobronchomegaly the
conducting airways dilate on inspiration and collapse on
expiration
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b) airway calcification is seen prematurely in patients with
bronchiectasis c) relapsing polychondritis involving the airways
usually results in increased airway diameter d) dilatation of the
airways may be observed in Ehlers - Danlos syndrome e) inspiratory
stridor is a well recognized clinical finding in tracheomegaly
44 Tracheal narrowing occurs in a) Wegeners granulomatosis b)
replasing polychondritis c) amyloidosis d) sarcoidosis e) Marfans
syndrome
45 The following drug associations are true a) bleomycin and
pleuroparenchymal fibrosis b) atenolol and hilar lymphadenopathy c)
gold and pulmonary interstitial fibrosis d) methotrexate and
Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia e) BSNU & CCNU and
pneumothorax
46 Concerning Doppler ultrasound of blood vessels a) a triphasic
waveform is normal in the popliteal artery b) the external and
internal carotid arteries can be distinguished by their waveforms
c) stenosis causes spectral broadening d) distal to a high grade
iliac stenosis, a triphasic waveform can be seen e) a significant
stenosis causes at least a doubling of velocity
47 Concerning ventilation-perfusion scintigraphy a) the optimal
perfusion particle size is 80-100 m b) 20% of the pulmonary
capillary bed is occluded c) a known right-to-left shunt is a
relative contraindication d) pulmonary embolus characteristically
results in a segmental defect e) upper zone shunting with mitral
stenosis is a recognized pattern
48 Regarding the thymus a) hyperplasia occurs in response to
steroid therapy b) enlargement occurs in hyperthyroidism c) it is
mobile with respiration on changes of posture d) it is detectable
on CT in less than 50% of patients aged under 30 years e) detection
of thymoma is incidental in 50% of cases
49 Systemic arterial aneurysms are recognised associations of a)
phaeochromocytoma b) intravenous drug abuse c) polyarteritis nodosa
d) coarctation of the aorta e) polycystic renal disease
50 Concerning atheromatous dissection of the aorta a)
hypertension is the main risk factor b) in the descending aorta,
transoesophageal US is better than CT c) On CT, the left
brachiocephalic vein may mimic a dissection d) aortic regurgitation
occurs in 60% e) dissections originating at the aortic isthmus
require surgical treatment
51 Causes of pulmonary arterial hypertension include a)
schistosomiasis
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b) sarcoidosis c) carcinoid syndrome d) 1-antitrypsin
deficiency
52 The following are recognised features of scleroderma a)
pneumothorax b) malignant hypertension c) alveolar cell carcinoma
d) oesophageal stricture e) pulmonary hypertension
53 Arterial aneurysms are associated with a) Ehlers-Danlos
syndrome b) intravenous drug abuse c) temporal arteritis d) aortic
coarctation e) polyarteritis nodosa
54 Primary tuberculosis is more likely than post-primary disease
if a) there is pleural calcification b) there is lobar
consolidation c) there are military deposits d) there is hilar
lymphadenopathy
55 Recognised causes of superior vena cava obstruction include
a) a Hickman line b) histoplasmosis c) aortic aneurysm d)
constrictive pericarditis
56 Aortic dissection is associated with a) Marfans syndrome b)
SLE c) rheumatoid arthritis d) hypertension e) Takayasus
arteritis
57 Vascular calcification is a feature of a) hyperlipidaemia b)
chronic renal failure c) haemochromatosis d) hyperparathyroidism e)
scleroderma
58 The following fungal infections are endemic in the United
Kingdom a) blastomycosis b) histoplasmosis c) torulopsis d)
aspergillosis e) actinomycosis
59 Wegeners granulomatosis a) May cause bilateral consolidation
b) Renal involvement is seen in 25%
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60 Bilateral pulmonary calcific nodules may be seen in a)
Goodpastures syndrome b) mitral stenosis c) histoplasmosis d)
varicella pneumonia e) SLE
61 Typical features of Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia include a)
a normal chest radiograph b) pleural effusion c) bilateral
perihilar consolidation d) increased uptake on 67Ga scintigraphy e)
pneumomediastinum
62 Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy occurs in a) sarcoidosis b)
histoplasmosis c) silicosis d) primary tuberculosis e) bronchogenic
carcinoma
63 The following statements regarding fat embolism are true a)
it typically occurs within 12 hours of injury b) it occurs in 20%
of femoral neck fractures c) the commonest cause is fracture of a
lower limb long bone
64 Causes of pulmonary hypertension include a) carcinoid
syndrome b) schistosomiasis c) alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency
65 Concerning non-small cell carcinoma of the lung a) rib
invasion is a contraindication to surgery b) malignant effusion
contraindicates curative resection
66 Regarding CT of a pulmonary nodule a) no follow-up is
required if there is no change after one year b) attenuation of 60
HU is consistent with a benign lesion c) attenuation of 180 HU
indicates malignancy d) percutaneous biopsy may be safely performed
if the FEV1 is greater than 1.5 L s-1
67 Enlargement of the left atrial appendage is simulated by a)
pulmonary stenosis b) left-sided superior vena cava c) partial
pericardial defect d) corrected transposition of the great
arteries
68 Regarding inflammatory aortic aneurysm a) there is an
association with increased blood viscosity b) fever is absent c)
characteristically, no aortic calcification is seen on CT d)
rupture occurs less frequently than in atheromatous abdominal
aortic aneurysm e) most occur above the level of the renal
arteries
69 Systemic arterio-venous shunts occur in a) hereditary
haemorrhagic telangiectasia
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b) Mafuccis syndrome c) patent ductus arteriosus d) Turners
syndrome e) Downs syndrome
70 Features of systemic sclerosis include a) pneumothorax b)
pleural effusion c) oesophageal stricture d) pulmonary fibrosis e)
alveolar cell carcinoma
71 Concerning hypertrophic cardiomyopathy a) there is an
association with mitral valve prolapse b) systolic anterior motion
of the mitral valve occurs c) the interventricular septum is
affected characteristically d) the left ventricular diameter is
greater than 6 cm e) pericardial effusion is a feature
72 Regarding acute respiratory distress syndrome a) pleural
effusion is characteristic b) fleeting lung opacification is a
recognised early finding c) pulmonary artery diameter is increased
d) pulmonary fibrosis is a recognised sequel e) there is an
association with pneumothorax
73 Primary tuberculosis is more likely than post-primary disease
when the following are seen a) extrapulmonary focus of tuberculosis
b) miliary pattern of pulmonary opacification c) lobar
consolidation d) hilar lymphadenopathy e) pleural calcification
74 Concerning 201Tl cardiac scintigraphy a) atrial fibrillation
prevents the acquisition of diagnostic images b) left anterior
oblique is the most reliable view for the diagnosis of septal
infarction c) the right ventricle can be reliably imaged d)
reversible defects at rest compared to stress indicate ischaemia e)
left bundle branch block precludes the diagnosis of infarction
75 Following pneumonectomy, the following findings are abnormal
a) contrast enhancement of the chest wall on the side of surgery at
CT b) an increasing air-fluid level in the first post-operative
month c) the presence of air on the side of surgery when it was
previously absent d) air remaining after one post-operative month
e) shift of the mediastinum towards the side of surgery on
consecutive days
76 Concerning farmers lung a) blood eosinophilia is
characteristic b) rigors are a recognised presentation c) an
insidious onset is recognised d) pulmonary fibrosis is a recognised
sequel
77 Cryptogenic organising pneumonia is seen in association with
a) ulcerative colitis b) gout
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c) amiodarone therapy d) sulphasalazine therapy e) acebutolol
therapy
78 Regarding pulmonary embolism a) there is a 30% chance of
fatal recurrence if untreated b) there is a 5% chance of recurrence
if treated with an IVC filter c) the sensitivity of lung perfusion
scintigraphy equals pulmonary arteriography d) there is a 90%
chance of a correct diagnosis using perfusion scintigraphy
alone
79 Concerning asbestos-related lung disease a) there is an
association with benign pleural effusion b) thickening of the
visceral pleura is a good prognostic sign c) there is an
association with pleural plaques on the parietal pleura d) fibrotic
lung disease is associated with carcinoma e) mesothelioma arises
from calcified pleural plaques
80 The following statements concerning Doppler ultrasound are
true a) diastolic flow reversal is seen in a normal internal
carotid artery b) diagnostic features are seen in the subclavian
steal syndrome c) decreased velocity is seen with arterial stenosis
d) absence of colour flow in the portal vein is diagnostic of
obstruction
81 Thymoma is associated with a) anaemia b) Cushings syndrome c)
hyperparathyroidism d) SLE e) Hypogammaglobulinaemia
82 The following are recognised causes of bronchiectasis a)
bronchial atresia b) Kartageners syndrome c) cystic fibrosis d)
hypogammaglobulinaemia e) alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency
83 Regarding a bilateral aortic arch a) bilateral common carotid
arteries may occur b) the trachea may be indented c) MRI may be
diagnostic d) stridor may occur
84 Pseudocoarctation of the aorta a) may cause an oesophageal
impression on a barium swallow b) is associated with rib notching
c) does not produce a focal pressure gradient d) causes systemic
emboli
85 Pulmonary fibrosis may be caused by the following drugs a)
carmustine (BCNU) b) cyclophosphamide c) methotrexate d) busulphan
e) amiodarone
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86 Concerning dissection of the thoracic aorta a) 90% occur
within 4 cm of the aortic root b) the false lumen is associated
with thrombus in 40% c) the dissection flap is best seen if there
is equal flow in the true and false lumens
87 Regarding lung contusion a) changes are evident on the chest
radiograph with 12 hours b) haematoma resolves by 7 days c) hypoxia
is related to the amount of contused lung d) the distribution is
usually segmental e) sternal fractures are usually associated with
thoracic spine injuries
88 Right ventricular enlargement is seen in a) mitral stenosis
b) Ebsteins anomaly c) carcinoid syndrome d) chorioepithelioma e)
schistosomiasis
89 Pulmonary hamartoma a) are multiple in tuberous sclerosis b)
calcify in 70% c) are premalignant in 15% d) are excuded from the
differential if serial radiographs show an increase in size e)
occur mainly in patients under 40 years of age
90 Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung a) rarely cavitates b)
occurs peripherally in 40% c) has a greater association with
extra-thoracic metastases than does small cell lung carcinoma d)
may secrete anti-diuretic hormone e) is the commonest histological
type of Pancoast tumour
91 Bronchiectasis may be caused by a) scimitar syndrome b) SLE
c) Wegeners granulomatosis d) sarcoidosis e)
hypogammaglobulinaemia
92 Calcified mediastinal lymph nodes are a recognised feature of
a) amyloidosis b) untreated lymphoma c) silicosis d) tuberculosis
e) phaeochromocytoma
93 Causes of multiple calcified pulmonary lesions include a)
varicella pneumonia b) systemic lupus erythematosus c) mitral
stenosis d) haemosiderosis e) histoplasmosis
94 Prior to treatment, the following pulmonary metastases may be
calcified a) Papillary thyroid carcinoma
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b) Osteosarcoma c) Renal cell carcinoma d) Small bowel
carcinoid
95 Cardiac valvular abnormalities are associated with a) aortic
coarctation b) neurofibromatosis c) Reiters syndrome d) Behets
disease e) decceleration injuries
96 Causes of pneumothorax include a) oesophageal rupture b)
osteosarcoma metastases c) tuberculosis
97 Traumatic rupture of the bronchi a) most often occurs with
2.5 cm of the carina b) when complete, the collapsed lung falls
towards the mediastinum c) is associated with fractures of the
first three ribs d) is usually associated with external evidence of
major trauma e) may cause bronchiectasis
98 Concerning pulmonary scintigraphy a) the xenon ventilation
scan must be performed before the perfusion scan b) pulmonary
embolus cannot be diagnosed in the presence of COPD c) pleural
effusion is a cause of a reverse mismatched defect d) in the
presence of heart failure, the injection should be made with the
patient sitting up e) a low probability of pulmonary embolus
indicates a less than 5% probability
99 Areas of increased attenuation in the basal lung peripheries
at CT are seen with a) bleomycin therapy b) asbestosis c)
scleroderma d) ankylosing spondylitis e) tuberculosis f)
cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis
100 Recognised pulmonary features of Wegeners granulomatosis
include a) cavitation b) calcification c) pleural effusion d)
lymphadenopathy e) pulmonary involvement occurs in 95% of cases
101 Regarding Doppler ultrasound of the deep leg veins a) the
demonstration of flow excludes deep vein thrombosis b) phasic flow
excludes DVT c) compressibility of the popliteal vein reliably
excludes the presence of thrombus d) incompressibility of the
adductor segment is a reliable sign of DVT e) acute thrombus is of
increased reflectivity
102 Concerning Doppler ultrasound of the internal carotid artery
a) reversed flow is seen in normal individuals in the proximal
segment b) flow aliasing is normal c) subclavian steal syndrome
produces characteristic appearances
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d) stenosis are associated with low flow e) low peak systolic
velocities are associated with stenosis
103 Thoracic aortic injury a) commonly affects the ascending
aorta b) is most commonly heralded on a chest radiograph by pleural
effusion c) is reliably excluded by a normal CT examination d) is
universally fatal within 48 hours if untreated e) affects the
aortic valve in 50%
104 Folded lung a) causes crowding of vessels and bronchi
entering the lesion b) causes an enhancing mass on CT c) is
associated with extensive pleural disease d) is completely
surrounded by aerated lung
105 Left atrial enlargement is associated with a) atrial myxoma
b) pulmonary arteriovenous malformations c) ventricular septal
defect d) Ebsteins anomaly e) mitral stenosis
106 Pulmonary arteriovenous malformations a) are associated with
cerebral abscesses b) present with haemoptysis c) are associated
with Osler-Weber Rendu syndrome d) can present with a rounded mass
on a chest radiograph e) cause left atrial enlargement f) may be
treated by bronchial artery embolisation
107 The following are poor prognostic factors in sarcoid a)
erythema nodusum b) bone lesions c) interstitial pulmonary disease
not resolving after one year d) presentation at under 40 years
old
108 Regarding blunt chest trauma a) segmental contusion may be
recognised radiographically b) lung contusion appears
radiographically within 12 hours c) pulmonary haematomas resolve
within three weeks d) sternal fractures are associated with
fractures of the thoracic spine
109 Concerning pleural effusions a) cryptogenic fibrosing
alveolitis is a recognised cause b) 5-10 ml of pleural fluid can be
recognised on a lateral decubitus radiograph c) superior vena cava
syndrome is a recognised cause d) Meigs syndrome is
characteristically associated with a right-sided effusion e) in
acute pancreatitis, the effusion characteristically occurs on the
left
110 Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung a) is the characterstic
histological type in Pancoasts tumour b) is peripheral in 30-40% of
cases c) rarely cavitates d) is associated with the syndrome of
inappropriate ADH secretion e) produces radiologically detectable
metastases more often than does small cell carcinoma
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111 Recognised features of histiocytosis X include a)
lymphadenopathy b) pleural effusion c) pneumothorax d) pulmonary
fibrosis e) inferior rib notching
112 Causes of aortic aneurysms include a) Marfans syndrome b)
Ehlers Danlos syndrome c) polyarteritis nodosa d) Takayasus disease
e) Turners syndrome
113 Dissection of the thoracic aorta a) is more reliably
detected on transoesophageal ultrasound than on CT b) may be
mimicked by the left brachiocephalic vein c) is most commonly due
to hypertension d) when arising distal to the left subclavian
artery, requires surgical treatment e) is associated with aortic
regurgitation in 60% of cases
114 Superior vena cava obstruction may occur due to a)
histoplasmosis b) sarcoid c) aortic aneurysm
115 Coarctation of the aorta a) is associated with notching of
the first seven ribs b) an aberrant right subclavian artery is
associated with right-sided rib notching c) there is a recognised
association with gonadal dysgenesis d) aortic valve regurgitation
is a recognised association
116 Cytomegalovirus infection may cause a) air space shadowing
b) lymphadenopathy c) thickening of the colonic wall
117 Pneumocystis carinii infection a) can be reliably
differentiated from pulmonary Kaposis sarcoma by radiology b) shows
a predominantly upper lobe distribution
118 Mediastinal lymph node calcification occurs in a)
histoplasmosis b) silicosis c) amyloid d) untreated lymphoma
119 Regarding the solitary pulmonary nodule a) no growth over
one year guarantees benignity b) size less than 2 cm is good
evidence of benignity c) size greater than 3 cm is good evidence of
malignancy d) punctate calcification is reliable evidence of
benignity e) a smooth outline implies benignity
120 The following pulmonary metastases show cavitation a)
cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma
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b) teratomas c) seminoma d) osteosarcomas e) glioma
121 Following pneumonectomy, the following are abnormal a) air
in the ipsilateral hemithorax one month post surgery b) a rising
air-fluid level c) movement of the mediastinum towards the
pneumonectomy side d) new air in a previously fluid-filled space e)
enhancement of the pleura on CT
122 Regarding the thymus a) more than 50% of myaesthenics have
thymoma b) in children, the normal thymus may occupy 50% of the
cross sectional area of the chest on a frontal chest radiograph c)
fat is seen as a normal component on CT d) in myasthaenia, there
are circulating antibodies to acetylcholine receptors
123 Post-primary TB is more likely than primary disease if there
is a) lobar consolidation b) hilar lymphadenopathy
124 Regarding chronic radiation pneumonitis a) the onset occurs
within two weeks of exposure b) fibrosis occurs without a previous
pneumonitis c) it is potentiated by cytotoxic agents d) steroids
produce some improvement in appearances e) fibrosis is related to
the amount of lung irradiated
125 Embolisation via an arterial approach is appropriate
treatment for a) epistaxis b) cavernous haemangioma c) oesophageal
varices
126 Regarding the positioning of central venous catheters a) a
line seen lateral to the aorta is outside the vein b) a line
overlying the lung should be presumed to have punctured the vein c)
position within the jugular vein is acceptable for infusion d)
position within the coronary sinus is associated with arrhythmia e)
a lateral film is necessary to ascertain true position of a
catheter
127 The azygos vein is enlarged in a) inspiration b) superior
vena cava obstruction c) inferior vena cava obstruction d) portal
hypertension
128 Digital ischaemia is seen in a) carpal tunnel syndrome b)
rheumatoid arthritis c) SLE d) workers exposed to polyvinyl
chloride
129 Tracheal narrowing is a feature of a) tracheomalacia
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b) sarcoid c) Wegeners granulomatosis d) amyloid e) croup
130 Concerning pulmonary perfusion scintigraphy a) defects are
segmental in pulmonary embolic disease b) the particle size is
80-100 m c) a right-to-left shunt is a relative
contraindication
131 Patients presenting with inflammatory aortic aneurysms a)
commonly have aortic calcification b) are usually pyrexial c)
usually have an elevated ESR d) rupture occurs less commonly than
with atheromatous aneurysms e) the aneurysm commonly extends above
the renal arteries
132 The interlobular septae are thickened in a) pneumoconiosis
b) sarcoid c) primary pulmonary haemosiderosis d) alveolar
proteinosis
133 Thymic enlargement is a feature of a) adrenal insufficiency
b) thyrotoxicosis c) lymphoma
134 Recognised features of ARDS include a) pleural effusion b)
early radiological changes relative to symptoms c) perihilar
changes d) rapidly changing appeatances e) fibrosis
135 Chylothorax may be secondary to a) tuberculosis b)
filariasis c) repair of tracheo-oesophageal fistula
136 Regarding asbestos-related pleural abnormalities a) plaques
are associated with a prolonged period of asbestos exposure b)
mesothelioma is associated with early bone destruction c) chest
pain is associated with rib destruction
137 The following commonly present with wheeze a) alveolar cell
carcinoma b) amyloid
138 Constrictive pericarditis is associated with a) rheumatoid
arthritis b) coxsackie B myocarditis c) histoplasmosis d)
lymphoma
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139 Wegeners granulomatosis a) is commoner in women b) is
associated with endobronchial masses c) is associated with acute
tubular necrosis
140 Histiocytosis X is associated with a) diabetes mellitus b)
proptosis c) lung fibrosis
141 The following associations are recognised a) closure of the
aortic valve in mid-systole and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy b)
systolic motion of the posterior mitral valve cusp into the left
atrium and mitral prolapse c) anterior movement of the posterior
mitral valve cusp in systole and mitral stenosis d) calcification
of the atrioventricular groove and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
142 Regarding aortic stenosis a) a peak aortic blood flow of 1.5
m s-1 indicates significant stenosis
143 Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia in immunocompromised patients
a) causes bilateral, symmetrical pulmonary shadowing in most cases
b) can cause pulmonary fibrosis c) is associated with increased
risk of pneumothorax
144 Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis a) is the most
common cause of pulmonary infection and eosinophilia in the UK b)
causes lung cavitation c) is associated witth mucous plugging in
subsegmental bronchi d) is more common in lower lobes
145 Causes of ground glass appearance on HRCT a) silicosis b)
sarcoidosis c) acute EAA d) chronic organising pneumonia e)
alveolar proteinosis
146 An adult presents with cough for 2 weeks. CXR shows alveolar
opacity and CT shows patchy consolidation. No lymphadenopathy. The
differential diagnosis includes a) LVF b) alveolar cell Ca c) COP
d) EAA
147 Colour Doppler in abdominal vessels a) lack of colour flow
in a well seen portal vein means occlusion b) post-prandial
decrease in the SMA diastolic flow is normal c) normal renal artery
flow is low resistance
148 On sonovenogram a) the patient is examined in the
trendelenberg position b) without pulsed doppler is unreliable c)
anechoic thrombus means no thrombus d) sensitivity is < 90% for
above knee DVT
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149 TIPSS a) femoral route is commonly employed b)
encephalopathy is a contraindication c) hepatic transplantation is
a contraindication
150 Lymphoma a) three groups of lymph nodes on the same side of
the diaphragm suggest stage III disease b) fatty centre in the
centre of the LN is recognised
151 Pulmonary AVMs a) are acquired in adulthood b) usually seen
in upper lobes c) are associated with clubbing d) associated with
cerebral abcesses e) only 5-15% of HHT patients have pulmonary AVMs
f) haemoptysis is the most common presentation
152 Pulmonary artery hypoplasia a) is usually on the side
opposite to the aortic arch b) can be left sided in tetralogy of
Fallot c) is distinguished from McLeods syndrome by absence of air
trapping d) enlarged bronchial arteries are seen e) the aortic arch
may be on the right if the left is interrupted, especially in
congenital heart disease
153 Thrombolysis is contraindicated in a) aortic aneurysm b)
major surgery in the last 10 days c) streptokinase sensitivity d)
longstanding graft
154 IVC filters are used for a) recurrent PE despite adequate
anticoagulation b) pregnant women with past history of PE c) IVC
thrombus above renal veins d) prophylacically after pulmonary
embolectomy
155 Regarding stents a) a self-expandable stent should not be
used in the biliary system b) an expandable stent should not be
balloon dilated c) a 16 F stent is too big for the SVC d) covered
vascular stents are able to prevent neointimal hyperplasia e) a
double J ureteric stent placement needs cytoscopic access
156 Malignant mesothelioma a) is associated with pleural plaques
b) rarely involves mediastinal pleura c) characterisically shows
rib erosions
157 A pericardial sac defect a) is usually left sided b)
associated with other cardiac defects in 30-40% c) pericardial
cysts commonly calcify d) pericardial cysts are hyperintense on
both T1 and T2 e) intrapericardial bronchogenic cyst contains
layering calcium
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158 Regarding bronchopulmonary sequestration a) the intralobar
sequestration is more common on the left b) recurrent haemoptysis
is a feature c) extrapulmonary sequestration can be seen below the
diaphragm d) are hyperintense on both T1 and T2
159 Upper lobe fibrosis with volume loss is seen in a) EAA b)
sarcoid c) alveloar proteinosis d) ankylosing spondylosis
160 In venous US of legs a) in acute thrombosis there are linear
high echoes within the lumen b) vein is incompressible if fillled
with thrombus c) acute thrombus distends the vein d) loss of phasic
flow in posterior tibial vein e) non-occlusive thrombus cannot be
seen
161 Endoluminal repair of infrarenal AAA a) majority of
infrarenal AAA are suitable for endoluminal repair b) endoluminal
leaks are usually due to lumbar arteries c) late endoluminal leaks
rae best diagnosed with arteriography d) is more expensive than
conventional surgical repair
162 Hydatid cyst a) lung cyst usually calcify b) are usually
solitary c) have similar HU to water d) can cross joints e) cats
are the domestic vector
163 A man in his 50s with cough and acute SOB; CXR shows ill
defined pulmonary opacities, basal septal lines and normal heart
size. The following should be considered in the differential: a)
acute MI b) PE c) viral pericarditis d) EAA e) left atrial
myxoma
164 Concerning carotid dissection a) ipsilateral headache occurs
in approx 75% b) intracranial extension occurs in 70-80% c)
associated with caroticocavernous fistula d) Most common cause of
strokes in
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b) predominantly lower zone c) ground glass opacity on HRCT d)
similar appearances to lymphangiomyomatosis on CXR e) is associated
with increased lung volume
167 Thoracic aneurysms are associated with a) vertebral body
scalloping b) Behets syndrome c) Takayasus arteritis d) dysphagia
e) if before left subclavial artery is likely to be secondary to
trauma
168 In HIV a) Kaposis sarcoma is associated with pleural
effusion b) Kaposis sarcoma appears early c) cryptococcus more
likely to infect CNS d) bacterial pneumonia is more likely than PCP
e) If CD4 is lower TB tend to cavitate
169 Pulmonary sequestration a) angiography can confidently
diagnose b) bronchial connection occurs in extra-lobar type c)
commonly occurs in lower lobe on the right d) infection is more
common with intralobar type
170 Concerning interventional angiography a) PVA causes
irritation to endothelium amd causes sloughing b) tungsten coils
are thromogenic c) the hepatic artery shoud only be embolised if
the portal vein is patent d) the left rather than the right gonadal
vein is easier to cannulate with a right femoral puncture e) distal
embolisation to tissue other than the target organ is more likely
at the beginning than at the end of injection of particles
171 Time of flight MRI of peripheral arteries a) overestimates
stenosis length b) relies on in flow c) cardiac gating is
useful
172 Causes of endobronchial metastases a) breast b) carcinoma of
the bronchus c) melanoma d) carcinoma of the colon e)
mesothelioma
173 The following are suitable for access for angiography a)
radial artery b) brachial artery c) ulnar artery d) anterior tibial
artery e) popliteal artery
174 Thrombolysis a) can cause acute renal failure b) can cause
hepatic failure
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175 Concerning the thoracic aorta a) there is a 30% chance of
rupture in an aneurysm measuring 6cm or greater b) majority of
post-traumatic thoracic aneurysms are at the level of the
ligamentum arteriosum c) intramural haematoma of the ascending
aorta should be managed in the same way as dissection d)
conventional MR is more sensitive that MRA in the assessment of
intra-mural thrombus e) Stanford type B is associated with
dissection of the ascending aorta
176 In a patient with pulmonary abnormalities and a peripheral
blood eosinophilia, the following must be considered a) Wegeners
granulomatosis b) round worm infection c) silicosis d) Behets
syndrome
177 Marfan syndrome is associated with a) typically, calcified
aortic aneurysm b) mitral valve prolapse c) pulmonary aneurysm d)
spinal stenosis
178 Fat embolism a) CXR changes precede symptoms b) occurs
within 12 hrs of injury c) results in multiple areas of low
attenuation in the brain on CT d) recognised cause of severe
hypoxia
179 Mesothelioma a) causes pleural effusions b) can cause
contralateral lymphadenopathy c) rib erosion is a recignised
feature d) pericardial erosion is a recognised feature
180 Regarding IVC filters a) ideally placed above the level of
the renal arteries b) in patients with bilateral iliac vein
thrombosis a jugular approach is appropriate c) thrombolysis is
contraindicated post filter placement
181 Concerning angiographic intervention a) intra arterial
nitrates may be injected to overcome muscle spasm b) arterial
rupture following CIA angioplasty is more likely that EIA
angioplasty c) choosing angioplasty balloon sizes 20% larger than
vessel diameter for SFA angioplasty is recommended d) boluses of
less than 50 IU heparin should be injected once, ideally e)
angioplasty of endoprostheses is contraindicated
182 Renal artery intervention a) injection of intra-arterial
vasodilators directly into renal arteries is contraindicated b)
rupture of renal artery following renal artery angio in 5-10% is
recognised c) improvement on the blood pressure of a patient with
fibromuscular hyperplasia in the majority d) 8 mm balloon is
suitable
183 Renal artery aneurysms a) are more likely to rupture in
pregnancy b) multiple in polyarteritis nodosa c) concentric muscle
wall thickening is characteristic of Takayasus arteritis d) most
atherosclerotic stenoses are within 2 cm of the ostium e) extra
renal aneurysms can be treated with coil thrombosis
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184 Concerning bronchial carcinoid a) presents as a solitary
nodule in 50% b) characteristically calcifies c) characteristically
causes carcinoid syndrome d) is a recognised cause of Cushings
syndrome e) radiolabelled octreotide is sensitive in its
diagnosis
185 The following features are recognised on HRCT in
bronchiolitis obliterans a) mosaic like pattern b) air trapping in
expiration c) an area of focal increased transradiancy amongst the
consolidation d) ground glass change in the majority
186 The following conditions cause bronchiectasis a) silicosis
b) sarcoidosis c) congenital IgG deficiency d) ABPA e) fume
inhalation
187 The following cause Kerley B lines a) Mycoplasma pneumonia
b) viral pneumonia c) TB d) silicosis e) sarcoidosis
188 The following conditions may cause a focal bulge in the left
heart border a) Ebsteins anomaly of the tricuspid valve b) focal
pericardial defect c) Tetralogy of Fallot d) pulmonary artery
stenosis e) pulmonary valve stenosis
189 Concerning CT pulmonary angiogram a) contraindicated in
severe RHF b) contraindicated in pulmonary fibrosis c)
contraindicated in hypotension d) if patients are very dyspnoeic
better results are obtained by MR angiogram e) can detect emboli
down to segmental level
190 Regarding US of the carotid arteries a) velocity in the ICA
falls to less than that in the CCA when there is significant
stenosis b) stenosis is only surgically significant when the
patient is symptomatic and vessel diameter is decreased by 85% c)
power dopppler is helpful in distinguishing critical stenosis from
occlusion d) calcium plaques can limit use of US e) US can reliably
interrogate the origin of the great vessels f) MR tends to
overestimate the length of stenosis
191 Congenital heart disease causing pulmonary plethora and
cyanosis a) truncus arteriosus b) total anomalous pulmonary venous
drainage c) patent ductus arteriosus d) tetralogy of Fallot e)
transposition of the great arteries
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192 Regarding carotid doppler US a) the external carotid artery
arises anteromedial to the internal carotid b) a peak systolic flow
of 150cm/s equates to a stenosis of 50% c) a doppler angle of 70-90
deg is required to minimise error d) spectral broadening alone
signifies significant stenosis e) surgical treatment is beneficial
in symptomatic patients with 50% stenosis
193 Regarding MRA a) can be used in the screening for 3-4mm
intracerebral aneurysms b) saturation techniques cancel out the
signal in time of flight imaging c) phase contrast imaging is
better at quantitative measurement of flow than TOF d) phase
contrast imaging can detect flow in all directions
194 Ground glass change in HRCT is seen in: a) bronchiectasis b)
left ventricular failure c) pulmonary haemorrhage d) alveolar
proteinosis e) hypersensitivity pneumonitis f) COP
195 In HRCT septal lines are seen in: a) lymphangiomyomatosis b)
pericardial effusion c) allergic alveolitis d) sarcoidosis e)
bleomycin lung toxicity
196 Non Hodgkins lymphoma of the chest: a) is more common than
Hodgkins b) opacities developing over 3 days is a feature c) may
cavitate d) associated lymphadenopathy is more common than in
Hodgkins
197 Concerning myocardial imaging with thallium: a) reduced
uptake in infarct b) reduced uptake in reversible ischaemia c)
reduced radiation dose compared with MIBG d) thallium is injected
at peak stress e) lung uptake with bronchogenic carcinoma and lung
lymphoma
198 Increased size of pulmonary arteries seen in a) normal
children b) ASD in patients over 40 c) PE in the majority d) COPD
e) Majority of Fallots tetralogy
199 V/Q lung scanning: a) mismatched defects in infarct b)
cannot diagnose PE in COPD c) relative contraindication is right to
left shunt d) renal uptake is seen in left to right shunt e)
defects characteristically change over a period of weeks with
emboli
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200 Primary stenting a) for renal artery ostial lesions give
better results b) results with SFA angioplasty and stent much
better than plasty alone ?F c) nitinol possesses thermal energy d)
all patients need warfarin for 3 months e) angioplasty prior to
stenting reduces the risk of emboli ?
201 concerning deep vein thrombosis: a) non compressibility is
associated with acute thrombus b) acute thrombus has hyperechoic
strands on US c) acute clot distends the vein d) US can not detect
non occlusive thrombus e) non phasic flow through the PT vein
confirms the diagnosis
202 Fat embolism : a) occurs within 12 hours of trauma b) CXR
abnormality is seen prior to symptoms c) associated with
pericardial effusion F d) apical opacities are seen ?f e) pleural
effusions are seen
203 Ascaris infection: a) causes haematuria F b) causes fleeting
pulmonary infiltrates c) can be seen on plain abdominal film f d)
causes biliary obstruction e) causes calcified cerebral lesions
f
204 Concerning the pericardium: a) defects commoner on the right
f b) associated with congenital heart disease in 20% f (30% for all
anamolies) c) calcification is seen in constrictive pericarditis t
d) radiation is a cause of constrictive pericarditis t
205 Good indicators for aortic injury on CXR are: a) tracheal
deviation to the right b) thickening of the right para tracheal
stripe c) left apical cap d) fractures of first three ribs e)
normal contour of the aortic arch
206 Ground glass change on HRCT: a) simulated by bronchiolitis
obliterans b) may assess areas of low attenuation by comparing to
air in the trachea c) confers 50% higher radiation dose than
standard CT slice for slice
207 CTPA: a) not diagnostic >4th generation artery branches
b) false positive in SVC obstruction f c) false positive in L-R
shunt f
208 Drug causes of pulmonary interstitial infiltrates include:
a) Aspirin T ( pul oedema) b) busulphan t c) prolonged oxygen
therapy t
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209 thoracic AIDS imaging: a) the lesions of Kaposis sarcoma
enhance t b) the commonest cause of lymph node enlargement is TB f
c) lymphoma is likely to be extranodal t d) a normal HRCT excludes
PCP e) atypical mycobacterium infection is more likely to be
extranodal f
210 Intra arterial thrombolysis may be used to treat: a) a
popliteal aneurysm with occluded run off b) intermittent
claudication c) cholesterol emboli d) following SFA angioplasty
with loss of pulses 24 hours later
211 The following are features of BOOP a) dry cough b) poor
response to steroids c) cavitation t (rare) d) pleural effusion t
(30% on HRCT, lymphadenopathy 25% HRCT) e) peripheral subpleural
opacities t
212 Decreased perfusion and ventilation of a lung may be seen on
isotope scanning with a) bronchogenic carcinoma b) TB c) aortic
dissection d) mediastinal fibrosis e) pulmonary hypoplasia
213 Regarding non small cell carcinoma of the lung a) squamous
cell is less likely to have positive nodes than adenocarcinoma b)
MRI is better than CT at demonstrating superior sulcal tumours c)
CT can accurately separate tumour from adjacent atelectasis
214 The following are causes of thickened interlobar septa on
HRCT: a) LVF b) Pericarditis f c) alveolar proteinosis t (late
stages) d) lymphangitis carcinomatosis. e) silicosis
215 The following are presenting features of mesotheliomas: a)
pericardial involvement. t b) parietal pleura involvement. t c) rib
involvement f ( advanced cases) d) associated pleural effusion t e)
interlobar fissure extension t
216 Concerning fibromuscular hyperplasia: 2/3 bil, R:L =4:1 a)
is more common in males f (M:L= 1:3) b) may involve the carotid
arteries. t c) intracranial involvement is recognised t d) good
result with angioplasty t e) is more common as a cause of
hypertension in patients below 40 years of age f ( renovascular HTN
only)
217 Concerning the ischaemic limb: a) limb claudication is
likely to be due to a thrombotic process. b) thrombolysis can be
helpful.
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c) thrombolysis is contraindicated folowing a recent CVA. d)
early angiography is contraindicated after thrombolysis.
218 Concerning thrombolysis: a) ipsilateral antegrade approach
to a femoral-popliteal graft is contraindicated. b) compartment
syndrome may be a complication of successful angioplasty. c)
intravenous therapy is as effective as local treatment.
219 Double aortic arch: a) causes dysphagia. t b) causes
tracheal narrowing. t c) carotid artery commonly originates from
each aortic arch. t d) associated with total anomalous pulmonary
venous drainage. f
220 Concerning HIV infections: a) commonest pneumonia organism
is pneumocystis carinii. b) commonest fungal infection of the GI
tract is cryptococcus. t c) in Kaposis sarcoma, lung lesions occur
before skin lesions. F ( follow skin and visceral lesions) d)
cerebral lymphoma occurs in 6% f (2%, pulmonary 9-31%)
221 Digital artery ischaemia is seen in: a) carpal tunnel
syndrome b) PVC workers c) Systemic sclerosis d) HPOA e) RA
222 The following are features of AIDS related lymphoma in the
thorax a) Lymphadenopathy t b) multiple pulmonary nodules t c)
pleural effusions t d) single pulmonary nodule t e) pericardial
effusion t
223 Regarding thallium201 myocardial imaging a) the optimal view
to demonstrate septal infarcts is the LAO b) a defect present on
exercise but not at rest is indicative of reversible ischaemia c)
adequate imaging can be obtained in the presence of uncontrolled
atrial fibrillation d) diagnosis of ischaemia is unreliable in the
presence of left bundle branch block
224 Regarding angioplasty of the superficial femoral artery a) a
popliteal approach is contraindicated b) a balloon diameter of 8mm
is appropriate c) a stenosis length of 15cm is a contraindication
d) 50,000 IU heparin is normally given during the procedure e) 90%
of successfully treated stenoses will remain patent at 1 year
225 Reagrding peripheral thrombolysis a) is most commonly
carried out for embolic disease b) a history of stroke within the
previous 3 months is a contraindication c) acute renal failure is a
recognised complication
226 Concerning sequestrated lung segments a) aortography is
diagnostic in most cases b) communication with bowel is not
recognised c) the presence of gas filled structure on CT excludes
the diagnosis
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227 Recognised associations of bilateral pulmonary agenesis
include a) diaphragmatic hernia t b) gastroschisis f c) anencephaly
f
228 The following are features of Behets syndrome a) SVC
obstruction b) pulmonary infarction c) oesophageal stricture d)
bowel perforation e) meningoencephalitis
229 In HRCT of the chest, the following are associated with
predominantly subpleural changes a) histiocytosis X f b)
cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis t c) scleroderma t d) ankylosing
spondylitis t e) lymphangiomyomatosis t
230 Features more suggestive of a benign lesion in a lung mass
seen on CT include a) cavitation b) calcification c) fat
density
231 Concerning ultrasound assessment of leg veins a) in chronic
DVT the vein diameter increases b) a false negative result may be
obtained in the presence of a bifid femoral vein c) damping of
amplitude on calf compression is indicative of distal calf vein
thrombosis d) normal femoral vein Doppler signal shows respiratory
variation
232 Regarding total anomalous pulmonary venous drainage a) the 4
chamber view on the antenatal scan may appear normal t b) pulmonary
plenaemia is a feature t c) angiography is mandatory before
corrective surgery f d) an atrial septostomy may improve symptoms
in the immediate postnatal period f
233 In HRCT of the lungs a) ground glass change is associated
with a favourable response to steroid treatment b) cryptogenic
fibrosing alveolitis is a recognised cause of ground glass
change
234 the following are causes of bilateral hilar adenopathy a)
histoplasmosis t b) primary pulmonary TB c) silicosis t d)
sarcoidosis t
235 Concerning Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms a) 90% arise below the
renal arteries t b) the normal aortic diameter is 3cm c)
calcification occurs in intraluminal thrombus in 90% T(75-86%) d) a
third have renal artery stenosis t (22-30%) e) 80% have an occluded
IMA t
236 The following have positive predictive value in blunt trauma
to the thoracic aorta a) tracheal shift to the right b) apical
pleural cap on the left
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c) fracture of superior ribs d) double aortic shadow f e)
pleural effusion
237 In pseudocoarctation a) the aortic abnormality is sited
proximally to the origin of the left subclavian artery f b) rib
notching is associated f c) a narrowing of the aorta is seen on
aortography ?f (notch) d) peripheral embolisation is a complication
f e) there is anterior displacement of the aorta f (oesophagus)
238 In HRCT of the lungs the following cause nodular
abnormalities a) Asbestosis f b) Silicosis t c) fibrosing
alveolitis f d) histiocytosis t e) sarcoidosis t
239 Possible causes of pleural thickening and a loculated
pleural effusion include a) rheumatoid arthritis t b) tuberculosis
t c) mesothelioma t
240 Coarctation of the aorta is associated with a)
tracheoesophageal fistula f b) bicuspid aortic valve t c) turners
syndrome t d) horseshoe kidney t e) Marfans syndrome t
241 Heart failiure a) is associated with a dilated IVC t b) is
associated with a thickened gallbladder wall t c) may cause dilated
portal veins t d) may cause reverse flow in portal veins t e) is
associated with ascites t
242 Rheumatoid arthritis is associated with a) egg shell
calcification in the lymph nodes f b) longstanding pleural effusion
t c) upper zone fibrosis f d) cavitation of nodules t
243 Concerning deep vein thrombosis a) acute clot is hyperechoic
b) the vein gets larger with time c) a duplex vein can cause a
false negative examination d) distal clot can cause loss of
phasicity
244 In vascular ultrasound a) doubling of the velocity indicates
a significant stenosis t b) normal popliteal artery demonstrates
triphasic flow t c) distal to an ileal stenosis there is triphasic
flow f d) stenosis is associated with spectral broadening t
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245 Concerning oat cell carcinomas a) they are most commonly
located in the first and second order bronchi t b) they are
associated with hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy t c) may be
associated with metastases in 50% at presentation t
246 A bulge on the left lateral heart border may be seen in a)
Ebsteins anomaly f b) total anomalous pulmonary venous drainage t
c) mitral stenosis t d) a pericardial defect t
247 Tetralogy of Fallot may be associated with a) left
ventricular hypertrophy f b) right ventricular hypertrophy t c) ASD
f d) aortic stenosis f e) VSD t
248 In Extrinsic Allergic Alveolitis a) bird fanciers lung
characteristically affects the bases f b) non caseating granulomas
are frequently found on transbronchial biopsy ? t c) air trapping
occurs t
249 Enlarged left atrium is typical in a) ASD f b) VSD t c)
TAPVD f d) pulmonary AVM f e) mitral stenosis t
250 AAA a) prognosis is related to size t b) most commonly
presents with rupture. F (25%) c) most involve the renals f d) is a
recognised cause of ureteric obstruction. t e) is a recognised
cause of consumptive coagulopathy. f
251 Asbestos related disease a) typically 20 years delay before
changes are seen f b) pleural plaques are on visceral pleura f c)
commonest to see plaques on diaphragmatic pleura t d) over 80% have
visible plaques on CXR f e) HPOA is common f
252 AIDS related PCP characteristically causes a) Hilar
lymphadenopathy f b) Pleural effusions f c) Multiple pneumatoceles
t d) Patchy pulmonary infliltrates after pentamidine nebulisers t
e) Ground glass opacities on CT t
253 BOOP a) rapidly respondes to steroids t b) causes focal
consolidation t c) is caused by rheumatoid arthritis t
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d) is caused by acebutalol ? e) associated with increased WCC
?
254 Causes of cavitating pulmonary metastases a) squamous cell
carcinoma of the skin t b) osteosarcoma t c) teratoma f d) seminoma
f e) glioma f SCC, sarcoma, colon, melanoma,TCC, cervix on
chemo
255 Doppler US a) aliasing is common due to a too high PRF f b)
cannot measure flow in a vessel < 1 mm f c) PRF decreases with
the depth of tissue t d) an angle
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d) Atropine e) Diazepam
262 Fleeting opacification occurs in a) EAA b) Asbestosis c)
Aspergillosis d) UIO e) Alveolar cell Ca
263 In HRCT, air trapping is seen in a) Bronchiolitis obliterans
b) EAA c) Asbestosis d) Emphysema e) Lymphangitis Carcinomata
264 Egg shell calcification a) Treated lymphoma b) Sarcoid c)
Blastomycosis d) Amyloid
265 Acute EAA a) More than 50% chest xrays show lymphadenopathy
b) Ground glass is characteristic c) Apices effected d) Focal air
trapping
266 Eosinophilia and chest xray changes occur in a)
Methoteraxate b) Wegners c) Round worm
267 Aortic dissection a) Stanford A does not include descending
aorta b) Marfans more commonly involves ascending aorta c) True
lumen usually smaller than false d) MTI more sensitive than TOE
268 Acute partial dissection a) Angio contraindicated b) Acute
angle with aorta c) Acute haematoma in sac is hight signal on
T1W
269 CT Cardiac a) Cardiac Images acquired during systole (early)
b) Left coronary gives off circumflex c) Left coronary gives off
marginal obtuse d) Right coronary comes off anterior sinus e)
Radiation doses are comparable to coronary angiograms
270 Embolization of Fibroid a) Pain post embolisation is
commonest complaint b) Vaginal discharge for weeks indicated
infection
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c) Women over age of 40 are at risk of early menopause d)
Subserosal fibroid can fall transvaginally
271 Intervention a) In colonic embolization, ischaemia is a
significant risk (>1%) b) Polyvinal alcohol is used as an
embolic agent c) Abcolute alcohol is associated with pulmonary
hypertension d) The embolization catheter should be bigger than the
vessel e) Post embolic syndrome occurs with solid organs
272 Asbestose related a) Asbestose related disease is on the
rise b) Nodular pleural thickening is benign c) In mesothelioma
marked enhacement is seen with Gadolinium on MR d) PET used for
tumour staging
273 Contrast in MRI a) Gadolinium prolongs T1 b) Aortic
enhacement is seen c) Shortens T2*
274 Sedation in angio a) The person performing angio should give
drug and monitor sats b) Midazolam is longer lasting than dizapam
c) Pre-sedation O2 is required
275 Increased acculmulation of FDG in lung is seen in a)
Pneumonia b) PE c) Pulmonary oedema
276 Ultrasound a) The RPF is twice the frequency of the probe b)
There is a maximal doppler frequency that can be measured c) PRF is
low in deep vessels
277 Perfusions scanning a) Left lung is more perfused than the
right b) Pulmonary oedema has perfusion defects that are non
segmental
278 Lymphangitis carcinomata a) Unilateral involvement is common
b) Is considered stage IV disease
279 Pulmonary AVM a) 10-15% malignant transformation rate b) Rim
calcification is characteristic c) In presence of fat, another
diagnosis should be Considered d) Most lesions are peripheral.
280 In pregnancy a) CTPA has same dose as scintography b)
Thyroid check for fetus post partum is needed is mum had pulmonary
angio c) Majority of normal chest xrays have positive PE exam d)
D-Dimer raised in pregnancy e) 60% of perfusion scans are
indeterminate of PE
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281 Histocyotosis a) Charactiscally cavitates b) Typically
occurs in smoker c) Form regular cysts d) Volume is preserved
282 Regarding Takayasus a) Normally occurs in patients >
40years b) causes constitutional symptoms c) pulmonary arterial
involvement occurs in 90% b) in diastole, ECA flow is lower than
ICA c) vertebral arteries are successfully interrogated in 80% d)
if there is vertebral artery dominance then L is dominant in 80% e)
there is reversal of flow in vertebral arteries in 5-10% of normal
population
288 Regarding Pulsed Doppler USS a) aliasing is common at 30cm/s
b) electronic gating is inefficient at 5cm depth c) Doppler shift
is proportional to transducer frequeny d) cant measure directional
flow e) increasing the PRF causes range ambiguity
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289 Structures in front of the Left main Bronchus a) Left upper
lobe artery b) Superior pulmonary vein c) Vagus d) Phrenic vein e)
Left recurrent laryngeal nerve
290 Signs of malignancy in pleural disease a) >1cm thickness
b) Nodularity c) Mediastinal involvement
291 Concerning MRI artifacts a) Chemical shift not observed on
gradient echo sequences b) Motion artifact in phase encoding
direction c) TR influences motion artefact d) Susceptibility
artifact reduced in T2* compared to T2 e) Turbulence in vessels
increases signal
292 Pulmonary fibrosis a) Methotrexate b) Amiodarone c)
Captopril d) High dose oxygen e) Gold
293 The abdominal aorta a) shouldnt measure more than 3cm is
normal in people
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b) Lymphadenopathy c) Subarachnoid haemorrhage d) pulmonary
fibrosis e) pleural effusion
298 In the HIV positive patient a) Kaposi's sarcoma occurs early
in AIDS b) Cryptococcal infection most commonly affects the CNS c)
Bacterial pneumonia is more frequent than PCP d) Cavitation in TB
occurs most commonly at a low CD4 count e) Pleural effusion is
characteristic of Kaposi's sarcoma
299 Regarding vascular anatomy a) The portal vein formed by the
splenic vein and IMV b) L gastric artery comes off the coeliac
artery c) The uterine artery arises from the anterior branch of the
internal iliac artery d) the middle colic comes off the SMA e) The
R hepatic artery arises from the SMA in 20-30%
300 The following are associated with sarcoidosis a) focal boney
sclerosis b) upper lobe fibrosis c) cardiac arrhthymias d) facial
palsy e) oesophageal dysmotility
301 The following are correct a) In intralobar sequestration the
majority are associated with congenital anomalies b) CCAM usually
affects a single lobe c) Morgagni hernia are usually left sided d)
Scimitar syndrome affects the left lobe in 10-20% e) Bronchogenic
cysts are calcified in less than 10%
302 Regarding congenital cardiovascular defects
a) There is always a R to L ASD in tricuspid atresia b) VSD is
the most common congenital heart disease c) Double aortic arch
causes posterior indentation of the oesophagus d) Coarctation is
associated with rib notching of the upper 6 ribs
303 Abdominal doppler US
a) Post prandial end diastolic volume in SMA is decreased b)
Renal A waveform is low resistance c) The hepatic V adjacent to the
IVC is pulsatile with bidirectional flow d) Resistive index
increases in acute ureteric obstruction e) Resistive index is used
to differentiate between acute rejection and ATN in a transplanted
kidney
304 Cysts are seen in the following a) Lymphangiomyomatosis b)
histiocystosis X c) emphysematous bullae d) tuberous sclerosis e)
pneumocystis carinii
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305 Regarding lymph nodes a) in sarcoid egg-shell calcification
is seen b) calcification is seen in silicosis c) 8mm in short axis
is abnormal for mediastinal lymph nodes d) usually measure
longitudinal axis e) in TB shows necrotic cavity and enhancing
rim
306 Contraindications in intraarterial thombolysis include;
a) Pregnancy. b) Muscle necrosis. c) Vein graft thrombosis. d)
Calf arterial thombosis. e) Recent stent insertion.
307 Concerning FMD
a) Over 25% have coronary involement. b) 70-80% re stenosis post
angioplasty in RAS c) Can be distingusished fromatheromatous
disease post captopril renogram d) Alternating dilatation and
stenosis in carotids. e) Found at the renal artery ostium id
suggestive of diagnosis.
308 Concerning visceral blood supply:
a) The portal vein is formed by the confluence of the splenic
and inferior mesenteric veins b) The left gastric artery usually
arises from the coeliac axis c) The uterine artery is usually a
branch of the anterior division of the internal iliac artery d) The
right hepatic artery arises from the superior mesenteric artery in
20-30% e) The middle colic artery is usually a branch of the
superior mesenteric artery
309 In Aorto-arteritis (Takayasus disease)
a) Most patients are over the age of 40 years at presentation b)
Generalised constitutional symptoms are seen in the majority of
patients c) The pulmonary artery is affected in less than 20% of
patients d) Arterial stenoses are a feature e) Deep vein thrombosis
has an association
310 Regarding abdominal aorta
a) Normal diameter should be 3cm or less b) Calcification can be
seen in intramural thrombus c) 90% aneurysms are infrarenal d) US
can be useful in excluding rupture e) More than one renal artery in
15-25%
311 Regarding renal artery aneurysm
a) Is a recognised feature in Takayasus arteritis b) There is
increased risk of rupture in pregnancy c) Is a recognised
association in neurofibromatosis d) Usually multiple in
polyarteritis nodosum e) Extrarenal renal artery aneurysms are
treated by embolisation in the majority of cases
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312 Causes of a Pericardial effusion a) ASD b) Aortic Stenosis
c) Anticoagulants d) Rheumatoid Arthritis
313 Ionic contrast a) risk of death is 1/20000 30000 b)
increased complications occur with pre-hydration c) is antigenic d)
increased complications occur with cardiac failure
314 The following are true a) With a double aortic arch you get
oesphageal compression b) The hepatic vein is pulsatile at the IVC.
c) Tricuspid Atresia always has an ASD d) Rib notching occurs in
the first 6 ribs