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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2604 (AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2017 (Regulations: VCE-R14) MOBILE APPLICATION DEVELOPMENT (Common to Computer Science and Engineering & Information Technology) Date: 15 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75 Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks Unit I 1. a) Explain Mobile 2.0 along with its characteristics, enablers and Implementation. 8M b) Discuss about Mobile information architecture. 7M 2. a) Describe about the Mobile Ecosystem. 8M b) Discuss about the android development tools. 7M Unit II 3. a) Discuss how to create a new Android Project? Suppose you have been selected for IRCTC App Development then write the code for Main Activity and Manifest file for the welcome page. Welcome page should display “WELCOME TO IRCTC”. 8M b) Write the steps involved in installing and configuring the ANDROID SDK Manager. 7M 4. a) How to load my application from Eclipse to my Android phone instead of AVD. 8M b) How to run an android project using Emulator? 7M Unit III 5. a) What are the life cycle methods of Android activity? Explain. 8M b) Write about user Interface Form Design Widgets. 7M 6. a) Explain about Android Intents. 7M b) Create a simple program using Buttons and Text fields. 8M Unit IV 7. a) Develop android application to display images using Image View. 10M b) What are the action intents used in android telephony. 5M 8. a) Explain fragment life cycle with a neat diagram. 8M b) Write a program for Communication between Fragments. 7M Unit V 9. a) Develop android application to create the database helper class. 10M b) Discuss about Android database. 5M 10. a) Develop android application to connect to the internet. 10M b) Explain Session Management. 5M
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Page 1: Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2604 (AUTONOMOUS) B. … · 2018. 12. 10. · Suppose you have been selected for IRCTC App Development then write the code for Main Activity

Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2604

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

MOBILE APPLICATION DEVELOPMENT

(Common to Computer Science and Engineering & Information Technology)

Date: 15 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Explain Mobile 2.0 along with its characteristics, enablers and Implementation. 8M b) Discuss about Mobile information architecture.

7M

2. a) Describe about the Mobile Ecosystem. 8M b) Discuss about the android development tools. 7M

Unit – II

3. a) Discuss how to create a new Android Project? Suppose you have been selected for IRCTC App Development then write the code for Main Activity and Manifest file for the welcome page. Welcome page should display “WELCOME TO IRCTC”.

8M

b) Write the steps involved in installing and configuring the ANDROID SDK Manager.

7M

4. a) How to load my application from Eclipse to my Android phone instead of AVD. 8M b) How to run an android project using Emulator? 7M

Unit – III

5. a) What are the life cycle methods of Android activity? Explain. 8M b) Write about user Interface Form Design Widgets.

7M

6. a) Explain about Android Intents. 7M b) Create a simple program using Buttons and Text fields. 8M

Unit – IV

7. a) Develop android application to display images using Image View. 10M b) What are the action intents used in android telephony.

5M

8. a) Explain fragment life cycle with a neat diagram. 8M b) Write a program for Communication between Fragments.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Develop android application to create the database helper class. 10M b) Discuss about Android database.

5M

10. a) Develop android application to connect to the internet. 10M b) Explain Session Management. 5M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code : A2419

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

MICROPROCESSORS AND INTERFACING (Common to Computer Science and Engineering, Information Technology &

Electronics and Communication Engineering) Date: 17 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Draw and explain the architecture of 8086 system. 8M b) Explain physical memory organization in an 8086 system.

7M

2. a) Explain the function of the signals of 8086: i. ALE ii. READY iii. HOLD iv. HLDA

8M

b) Explain the concept of segmented memory. Write advantages. 7M

Unit – II

3. a) What are assembler directives? List and explain assembler directives. 7M b) Write an ALP to move a string of bytes from memory location 1000H to 2000H and the

length of string is 10 bytes.

8M

4. a) Explain following instructions: i. PUSH ii. POP iii. IN iv. OUT

8M

b) Write an ALP to arrange the series of 16-bit hexadecimal numbers in descending order. 7M

Unit – III

5. a) What are the different modes in which 8255 Programmable Peripheral Interface (PPI) can operate? Explain.

8M

b) Write in detail about Block transfer and DMA.

7M

6. a) Design a stepper motor controller and write an ALP to rotate a 2000 teeth, 4 phase stepper motor 5 rotations clockwise and 2 rotations anticlockwise.

8M

b) Design an interface between 8086 CPU and two chips of 8k 8 EPROM and two chips of 16K 8 RAM. Select starting address of EPROM suitably .The RAM address must start at 00000H.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain RS-232 serial data standard. 7M b) What are serial data transfer schemes. Explain in detail.

8M

8. a) Explain the architecture of 8259 interrupt controller with neat sketch? 8M b) Discuss DOS function call and BIOS function call with one example of each. 7M

Cont…2

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::2::

Unit – V

9. a) Write about interrupt handling registers in 8051. 8M b) With examples explain the arithmetic and branching instructions of 8051.

7M

10. a) Draw and explain SCON register format. 8M b) Explain the addressing modes in 8051 with examples.

7M

Page 4: Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2604 (AUTONOMOUS) B. … · 2018. 12. 10. · Suppose you have been selected for IRCTC App Development then write the code for Main Activity

Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2517

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

COMPILER DESIGN (Common to Computer Science and Engineering & Information Technology)

Date: 19 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Explain in-detail about phases of compiler. 9M b) Mention the rules for elimination of left recursion and left factoring.

6M

2. a) Explain the role of lexical analyzer. 7M b) Construct predictive parsing table for the fallowing grammar G:

E-->TE' E'-->+TE' |ɛ T--> FT' T'-->*FT' |ɛ F-->(E) | id

8M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain about shift reduce parsing. 5M b) Construction of SLR parsing table for the following grammar:

S'S

S L=R

S R

L *R

L id

10M

4. a) Explain about error recovery in parsing. 8M b) Explain different models of LR parsers.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) Define the following with examples: i. Sythesized attributes ii. Inherited attributes

8M

b) Write a short note on representation of intermediate code.

7M

6. a) Explain about Abstract syntax tree. 6M b) Write the three address code form for the following expression:

a := b + c * d

9M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain about the type checking of statements. 8M b) How to determine the set of possible types of an expression.

7M

8. a) Explain about the activation record. 8M b) Describe the dynamic storage allocation techniques.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Discuss loop optimization techniques. 8M b) Explain DAG representation with an example.

7M

10. a) Explain about basic blocks. 8M b) Explain machine independent optimization techniques. 7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2602

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

COMPUTER NETWORKS (Common to Computer Science and Engineering & Information Technology)

Date: 22 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) What are the advantages of using Layered protocols? 5M b) Explain the TCP/IP reference model with a neat diagram.

10M

2. a) Write about the advantages of fiber optical transmission media over other media. 6M b) Explain about Radio Transmission. 9M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain the working of HDLC protocol with required frame formats. 8M b) With a neat diagram explain 802.11 protocol stack and frame format.

7M

4. a) Discuss the concept of Bluetooth. 8M b) Discuss the concept of Fast Ethernet. 7M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain the shortest path routing algorithm with suitable example. 10M b) Compare the Virtual circuit and Datagram Subnets.

5M

6. a) Mention different techniques used for achieving good quality of services. 8M b) With an example, explain Bellman-ford Routing Algorithm. 7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain the following elements of Transport protocols: i. Addressing ii. Connection Establishment iii. Flow Control and Buffering

10M

b) Write in brief about the Remote Procedure Call.

5M

8. a) Illustrate and explain the TCP segment Header with a neat block diagram. 10M b) Explain about various Transport service Primitives. 5M

Unit – V

9. a) Explain SNMP Protocol. 10M b) Give the architecture layout of Electronic Mail.

5M

10. a) Discus FTP protocol. 10M b) What is Domain Name System? Explain. 5M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2603

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

WEB TECHNOLOGIES (Common to Computer Science and Engineering & Information Technology)

Date: 24 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) How do you create forms in HTML? Explain their use. 7M b) Write a java script to display the denomination of the amount deposited in the bank in

terms of 100’s, 50’s, 20’s, 10’s, 5’s, 2’s and 1’s.

8M

2. a) Write a java script function that finds prime numbers up to a given Integer. 7M b) Explain the different types of Cascading Style Sheets and their syntax. 8M

Unit – II

3. a) Define the term XML Schema. With an example, explain XML document and the formation of an XML schema file.

7M

b) With an example XML file, explain the representation and navigation process followed in XML DOM.

8M

4. a) What are the rules to be followed while naming XML Elements and attributes? 7M b) How XML documents are parsed using SAX? 8M

Unit – III

5. a) What is a Java Bean? Distinguish a Java Bean from other java classes. 5M b) Write a simple Java Bean program and explain the steps to execute it.

10M

6. a) What are Servlets? Explain their advantages over CGI. 5M b) Explain in detail about the Servlet Life Cycle. 10M

Unit – IV

7. a) Write short notes on JavaBeans classes and JSP. 10M b) What is Java Server Pages Technology?

5M

8. a) What is the purpose of MVC? In JSP Actions, how the MVC Paradigm supports. 10M b) Explain any two Implicit JSP Objects. 5M

Unit – V

9. a) Write a PHP script to insert data into database. 8M b) Write a PHP script to validate a single checkbox. Display appropriate error messages.

7M

10. a) Explain how AJAX using XMLHttpRequest. 8M b) Using Ajax, how do you send a request to a server? Explain. 7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2513

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

UNIX PROGRAMMING (Computer Science and Engineering)

Date: 24 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) With suitable examples, explain the following Unix General purpose Utilities: i. cal ii. date iii. bc

6M

b) Discuss the important features of Unix operating System.

9M

2. a) Discuss the significance of any five built in variables used by awk with suitable example. 10M b) Demonstrate the usage of CPIO with –i and –o options. 5M

Unit – II

3. a) Write a short notes on each of the following system calls: i. fread() ii. fwrite() iii. fseek()

9M

b) Write a shell program to reverse the string.

6M

4. a) Write a shell program to find the given number is perfect number or not? 7M b) Write the low level file access functions with syntax. 8M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain fork and vfork with syntax and examples. 8M b) List and Explain different forms of exec API with prototype declaration along with the

meaning.

7M

6. a) What are signals? List any four signals along with brief explanation. Write a program to setup signals handler for SIGALRM and SIGINT signals.

8M

b) Explain the following API with syntax and examples: i. kill() ii. pause() iii. abort() iv. alarm() v. raise() vi. sleep() vii. system()

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Bring out the importance of pipes in Unix inter-process communication. Write a C program to implement half-duplex communication between a parent and child process.

9M

b) What are FIFO’s? How are they different from pipes? Write the command used to create a FIFO.

6M

Cont…2

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8. a) Explain the following functions used to implement semaphore in Unix:

i. semget ( ) ii. semop ( ) iii. semctl ( )

9M

b) What is message queue form of IPC? How is it different from shared memory? 6M

Unit – V

9. a) With correct syntax, explain how a Socket can be created. Explain in detail its arguments. 6M b) With the help of figure, explain the functions involved in communication between a client

and server.

9M

10. a) With correct syntax give the significance of the following functions: i. inet_aton ( ) ii. in_addr_t inet_addr ( ) iii. inet_ntoa ( )

9M

b) What is an IP address? Write a note on Address Classes. 6M

Page 9: Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2604 (AUTONOMOUS) B. … · 2018. 12. 10. · Suppose you have been selected for IRCTC App Development then write the code for Main Activity

Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2518

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

PRINCIPLES OF PROGRAMMING LANGUAGES

(Computer Science and Engineering)

Date: 26 May, 2017 Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit - I 1. a) Explain in detail about language evaluation criteria. 8M b) Explain about lexical analysis.

7M

2. a) What are attribute grammars? Give an attribute grammar for simple assignment statements.

8M

b) List the different aspects of cost of a programming language. 7M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain associative arrays with example. 7M b) Discuss array types in detail.

8M

4. a) Explain union types with examples. 7M b) Discuss record data types in detail. 8M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain about short circuit evaluation and mixed mode assignment statements. 10M b) When is multiple selector statements used? Give a suitable example.

5M

6. Explain different parameter passing mechanism. 15M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain about Encapsulation. 8M b) What are the language design requirements for a language that support ADT.

7M

8. a) Write short notes on Java Threads. 8M b) Explain about semaphores. 7M

Unit – V

9. a) Explain applications of functional languages. 8M b) Explain the applications of Logic programming.

7M

10. a) Explain the following: i. Fact statements ii. Goal statements

8M

b) Explain the principles of ML. 7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2605

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

WIRELESS AND MOBILE COMPUTING

(Information Technology)

Date: 26 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) What are the applications of satellites? 6M b) Compare infrastructure-based and ad-hoc based wireless networks.

9M

2. a) Explain system architecture of IEEE 802.11 with a neat diagram. 9M b) What are the reasons to develop Wireless ATM? 6M

Unit – II

3. a) Define mobile computing. What are the applications of Mobile Computing? 5M b) Name the main elements of GSM system architecture and explain their functions.

10M

4. a) Explain the following: i. Radio subsystem (RSS) ii. Base station subsystem (BSS) iii. Base transceiver station (BTS) iv. Mobile Station (MS)

9M

b) What are the differences between SDMA and CDMA? 6M

Unit – III

5. a) With relevant diagram explain the registration in Mobile IP. 8M b) Explain UDP registration request format.

7M

6. a) Discuss in detail about selective retransmission of TCP. 6M b) Differentiate Indirect TCP and Mobile TCP with appropriate diagrams. 9M

Unit – IV

7. a) What are the Purpose of Selective tuning and indexing techniques? Explain any four. 9M b) What is Cache Invalidation Mechanism? And explain the four possible invalidation

Mechanisms.

6M

8. a) Describe push based and pull based mechanisms in data dissemination. 8M b) Explain the 3-tier architecture of client –server computing. 7M

Unit – V

9. a) Explain sequence of peer-to-peer message exchange for establishment of secure session in WTLS.

10M

b) What are the important components of J2ME environment?

5M

10. a) Explain functions of Link manager (LM) of Bluetooth protocol. 10M b) Explain wireless datagram protocol. 5M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2508

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

OBJECT ORIENTED PROGRAMMING THROUGH JAVA (Common to Electronics and Communication Engineering &

Electrical and Electronics Engineering) Date: 15 May, 2017 Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Explain Java Runtime Environment. 7M b) Define Ragged array and Write a program to illustrate initialization of a ragged array.

8M

2. a) Create a class called complex with two member variables real and imaginary part. With public methods to read and display the data. Demonstrate the constructor overloading for the above class.

8M

b) Develop a program to illustrate the methods of string. 7M

Unit – II

3. a) What are the differences between abstract class and interface? 5M b) Explain about FileInputStream. Write a program which shows how to read data from the

keyboard and write it to the myfile.txt file.

10M

4. a) Define package? Explain different ways of defining packages. 3M b) i. Explain importing of packages and the CLASSPATH environment variables.

ii. Write a program to create two classes in a single package and access first class from the second class.

12M

Unit – III

5. a) What is Deadlock and explain the Thread Priorities in detail. 6M b) What is the difference between suspending and stopping a thread? Explain with an

example.

9M

6. a) List the benefits of exception handling over conventional means of error processing. 6M b) Explain the significance of throw statement with an example. 9M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain the delegation event model? Explain the role of source and listeners with an Example.

7M

b) What is layout manager? Explain different layouts in java.

8M

8. Discuss the following Event Listener Interfaces and also discuss various methods declared in it: i. WindowListener ii. TextListener iii. KeyListener iv. ItemListener v. FocusListener

15M

Cont…2

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::2::

Unit – V

9. a) Write the steps for creating and executing an applet program with an example. 6M b) Describe the different stages in the life cycle of an applet. Distinguish between init() and

start() methods.

9M

10. a) How do applets differ from application programs? 7M b) What are the differences between Swing and AWT Components? Explain. 8M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2418

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

INTEGRATED CIRCUITS APPLICATIONS (Common to Electronics and Communication Engineering &

Electrical and Electronics Engineering) Date: 19 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) With a neat diagram showing the Op-amp circuit symbol, discuss the basic information of Op-amp with respect to terminals, power supply connections and packages.

7M

b) List the ideal characteristics of Op-amp. Also explain the equivalent circuit of Op-amp.

8M

2. a) What is Input Bias Current and explain how it can be reduced. 7M b) Draw the block diagram of Op-Amp and explain the function of each block.

8M

Unit – II

3. a) Describe a method to measure real power using multiplication of signals using Op-amps. 7M b) Explain the working of Practical integrator circuit with a neat circuit diagram.

8M

4. a) Explain the working of current to voltage converter using Op-amp with a neat diagram 7M b) Find Ri and Rf in the lossy integrator so that the peak gain is 20dB and the gain is 3 dB

down from the peak when ω = 10000rad/sec, using a capacitor of 0.01µF.

8M

Unit – III

5. a) Draw the schematic diagram of All pass filter and determine the phase shift . 8M

b) Design a Voltage Regulator at 5 V using IC723.

7M

6. a) Draw the circuit diagram for First order Low Pass Filter and derive the expression for the transfer function.

7M

b) Design a wide band reject filter using Op-amp with fl =4 KHz, fh =200 Hz and a pass band gain of 4.

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) Draw the block diagram of PLL and explain the function of each block. 8M b) Design a monostable multivibrator using 555 timer to produce a pulse width of 3msec.

7M

8. a) Explain how 555 Timer can be used as an FSK Generator. 6M b) Explain the operation of astable multivibrator using 555 timer and also derive the

expression for its frequency of oscillation.

9M

Unit – V

9. a) Explain the operation of Successive approximation ADC. 7M b) Explain the following terms with respect to data Converters

i. Linearity ii. Accuracy iii. Settling Time iv. Resolution

8M

10. a) Explain the operation of Parallel Comparator Type ADC. 7M b) Draw the circuit diagram of 4-bit Binary Weighted Resistor D/A converter and explain its

operation. Derive the expression for output voltage. 8M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code : A2417

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

DIGITAL DESIGN THROUGH VERILOG HDL (Electronics and Communication Engineering)

Date: 22 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Discuss the capabilities of Verilog HDL. 8M b) What is the significance of strengths in Verilog? Explain.

7M

2. Explain about following Language constructs and conventions in Verilog: i. Identifiers ii. Numbers iii. White space characters iv. Data types v. Comments

15M

Unit – II

3. a) Describe the following relevant to gate level modeling with necessary syntax and example: i. Gate delays ii. Strengths and contention Resolution

8M

b) Implement the gate level description of a 4 to 16 decoder circuit using two 3 to 8 decoders with logic diagram and Verilog HDL source code.

7M

4. a) What are the different tri state gates that are available in Verilog HDL? 3M b) Design a 4 bit ALU which can perform the following functions:

i. Addition of two 4-bit numbers ii. Complementing all the bits of a 4-bit vector iii. Bit by bit AND operation iv. Bit by bit XOR operation Write Verilog HDL source code, test bench and draw the relevant synthesized circuits.

12M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain about the Primary Procedural constructs to build a behavioral code for a given model.

7M

b) Write Verilog module for 4 to 1 multiplexer with test bench.

8M

6. a) Explain about the procedural assignment. 5M b) Differentiate between blocking and non-blocking statements.

10M

Unit – IV

7. a) Design BCD adder module and test bench using data flow level. 8M b) Design a CMOS inverter formed by connecting NMOS and PMOS transistors in series.

7M

8. a) Explain Different types of operators with examples. 8M b) Write Verilog design description module of a CMOS NOR gate.

7M

Cont…2

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:: 2 ::

Unit – V

9. a) Define User defined primitive with syntax. Explain the difference between combinational and sequential UDPs with examples.

8M

b) Write a Verilog HDL source code and test bench for parity checker circuit using functions.

7M

10. a) Design a Moore state machine for a sequence detector to detect “101” sequence. Write a Verilog HDL source code and test bench to verify the Moore state machine.

10M

b) What is a State machine? Differentiate Moore and Mealy Machines. 5M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2420

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

DIGITAL COMMUNICATIONS (Electronics and Communication Engineering)

Date: 24 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Explain PCM scheme with block diagram and derive the expression for signal to noise ratio in PCM.

8M

b) Explain how non uniform quantization is achieved through Companding in PCM system with an example?

7M

2. a) Explain the encoding scheme used in DPCM scheme with block diagram description and mathematical modeling.

7M

b) What are the noise present in Delta Modulation? Explain the modulation scheme to avoid these noise effects.

8M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain the generation of QPSK modulation scheme using constellation diagram. 8M b) Determine the amount of probability of error in matched filter Receiver.

7M

4. a) Determine the amount of probability of error in QPSK Receiver. 8M b) Explain the generation of FSK modulation scheme using waveforms. Determine the bit

rate and Bandwidth require for BFSK modulation scheme. 7M

Unit – III

5. a) Define Mutual Information and Prove the relation : - ,I X Y H X H Y H X Y . 7M

b) A Guassian channel has 5MHz bandwidth. Calculate the channel capacity if the signal

power to noise spectral density ratio is 610 Hz . Also find the maximum information rate at which the information is transmitted.

8M

6. a) Define Entropy and mutual information. Prove that for a noiseless channel H x H y . 7M

b) A source with six emitting messages A, B, C, D, E having probabilities 1/ 3P A ,

1/ 4P B , 1/ 8P C P D , 1/12P E P F . Find coding efficiency using

Huffman coding.

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain Mathematical structure of linear block codes. 5M b) Consider (7, 4) block code whose generator matrix is given by:

1 0 0 0 1 1 1

0 1 0 0 1 1 0

0 0 1 0 1 0 1

0 0 0 1 0 1 1

G

Find all the code words: i. Find the parity check matrix ii. Compute syndrome for the received vector 1001001 is a valid code word or not

10M

Cont…2

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8. a) Mention the properties of cyclic code. The generator polynomial for a (15, 7) cyclic code

is 4 6 7 81 .g x x x x x Find the Code vector (in systematic form and non-

systematic form) for the message polynomial 2 3 4 .D x x x x

9M

b) Design an encoder for (7, 4) binary cyclic code generated by 3 1 g x x x and verify

its operation using message vector (0101).

6M

Unit – V

9. a) Define code rate, coding efficiency and impulse response of encoder. 6M b) Decode the Received code word [10 11 10 ] using viterbi algorithm and find the correct

transmitted code word using the given convolutional encoder:

Fig.1

9M

10. a) Explain the use of trellis diagram for viterbi decoding with an example. 6M b) For the convolutional encoder with 1 110g , 2 111g and 3 001g draw the state

diagram and output code word in transform domain approach for message 0 .1011u

9M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code : A2421

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

ANTENNAS AND WAVE PROPAGATION (Electronics and Communication Engineering)

Date: 26 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Explain in detail the terms Directivity and Effective area. 7M b) Derive expressions for field components of half wave dipole.

8M

2. a) Calculate the approximate gain of an antenna at operating frequency 4GHz, area 14.16m2 and illumination efficiency 55%.

6M

b) Derive the expression for the radiation resistance of a Short Dipole. 9M

Unit – II

3. a) Illustrate the principle of pattern multiplication. 7M b) An array of four isotropic antennas placed along a straight line. Distance between

adjacent elements is λ/2. The peak is to be obtained in a direction 600 from the axis of the array. What should be the phase difference between adjacent elements? Complete the pattern and find HPBW and BWFN.

8M

4. a) Derive the angles of Minima and Maxima of major lobe in Array of Two point sources with unequal amplitude and any Phase.

7M

b) Explain the structure and Working Principle of End fire Array and Co-linear array with neat Diagrams.

8M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain in detail the advantages and disadvantages of Rhombic antenna. 7M b) Write short notes on V-antenna.

8M

6. a) Write short notes on long wire antenna. 7M b) Describe Helical antenna and explain its two modes of operation with neat diagrams. 8M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain the construction and properties of Yagi-Uda antenna used for TV reception. 8M b) Explain the method of measuring gain by Comparison method.

7M

8. a) Explain in detail the Cassegrain feed mechanism of paraboloid antennas. 7M b) What is Lens antenna? Explain its operation. 8M

Unit – V

9. a) Briefly explain the terms Virtual Height and Skip distance. 7M b) Discuss the modes of wave propagation and factors affecting them.

8M

10. a) Explain Bending Mechanism in the Ionosphere & Highlight the Effect of earth magnetic fields in this propagation

8M

b) Write Short notes on: i. Tropospheric Scatter Propagation ii. Space Wace Propagation iii. Skip distance

7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2510

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

COMPUTER ORGANIZATION AND ARCHITECTURE (Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

Date: 17 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Explain how the floating point numbers are represented in memory. 6M b) Draw a neat diagram for common bus system with the help of three state buffers and

also explain the operation.

9M

2. a) The following transfer statement specifies a memory. Explain the memory operation in each case: i. R2<-M[AR] ii. M[AR]<-R3 iii. R5->M[R5]

6M

b) What are the Logic and shift micro operations? Explain.

9M

Unit – II

3. a) What is an addressing mode? Explain the following addressing mode with example. i. Direct addressing mode ii. Index addressing mode iii. Auto decrement addressing mode iv. Indirect addressing mode

9M

b) Explain basic computer instruction formats.

6M

4. a) With block diagram explain how basic computer registers are connected to the common bus.

7M

b) Illustrate stack organization and its operation.

8M

Unit – III

5. a) With block diagram explain micro programmed control unit. Differentiate between hardwired and micro programmed control.

8M

b) Perform the operation of division using Non Restoring method : 25 5.

7M

6. a) What is micro programming? Give an example of micro programming. 7M b) Explain booth’s algorithm. Using the same multiply 13*09.

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) What is Locality of Reference? Explain Associative mapping and Set-associative mapping. 9M b) Write shortly about the following page replacement techniques:

i. FIFO ii LRU

6M

8. a) Explain Memory Hierarchy in a computer system with a neat diagram. 8M b) Differentiate Cache memory and Virtual memory.

7M

Cont…2

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Unit – V

9. a) Describe the characteristics of multiprocessors. 7M b) Explain the following interconnection networks in detail:

i. Multiport memory ii. Crossbar switch

8M

10. a) Explain the dynamic arbitration algorithms. 10M b) Define the following terminologies:

i. Semaphore ii. Critical section iii. Hardware lock iv. Test and set instruction v. Mutual exclusion

5M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2407

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

SIGNALS AND SYSTEMS (Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

Date: 17 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Obtain trigonometric Fourier series coefficients from exponential Fourier series coefficients.

7M

b) For the signal )(tx shown in Fig.1 find the following:

Fig.1

i. )22( tx

ii. )22

1( tx

8M

2. a) Define various elementary continuous time signals. Indicate them graphically. 6M b) Find the exponential Fourier series and plot the frequency spectrum for the full wave

rectified sine wave shown in Fig.2.

Fig.2

9M

Unit – II

3. a) Using properties of Fourier Transforms, find the Fourier Transform of the following signal.

2

1; 0 ;

4x t a

a jt

8M

b) Find the Fourier Transform of the periodic signal given by 3 2cos 10x t t . And also

sketch the magnitude and phase spectrums.

7M

4. a) Find the Fourier transform of the co sinusoidal pulse shown in Fig.3 below:

Fig.3

7M

b) Find the Hilbert transform of following signals: i. 0( ) sinx t t

ii. 0( ) cosx t t

8M

Cont…2

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:: 2 ::

Unit – III

5. a) The input voltage to an RC circuit is given as )()( 3 tutetx t and the impulse response of

this circuit is given as )(2)( 4 tueth t . Determine the output y(t).

8M

b) Explain the relation between correlation and convolution.

7M

6. a) Consider a stable LTI system characterized by the differential equation

)()(2)(

txtydt

tdy Find its impulse response.

5M

b) A signal )()( 2 tuetx t is passed through an ideal low pass filter with cut off frequency

1rad/sec: i. Test whether the input is an energy signal ii. Find the input and output energy

10M

Unit – IV

7. a) Find the Laplace transform of following signals using properties of Laplace transform:

i. )(2sin)( 2 ttutetx t

ii. t

etx

t

1)(

8M

b) Find the convolution of the signals )()( 2

1 tuetx t and )()( 4

2 tuetx t using the

property of Laplace transform.

7M

8.

a) Find the inverse Laplace transform of 464

1)(

23

sss

ssX

7M

b) State and prove Initial and final value theorems of Laplace transform.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) Explain the impulse sampling technique of continuous time signal. 7M b) a continuous time signal x(t) with Nyquist rate ѠN then determine the Nyquist rate of

following:

i. ttxty 0cos)()(

ii. )()( 2 txty

8M

10. a) Determine the Nyquist sampling rate and Nyquist sampling interval of )120(sin)80(sin)( tctctx

7M

b) Find the inverse Z-transform of 2:,,...)2()3(

)1()(

3

zROCfor

zz

zzzX using

partial fraction method.

8M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code : A2217

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

POWER SYSTEM TRANSMISSION (Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

Date: 22 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Deduce an expression for the inductance per phase of a three phase overhead transmission line when the conductors are unsymmetrically spaced, but the line is completely transposed.

8M

b) The three conductors of a three phase line are arranged at the corners of a triangle of sides 2m, 2.5m and 4.5m. Calculate the inductance per km of the line when the conductors are regularly transposed. The diameter of each conductor is 1.24cm.

7M

2. a) Derive an expression for line to neutral capacitance of a three phase overhead transmission line when the conductors are symmetrically spaced.

8M

b) A three phase overhead transmission line has its conductors arranged at the corners of an equilateral triangle of 2m side. Calculate the capacitance of each line conductor per km. Given that diameter of each conductor is 1.25cm.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Show that AD-BC=1 for a medium transmission line using nominal T method. 7M b) A 220kV, 50Hz, 3 phase line delivers a load of 75MW at 0.8 power factor lagging at the

receiving end and has the following constants: A=D=0.9 at an angle 0.60, B=153.2 at an angle 84.60, C=j0.0012. Calculate the sending end voltage and sending end current.

8M

4. a) Explain how the transmission lines are classified based on voltage and their length. 7M b) A three phase, 66KV, line has resistance of 9.6Ω, inductance of 0.097H and capacitance of

0.765 micro farad per phase respectively. It delivers 24MVA at 0.8 Pf lagging at 66KV. Find the voltage regulation and transmission efficiency using nominal T method.

8M

Unit – III

5. a) Derive an expression for the sag when the towers are at unequal heights. 6M b) A transmission line has a span of 200m between level supports. The conductor has a cross

sectional area of 1.29cm2, weighs 1170kg/km and has a breaking stress of 4218kg/cm2. Calculate the sag for a safety factor of 5, allowing a wind pressure of 122kg/m2 of projected area. What is the vertical sag?

9M

6. a) Define corona. What are its effects and how are they reduced? 8M b) A 132kV line with 1.956cm diameter conductors is built so that corona takes place if the

line voltage exceeds 210KV (r.m.s). If the value of potential gradient at which ionization occurs can be taken as 30kV/cm, find the spacing between the conductors.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Write short notes on different types of insulators used for overhead lines along with their applications.

7M

b) An insulator string consists of three units, each having a safe working voltage of 15kV. The ratio of self-capacitance to shunt capacitance of each unit is 8:1. Find the maximum safe working voltage of the string. Also find the string efficiency.

8M

Cont…2

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8. a) State the classification of cables according to the voltages and discuss their general construction.

7M

b) A single core lead sheathed cable has a conductor diameter of 3cm; the diameter of the cable being 9cm. The cable is graded by using two dielectrics of relative permittivity 5 and 4 respectively with corresponding safe working stresses of 30kV/cm and 20kV/cm. Calculate the radial thickness of each insulation and the safe working voltage of the cable.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) How is distribution systems classified? 7M b) A 300m dc distributor fed from both ends A and B is loaded uniformly at the rate of 2A/m.

The resistance of each conductor is 0.1Ω/km. Find the currents supplied from the feeding points A and B, if the feeding points are maintained at 225V and 220V respectively.

8M

10. a) Derive an expression for the power loss in a uniformly loaded distributor fed at both ends with equal voltages.

7M

b) Two tram cars are located 2km and 6km from the substation. The substation voltage is 600volts dc. The resistance of the trolley wire and track per km is 0.25Ω and 0.03Ω respectively. The current drawn by tram car 1 and 2 is respectively 40A and 20A. Estimate the voltage at each tram car.

8M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2218

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

POWER SYSTEM DISTRIBUTION (Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

Date: 24 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Describe the primary distribution and secondary distribution system. 7M b) What is load modelling? Analyse the load modelling characteristics.

8M

2. a) Define and explain the terms coincidence factor, contribution factor and loss factor. 7M b) Derive the necessary equations for the relationship between load factor and loss factor. 8M

Unit – II

3. a) With the help of a single line diagram explain Radial type of primary feeder. 7M b) Deduce the necessary equations for uniformly loaded distributor fed at one end.

8M

4. a) What is the necessity of secondary distribution system? What are the basic design practices?

7M

b) Derive the equation for distribution substation service area within 'n' primary feeders. 8M

Unit – III

5. a) What are the advantages for adopting 3-phase, 4-wire distribution for LT supplies and 3-phase, 3- wire for high voltage distribution?

8M

b) Determine the voltage drop and power loss in a single phase two wire lateral with multi grounded common neutral.

7M

6. a) Why is voltage drop consideration important in distribution systems? How is it computed when line parameters and load density of an area are given?

8M

b) Derive the relation between 1-phase and 3-phase power loss for a two phase plus neutral system.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) List out the various objectives of distribution system protection. 7M b) Distinguish the common faults between a transmission system and a distribution system.

8M

8. a) In detail explain the General co-ordination procedure. 7M b) Explain the co ordination between line sectionalizers and circuit breakers. 8M

Unit – V

9. a) Compare and explain the role of shunt and series capacitors in P.F correction. 8M b) Explain the procedure to determine the best and optimum capacitor location in

Distribution System.

7M

10. a) With the help of Phasor diagram, show how a series capacitor boosts the voltage. What are the drawbacks of this method?

8M

b) An industrial plant has 300Hp induction motor load that runs at 0.8pf lagging and efficiency 0.85. A synchronous motor of 150Hp and average efficiency 80% is available. If the motor is run on no load with some losses, determine the pf of the motor make the overall power factor of the plant 0.9 lagging.

7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2216

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

ELECTRICAL MEASUREMENTS AND INSTRUMENTATION (Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

Date: 26 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Explain the working of an electrostatic voltmeter with the help of a neat diagram. 5M b) Derive an expression for the torque of a moving iron ammeter.

10M

2. a) Explain the working of a current transformer with an equivalent circuit and phasor diagram.

6M

b) What is the difference between gravity control and spring control. State the advantages and disadvantages.

9M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain the construction and working of Weston type frequency meter. 7M b) Explain the working of a single phase induction type energy meter.

8M

4. a) Explain the special features incorporated in an Electro dynamic type of wattmeter so that it can be used for low power factor applications.

9M

b) What is synchronizing? Describe under what condition a 3 phase alternator can be synchronized to 3 phase busbars.

6M

Unit – III

5. a) What is a volt-ratio box? Explain its construction , working and applications. 6M b) During the measurement of a low resistance using a potentiometer the following readings

were obtained: Voltage drop across the low resistance under test=0.4221v, voltage drop across a 0.1ohm standard resistance =1.0236v. Calculate the value of unknown resistance, current and power lost in it.

9M

6. a) Describe the basic circuit of a spectrum analyzer. 6M b) With the help of a block diagram, explain the functionality of a heterodyne wave analyzer. 9M

Unit – IV

7. a) Derive the equations for balance in case of Maxwell’s inductance capacitance bridge. Draw the phasor diagram for balance condition.

9M

b) Using the approximation of slightly unbalanced bridge, calculate current through the galvanometer having internal resistance of 125Ω,for the bridge shown below Fig.1.

Fig.1

6M

Cont…2

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8. a) Derive an expression for unknown resistor Rx using Kelvin’s double bridge. 9M b) An ac bridge has the following constants:

Arm AB- Capacitor of 0.5 μF in parallel with 1 KΩ resistance Arm AD- resistance of 2 kΩ Arm BC- capacitor of 0.5μF Arm CD – unknown capacitor Cx and Rx in series Frequency – 1kHz Determine the unknown capacitance and dissipation factor.

6M

Unit – V

9. a) Explain the principle and operation of the LVDT with neat diagrams. 9M b) Explain about the three elements that require for analysis of transfer characteristics of

transducer.

6M

10. a) Derive the expression for gauge factor. 8M b) Explain the principle and operation of synchros with neat diagrams. 7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2013

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

MANAGEMENT SCIENCE (Mechanical Engineering)

Date: 15 May, 2017 Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Define Management? Explain its nature and importance in an automobile manufacturing company?

10M

b) Differentiate between Dougla’s MC Gregor Theory X and Y?

5M

2. a) Explain the following concepts related to an organization: i. Narrow span of control ii. Wide span of control iii. Management by Objective iv. Delegation of Authority

8M

b) What is Committee form of organization? Explain its advantages and limitations. 7M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain Principles of plant layout. 7M b) What are the factors affecting plant layout?

8M

4. a) Explain methods of production. 7M b) Define method study? Explain method study procedure. 8M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain construction of X, R-Charts. 7M b) The demand for a particular item is 18,000 units per year. The holding cost per unit is

Rs.1.20 per year, and the cost of one procurement is Rs.400/-.N0 shortages are allowed, and the replacement rate is instantaneous . Determine: i. Optimum order quantity ii. Total cost per year when the cost of one unit is Rs.1/-

8M

6. a) What are the assumption made in Basic EOQ model. 8M b) Explain procedure of single sampling plan. 7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Discuss the operative functions of a Human Resource Manager. 8M b) “The success of an organization to a greater extent depends on how the HRD acts”-

Substantiate the statement in view of the automotive sector.

7M

8. a) Define Job Evaluation? Explain any two methods of Job Evaluation. 8M b) What is performance appraisal? Explain the procedure involved in appraising a

managerial level employee. 7M

Cont…2

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::2::

Unit – V 9. a) Differentiate between PERT and CPM. 10M b) Draw the project network for the following precedence relationship:

Activity A B C D E F G H I J K

Predecessor - - - A B B C D E H,I F,G

5M

10. a) Explain the following terms: i. Crashing of a project ii. Float or Slack iii. Critical Path

6M

b) A project consists of the following activities with their precedence relationship and time estimate:

Activity Predecessor Duration in Days

A - 10

B A 8

C A 9

D B 7

E B 6

F B,C 8

G B,C 10

H D,F 5

i. Draw the network of the above project ii. Identify the critical path and project duration iii. Calculate total float for each activity

9M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2319

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

DYNAMICS OF MACHINERY (Mechanical Engineering)

Date: 17 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Derive an expression for gyroscopic couple. 5M b) The moment of inertia of a rotating disc in aeroplane is 15kg-m2 and the direction of

rotation is clockwise when looking from front side of the aeroplane. The speed of the disc is 1600rpm. The speed of flight is 240km/hr. If the aeroplane makes a right turn on a curved path of 170m radius, find the gyroscopic couple on the aeroplane and discuss the effects on it.

10M

2. a) The mean diameter of a square threaded screw jack is 50 mm. The pitch of the thread is 10mm. The coefficient of friction is 0.15. What force must be applied at the end of a 0.7m long lever, which is perpendicular to the longitudinal axis of the screw to raise a load of 20kN and to lower it.

7M

b) A shaft has a number of a collars integral with it. The external diameter of the collars is 400mm and the shaft diameter is 250mm. If the intensity of pressure is 0.35N/mm2 (uniform) and the coefficient of friction is 0.05. Estimate: i. Power absorbed when the shaft runs at 105 rpm carrying a load of 150kN ii. Number of collars

8M

Unit – II

3. a) Make a sketch of cone clutch. Though cone clutches provide high frictional torque, yet they have become obsolete. Why?

7M

b) A car engine develops maximum power of 15kW at 1000rpm. The clutch used is single plate clutch both side effective having external diameter 1.25 times internal diameter and µ=0.3. Mean axial pressure is not to exceed 0.085N/mm2. Determine the inner and outer diameters of the friction surface and the force necessary to engage the plates. Assume uniform pressure condition.

8M

4. a) Explain the working of internal expanding shoe break with the help of neat sketch. 7M b) In a belt transmission dynamometer, the driving pulley rotates at 300rpm. The distance

between the centre of the driving pulley and the dead mass is 800mm. The diameter of each of the driving as well as the intermediate pulleys is equal to 360mm. Find the value of the dead mass require to maintain the lever in a horizontal position when the power transmitted is 3kW. Also find its value when the belt just begins to slip on the driving pulley. Coefficient of friction being 0.25 and the maximum tension in the belt 1200N.

8M

Unit – III

5. a) How the function of flywheel is different from governor? 4M b) The turning moment diagram for a petrol engine is drawn to the following scales:

Turning moment 1mm=5N-m; crank angle 1mm=1o. The turning moment diagram repeats itself at every half revolution of the engine and the areas above and below the mean turning moment line taken in order are 295, 685, 40, 340, 960, 270mm2. The rotating parts are equivalent to a mass of 36 kg at a radius of gyration of 150mm. Determine the coefficient of fluctuation of speed when the engine runs at 1800r.p.m.

11M

Cont…2

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:: 2 ::

6. a) Define isochronism, sensitiveness and hunting of a governor. 6M b) A porter governor has equal arms each 250mm long and pivoted on the axis of rotation.

Each ball has a mass of 5 kg and the mass of central load on the sleeve is 25kg. The radius of rotation of the ball is 150mm. The governor begins to lift and raises to 200mm when the governor is at maximum speed. Find the range of speed when the friction at the sleeve is equivalent to 10N.

9M

Unit – IV

7. A, B, C and D are four masses carried by a rotating shaft at radii 80, 100, 160 and 120mm respectively. The planes in which the masses revolve are spaced 500 mm apart and the mass of B, C and D are 8kg, 4kg and 3kg respectively. Find the required mass A and the relative angular settings of the four masses so that they shall be in complete balance.

15M

8. The following data refers to a two- cylinder uncoupled locomotive: Rotating mass per cylinder = 280kg Reciprocating mass per cylinder = 300kg Distance between wheels = 1400mm Distance between cylinder centres = 600mm Diameter of treads of driving wheels =1800mm Crank radius = 300mm Radius of centre of balance mass = 620mm Locomotive speed = 50Km/hr Angle between cylinder cranks = 90o Dead load on each wheel = 3.5tonne Determine the:

i. Balancing mass required in the planes of driving wheels if whole of the revolving and two-third of the reciprocating mass are to be balanced

ii. Swaying couple iii. Variation in tractive force iv. Maximum and minimum pressure on the rails v. Maximum speed of locomotive without lifting the wheels from the rails

15M

Unit – V

9. a) Deduce an expression for the natural frequency of free transverse vibrations for a fixed beam carrying uniformly distributed load acting over a length of shaft.

9M

b) A gun is so designed that, on firing, the barrel recoil against a spring. A dashpot, at the end of the recoil, allows the barrel to come back to its initial position within the minimum time without any oscillation. The gun barrel has a mass of 500 kg and a recoil spring of 300 N/mm. The barrel recoil 1m on firing. Determine: i. The initial recoil velocity of the gun barrel ii. The critical damping coefficient of the dashpot engaged at the recoil stroke

6M

10. a) A shaft supported freely at the ends has a mass of 120kg placed 250mm from one end. The shaft diameter is 40mm. Determine the frequency of the natural transverse vibrations if length of the shaft is 700mm, E=200GN/m2.

8M

b) A shaft of 40mm diameter and 2.5m length has a mass of 15kg per meter length. It is simply supported at the ends and carries three masses of 90kg, 140kg and 60kg at 0.8m, 1.5m and 2m respectively from the left support. Taking E=200GN/m2, find the frequency of the transverse vibrations and whirling speed.

7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2320

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

MANUFACTURING TECHNOLOGY-II (Mechanical Engineering)

Date: 19 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Explain the concept of heat generation in metal cutting. 8M b) Prove that Tan Ø = r cosα / 1- r sinα, where r = chip thickness ratio, α = rake angle,

Ø=shear angle.

7M

2. a) Explain mechanism of tool wear in single point cutting tool. 5M b) Consider orthogonal cutting and explain Merchant circle diagram with a neat sketch. 10M

Unit – II

3. a) What are the types of lathes? 5M b) Explain the various parts of a Lathe machine with a neat sketch.

10M

4. a) Write the differences between the Capstan and Turret lathe. 7M b) Explain the Multi spindle automatic Lathe with a neat sketch. 8M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain with the help of neat sketch open belt and cross belt drive mechanism used in planer machine.

8M

b) What are the differences among planing and shaping operations and their applications?

7M

6. a) With the help of a simple diagram explain the various milling cutters. 7M b) Explain the column and knee type milling machine with a neat sketch. 8M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain nomenclature of twist drill with a neat sketch. 5M b) Explain the deep hole drilling machine with a neat sketch and state its advantages and

applications.

10M

8. a) Classify grinding machines and give its applications. 7M b) Explain the tool and cutter grinder machine with a neat sketch and state its applications. 8M

Unit – V

9. a) What is the difference between lapping and honing? 7M b) Explain the principle of six point location.

8M

10. a) Describe the continuous broaching machine. 8M b) What is a drill jig? What is the difference between a drill jig and a fixture? 7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code : A2321

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

THERMAL ENGINEERING-II (Mechanical Engineering)

Date: 22 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Give limitations of Carnot cycle and explain how Rankine cycle helps in overcoming them. 6M b) Discuss the effect of pressure of steam at inlet to the turbine, temperature at inlet to the

turbine and pressure at exit from the turbine upon Rankine cycle performance.

9M

2. a) Draw P-V, T-S and h-s diagram of Rankine cycle for dry saturated and superheated steam. 5M b) In a Rankine cycle, the steam at inlet to turbine is saturated at a pressure of 30bar and

the exhaust pressure is 0.25bar. Determine: i. Pump work ii. Turbine work iii. Rankine efficiency iv. Condenser heat flow v. Dryness fraction at the end of expansion Assume flow rate of 10kg\s.

10M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain the working principle of Economiser with neat sketch. 7M b) The following observations were made in a boiler trial: Coal used 250kg of calorific value

29800 kJ/kg, water evaporated 2000kg, steam pressure 11.5bar, dryness fraction of steam 0.95 and feed water temperature 340C. Calculate the equivalent evaporation from and at 1000C per kg of coal and the efficiency of the boiler.

8M

4. a) With the help of neat sketch explain different types of nozzles. 7M b) Dry saturated steam enters a steam nozzle at a pressure of 15bar and discharged at a

pressure of 1.5bar. Find the final velocity of steam, when the initial velocity of steam is negligible. If 10% of heat drop is lost in friction, find the percentage reduction in the final velocity.

8M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain the working of Ejector condenser with a neat sketch. 8M b) Define vacuum efficiency and condenser efficiency and what are the sources of air in

condenser?

7M

6. a) Explain pressure compounding in impulse turbine with a neat sketch. 7M b) In a single stage impulse turbine the mean diameter of blade ring is 1m and rotational

speed is 3000rpm. The steam is issued from the nozzle at 300m/s and nozzle angle is 20o. The blades are equiangular. If the frictional loss in the blade channel is 19% of the kinetic energy corresponding to the relative velocity at the inlet to the blades, what is the power developed in the blading, when the axial thrust on the blades is 98N.

8M

Cont…2

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Unit – IV

7. a) Draw the velocity triangles of a reaction turbine and show the notations. 5M b) The outlet angle of the blade of a parson’s reaction turbine 20o and the axial velocity of

flow of steam is 0.5 times the mean blade velocity. If the diameter of the ring is 1.25m and the rotational speed is 3000 rpm, determine: i. Inlet angles of blades ii. Power developed, if dry saturated steam at 5bar passes through the blade whose

height may be assumed as 6cm. Neglect the effect of blade thickness

10M

8. a) Explain the working of closed cycle gas turbine plant with a neat sketch. 6M b) In a gas turbine the compressor takes in air at a temperature of 15oC and compresses it

to four times the initial pressure with an isentropic efficiency of 82%. The air is then passed through a heat exchanger heated by the turbine exhaust before reaching the combustion chamber. In the heat exchanger 78% of the available heat is given to the air. The maximum temperature after constant pressure in combustion is 600oC and the efficiency of the turbine is 70%. Neglecting all losses except those mentioned and assuming the working fluid throughout the cycle to have the characteristics of air find the efficiency of the cycle. Assume R=0.287kJ/kg K and ϒ=1.4 for air and constant specific heats throughout.

9M

Unit – V

9. a) With neat sketch and T-S diagram, explain the working of turbojet engine and also derive the expression for thrust developed.

9M

b) Mention the various advantages and disadvantages of turbo propeller engine and also bring out the applications.

6M

10. a) Briefly describe the two types of solid propellant rockets. 7M b) Discuss the mechanism of burning of two types of liquid propellants. 8M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2322

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

DESIGN OF MACHINE MEMBERS-I (Mechanical Engineering)

Date: 24 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Explain the basic requirements of machine elements. 7M b) Explain briefly about the design considerations of forgings.

8M

2. a) What are the factors to be considered for deciding the magnitude of factor of safety? 5M b) A mild steel shaft of 50mm diameter is subjected to a bending moment of 2000N-m and

a torqueT. If the yield point of the steel in tension is 200MPa, find the maximum value of this torque without causing yielding of the shaft according to: i. The maximum principal stress ii. The maximum shear stress iii. The maximum distortion energy theory of yielding

10M

Unit – II

3. a) What is stress concentration factor? What are the methods of reducing stress concentration?

7M

b) Find the maximum stress induced in the following case taking stress concentration into account. A stepped shaft as in Fig.1 and carrying a tensile load of 12 kN:

Fig.1

8M

4. a) What is endurance limit? How to estimate the endurance limit of standard specimen? 5M b) A cantilever beam made of cold drawn carbon steel of circular cross-section as shown in

Fig.2, is subjected to a load which varies from – F to 3 F. Determine the maximum load that this member can withstand for an indefinite life using a factor of safety as 2. The theoretical stress concentration factor is 1.42 and the notch sensitivity is 0.9. Assume the following values : Ultimate stress = 550 MPa, Yield stress = 470 MPa, Endurance limit = 275 MPa, Size factor = 0.85 Surface finish factor= 0.89

Fig.2

10M

Cont…2

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Unit – III

5. a) Define the following with respect to riveted joints: i. Pitch ii. Margin iii. Efficiency

6M

b) Two plates of 10mm thickness each are to be joined by means of a single riveted double strap butt joint. Determine the rivet diameter, rivet pitch, strap thickness and efficiency of the joint. Take the working stresses in tension and shearing as 80MPa and 60MPa respectively.

9M

6. a) Explain the strength of butt welds with a neat sketch. 5M b) A 200X150X10mm angle is to be welded to a steel plate by fillet welds. If the angle is

subjected to a static load of 200KN. Find the length of weld at the top and bottom. The allowable shear stress for static loading may be taken as 75MPa.

10M

Unit – IV

7. a) List the nature of stresses in occurring in a threaded fastener. 5M b) A bracket is fixed to the wall by means of four bolts and loaded as shown in Fig.3.

Calculate the size of the bolts if the load is 10kN and allowable shear stress in the bolt material is 40 MPa:

Fig.3

10M

8. a) What is function of a key? Derive for stresses in keys. 5M b) Design the assembly of knuckle joint to connect two mild steel rods subjected to an axial

load of 100kN. The allowable stresses for the rods and pin are 100MPa, 130MPa and 60MPa in tension, compression and shear respectively.

10M

Unit – V

9. a) Explain the design of shafts subjected to combined twisting moment and bending moment.

5M

b) A hollow transmission shaft, having inside diameter 0.6 times outside diameter is made of plain carbon steel 40C8 (Syt = 380N/mm2) and the factor of safety is 3. A belt pulley, 1000mm in diameter, is mounted on the shaft that overhangs the left hand bearing by 250mm. The belts are vertical and transmit power to the machine shaft below the pulley. The tension on tight and slack sides of the belt are 3KN and 1KN respectively, while the weight of the pulley is 500N. The angle of wrap of the belt on the pulley is 1800. Calculate the outside and inside diameters of the shaft.

10M

10. a) Write the design procedure for Muff Coupling. 5M b) Design a protective type of cast iron flange coupling for a steel shaft transmitting 15KW

at 200rpm and having an allowable shear stress of 40MPa. The working stress in the bolts should not exceed 30Mpa. Assume that the same material is used for shaft and key and that the crushing stress is twice the value of its shear stress. The maximum torque is 25% greater than the full load torque. The shear stress for cast iron is 14Mpa.

10M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2323

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

METROLOGY AND INSTRUMENTATION ENGINEERING (Mechanical Engineering)

Date: 26 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) The hole and shaft assembly of 30mm nominal size have tolerance specified as 0.02

0.0030

mm for hole and 0.04

0.0730

mm for shaft. Determine: i. Maximum and minimum clearance (Interference) attainable ii. Allowance iii. Hole and shaft tolerances iv. Fundamental deviation. v. Maximum material limit for shaft and hole vi. Type of fit Sketch these values on a conventional diagram.

8M

b) What are the various types of plug gauges? Sketch any four of them and state specific applications.

7M

2. a) Enunciate with examples Taylor's principle of gauge design for “Go gauges and No-Go gauges".

8M

b) Describe interchangeable assembly with suitable example. State its advantages. 7M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain with a neat sketch the construction and working of solex pneumatic comparator. 8M b) Describe the construction and working of an optical projector.

7M

4. a) Define flatness. Explain any one method of testing flatness of a surface. 8M b) What is optical flat? Explain how interference fringes are formed when optical flat is

placed on a surface to be tested. 7M

Unit – III 5. a) Explain with a diagram, the process of measurement of gear tooth thickness by a vernier

caliper. 8M

b) With the help of a neat sketch, explain the working of an optical profilometer.

7M

6. a) Derive an expression for the measurement of effective diameter using three wire method.

8M

b) Using the constructional features and principles of Parkinson’s gear tester, explain how the gear profile is measured.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Sketch and explain generalized measurement system and its functional elements. 8M b) Classify the bonded strain gauges and explain with neat sketches.

7M

8. a) Explain various static and dynamic characteristics with sketches. 8M b) Explain briefly how a stroboscope is used to measure speed. State its advantages. 7M

Cont…2

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Unit – V

9. a) What are thermocouples? State and explain the laws governing the functioning of thermocouples.

8M

b) With a neat sketch, explain the constructional features of a seismic transducer.

7M

10. a) Draw a neat sketch of Bourdon tube pressure gauge. State the advantages and disadvantages of Bourdon tube pressure gauges.

8M

b) Explain Pirani Thermal Conductivity Gauge with a neat sketch. 7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2115

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

DESIGN OF REINFORCED CONCRETE STRUCTURES (Civil Engineering)

Date: 15 May, 2017 Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Briefly explain the partial safety factors for Loads and Material Strength. 7M b) Explain the terms Balanced, Under reinforced and over reinforced section.

8M

2. a) Determine the values of stress block parameters for limit state design of a single reinforced beam under flexure.

8M

b) Why does the code impose the minimum and maximum limits with regard to: i. Spacing ii. Percentage of Flexural reinforcement

7M

Unit – II

3. Design a rectangular reinforced concrete beam section to carry a factored bending moment of 200kNm, factored shear force of 120kN and a factored torsional moment of 75kNm. Use M20 grade concrete and Fe415 steel.

15M

4. A T-beam slab floor of reinforced concrete has a slab 150mm thick spanning between the T-beams which are spaced 3 m apart. The beams have a clear span of 10m and the end bearings are 450mm thick walls. The live load on the floor is 4kN/m2. Using M20 grade concrete and Fe415 bars, design one of the intermediate T-beams.

15M

Unit – III

5. Design a Two - way slab for a room of size (4m X 5m) with discontinuous and simply supported edges on all sides with corners not prevented from lifting. The slab supports a live load of 4kN/m2. Use M20 grade concrete and Fe 415 Grade HYSD bars. Adopt limit state method of design. Draw the details of reinforcements to suitable scale.

15M

6. A drawing hall measures 10m x 6m from inside and has walls 400mm thick. Design a suitable

RCC T - beam roof to carry a superimposed live load of 2000N/m2. Use M20 grade concrete and Fe 415 grade HYSD bars. Adopt limit state method of design. Draw the reinforcements in the roof slab and beam to suitable scale.

15M

Unit – IV

7. A short reinforced concrete rectangular column of size 300mm X 500mm is subjected to an axial compressive factored load of 200kN.m and a factored moment of 250kNm about major axis. Adopting M25 grade concrete and Fe415 grade HYSD bars, determine the reinforcement in the column section.

15M

8. Design the reinforcements in a column of size 400mm by 600mm subjected to a axial load of 2500kN. The column has an unsupported length of 3m and is braced against side sway in both directions. Adopt M20 grade concrete and Fe415 grade HYSD bars.

15M

Cont…2

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Unit – V

9. Design one of the flights of stairs of a school building spanning between landing beams to suit the following data: Type of staircase: Waist slab type Number of steps in flight = 12 Tread T = 300mm Rise = 160mm Width of landing beams = 400mm Materials: M-20 grade concrete and Fe-415 HYSD bars

15M

10. A rectangular column 450mm X 600mm transfers a dead load of 880KN and a live load of 1420KN without any moment and there is no overburden. The SBC of the soil is 140KN/m2. Using M20 grade of concrete and Fe 415 steel design a rectangular footing to support the column.

15M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2116

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

GEO TECHNICAL ENGINEERING-I (Civil Engineering)

Date: 17 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Derive a relation between water content, degree of saturation, void ratio and specific gravity of solids.

7M

b) A sample of soil weighing 30.5kg had a volume of 0.0190m3. When dried out in an oven its weight was reduced to 26.90kg. The specific gravity of solids was found to be 2.70. Determine the bulk density, dry density, water content, saturated density, percentage of air voids, void ratio and degree of saturation.

8M

2. a) What is a particle size distribution curve? How it is obtained in the laboratory for a given soil?

8M

b) A sample of clay has a natural water content of 50%. Its liquid limit is 60% and the plastic limit 32%. Determine the plasticity index and liquidity index. How will you classify the soil as per the Indian Standard Classification system?

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Derive the formula to compute the height of capillary rise in soils. 7M b) Determine the average horizontal and vertical permeability coefficients of a soil deposit

made up of three horizontal strata, each 1m thick, if the coefficients of permeability are 1x10–1mm/s, 3x10–2mm/s, and 8x10–3mm/s respectively for the three layers.

8M

4. a) Explain quick sand condition. Derive the expression to determine the critical hydraulic gradient.

8M

b) An excavation is to be carried out in a stratum of clay, 9m thick, underlain by a bed of sand. In a trial bore hole, the ground water is observed to rise up to an elevation 3m below ground surface. Find the depth of which the excavation can be safely carried out without the bottom becoming unstable under uplift pressure of ground water. The specific gravity of clay particles is 2.70 and the void ratio is 0.70. If the excavation is to be safely carried to a depth of 7m, how much should be the water table lowered in the vicinity of the trench?

7M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain the construction of a Newmark’s chart. 8M b) i. A long strip footing of width 2m transmits a pressure of 200kPa to the underlying soil.

Compute the value of the vertical stress at a depth of 5m below the center of gravity of the footing

ii. A line load of 100kN/m run extends to a long distance. Determine the intensity of vertical stress at a point 2m below the surface at a distance of 2m perpendicular to the line load. Use Boussinesq's theory

7M

Cont…2

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6. a) Discuss the factors affecting the compaction of a soil sample. 7M b) The undisturbed soil at a pit has a water content of 15%, void ratio 0.60 and specific

gravity of 2.70. The soil from the pit is to be used to construct a roll fill having a finished volume of 35000m3. The soil is to be transported from the pit to the construction site by trucks having a net carrying capacity of 6tons. After completion, the fill soil has a water content of 18% and dry density of 1.90g/cm3. Calculate the total number of trips the truck will have to make to construct the rolled fill.

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) Define the terms: i. Coefficient of volume change ii. Coefficient of consolidation iii. Preconsolidation pressure iv. Time factor v. Degree of consolidation vi. Consolidation

8M

b) The time to reach 60% consolidation in 30 seconds for a sample of 10 mm thick, tested in a laboratory under conditions of double drainage. How many years will the corresponding layer in nature require to reach the same degree of consolidation if it is 10 m thick and drained from one side only?

7M

8. a) Obtain the differential equation defining the one-dimensional consolidation as give by Terzaghi.

8M

b) In a consolidation test, the void ratio of soil sample decreases from 1.20 to 1.10 when the

pressure is increased from 200 to 400kN/m2. Calculate the compression index, coefficient of volume change and the coefficient of consolidation if the coefficient of permeability is

8.0 x 10 – 7mm/sec.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Write the merits and demerits of triaxial shear test over the direct shear test. 7M b) Two samples of soil are tested in a triaxial shear test. The all-round pressure maintained

for the sample is 200kN/m2 and failure occurred at an additional axial stress of 770kN/m2. For the second sample, these values are 500kN/m2 and 1370kN/m2 respectively. Find the shear parameters for the soil.

8M

10. a) Explain the classification of shear tests based on drainage conditions prevailing during testing.

7M

b) The following results were obtained from undrained shear box tests on samples of silty clay:

Normal pressure (kN/m2) 55 105 145

Shear stress (kN/m2) 30 36 41

Determine the cohesion and angle of shearing resistance.

8M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2117

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

WATER RESOURCES ENGINEERING-I (Civil Engineering)

Date: 19 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Explain the automatic type rain gauges with neat sketches. 8M b) A catchment has six rain gauge stations. The annual rainfall in a year recorded by the

gauges is given below:

Station A B C D E F

Rainfall (cm) 130 140 118 108 145 102

For a 5% error in the estimation of mean rainfall, calculate the optimum number of rain gauge stations in the catchment. Also determine the percentage of error in recording rainfall if an extra five rain gauge stations are installed in the catchment.

7M

2. a) What is evaporation? Explain the factors affecting evaporation. 8M b) The average rainfall over 45 ha of watershed for a particular storm was as follows:

Time (hr) 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7

Rainfall (cm) 0 0.5 1.0 3.25 2.5 1.5 0.5 0

The volume of runoff from this storm was determined as 2.25ha-m. Determine w-index and ɸ-index.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain the concepts of unit hydrograph and method to derive it with the assumptions. 6M b) Route the following hydrograph through a river reach for which K= 22.0, and x = 0.25:

Time hr 0 12 24 36 48 60 72 84 96

Inflow m3/s 40 65 165 250 240 205 170 130 115

Time hr 108 120 132 144

Inflow m3/s 85 70 60 54

9M

4. a) What is Synthetic unit hydrograph? List the equations give n in Snyder method to develop unit hydrograph.

6M

b) Given below are the ordinates of 4h UH of a basin in 3m/s at one hour intervals. Find the ordinates of 3h UH.

Time, h 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

Ord. of 4h UH, m3/s 0 4 25 44 60 70 61 52 45

Time, h 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17

Ord. of 4h UH, m3/s 38 32 27 22 18 14 11 8 6

Time, h 18 19 20 21

Ord. of 4h UH, m3/s 4 2 1 0

9M

Unit – III 5. a) Explain the terms porosity, specific yield and specific retention. What is the relationship

between them? 8M

b) An unconfined aquifer has a thickness of 30m. A fully penetrating 20cm diameter well in this aquifer is pumped at a rate of 35lit/s. The drawdown measured in two observation wells located at distances of 10m and 100m from the well are 7.5m and 0.5m respectively. Determine the average hydraulic conductivity of the aquifer.

7M

Cont…2

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6. a) Explain the following terms:

i. Aquifer ii. Aquifuge iii. Aquiclude iv. Aquitard

7M

b) A well of 0.5m diameter penetrates fully into a confined aquifer of thickness 20m and hydraulic conductivity 8.2x10−4m/s. What is the maximum yield expected from this well if the drawdown in the well is not to exceed 3m. The radius of influence may be taken as 260m.

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) What is irrigation and explain the necessity, advantages and disadvantages of Irrigation. 8M b) A loam soil has field capacity by 22% and wilting coefficient of 10%. The dry unit weight of

soil is 1.5g/cm3. If the root zone depth is 70cm, determine the storage capacity of the soil. Irrigation water is applied if the moisture content falls to 14%. If the water application efficiency is 75%, determine the water depth required to be applied in the field. If daily consumptive use of water is 1.5mm/day, determine the time interval in days between irrigations.

7M

8. a) Explain drip irrigation method in detail. What are its advantages? 8M b) A field channel has a culturable commanded area of 2000 hectares. The intensity of

Irrigation for Gram is 30% and for wheat is 50%. Gram has Kor period of 18 days and Kor depth of 12 cm, while wheat has a Kor period of 15 days and Kor depth of 15cm. Calculate the discharge of field channel.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Describe SCS curve number method to estimate discharge. 6M b) Design an irrigation canal to carry a discharge of 45cumecs, assuming Manning’s

coefficient = 0.0225 and critical velocity ratio as 1.The channel has a bed slope of 0.16 per kilometer.

9M

10. a) With the help of a neat figure, explain balancing depth. 6M b) The drainage area 20 hectares has the following characteristics. If the intensity of rainfall

is 10mm/hr, estimate peak flow using rational method.

LULC % Area Impermeability Coefficient

Roofs 25 0.8

Pavements 25 0.85

Gardens, Vegetation 25 0.15

Unpaved 15 0.15

Wooded 10 0.10

9M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2118

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS-II (Civil Engineering)

Date: 22 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. Analyze the frame shown in Fig.1 by Moment Distribution method. Draw the bending moment diagram and also sketch the deflected shape of the beam, if the support ‘A’ settles by 10mm, ‘B’ settles by 30mm and ‘C’ settles by 20mm. Take I=2.4x106 mm4 and E=2x105N/mm2. All the members are of uniform section throughout.

Fig.1

15M

2. A Continuous Beam shown in Fig.2 has rigidly fixed ends at C and D, pinned at E and has rigid joints at A and B. All the members are of uniform section and material throughout. Sketch the BMD for the frame, showing all important values. Also find the values of the horizontal and vertical reactions at D and E by using Kani’s method.

Fig.2

15M

Unit – II

3. Analyze the frame shown in Fig. 3, by Slope Deflection method. Draw the Bending Moment Diagram:

Fig.3

15M

Cont…2

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::2::

4. A two hinged parabolic arch with moment of inertia proportional to the secant of the slope of arch axis has span 20m and rise 4m is subjected to a concentrated load of 50kN placed at 6m from the left-hand support. Calculate the horizontal thrust and normal thrust and radial shear at a section 5m from left support.

15M

Unit – III

5. Analyze the building frame using portal method of approximate analysis.

Fig.4

15M

6. Analyze the building frame using cantilever method of approximate analysis:

Fig.5

15M

Unit – IV

7. Analyse the continuous beam shown in the Fig.6 by flexibility method. Take EI constant throughout. Sketch B.M.D:

Fig.6

15M

8. Analyse the beam shown in the Fig.7 by stiffness matrix method and sketch S.F.D and B.M.D.

Fig.7

15M

Cont…3

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::3::

Unit – V

9. Draw ILD for reaction at support A for the two span continuous beam shown in Fig. 8. Also find the reaction at support A due to applied loads.Take ILD ordinates at 2.5m intervals:

Fig.8

15M

10. Find the force in the member BC of the frame loaded as shown in the Fig. 9, by taking force in member BC as redundant. All the members have the same cross-sectional area. Also find forces in all other members:

Fig.9

15M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2119

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

ENGINEERING GEOLOGY (Civil Engineering)

Date: 24 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) What is weathering? Explain about physical and chemical weathering. 8M b) Explain the important braches of Geology applicable to Civil Engineering.

7M

2. a) Explain the significance of weathering in dams-reservoirs and tunnels. 8M b) Discuss the importance of geological knowledge in civil engineering practices. 7M

Unit – II

3. a) What is an acid test on minerals? Explain with example and how it helps in identification of minerals.

8M

b) Describe the physical properties and engineering uses of the following minerals: i. Rose Quartz ii. Talc iii. Calcite

7M

4. a) Differentiate mineral and ore forming mineral. List out any four ore minerals with chemical composition.

8M

b) Describe the physical properties and engineering uses of the following minerals: i. Amethyst ii. Chalcopyrite iii. Heamatite iv. Bauxite

7M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain the causes, effects and remedial measures to landslides. 8M b) Explain the engineering significance of ground water.

7M

6. a) Explain the types of unconformities and joints and their Civil Engineering significance. 8M b) State the measures to be taken for building construction in earthquake prone areas. 7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain the fundamental aspects of rock mechanics. 8M b) Explain the electrical resistivity method and its application.

7M

8. a) What is grouting? Explain the mechanism and types of grouting. 8M b) Write a note on magnetic methods of geophysical exploration. 7M

Unit – V

9. a) Explain the lithological and structural controls in tunneling. 8M b) What is mine subsidence? Explain the causes and remedial measures to mine subsidence.

7M

10. a) What are the purposes of tunneling and its effects on ground? 8M b) Explain the role of lithology in ground water problems in tunnel site. 7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2120

(AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech V Semester Supplementary Examinations, May - 2017

(Regulations: VCE-R14)

ESTIMATING AND COSTING (Civil Engineering)

Date: 26 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) What are the different types of estimates? Explain them. 8M

b) Explain the procedure of preparing detailed estimate with an example.

7M

2. Prepare a detailed estimate for the building shown in Fig.1. Calculate the quantities for: i. Earthwork in excavation ii. Cement concrete in foundation iii. R.R.Masonry in foundation and plinth

Fig.1

15M

Unit – II

3. a) Define lead and lift. Explain the methods used for calculation of road quantities. 7M b) Calculate the area of the side slopes of a portion of a bank for a length of 200m. The

heights of the banks at the two ends are 2.50m and 3.50m. and the ratio of side slope 2:1. If the side slopes are to be provided with 15cm. thick stone pitching, calculate the cost of pitching at the rate of Rs. 200 per cu m.

8M

4. Estimate the Quantity of earth work for a portion of road from the following data Gradient Rising gradient 1 in 40 Falling gradient 1 in 100:

Chainage(m) 0 20 40 60 80 100 120 140 160 180 200 RL of ground 101.5 100.9 101.5 102.0 102.85 101.65 101.95 100.7 101.25 99.9 100.6

RL of Formation

102.75

15M

Unit – III

5. Explain the factors affecting the rate analysis. Prepare the analysis of rates for the following items of works: i. R.C.C(1:1½:3) for beams without steel reinforcement ii. Brick Masonry in C.M(1:6) using bricks of size 23X11X7cm, in super structure

15M

Cont…2

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6. Workout the cost of following items of work:

i. Stone Masonry in C.M (1:6) per 1cu.m ii. 12mm thick cement plastering (1:3) in ceiling per10sqm

15M

Unit – IV

7. a) Briefly explain conditions of contract. 5M

b) Define: i. Work order ii. Security money iii. Earnest money iv. Measurement book

10M

8. Explain the structure of a Contract document for estimating a residential building. 15M

Unit – V

9. a) Enumerate the factors for valuation of a building. 7M

b) Differentiate between: i. Salvage value and Market value ii. Book value and Rate-able value

8M

10. a) Explain Rent statement given for a residential building. 8M

b) Calculate the standard rent for a residential building from the following data:

Cost of building Rs.10000 Cost of construction Rs.40000 Cost of roads within compound Rs.20000 Cost of sanitary and water supply works=8% of total cost Cost of electric insulation=10% of total cost Municipal tax=Rs.400 per annum Water tax and property tax=Rs.250 and Rs.140 per annum respectively.

7M

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