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Page 1 of 16
SCMD 3000 GEMP 1 HAEMATOLOGY MCQ EXAM 8 November 2012 Session
No.: ________ Seat No.: ________ Student No.: _________________ (on
each page)
_____________________________________________________________________________________
UNIVERSITY OF THE WITWATERSRAND,
JOHANNESBURG
Faculty of Health Sciences
MB BCh III / GEMP I
INTEGRATED BASIC MEDICAL
AND HUMAN SCIENCES
(SCMD 3000)
Haematology Examination MCQ
Venue: Multipurpose Path Lab (3N28)
Seat Number: ___________
Student Number: _________________________________
Time allowed: 90 minutes
Date: 8th
November 2012
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SCMD 3000 GEMP 1 HAEMATOLOGY MCQ EXAM 8 November 2012 Session
No.: ________ Seat No.: ________ Student No.: _________________ (on
each page)
_____________________________________________________________________________________
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS Please read the following carefully: 1.
Write your session number, seat number, student number and surname
& Initials clearly
on the front page of this question paper (top and middle of
page). 2. Then write your initials and surname at the top of each
page of this exam paper. 3. Please hand in all cell phones,
calculators and removable drives prior to the start of the
examination. 4. You may not remove any question papers from the
examination room. 5. This paper consists of 45 multiple choice
questions 6. Answer all questions on the script provided AND THEN
ON THE ANSWER CARDS
PROVIDED. A-TYPE QUESTIONS Select the single best answer to each
question. (Note: several options may be correct
but only one is the best answer.) Answers must be entered on the
question paper and on the answer card for A-type
questions. If you give more than one answer for a question, you
will score zero for that question. There will be no penalty for
incorrect answers. If you do not know an answer you may leave it
blank, in which case you will neither earn
a mark nor be penalised. X-TYPE QUESTIONS There is at least one
correct statement and at least one incorrect statement. Identify
BOTH the correct and incorrect statements. Answers must be entered
on the question paper and on the answer card for X-type
questions. If you are unsure of a statement you can leave the
answer bubbles blank or you can
tick the Dont know box. In that case you will neither get a mark
or be penalised. Negative marking will be applied to wrong answers
but negative marks will not be
carried forward. This means the minimum mark for a question is
zero. R-TYPE QUESTIONS Here you are offered a number of answers.
This is followed by a set of questions. Select
the single best answer to each question. Note that each answer
may be used more than once or not at all unless you are
specifically instructed otherwise. Fill in your answers in the
spaces provided on the question paper and on the answer
card for R-type questions. If you do not know an answer you may
leave it blank, in which case you will neither earn
a mark nor be penalised. Note: Each A-type, X-type and R-type
question has the same mark value except where indicated
otherwise.
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SCMD 3000 GEMP 1 HAEMATOLOGY MCQ EXAM 8 November 2012 Session
No.: ________ Seat No.: ________ Student No.: _________________ (on
each page)
_____________________________________________________________________________________
A-TYPE QUESTIONS
A.1 James and Josh have Haemophilia A. Kate is 18 weeks pregnant
with a male fetus. What is the chance, prior to any testing, that
the fetus will be affected with Haemophilia A?
a. 1 in 2 (50%) b. 1 in 4 (25 %) c. 1 in 8 (12.5 %) d. 1 in 16
(6.25%) e. No chance that she will have an affected child
Answer: b Chance that Kate is a carrier x Chance that she passes
it on = (very easy) A.2 Loss of tumor suppression in a cell usually
results from one of the following. Which one?
a. Activation of a proto-oncogene by a virus b. A mutation of
both copies of a tumor suppressor gene c. An inversion involving a
copy of a tumor suppressor gene d. Cytokine activation of a tumor
suppressor gene e. Over expression of a tumor suppressor gene due
to a translocation
Answer: b A.3 Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD) is due to one
of the following primary immune deficiency
conditions. Which one?
a. A defect in neutrophil function such as an absence of NADPH
oxidase b. Hypocomplementaemia c. Neutrophil phagosome-lysosome
fusion d. Reduced B cell function e. Reduced T cell numbers
Answer: a
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SCMD 3000 GEMP 1 HAEMATOLOGY MCQ EXAM 8 November 2012 Session
No.: ________ Seat No.: ________ Student No.: _________________ (on
each page)
_____________________________________________________________________________________
A.4 Transplantation of the thymus gland from an aborted foetus to
an immune deficient neonate
has been beneficial in one of the following immune deficiency
disorders. Which one?
a. Brutons agammaglobulinaemia (hypogammaglobulinaemia) b.
Coeliac disease c. Di George syndrome d. Hepatosplenomegaly e.
Hereditary angioedema
Answer: c
A.5 A 34 year old woman sustains severe burns over most of her
body surface when her propane
stove exploded. What is disrupted most significantly in this
patient?
a. Antibody production b. Complement c. First line defence d.
Phagocytosis e. T cell function
Answer: c A.6 One of the following is a defects of phagocytes
which prevents effective intracellular killing of
organisms. Which one?
a. Absence of complement factor C3 b. Deficiency of leucocyte
adhesion molecules c. Deficiency of actin in phagocytes d. Failure
of phagosome-lysosome fusion e. Lack of a chemotactic gradient
Answer: d A.7 A neonate is found to have mutations in the Fc
receptor gene. Which immune function is likely
to be affected?
a. Antigen binding b. Lymphocyte adhesion c. Intracellular
killing d. Complement fixation e. Phagocytosis
Answer: e
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SCMD 3000 GEMP 1 HAEMATOLOGY MCQ EXAM 8 November 2012 Session
No.: ________ Seat No.: ________ Student No.: _________________ (on
each page)
_____________________________________________________________________________________
A.8 Antigen presentation is an important aspect of immune function.
Several types of cells are
capable of presenting antigen to immune cells. What cell type is
least likely to be called a professional antigen presenting cell?
a. B lymphocyte b. Dendritic cell c. Langerhans cell d. Macrophage
e. T lymphocyte
Answer: e A.9 A 5 year old boy is found to have almost no levels
of IgA in his saliva and bronchial secretions.
Apart from slightly higher than normal incidence of upper
respiratory tract infections he seems normal, and serum
immunoglobulins are all within normal range. If genetic locus
testing were done to look for the deficient gene what would be the
most likely defect?
a. Alpha heavy chain locus b. J/secretory piece locus c. Kappa
chain locus d. Lambda chain locus e. Mu heavy chain locus
Answer: b A.10 What is the nature of genetic expression of MHC
genes?
a. Co-dominant b. Dominant c. Mitochondria inheritance d.
Pleiotropic e. Recessive
Answer: a A.11 Which of the following detects antigen or
antibody by a colour change reaction?
a. Agglutination test b. Complement fixation c. ELISA d.
Precipitation test e. Toxin neutralisation test
Answer: c
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SCMD 3000 GEMP 1 HAEMATOLOGY MCQ EXAM 8 November 2012 Session
No.: ________ Seat No.: ________ Student No.: _________________ (on
each page)
_____________________________________________________________________________________
A.12 Pam has been diagnosed with allergic asthma. Her total IgE
level is 325 IU/ml (normal range: 3-
150). What other test would you do to identify the offending
agent? a. IgG subclasses b. Lung function c. Patch test d. Skin
prick test e. Specific IgE against latex
Answer: d A.13 Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) of the lower limb
involves stasis or slowing of venous blood flow.
Which component of the deep venous system is the most likely
site of early thrombosis?
a. Anterior tibial vein b. Greater saphenous vein c. Popliteal
vein d. Sinusoids of the posterior leg e. Superficial femoral
vein
Answer: d
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Page 7 of 16
SCMD 3000 GEMP 1 HAEMATOLOGY MCQ EXAM 8 November 2012 Session
No.: ________ Seat No.: ________ Student No.: _________________ (on
each page)
_____________________________________________________________________________________
X-TYPE QUESTIONS
X.1 A group of diseases is characterised by the presence of the
cell in the image above. Which of the
following statements about these diseases are correct, and which
are not?
a. Involvement of lymph nodes on both sides of the diaphragm
constitutes Stage III disease b. Spread of the disease is
contiguous and orderly from one lymph node group to the next c. The
classification takes into account the number and type of
NON-MALIGNANT cells present d. The presence of B symptoms indicates
a better prognosis e. The prognosis is poor, even in early stage
disease
Answer: a, b, c X.2 Which of the following pairs are correctly
matched with respect to B lymphocyte development,
and which are not?
a. germinal centre centroblasts (large cells) AND undergoing
somatic hypermutation b. germinal centre centrocytes (small cells)
AND resistant to apoptosis c. initial rearrangement of heavy and
light chain genes AND occurs in the bone marrow d. marginal zone
lymphocytes AND unexposed to antigen (nave B cells) e. plasma cells
AND surface expression of antibody
Answer: a, b, c X.3 Which of the following pairs are correctly
matched with respect to Non-Hodgkins lymphomas,
and which are not?
a. Adult T cell lymphoma AND caused by the HTLV-1 retrovirus
(HTLV-1: human T-lymphotropic virus)
b. Burkitts lymphoma AND t(8;14) involving myc and the
immunoglobulin heavy chain gene c. Diffuse large B cell lymphoma
AND slow growing lymph nodes d. Follicular lymphoma AND treated
with antibodies to B cell antigens e. Mycosis fungoides AND B cell
lymphoma involving skin
Answer: a, b, d
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Page 8 of 16
SCMD 3000 GEMP 1 HAEMATOLOGY MCQ EXAM 8 November 2012 Session
No.: ________ Seat No.: ________ Student No.: _________________ (on
each page)
_____________________________________________________________________________________
X.4 The above peripheral blood comes from a 68 year old patient
with a white cell count of 75 x
109/l. Which of the following statements with respect to this
disease are correct, and which are not? a. Cytogenetic markers have
no prognostic significance b. Development of microcytic,
hyperchromic anaemia is a well-known complication c. This patient
is at increased risk for bacterial infections d. This patient is
likely to have significant lymphadenopathy e. This patients age is
unusual as this is a disease of young people
Answer: b, c, d
A. B. C.
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Page 9 of 16
SCMD 3000 GEMP 1 HAEMATOLOGY MCQ EXAM 8 November 2012 Session
No.: ________ Seat No.: ________ Student No.: _________________ (on
each page)
_____________________________________________________________________________________
D. E. X.5 Which of the following changes in the differential
count are correctly matched with the cells
labelled A to E above, and which are not?
a. Cell A AND increased due to increased marrow production in
corticosteroid therapy b. Cell B AND increased in chronic bacterial
infections c. Cell A AND increased in acute viral infections d.
Cell D AND decreased in corticosteroid therapy e. Cell C AND
increased in pertussis (whooping cough)
Answer: b, d, e X.6 In chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML):
a. The cell of origin is more differentiated than the CFU-GEMM
cells b. The BCR-ABL protein phosphorylates a number of different
substrates in the cytoplasm c. Untreated people usually die of
marrow failure caused by fibrosis of the marrow d. Imatinib
resistance may develop after an initial good response e. The raised
white count is due to maturation arrest of neutrophils
Answer: b, d X.7 Which of the following statements regarding the
myeloproliferative neoplasms are correct, and
which are not?
a. Essential thrombocythemia may present with abnormal bleeding
b. Expansion of haemopoiesis occurs in sites of fetal haemopoiesis
c. Primary myelofibrosis has an initial proliferative phase with
elevated neutrophil and/or
platelet counts. d. Proliferation of red cells in Polycythemia
vera is dependant on erythropoietin e. Transformation to acute
leukaemia is the usual terminal event for patients with
Essential
thrombocythemia Answer: a, b, c
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Page 10 of 16
SCMD 3000 GEMP 1 HAEMATOLOGY MCQ EXAM 8 November 2012 Session
No.: ________ Seat No.: ________ Student No.: _________________ (on
each page)
_____________________________________________________________________________________
X.8 With respect to acute myeloid leukaemias:
a. Defects in apoptosis may contribute to the accumulation of
leukaemic cells. b. Patients are not at increased risk of bacterial
infection c. The peripheral blood blast count may be very low
despite the marrow being very
hypercellular d. The t(15;17) is associated with a low incidence
of bleeding complications e. The WHO classification reflects the
importance of genetic lesions
Answer: a, c, e
X.9 HIV positive individuals have an increased risk of deep vein
thrombosis (DVT). Which of the
following are recognised risk factors for DVT in this
population, and which are not?
a. Decreased synthesis of Protein S
b. Endothelial cell activation
c. Increased Factor VIII levels
d. Increased incidence of antiphospholipid antibodies
e. Increased levels of Factor VII
Answer: b, c, d
X.10 Which of the following statements regarding the management
of venous thrombosis are
correct, and which are not?
a. Heparin therapy in DVT has the direct effect of shrinking the
clot.
b. If the patient has a prolonged PTT and PT which do not
correct, an antiphospholipid
antibody should be suspected.
c. Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) has a higher incidence of
bleeding complications
than unfractionated heparin.
d. The patient should be fully anticoagulated with heparin
(unfractionated or LMWH) before
starting warfarin therapy.
e. When using unfractionated heparin, the aim is to increase the
baseline PTT by a factor of 5
(5 x increase).
Answer: b, d
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Page 11 of 16
SCMD 3000 GEMP 1 HAEMATOLOGY MCQ EXAM 8 November 2012 Session
No.: ________ Seat No.: ________ Student No.: _________________ (on
each page)
_____________________________________________________________________________________
X.11 Which of the following statements are correct, and which are
not? In HIV positive individuals:
a. Autoimmune haemolysis is a frequent cause of anaemia
b. Bone marrow suppression is a cause of cytopaenias
c. Immune thrombocytopenia tends to occur only in the AIDS
phase
d. Mildly hypochromic, microcytic anaemia with increased
ferritin levels commonly occurs late
in the disease
e. Neutrophils may show dysplastic features e.g. abnormal
nuclear morphology
Answer: b, d, e
X.12 Which of the following statements regarding vitamin B12 and
folate are correct, and which are
not?
a. Folate deficiency can occur in cases of bacterial overgrowth
of the small bowel
b. Treatment of pernicious anaemia requires lifelong oral
vitamin B12
c. Vitamin B12 absorption requires initial binding to R proteins
in the stomach
d. Vitamin B12 and folate deficiencies are morphologically
identical
e. Vitamin B12 deficiency can be safely and effectively treated
with folate
Answer: a, c, d
X.13 Which of the following statements regarding iron
absorption, transport and storage are correct,
and which are not?
a. Hepcidin inhibits the release of iron by cells
b. Iron is absorbed in the intestinal lumen by the divalent
metal transporter DMT1
c. Iron stores are regulated by the secretion of iron
d. Most of the iron in the body is in the form of hepatic
enzymes
e. Transferrin bound to iron attaches to the transferrin
receptor on the cell surface
Answer: a, b, e
X.14 Which of the following statements about iron deficiency are
correct, and which are not?
a. It causes an increase in transferrin levels
b. It causes a reduction in red cell size before it leads to
hypochromia
c. It characteristically leads to the presence of acanthocytes
in the blood
d. It is best diagnosed biochemically by a low serum iron
concentration
e. Without an obvious dietary cause or source of bleeding in an
adult should lead to
investigation for occult GIT blood loss
Answer: a, b, e
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Page 12 of 16
SCMD 3000 GEMP 1 HAEMATOLOGY MCQ EXAM 8 November 2012 Session
No.: ________ Seat No.: ________ Student No.: _________________ (on
each page)
_____________________________________________________________________________________
X.15 Which of the following are causes of a macrocytosis, and which
are not?
a. AZT therapy
b. Combined vitamin B12 and iron deficiency
c. Hypothyroidism
d. Sickle cell trait
e. The neonatal period
Answer: a, c, e
X.16 Which of the following are correctly matched with respect
to pancytopaenia, and which are not?
a. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia AND more common in children
than in adults
b. Aplastic anaemia AND underlying cause unknown in many
cases
c. Hypersplenism AND reduced reticulocyte production index
(RPI)
d. Marrow infiltration by carcinoma AND presence of teardrop red
cells
e. Megaloblastic anaemia AND hypocellular bone marrow
Answer: a, b, d
X.17 Which of the following statements regarding sickle cell
anaemia (homozygous) are correct, and
which are not?
a. Chronic organ damage results from repeated episodes of
infarction
b. Hydroxyurea is used to increase the HbF concentration
c. Option Removed
d. It protects against severe malaria
e. The red cells sickle in hypoxic conditions
Answer: a, b, e
X.18 Which of the following statements regarding the
thalassaemias is/are correct, and which
is/are not?
a. thalassaemia presents at birth
b. In thalassaemias involving deletions of the globin gene
cluster on chromosome 11, there
may be loss of the and genes
c. Iron overload is a major cause of morbidity and mortality in
thalassaemia major
d. Patients with 0 thalassaemia major are able to produce small
quantities of globin chains
e. The chain precipitation leads to intramedullary
haemolysis
Answer: b, c, e
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Page 13 of 16
SCMD 3000 GEMP 1 HAEMATOLOGY MCQ EXAM 8 November 2012 Session
No.: ________ Seat No.: ________ Student No.: _________________ (on
each page)
_____________________________________________________________________________________
X.19 Which of the following statements regarding thalassaemia are
correct, and which are not?
a. thalassaemia is more commonly due to point mutations than
deletions of the genes
b. thalassaemia trait is a cause of a hypochromic, microcytic
anaemia
c. Deletion of 4 genes results in intrauterine death
d. HbH disease is common in people of African origin
e. If 3 genes are affected, HbH is produced
Answer: b, c, e
X.20 Which of the following are correctly matched with respect
to non-haemolytic transfusion
reactions, and which are not?
a. Graft versus host disease AND less common in related
host-donor pairs
b. Febrile non-haemolytic transfusion reactions AND Antibodies
to donor leucocytes
c. Post transfusion purpura AND destruction only of donor
platelets
d. Recipient sensitised to protein in donor blood AND
urticaria
e. Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) AND clinically
indistinguishable from ARDS
(adult respiratory distress syndrome)
Answer: b, d, e
X.21 In which of the following settings does polycythaemia
occur?
a. Chronic obstructive airways disease
b. Increased binding of carbon monoxide to Hb in smokers
c. Left to right shunts in congenital heart disease
d. Mutations of Hb leading to low O2 affinity
e. Secretion of erythropoietin in renal disorders such as
hydronephrosis
Answer: a, b, e
X.22 Which of the following statements regarding platelet
disorders are correct, and which are not?
a. Acute idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is more
common than chronic ITP in
adults
b. Alcohol suppresses megakaryocyte synthesis
c. In Bernard-Soulier syndrome there is a deficiency of
Glycoprotein 1b (GPIb) d. In Glanzmans disease the activated
platelets are unable to aggregate
e. The effect of aspirin on platelets has a half life of 8
hours
Answer: b, c, d
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Page 14 of 16
SCMD 3000 GEMP 1 HAEMATOLOGY MCQ EXAM 8 November 2012 Session
No.: ________ Seat No.: ________ Student No.: _________________ (on
each page)
_____________________________________________________________________________________
X.23 Which of the following are directly activated by thrombin, and
which are not?
a. Factor VIII
b. Factor IX
c. Factor XI
d. Factor XIII
e. Plasminogen
Answer: a, c, d
X.24 Which of the following statements regarding von Willebrands
factor (vWF) and von
Willebrands disease (vWD) are correct, and which are not?
a. vWF is necessary for adhesion of the platelet via
Glycoprotein IIb IIIa
b. vWF is necessary for the stabilization of factor VIII
c. vWF is produced in the endothelium
d. Type II vWD is usually due to gene deletion
e. Type IIb vWD is a cause of thrombocytopenia
Answer: b, c, e
X.25 With respect to anti-platelet drugs: which of the following
are correctly paired, and which are
not?
a. Cyclooxygenase : Clopidogrel
b. P2Y12 receptor : Aspirin
c. Phosphodiesterase inhibition : Ridogrel
d. RGD sequence : Integrelin
e. Thromboxane synthetase : Dazoxiben
Answer: d, e
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Page 15 of 16
SCMD 3000 GEMP 1 HAEMATOLOGY MCQ EXAM 8 November 2012 Session
No.: ________ Seat No.: ________ Student No.: _________________ (on
each page)
_____________________________________________________________________________________
X.26 Which of the following differences in health outcomes would be
considered to be inequitable?
a. Under-five mortality rates between white and black children
b. Alzheimer disease in men and women older than 85 years of age.
c. Maternal mortality rates between urban and rural populations. d.
Option Removed e. Rates of bipolar disorders between urban and
rural populations.
Answer: a, c, X.27 Which of the following statements about drugs
used in the treatment of leukaemia are correct,
and which are not?
a. Cladribine is used to treat chronic B cell lymphocytic
leukaemia b. Concurrent use of rifampicin increases the plasma
concentration of imatinib c. Dasatinib is used as an alternative in
imatinib resistance d. Methotrexate inhibits thymidylate synthase
e. Rituximab causes a selective depletion of T-cells
Answer: a, c, d b: Rifampicin induces metabolism of imatinib
thus reduces plasma concentration c: Correct used in cases of
imatinib resistance d: Mechanism of action of methotrexate
X.28 Which of the following statements bout anticoagulant and
fibrinolytic agents are correct, and
which are not?
a. abciximab prevents the binding of fibrin to GPIIb/IIIa T b.
enoxaparin is contraindicated in the treatment of deep vein
thrombosis c. heparin increases the affinity of antithrombin III
for thrombin T d. streptokinase is used to prevent clotting after
major surgery e. warfarin-induced haemorrhage is rapidly reversed
by withdrawing the drug
Answer: a, c b: enoxaparin is used to treat d: streptokinase is
contraindicated e: freshly frozen plasma is used drug withdrawal
too slow X.29 Which of the following statements regarding the
immune system are correct, and which are
not?
a. Adhesion molecules such as ICAM1, LFA1 and LFA3 are present
on all leukocytes b. Cytotoxic T cells express CD3 and CD4
molecules c. Iinterleukin 2 is produced by macrophages d. Th1 cells
produce histamine e. The adaptive response is due to T and B cell
memory
Answer: a, e
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SCMD 3000 GEMP 1 HAEMATOLOGY MCQ EXAM 8 November 2012 Session
No.: ________ Seat No.: ________ Student No.: _________________ (on
each page)
_____________________________________________________________________________________
X.30 Which of the following statements are true during antigen
presentation, and which are not?
a. CD3+ CD4+ T lymphocytes have receptors for Class II antigens
b. Erythrocytes express both Class I and Class II antigens c.
Formation of a 'new' antigen receptor on helper T erythrocytes is
due to 'remoulding'
mediated by CD3 and CD4 on T cell surfaces d. Macrophages
present antigen to CD3+ CD8+ in conjunction with Class I antigens
e. P-selectin binds to CD2
Answer: a, d
R-TYPE QUESTIONS
A. Liver failure B. Warfarin treatment C. Unfractionated heparin
therapy D. Antiphospholipid syndrome E. Haemophilia A F.
Disseninated intravascular coagulation (DIC) G. Haemophilia B H.
Von Willebrands disease The following are coagulation screen
results for hospitalised patients who are bleeding from their drip
sites. Choose the correct diagnosis of causes of bleeding from the
list above.
Parameter Normal range Patient 1 Patient 2 Patient 3
PT 12 16 seconds 25 24 80
Correction 14 13.5 14.2
PTT 23 39 seconds 83 75 119
Correction 32 33 38
Fibrinogen 2 - 4 1.5 1.8 3.8
D-dimers
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SCMD 3000 GEMP 1 HAEMATOLOGY MCQ EXAM 8 November 2012 Session
No.: ________ Seat No.: ________ Student No.: _________________ (on
each page)
_____________________________________________________________________________________
A. B.
C.
D.
E. F.
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Page 18 of 16
SCMD 3000 GEMP 1 HAEMATOLOGY MCQ EXAM 8 November 2012 Session
No.: ________ Seat No.: ________ Student No.: _________________ (on
each page)
_____________________________________________________________________________________
For each of the patient scenarios below, select the blood smear
that is most appropriate to that patient. R.4 A 48 year old woman
is brought to hospital with an impaired level of consciousness.
Her FBC is as follows:
Parameter Result Normal range
WCC 3.8 4.00 10.00 x109/l
RCC 2.8 4.13 5.67
Hb 6.5 12.1 16.3
Hct 0.2 0.37 0.49
MCV 71 79.1 98.9 fl
MCH 23 27 32 pg
MCHC 32 32 36 g/dl
RDW 28 11.6 14 %
Platelets 45 137 373 x109/l
Answer: E R.5 A 48 year old woman with pallor and mild jaundice
is taking thyroxine for autoimmune
thyroiditis. Her FBC is as follows:
Parameter Result Normal range
WCC 2.2 4.00 10.00 x109/l
RCC 1.13 4.13 5.67
Hb 4.2 12.1 16.3
Hct 0.13 0.37 0.49
MCV 115 79.1 98.9 fl
MCH 37 27 32 pg
MCHC 32 32 36 g/dl
RDW 25 11.6 14 %
Platelets 36 137 373 x109/l
Answer: B