Page 1 of 14 Seat No.______________ GUJARAT TECHNOLOGICAL UNIVERSITY DOCTOR OF PHILOSOPHY ENTRANCE EXAMINATION – 2018 Subject Name: COMPUTER IT ENGINEERING Date: 28/10/2018 Time: 12:00 PM TO 02:00 PM Total Marks: 100 INSTRUCTIONS: 1. Candidates are advised to attempt all questions. All questions carry equal mark. 2. Candidates will be awarded 1 (one) mark for each correct answer. There will be NO negative marking. 3. Each question has four alternative responses marked as serial A, B, C and D. Candidates have to darken only one circle indicating the appropriate answer on the Answer Sheet (OMR sheet) using Blue / Black Ball-Point pen only. If more than one circle is marked, it would be treated as a wrong answer. 4. Before beginning to answer the paper, the candidate should write his / her seat number in the space provided in the Test Booklet and nowhere else. 5. If a candidate writes his / her name or put any special mark at any place in the Answer Sheet (OMR sheet) which may disclose, in any way, his / her identity, he / she will render himself / herself liable to disqualification. 6. Use of books, notebook, cell phones / mobiles or any electronic gadgets etc. is strictly prohibited in the examination hall. A candidate found with any of the objectionable material with him / her will be strictly dealt with as per rules. 7. Impression, use of unfair means shall lead to cancellation of the candidature. 8. No candidate shall be allowed to leave his / her seat or the examination hall / room until all the Answer sheet (OMR sheet) are collected. 9. Candidate are advised to carefully read the instructions printed on Answer sheet (OMR sheet). 10. This question paper contains 2 (TWO) parts. Part-1 and Part-2.
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Page 1 of 14
Seat No.______________
GUJARAT TECHNOLOGICAL UNIVERSITY DOCTOR OF PHILOSOPHY
ENTRANCE EXAMINATION – 2018
Subject Name: COMPUTER IT ENGINEERING Date: 28/10/2018
Time: 12:00 PM TO 02:00 PM Total Marks: 100
INSTRUCTIONS:
1. Candidates are advised to attempt all questions. All questions carry equal mark.
2. Candidates will be awarded 1 (one) mark for each correct answer. There will be NO
negative marking.
3. Each question has four alternative responses marked as serial A, B, C and D. Candidates
have to darken only one circle indicating the appropriate answer on the Answer Sheet
(OMR sheet) using Blue / Black Ball-Point pen only. If more than one circle is marked, it
would be treated as a wrong answer.
4. Before beginning to answer the paper, the candidate should write his / her seat number in
the space provided in the Test Booklet and nowhere else.
5. If a candidate writes his / her name or put any special mark at any place in the Answer
Sheet (OMR sheet) which may disclose, in any way, his / her identity, he / she will render
himself / herself liable to disqualification.
6. Use of books, notebook, cell phones / mobiles or any electronic gadgets etc. is strictly
prohibited in the examination hall. A candidate found with any of the objectionable
material with him / her will be strictly dealt with as per rules.
7. Impression, use of unfair means shall lead to cancellation of the candidature.
8. No candidate shall be allowed to leave his / her seat or the examination hall / room until
all the Answer sheet (OMR sheet) are collected.
9. Candidate are advised to carefully read the instructions printed on Answer sheet (OMR
sheet).
10. This question paper contains 2 (TWO) parts. Part-1 and Part-2.
Page 2 of 14
PART -1 COMPUTER IT ENGINEERING
1. In the context of abstract-syntax-tree (AST) and control-flow-graph (CFG), which one of
the following is TRUE?
A In both AST and CFG, let node N2 be
the successor of node N1. In the input
program, the code corresponding to
N2 is present after the code
corresponding to N1
B For any input program, neither AST nor
CFG will contain a cycle
C The maximum number of successors
of a node in an AST and a CFG
depends on the input program
D Each node in AST and CFG corresponds
to at most one statement in the input
program
2. A computer has twenty physical page frames which contain pages numbered 101 through
120. Now a program accesses the pages numbered 1, 2, … , 100 in that order, and repeats
the access sequence THRICE. Which one of the following page replacement policies
experiences the same number of page faults as the optimal page replacement policy for this
program?
A Least-recently-used B First-in-first-out
C Last-in-first-out D Most-recently-used
3. Which one of the following is TRUE at any valid state in shift-reduce parsing?
A Viable prefixes appear only at the
bottom of the stack and not inside
B The stack contains only a set of viable
prefixes
C Viable prefixes appear only at the
top of the stack and not inside
D The stack never contains viable prefixes
4. An unordered list contains n distinct elements. The number of comparisons to find an
element in this list that is neither maximum nor minimum is
A Ɵ(n log n) B Ɵ(n)
C Ɵ(1) D Ɵ(log n)
5. Consider the following transaction involving two bank accounts x and y.
read(x); x := x - 50; write(x); read(y); y:= y + 50; write(y)
The constraint that the sum of the accounts x and y should remain constant is that of
A Atomicity B Consistency
C Durability D Isolation
6. Consider the following function written in the C programming language.
void foo(char *a){
if ( *a && *a != ‘ ‘){
foo(a+1);
putchar(*a); }
}
The output of the above function on input “ABCD EFGH” is
A ABCD EFGH B ABCD
C HGFE DCBA D DCBA
7. Match the following:
(P) Prim’s algorithm for minimum spanning tree (i) Backtracking
(Q) Floyd-Warshall algorithm for all pairs shortest paths (ii) Greedy method
(R) Mergesort (iii) Dynamic programming
(S) Hamiltonian circuit (iv) Divide and conquer
A P-iii, Q-ii, R-iv, S-i B P-i, Q-ii, R-iv, S-iii
C P-ii, Q-iii, R-iv, S-i D P-ii, Q-i, R-iii, S-iv
Page 3 of 14
8. For the processes listed in the following table, which of the following scheduling schemes
will give the lowest average turnaround time?
Process Arrival Time Processing Time
A 0 3
B 1 6
C 4 4
D 6 2
A Shortest Remaining Time B First Come First Serve
C Non-preemptive Shortest Job First D Round Robin with Quantum value two
9. The size of the physical address space of a processor is 2P bytes. The word length is 2W
bytes. The capacity of cache memory is 2N bytes. The size of each cache block is 2M words.
For a K-way set-associative cache memory, the length (in number of bits) of the tag field is
A P − N − log2K B P − N + log
2K
C P − N − M − W − log2K D P − N − M − W + log
2K
10. Consider the following C program.
#include<stdio.h>
struct node{
char x,y,z;
};
int main( ){
struct node p = {'1', ‘b’+2, 'd'+2};
struct node *q = &p;
printf ("%c, %c", *((char*)q+1), *((char*)q+2));
return 0;
}
The output of this program is:
A 0, c B d, f
C 'b+2', 'd+2' D 'd', 'f'
11. A queue is implemented using a non-circular singly linked list. The queue has a head pointer
and a tail pointer, as shown in the figure. Let n denote the number of nodes in the queue. Let
enqueue be implemented by inserting a new node at the head, and dequeue be
implemented by deletion of a node from the tail.
Which one of the following is the time complexity of the most time-efficient
implementation of enqueue and dequeue, respectively, for this data structure?
A θ(1), θ(1) B θ(n), θ(1)
C θ(n), θ(n) D θ(1), θ(n)
12. Consider the following processor design characteristics.
I. Register-to-register arithmetic operations only
II. Fixed-length instruction format
III. Hardwired control unit
Which of the characteristics above are used in the design of a RISC processor?
A I and II only B II and III only
C I and III only D I, II and III
Page 4 of 14
13. Consider the following three statements about link state and distance vector routing
protocols, for a large network with 500 network nodes and 4000 links.
[S1] The computational overhead in link state protocols is higher than in