Top Banner
1 GRE SAMPLE VERBAL QUESTIONS Instruction: This file contains 112 GRE sample questions for the following sections: Sentence Completion, Reading Comprehension, Antonym and Analogy. Each question is followed by the answer with complete explanation. For GRE test strategies and techniques, please order the Verbal Study Guide , Essay Prep Course , Math Review or the Complete GRE Prep Course . SENTENCE COMPLETION 1. Natural selection tends to eliminate genes that cause inherited diseases, acting most strongly against the most severe diseases; consequently, hereditary diseases that are----would be expected to be very----, but, surprisingly, they are not. (A) lethal.. rare (B) untreated.. dangerous (C) unusual.. refractory (D) new.. perplexing (E) widespread.. acute Explanation: The first part of the sentence is a statement: the more severe an inherited disease is, the more likely it is that the genes causing it will be eliminated by natural selection. The word "consequently" suggests that the missing words must, together, make a statement in keeping with this assumption. A is the correct answer. A disease that is "lethal" is very severe. Because, according to the statement, the most severe diseases are likely to be most strongly acted against and are therefore least likely to recur, one would expect "lethal" diseases to be very "rare". B is incorrect. It is possible that diseases that are "untreated" would be "dangerous," but the first part of the sentence suggests that the expectation concerns the elimination of hereditary diseases, not their dangerousness. C is also incorrect. There is no information in the sentence that suggests that the more "unusual" a disease is, the more "unusual" a disease is, the more "refractory" (resistant to treatment) it will be. D is not the correct answer. It is not unlikely that "new" hereditary diseases would be "perplexing," but the first part of the sentence suggests that the expectation concerns the elimination of hereditary diseases, not whether they are perplexing. E, the last choice, is not the correct answer. The idea that "widespread" diseases are "acute" does not follow from the statement give. Rather, the opposite would be expected, given the assumption. Answer: (A) 2. Although ancient tools were----preserved, enough have survived to allow us to demonstrate an occasionally interrupted but generally----progress through prehistory. (A) partially.. noticeable (B) superficially.. necessary (C) unwittingly.. documented (D) rarely.. continual (E) needlessly.. incessant
66
Welcome message from author
This document is posted to help you gain knowledge. Please leave a comment to let me know what you think about it! Share it to your friends and learn new things together.
Transcript
Page 1: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

1

GRE SAMPLE VERBAL QUESTIONS

Instruction: This file contains 112 GRE sample questions for the following sections: Sentence Completion, Reading Comprehension, Antonym and Analogy. Each question is followed by the answer with complete explanation. For GRE test strategies and techniques, please order the Verbal Study Guide, Essay Prep Course, Math Review or the Complete GRE Prep Course.

SENTENCE COMPLETION

1. Natural selection tends to eliminate genes that cause inherited diseases, acting most strongly against the most severe diseases; consequently, hereditary diseases that are----would be expected to be very----, but, surprisingly, they are not. (A) lethal.. rare (B) untreated.. dangerous (C) unusual.. refractory (D) new.. perplexing (E) widespread.. acute Explanation: The first part of the sentence is a statement: the more severe an inherited disease is, the more likely it is that the genes causing it will be eliminated by natural selection. The word "consequently" suggests that the missing words must, together, make a statement in keeping with this assumption. A is the correct answer. A disease that is "lethal" is very severe. Because, according to the statement, the most severe diseases are likely to be most strongly acted against and are therefore least likely to recur, one would expect "lethal" diseases to be very "rare". B is incorrect. It is possible that diseases that are "untreated" would be "dangerous," but the first part of the sentence suggests that the expectation concerns the elimination of hereditary diseases, not their dangerousness. C is also incorrect. There is no information in the sentence that suggests that the more "unusual" a disease is, the more "unusual" a disease is, the more "refractory" (resistant to treatment) it will be. D is not the correct answer. It is not unlikely that "new" hereditary diseases would be "perplexing," but the first part of the sentence suggests that the expectation concerns the elimination of hereditary diseases, not whether they are perplexing. E, the last choice, is not the correct answer. The idea that "widespread" diseases are "acute" does not follow from the statement give. Rather, the opposite would be expected, given the assumption. Answer: (A) 2. Although ancient tools were----preserved, enough have survived to allow us to demonstrate an occasionally interrupted but generally----progress through prehistory. (A) partially.. noticeable (B) superficially.. necessary (C) unwittingly.. documented (D) rarely.. continual (E) needlessly.. incessant

Page 2: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

2

Explanation: The first missing word describes how ancient tools were preserved. The phrase "enough have survived" indicates that not all survived, and the word "Although" indicates that the tools were preserved in a way that would not lead you to expect enough to survive. The second missing word describes a progress through prehistory. The word "but" suggests that the word that fills the second blank must contrast with the idea of occasional interruption. D is the correct answer. It is logical to say that enough tools have survived in spite of their being "rarely" preserved. A "continual" progress contrasts with one that is occasionally interrupted. Answer: (D) 3. For centuries animals have been used as----for people in experiments to assess the effects of therapeutic and other agents that might later be used in humans. (A) benefactors (B) companions (C) examples (D) precedents (E) surrogates Explanation: The missing word describes a role animals play in experiments. The sentence indicates that experiments using animals occur before the agents studied in the experiments are used in people. The correct answer is E. A "surrogate" serves as a substitute. Answer: (E) 4. The pressure of population on available resources is the key to understanding history; consequently, any historical writing that takes no cognizance of----facts is----flawed. (A) demographic.. intrinsically (B) ecological.. marginally (C) cultural.. substantively (D) psychological.. philosophically (E) political.. demonstratively Explanation: The first part of the sentence emphasizes that, in order to understand history, it is important to take into account the great importance of the pressure of population on available resources. The word "consequently" indicates that the second part of the sentence describes a conclusion that follows from the statement made in the first part. In this case, what follows is a judgment about any historical writing that does not show recognition of the correctness of the statement. The first missing word will provide a one-word description of the type of fact suggested by the first part of the sentence. The second missing word describes in what way writing that fails to take this type of fact into account is flawed. A is the correct answer. "Demographic" facts are derived

Page 3: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

3

from the study of human populations. The "pressure of population" mentioned in the first clause is a "demographic" consideration. Because the sentence indicates that these facts are very important, you can conclude that the author believes that writing that fails to take them into account is "intrinsically" (essentially) flaw. Answer: (A) 5. During the opera's most famous aria the tempo chosen by the orchestra's conductor seemed----,without necessary relation to what had gone before. (A) tedious (B) melodious (C) capricious (D) compelling (E) cautious Explanation: The placement of the words "without necessary relation to what had gone before" in the sentence suggests that these words provide an explanation or elaboration of the missing word. C is the correct answer. A "capricious" choice is made without a rational basis. "What had gone before" is a possible rational basis for choosing a particular tempo. Answer: (C) 6. The state is a network of exchanged benefits and beliefs, ----between rulers and citizens based on those laws and procedures that are----to the maintenance of community. (A) a compromise.. inimical (B) an interdependence.. subsidiary (C) a counterpoint.. incidental (D) an equivalence.. prerequisite (E) a reciprocity.. conducive Explanation: The first missing word is a brief description of the first clause in the sentence, which explains what a state is. The second missing word describes laws and procedures and explains their relationship to the maintenance of community. E is the correct answer. "A reciprocity" is an exchange, in this case of benefits and beliefs. A network of exchanged benefits and beliefs is very likely to be based on laws and procedures that are "conducive" (encouraging) to the maintenance of community. Answer: (E) 7. An investigation that is----can occasionally yield new facts, even notable ones, but typically the appearance of such facts is the result of a search in a definite direction. (A) timely (B) unguided

Page 4: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

4

(C) consistent (D) uncomplicated (E) subjective Explanation: The missing word describes an investigation that contrasts with a "search in a definite direction." The correct answer is B. An "unguided" investigation contrasts with a search in a definite direction. The other choices are all incorrect. "Timely" does not contrast with the idea of definite direction. A "consistent" investigation does not contrast with a search in a definite direction. An "uncomplicated" investigation does not contrast with a search in a definite direction. A "subjective" investigation does not contrast with a search in a definite direction. Answer: (B) 8. Like many eighteenth-century scholars who lived by cultivating those in power, Winckelmann neglected to neutralize, by some -----gesture of comradeship, the resentment his peers were bound to feel because of his----the high and mighty. (A) quixotic.. intrigue with (B) enigmatic.. familiarity with (C) propitiatory.. involvement with (D) salutary.. questioning of (E) unfeigned.. sympathy for Explanation: The first missing word describes a gesture of comradeship of a kind that would neutralize the resentment of Winckelmann's peers. The second missing word explains Winckelmann's relationship with the high and mighty. C is the correct answer. A "propitiatory" gesture is one intended to divert anger. Winckelmann's "involvement with" the high and mighty is indicated by the fact that he cultivated those in power. Answer: (C) 9. The characterization of historical analysis as a form of fiction is not likely to be received----by either historians or literary critics, who agree that history and fiction deal with----orders of experience. (A) quietly.. significant (B) enthusiastically.. shifting (C) passively.. unusual (D) sympathetically.. distinct (E) contentiously.. realistic Explanation:

Page 5: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

5

The first missing word describes a way in which historians and literary critics are not likely to react to the suggestion that historical analysis is a form of fiction. The second missing word will depend on how the first missing word characterizes this way of reacting. D is the correct answer. If historians and literary critics agree that history and fiction are "distinct" orders of experience, then they are unlikely to react "sympathetically" to the idea that historical analysis is a form of fiction. Answer: (D) 10. Documenting science's----philosophy would be----, since it is almost axiomatic that many philosophers use scientific concepts as the foundations for their speculations. (A) distrust of.. elementary (B) influence on.. superfluous (C) reliance on.. inappropriate (D) dependence on.. difficult (E) differences from.. impossible Explanation: The first part of the sentence is a statement that you must complete. The last part of the sentence explains the statement by indicating that philosophers' use of the ideas of science in developing philosophies is axiomatic (so obvious that it needs no proof). B is the correct answer. Since it is obvious that philosophers use the ideas of science, finding proof of science's "influence on" philosophy would be unnecessary ("superfluous"). Answer: (B) 11. Her----should not be confused with miserliness; as long as I have known her, she has always been willing to assist those who are in need. (A) intemperance (B) intolerance (C) apprehension (D) diffidence (E) frugality Explanation: The missing word in this sentence is a characteristic that is easily confused with miserliness (unwillingness to spend money, lack of generosity). In addition, the characteristic is not incompatible with assisting those in need. E is the correct answer. "Frugality" suggests unwillingness to spend money, but not the graspingness that makes miserliness incompatible with assisting those in need. Answer: (E) 12. Physicists rejected the innovative experimental technique because, although it----some problems, it also produced new----. clarified.. data

Page 6: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

6

(A) eased.. interpretations (B) resolved.. complications (C) caused.. hypotheses (D) revealed.. inconsistencies Explanation: The word "because" indicates that the second part of the sentence, where the missing words appear, explains why an innovative experimental technique was rejected by physicists. The word "although" indicates that the technique had some redeeming feature; the first missing word is something positive that can be done to problems. The second missing word is some undesirable feature that the technique produced. C is the correct answer. Although a technique "resolved" some problems, it might still be rejected because it produced new "complications." Answer: (C) 13. The spellings of many Old English words have been----in the living language, although their pronunciations have changed. (A) preserved (B) shortened (C) preempted (D) revised (E) improved Explanation: The word "although" indicates that the second part of the sentence presents a contrast with the first part. Since the missing word is a verb that, in the structure of the sentence, parallels the verb "have changed," the missing word is a verb that contrasts with change. A is the correct answer. To have been "preserved" contrasts with having changed. Answer: (A) 14. Social tensions among adult factions can be---- by politics, but adolescents and children have no such----for resolving their conflict with the exclusive world of adults. (A) intensified.. attitude (B) complicated.. relief (C) frustrated.. justification (D) adjusted.. mechanism (E) revealed.. opportunity Explanation: The first missing word describes how adult social tensions are affected by politics. The words "such _____for resolving their conflict" help you to fill in the first missing word by indicating that adult social tensions are affected by being resolved by politics. The word "such" indicates that the second missing word is a conflict revolver, like politics. D is the correct answer. To have social tensions "adjusted" could be a way of resolving conflict. If it adjusts tensions, politics can be described as a "mechanism" that resolves conflicts.

Page 7: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

7

Answer: (D) 15. Kagan maintains that an infant's reactions to its first stressful experiences are part of a natural process of development, not harbingers of childhood unhappiness or ----signs of adolescent anxiety. (A) prophetic (B) normal (C) monotonous (D) virtual (E) typical Explanation: The sentence contrasts the infant's reactions, part of a normal developmental process, with future unhappiness and anxiety. The missing word describes signs of adolescent anxiety as they relate to the infant. A is the correct answer. "Prophetic" signs, like harbingers, foretell future occurrences. For the infant, adolescent anxiety is a future occurrence. Answer: (A) 16. During the 1960's assessments of the family shifted remarkably, from general endorsement of it as a worthwhile, stable institution to widespread----it as an oppressive and bankrupt one whose----was both imminent and welcome. (A) flight from.. restitution (B) fascination with.. corruption (C) rejection of.. vogue (D) censure of.. dissolution (E) relinquishment of.. ascent Explanation: The sentence describes a continuum of opinion on which "general endorsement" is one extreme. The first missing word describes the other extreme. For the second missing word, you must decide what fate would be "imminent and welcome" for an "oppressive and bankrupt" institution. D is the correct answer. "Censure" is all the opposite end of a continuum from general endorsement. If an institution is seen as oppressive and bankrupt, then "dissolution" is a welcome fate for it. Answer: (D) 17. It comes as no surprise that societies have codes of behavior; the character of the codes, on the other hand, can often be----. (A) predictable (B) unexpected (C) admirable (D) explicit (E) confusing

Page 8: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

8

Explanation: The words "on the other hand" indicates that people's reactions to the character of societies' codes of behavior are not like their reactions to the fact of the codes' existence. Reaction to the existence of codes is likely to be the opposite of reaction to the character of codes. The correct answer is B to be "unexpected" means to be surprising. Answer: (B) 18. Far from viewing Jefferson as a skeptical but enlightened intellectual, historians of the 1960's portrayed him as----thinker, eager to fill the young with his political orthodoxy while censoring ideas he did not like. (A) an adventurous (B) a doctrinaire (C) an eclectic (D) a judicious (E) a cynical Explanation: The missing word describes Jefferson' thinking. The words "far from" suggest that the missing word is not at all similar in meaning to "skeptical but enlightened." The last part of the sentence elaborates on the description provided by the missing word. B is the correct answer. " A doctrinaire" thinker is likely to want to fill the young with political orthodoxy and to censure other people's ideas. Answer: (B) 19. In a----society that worships efficiency, it is difficult for a sensitive and idealistic person to make the kinds of----decisions that alone spell success as it is defined by such a society. (A) bureaucratic.. edifying (B) pragmatic.. hardheaded (C) rational.. well-intentioned (D) competitive.. evenhanded (E) modern.. dysfunctional Explanation: The first missing word describes a society that worships efficiency. The second missing word describes the kinds of decisions that such a society requires, and contrasts with the words "sensitive" and "idealistic" that characterize a person trying with difficulty to make such decisions. B is the correct answer. A "pragmatic" society is one that is more concerned with practical matters than with idealism. Such a society might well require "hardheaded" decisions rather than the idealistic ones preferred by a sensitive and idealistic person. Answer: (B)

Page 9: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

9

20. The ----of mass literacy coincided with the first industrial revolution; in turn, the new expansion in literacy, as well as cheaper printing, helped to nurture the----of popular literature. (A) building.. mistrust (B) reappearance.. display (C) receipt.. source (D) selection.. influence (E) emergence.. rise Explanation: The sentence describes a chain of occurrences. The first missing word suggests what happened to mass literacy during the industrial revolution. The words "in turn, the new expansion in literacy" are a strong clue for the first missing word. The second missing word suggests what happened to popular literature as a result of the expansion of literacy and the advent of cheaper printing. E is the correct answer. The "emergence" of mass literacy corresponds to the "new expansion in literacy." It is reasonable to assume that increased literacy and cheaper printing are likely to have contributed to the "rise" of popular literature. Answer: (E) 21. The sheer diversity of tropical plants represents a seemingly----source of raw materials, of which only a few have been utilized. (A) exploited (B) quantifiable (C) controversial (D) inexhaustible (E) remarkable Explanation: The missing word describes the character of a source of raw materials. The words "sheer diversity" suggest that the number of different kinds of tropical plants is by itself enough to indicate the character of the source. The word "seemingly" tells out that the missing word may or may not truly characterize the source: whether it does so remains to be seen. D is the correct answer. It is likely that the diversity of tropical plants would contribute to their seeming "inexhaustible" (incapable of being used up). Answer: (D) 22. During a period of protracted illness, the sick can become infirm, ----both the strength to work and many of the specific skills they once possessed. (A) regaining (B) denying (C) pursuing (D) insuring (E) losing

Page 10: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

10

Explanation: The last part of the sentence explains what happens when people who are sick become infirm. To become infirm means to experience diminished vigor. The correct answer E. to experience dismissed vigor implies "losing" strength and skills. The other four choices are all incorrect. Becoming infirm does not mean "regaining" strength and skills; it means the opposite. A person who has become infirm may be said to be denied strength and skills, rather than to be "denying" them. A person who has become infirm my at the same time be "pursuing" strength and skills, but the condition of infirmity is not defined in this way. To become infirm does not imply "insuring" strength and skills. Answer: (E) 23. Unfortunately, his damaging attacks on the ramifications of the economic policy have been----by his wholehearted acceptance of that policy's underlying assumptions. (A) supplemented (B) undermined (C) wasted (D) diverted (E) redeemed Explanation: The person discussed in the sentence seems to approve of the assumptions of a policy while at the same time disapproving of the consequences of accepting it. You must decide what is likely to happen to attacks on the ramifications of a policy when the attacker accepts the policy's underlying assumptions. B is the correct answer. It is likely that, if the attacker agrees with the bases of the policy, his attacks on its ramifications would be "undermined" (insidiously weakened). Answer: (B) 24. In part of the Arctic, the land grades into the land fast ice so----that you can walk off the coast and not know you are over the hidden sea. (A) permanently (B) imperceptibly (C) irregularly (D) precariously (E) slightly Explanation: The missing word describes how land grades (levels off gradually and smoothly) into ice. It explains why you walk off the coast without realizing that you have done so. B is the correct answer. "Imperceptibly" means undetectably. The fact that you can not detect the grading explains why you can walk off the coast without realizing it. Answer: (B)

Page 11: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

11

25. In the machinelike world of classical physics, the human intellect appears----, since the mechanical nature of classical physics does not ----creative reasoning, the very ability that had made the formulation of classical principles possible. (A) anomalous.. allow for (B) abstract.. speak to (C) anachronistic.. deny (D) enduring.. value (E) contradictory.. exclude Explanation: The first missing word describes human intelledct (which makes use of creative reasoning) in a machinelike world. The middle of the sentence, "since-creative reasoning," explains why the human intellect appears as it does in the machinelike world of classical physics. The second missing word must make the meaning of the middle part of the sentence consistent with that of the first missing word. A is the correct answer. If classical physics does not "allow for" the ability that made its formulation possible, then this ability appears "anomalous" (unexpected, or not in keeping with accepted ideas.) Answer: (A) 26. It is puzzling to observe that Jones's novel has recently been criticized for its----structure, since commentators have traditionally argued that its most obvious----is its relentlessly rigid, indeed schematic, framework. (A) attention to.. preoccupation (B) speculation about.. characteristic (C) parody of.. disparity (D) violation of.. contradiction (E) lack of.. flaw Explanation: The word "since" indicates that the second part of the sentence explains why recent criticism of the structure of Jones' novel is puzzling. The first missing word helps to explain why the novel has been recently criticized. The second part of the sentence gives the characteristic of the novel that has traditionally been criticized, and the second missing word is a general name for such a characteristic. E is the correct answer. One might well be puzzled that a novel is criticized for "lack of" structure, when its rigid framework is often seen as an obvious "flaw". Answer: (E) 27. To have true disciples, a thinker must not be too----: any effective intellectual leader depends on the ability of other people to----thought processes that did not originate with them. (A) popular.. dismiss (B) methodical.. interpret (C) idiosyncratic.. reenact (D) self-confident.. revitalize

Page 12: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

12

(E) pragmatic.. discourage Explanation: The first missing word describes a characteristic that a thinker with disciples (an intellectual leader) can have, but cannot have in excess. The second missing word indicates what followers must be able to do with a leader's thought processes if the leader is to be effective. The colon (:) indicates that the second part of the sentence explains or amplifies what is said in the first part. Therefore, whatever characteristic the leader has must enable others to deal with thought processes that are not their own but belong to the leader. C is the best answer. If an intellectual leader were too "idiosyncratic," meaning that the leader's thinking is unique to himself or herself, it would be difficult for the leader's followers to "reenact" the leader's thought processes, because the thought processes would be so unlike their own. A is not the correct answer. The sentence does not suggest any reason why a thinker should not be too "popular." Great popularity would not necessarily permit people to "dismiss" the leader's thought processes. The choice of B is incorrect. An intellectual leader might want people to "interpret" his or her thoughts, but not his or her thought processes. In addition, it is unlikely that a "methodical" approach would keep disciples from making interpretations. D is also incorrect. The fact that a leader is not too "self confident" does not necessarily permit any followers to "revitalize" the leader's thought processes. Also, E is incorrect. A leader's not being too "pragmatic" (practical) does not necessarily permit others to "discourage" the leader's thought processes. In addition, it is unlikely that intellectual leadership depends on the ability of followers to "discourage" thought. Answer: (D) 28. For some time now, ----has been presumed not to exist: the cynical conviction that everybody has an angle is considered wisdom. (A) rationality (B) flexibility (C) diffidence (D) disinterestedness (E) insincerity Explanation: The colon (:) indicates that the second part of the sentence will explain the first part. The missing word will describe the opposite of the cynical conviction that "everybody has an angle," that is, the each person is concerned primarily with his or her own interests. Therefore, D is the correct answer. "Disinterestedness" means lack of self-interest. A is incorrect, since "rationality," or reasonableness, is not the opposite of self-interest. B is not correct. "Flexibility," which can mean a tendency to yield to influence or ability to respond to change, is not the opposite of self-interest. C is also in correct. "Diffidence" (reserve, timidity, or lack of confidence) is not the opposite of self-interest. E is also incorrect: "insincerity," or lack of honesty, is not the opposite of self-interest.

Page 13: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

13

Answer: (D)

ANALOGY

1. ADULT : CHILD:: (A) horse : mare (B) cat : kitten (C) swine : sow (D) human : animal (E) cow : herd Explanation: An "adult" is what a "child" who grows up will be. A rationale for this analogy could be "X (an adult) is what a Y (child) who grows up will necessarily be". A "cat" is what a "kitten" will be when it grows up. Answer: B Relationship: big to small 2. MANSION : RESIDENCE :: (A) limousine : automobile (B) chandelier : candle (C) tuxedo : wardrobe (D) diamond : rhinestone (E) yacht : harbor Explanation: A "mansion" is a large and usually expensive "residence". A rationale for this analogy could be "X" is a large, expensive member of class "Y". A "limousine" is a special kind of "automobile," specifically, a large and expensive one. Answer: A Relationship: expensive to general 3. ENVELOPE : LETTER :: (A) scarf : hat (B) box : bag (C) crate : produce (D) neck : head (E) blood : heart Explanation: One purpose of an "envelope" is to contain and protect a "letter" when it is sent from one place to another. A rationale for this analogy could be "X is a container designed to protect objects such as

Page 14: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

14

Y's during transport". A "crate" is designed to protect things, "produce" among them, during transport. Answer: C Relationship: container to object 4. CHOREOGRAPHY : DANCE :: (A) ceremony : sermon (B) agenda : advertisement (C) poetry : recitation (D) instrumentation : conductor (E) plot : story Explanation: "Choreography" (the art of composing dances) provides a structure that determines what will happen during a "dance". A rationale for this analogy could be "X provides the organizing structure for creation of Y". The "plot" provides structure for a "story," a creative endeavor. Answer: E Relationship: pre-structure to outcome 5. OVERDOSE : PRESCRIPTION :: (A) deprivation : materialism (B) indiscretion : convention (C) affliction : sympathy (D) adventure : expedition (E) drug : medicine Explanation: "Prescription" has several meanings, but its use with "overdose" suggests that here it means written instructions for medication. An "overdose" is a dosage of a medication that exceeds the amount called for by the "prescription." A rationale for this analogy might be "X violates the rules set forth in a Y". A "convention" is a rule, or set of rules, usually unwritten, governing behavior. An "indiscretion" is an action that violates such rules, much as an "overdose" violates the rules set forth in a "prescription". Answer: B Relationship: violation to common 6. EVAPORATE : VAPOR :: (A) petrify : stone (B) centrifuge : liquid (C) saturate : fluid (D) corrode : acid (E) incinerate : fire Explanation:

Page 15: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

15

To "evaporate" means to change or be changed into a "vapor". A rationale for this analogy could be " To X means to change into Y". To "petrify" means to turn into "stone." Answer: A Relationship: action to outcome 7. SHARD : POTTERY :: (A) flint : stone (B) flange : wheel (C) cinder : coal (D) fragment : bone (E) tare : grain Explanation: A "shard" is a piece of "pottery" that has been broken off. A rationale for this analogy could be "An X is a piece of Y that has been broken off." "Fragment" is one of several possible names for a piece broken off a "bone". Answer: D Relationship: fragments to whole 8. MERCENARY : MONEY :: (A) vindictive : revenge (B) scholarly : library (C) immaculate : cleanliness (D) thirsty : water (E) belligerent : invasion Explanation: "Mercenary" means having a strong desire for "money" or serving as a soldier for pay rather than for a cause. You can tell that "mercenary" is used as an adjective, not as a noun, because "vindictive," the first word in the first answer choice, can be used only as an adjective, and not as a noun. A rationale for this analogy could be "X is an attribute of human character that means to seek or desire Y." "Vindictive" means disposed to seek "revenge"; to be "vindictive" means to desire "revenge." Answer: A Relationship: characteristic to noun. 9. HAMMER : ANVIL :: (A) knocker : door (B) stick : gong (C) hand : drum (D) pestle : mortar (E) gavel : lectern Explanation:

Page 16: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

16

An "anvil" is a metal tool that provides a surface on which things can be modified by a "hammer". A rationale for this analogy could be "X provides a surface on which Y can be used to modify materials". A "mortar" is a vessel that provides a surface on which a "pestle" is used to modify materials. Answer: D Relationship: tools group 10. NUMB : INSENSIBLE :: (A) reflect : luminous (B) burnish : lustrous (C) heckle : raucous (D) repulse : odious (E) braid : sinuous Explanation: One way to make something "insensible" is to "numb" it. You can tell that "numb" is used as a verb, not as an adjective, because "reflect" in the first choice is used only as a verb, not as an adjective. A rationale for this analogy could be "To X something means to render it Y." to "burnish" means to polish something so that it is shiny, or "lustrous". Answer: B Relationship: action to characteristic of outcome 11. EXORBITANT : MODERATION :: (A) dispassionate : equanimity (B) macabre : interest (C) perfidious : loyalty (D) brilliant : gullibility (E) lavish : extravagance Explanation: To be "exorbitant" means to exceed some customary or proper limit. Something "exorbitant" is characterized by a lack of "moderation." A rationale for this analogy could be "something properly called X lacks Y." "Perfidious" means disloyal; a "perfidious" person lacks "loyalty." Answer: C Relationship: lacking relationship 12. TROUBLED : DISTRAUGHT :: (A) annoyed : disillusioned (B) disturbed : interrupted (C) covetous : rapacious (D) outmoded : ostentatious (E) tranquil : placid Explanation:

Page 17: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

17

To be "distraught" means to be greatly "troubled" or to show that one is "troubled". Therefore, a rationale for this analogy could be "to be Y is to be very X." to be "covetous" means to desire the possessions of others. To be "rapacious" means to be excessively "covetous," or to be insatiable in desiring things. Answer: C Relationship: degree and depth 13. SCALPEL : SURGEON :: (A) laser : agronomist (B) magnet: ecologist (C) syringe : geologist (D) telescope : astronomer (E) microscope : geometrician Explanation: A "scalpel" is an instrument commonly used in the work of a "surgeon". Therefore, a rationale for this analogy could be "X (a scalpel) is an instrument commonly used in or associated with the work of a person called a Y (surgeon)." A "telescope" is an instrument commonly used in the work of an "astronomer." Answer: D Relationship: tool to professional 14.DOOR : ROOM :: (A) rudder : anchor (B) boat : ship (C) patio : terrace (D) hatch : hold (E) basement : attic Explanation: A "door" is a barrier that can be used to close off (access to) a "room". A rationale for this analogy could be "X is a barrier that can be used to close off (prevent entry into) Y." a "hatch" is a barrier that is used to close off a "hold" (a place where cargo is kept). Answer: D Relationship: entry to closing 15. CORRAL : HORSES :: (A) den : lions (B) meadow : sheep (C) herd : cattle (D) nest : birds (E) coop : chickens Explanation: "Horses" are kept in a "corral." A rationale for this analogy could be "X is an enclosure where people keep Y". A "coop" is an enclosure where people keep "chickens".

Page 18: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

18

Answer: E Relationship: enclosure to animal 16. CANVAS : PAINTER :: (A) leather : shoe (B) brush : palette (C) chisel : wood (D) marble : sculptor (E) hammer : carpenter Explanation: A "painter" often paints on "canvas". A rationale for this analogy could be "X is a material commonly used in the work of person Y." "Marble" is a material commonly used by a "sculptor". As a "painter" uses "canvas" in creating a work of art, so a "sculptor" uses "marble." Answer: D Relationship: tool surface to professional 17. PANEGYRIC : EULOGIZE :: (A) ballad : stigmatize (B) ode : criticize (C) lampoon : satirize (D) tirade : entertain (E) treatise : dispute Explanation: A "panegyric" is a speech or written work that is intended primarily to "eulogize". A rationale for this analogy could be "X is a communication, the primary purpose of which is to Y". A "lampoon" is defined as a work that is intended to "satirize". Answer: C Relationship: thing to purpose 18. GLOSSARY : TEXT :: (A) bibliography : source (B) abstract : dissertation (C) legend : map (D) index : catalog (E) abbreviation : footnote Explanation: A "glossary" is a set of explanations, usually explanations of words, that accompanies a "text" and helps the reader to understand the "text." A rationale for this analogy could be "X is a set of explanations that helps one to understand Y." A "legend" lists symbols or notations used on a "map" and is intended to help one understand the "map". Answer: C

Page 19: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

19

Relationship: explanation to thing 19. LULLABY : SONG :: (A) narrative : volume (B) lecture : tutor (C) paragraph : page (D) diatribe : discourse (E) invective : compliment Explanation: A "lullaby" is a "song" sung to put children to sleep. Therefore, a rationale for this analogy could be "X is a particular kind of Y." A "diatribe" is a bitter or abusive kind of "discourse"(an extended expression of thought). Answer: D Relationship: particular to kind 20. FERVOR : ZEALOT :: (A) antipathy : philanthropist (B) improvidence : spendthrift (C) concision : politician (D) determination : ecologist (E) nonchalance : acrobat Explanation: "Fervor"(intense feeling or passion) is a characteristic that has a fanatical interest in a cause. A rationale for this analogy could be "X is a characteristic that must describe a person who is to be called a Y". "Improvidence" (failure to exercise thrift or to provide for the future) is a characteristic of a "spendthrift" (one who spends wastefully). Answer: B Relationship: characteristic to person 21. ASSUAGE : SORROW :: (A) retaliate : antipathy (B) dampen : ardor (C) entrust : reliability (D) counsel : reluctance (E) withhold : appreciation Explanation: To "assuage" means to lessen the intensity of, or to relieve, something like pain or "sorrow". A rationale for this analogy could be " to X means to lessen the intensity of a feeling such as Y". To "dampen" can mean to diminish the intensity of a feeling such as "ardor". Answer: B Relationship: lessening to degree

Page 20: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

20

22. DIE : SHAPING :: (A) glue : attaching (B) anchor : sailing (C) drill : boring (D) pedal : propelling (E) ink : printing Explanation: "Die" has several meanings, but its use with "shaping' suggests that here it should be taken to mean a tool used to form an object. This definition suggests that a rationale for this analogy could be " X is a tool used for Y, where Y is done to something else." A "drill" is a tool used for "boring" (making holes by piercing). Answer: C Relationship: model to modeling 23. PERFUNCTORILY : INSPIRATION :: (A) insolently : veneration (B) ardently : passion (C) phlegmatically : composure (D) surreptitiously : obsession (E) haltingly : reluctance Explanation: Something done "perfunctorily" is done in a mechanical or superficial manner, without enthusiasm or "inspiration". A rationale for this analogy could be "A person performing in a manner described as X is acting without feeling Y." a person who does something "insolently" (arrogantly or insultingly) does not feel "veneration". One who feels admiration or reverence does not behave arrogantly. Answer: A Relationship: lacking 24. FAWN : IMPERIOUSNESS :: (A) equivocate : directness (B) elaborate : originality (C) boggle : imagination (D) manipulate : repression (E) coddle : permissiveness Explanation: To "fawn" means to court favor in a cringing or flattering manner. One who fawns is not characterized by "imperiousness" (arrogance, or a commanding presence). A rationale for this analogy could be "to X is to show a lack of Y". To "equivocate" means to lie or deceive, and shows a lack of "directness".

Page 21: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

21

Answer: A Relationship: lacking 25. CLOT : DISSOLVED :: (A) enthusiast : influenced (B) carton : distorted (C) crowd : dispersed (D) chain : disengaged (E) disciple : inspired Explanation: A "clot" (a mass created when the components of something stick together) ceases to be a "clot" when it is "dissolved." A rationale for this analogy could be "an X ceases to be an X when it is Y (that, is, when it has undergone the particular process of being Y)." if a "crowd" is "dispersed," it is no longer a "crowd," but a number of separate individuals. Answer: C Relationship: state to disappearing 26. STUDY : LEARN :: (A) pervade : encompass (B) search : find (C) gather : win (D) agree : keep (E) accumulate : raise Explanation: People "study" in order to "learn". Therefore, a rationale for this analogy could be "People X (study) in order to Y (learn)," or "one way to y (learn) is to X (study)." People "search" in order to "find"; one way to "find" something is to "search for it". Answer: B Relationship: action to outcome 27. APPLE : FRUIT :: (A) egg : chicken (B) rung : chair (C) wool : fabric (D) fuse : dynamite (E) wick : candle Explanation: An "apple" is a kind of "fruit". A rationale for this analogy could be "X is a kind of Y". "Wool" is the name of a kind of "fabric". Answer: C Relationship: particular to kind

Page 22: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

22

28. TABLECLOTH : TABLE :: (A) tent : ground (B) shirt : hanger (C) window : sill (D) sheet : mattress (E) cloud : earth Explanation: A "tablecloth" is used to cover a "table', either to decorate it or to protect it. A rationale for this analogy could be "the purpose of X (a tablecloth) is to cover Y (a table)." A "sheet" is used to cover a "mattress." Answer: D Relationship: coverings to things covered 29. FERTILIZE : GROW :: (A) immunize : resist (B) nourish : enrich (C) hear : burn (D) graft : multiply (E) prune : dwarf Explanation: People "fertilize" plants in order to make them "grow". A rationale for this analogy could be " the reason to X an organism is to increase its ability to Y," where y is something the organism must do itself. A reason to "immunize" something is to make it resistant to disease, that is, to increase its ability to "resist". Answer: A Relationship: action to purpose 30. AUTHORITATIVENESS : PUNDITS :: (A) dedication : signatories (B) sobriety : executors (C) sensitivity : literati (D) recklessness : warriors (E) allegiance : partisans Explanation "Pundits" are persons who are learned, or who are or act authoritative. Therefore, a rationale for this analogy could be "X is by definition a personal characteristic of persons called Y." "Partisans" are people who support a particular person or cause and are therefore characterized by "allegiance." Answer: E Relationship: characteristic to person

Page 23: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

23

31. FRESCO : WALL :: (A) fountain : courtyard (B) parquetry : floor (C) thatch : roof (D) statuary : passage (E) gargoyle : gutter Explanation: "Fresco" is a method of painting that is usually executed on a "wall". "Fresco" is also the name of a painting executed by this method. A rationale for this analogy could be "X is a method of artistic decoration, examples of which are usually found on architectural surface Y." "Parquetry" is a method of artistic decoration (the laying of pieces of wood flooring in a design) that is usually found on a "floor". "Parquetry" also names a "floor" laid in this manner. Answer: B Relationship: decorative thing to thing decorated 32. STRUT : WING :: (A) lever : handle (B) axle : wheel (C) buttress : wall (D) beam : rivet (E) well : pipe Explanation: A stationary structural element that is designed to support an airplane's "wing" is called a "strut". Therefore, a rationale for this analogy could be "X is a stationary structural element that can support a Y." A "buttress" is a stationary structure whose primary purpose is to support a "wall". Answer: C Relationship: supporting things to things supported 33. ATTENTIVE : OFFICIOUS :: (A) doubtful : ambiguous (B) absorbed : engrossed (C) refined : snobbish (D) magisterial : authoritative (E) impromptu : spontaneous Explanation: To be "officious" is a way of being "attentive," but it implies being "attentive" in a way that is unwelcome to others. A rationale for this analogy could be " to be Y is to be X in a way that is unwelcome to others". One who is "snobbish" wishes to be thought "refined," and in acting "refined" is offensive to others. Answer: C

Page 24: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

24

Relationship: degree and good-bad 34. AUDACIOUS : TREPIDATION :: (A) refractory : intransigence (B) laconic : volubility (C) sordid : aspiration (D) cursory : accumulation (E) derisive : subordination Explanation: An "audacious" person acts boldly and fearlessly, that is, without "trepidation" (nervousness or fear). A rationale for this analogy could be "A person properly described as X is not characterized by Y". "Laconic" means not characterized by "volubility" (talkativeness). Answer: B Relationship: lacking (antonym) 35. BLANDISHMENT : COAX :: (A) medal : honor (B) budget : save (C) diary : reminisce (D) concert : play (E) plea : threaten Explanation: "Blandishment" is a way to "coax" or persuade another by gentle urging. A rationale for this analogy could be "X is used by one person to Y another person." A "medal" is used to "honor" another. Although a "medal" is a concrete object and "blandishment" consists of words, each is used by one person to accomplish a goal related to another person. Answer: A Relationship: action to purpose 36. RELEVANT : CRUCIAL :: (A) marginal : unique (B) perceptible : obvious (C) apparent : real (D) peripheral : central (E) possible : desirable Explanation: Something "relevant" has a bearing on a matter under consideration but it may be of great or little importance. Something "crucial" is relevant and has the highest degree of importance. A rationale for this analogy could be something properly described as Y is X to a very high degree. Something properly described as "obvious" is "perceptible" to a very high degree: it is easy to perceive. Answer: B

Page 25: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

25

Relationship: degree and depth

ANTONYM

1. MOROSE: A. overawed B. agitated C. cherubic D. decisive E. cheerful Explanation: To be "morose" means to be gloomy or sullen. It is used to describe people's dispositions. A "cheerful" person is not gloomy or sullen. The correct answer is E. to be "overawed" means to be overcome by superior power or authority. To be "agitated" means to be excited or disturbed. It does not necessarily imply good humor. A gloomy person may or may not be "agitated". "Cherubic" is usually used to describe a person's appearance as rosy, innocent, or childlike. A cherub is not likely to appear "morose", but "cherubic" does not necessarily indicate a sunny disposition. A "decisive" person is able to make decisions and stick by them. A decisive person may or may not have a cheerful disposition. 2. OFFHAND: A. accurate B. universal C. appropriate D. premeditated E. disputatious Explanation: "Offhand" means done without preparation or much prior thought. It refers to a person's actions or statements. D is the correct answer. "Premeditated" means thought about or prepared for ahead of time. To be "accurate" means to be correct or free from error. An "offhand" statement is not necessary an inaccurate one. To be "universal" means to be applicable everywhere. It does not imply anything about prior thought or preparation. Something "offhand" is not by definition the opposite of "appropriate". To be "disputatious" means to be likely to argue. This quality does not imply anything about either preparation or lack of preparation. 3. WARMONGER: A. commentator B. liaison C. lobbyist D. emissary E. pacifist

Page 26: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

26

Explanation: A "warmonger" is one who incites other to make war. E is the correct answer. A "pacifist" is one who actively oppose war. A "commentator" is one who reports, usually in an objective manner and without taking sides on issues. A "liaison" is a person who provides a link between people or groups. A "liaison" does not necessarily have particular views about war. A "lobbyist" is one who promotes a particular point of view in order to influence public officials. No single view necessarily characterizes every "lobbyist". An "emissary" is a messenger or agent. No particular view necessarily characterizes an "emissary". 4. PERSEVERE: A. put into B. send out C. take away D. give up E. bring forward Explanation: To "persevere" means to continue in an enterprise in spite of opposition or other difficulties. D is the correct answer. To "give up" can mean to cease to try to accomplish something. To "put into" could mean to invest, as energy, or, more generally, to insert. To "send out" means to emit. To "take away" means to subtract, to relieve someone of something, or to remove. To "bring forward" can mean to move up or to carry over. It does not suggest a lack of perseverance. 5. EXPIRE: A. evolve B. stabilize C. come to life D. grow to fruition E. bring to light Explanation: To "expire" means to die or to run out of time. C is the correct answer. To "come to life" (to begin living) is the opposite of to die (to end life). To "evolve" means to develop gradually. The process of evolution must involve life, but to "evolve" is not the opposite of to die. to "stabilize" means to make steady or to maintain without change. To remain in a stabilized condition may mean to remain alive, but it is not the opposite of dying (ending life). To "growth to fruition" means to develop to the point of being productive. It is necessary to be alive in order to "grow to fruition," but the condition of being productive is not the opposite of dying. To "bring to light" means to reveal. It is done to another person or to a thing. 6. METAMORPHOSE: A. move ahead B. remain unaltered C. descend slowly

Page 27: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

27

D. examine in haste E. prepare in advance Explanation: To "metamorphose" means to change or be transformed into something else. B is the correct answer. To "remain unaltered" is the opposite of changing or being transformed into something else. Metamorphosis might be part of a process of moving ahead, but to "metamorphose" is not the opposite of moving ahead. To "descend slowly" means to come down without speed. Coming down is not the opposite of transformation. Examining in haste has no clear relationship to metamorphosis. Preparing in advance is a preliminary step, not the opposite of transforming. 7. PUNGENCY: A. boredom B. redundancy C. unresponsiveness D. blandness E. insignificance Explanation: In some contexts, "pungency" is a quality that is directly perceived. It implies sharpness, a stinging quality, and frequently applies to smells or tastes. D is the correct answer. "Blandness" means lacking flavor, not irritating, stimulating, sharp, or stinging. It is frequently used to describe tastes. Something that is the opposite of pungent might cause "boredom," but "boredom" is a feeling rather than a quality. "Redundancy" refers to that which is extra, unnecessary, or repetitive. "Pungency" is a quality that might provoke a response, but "unresponsiveness" is a characteristic of the perceiver, not of the thing perceived. "Insignificance" is a quality, but it does not necessarily imply a lack of sharpness. It is not a common quality of tastes or smells. 8. DIVESTITURE: A. acquisition B. promotion C. subsidization D. consultation E. monopolization Explanation: "Divestiture" is a taking away of something, presumably desirable, that was formerly possessed or owned. One can divest oneself, or one can be divested of something during "divestiture". A is the correct answer. "Acquisition" means coming into possession of something desired. "Promotion" means the act of advancing or raising to a new, better position. One could be divested of a new position, but the idea of a position is not included in the definition of "divestiture" as it is in the definition of "promotion". "Subsidization" means the act of giving money or aid in any of several possible situations. "Subsidization" refers to a continuing process of being granted something rather than to the point at which something is attained. "Consultation" means a conferring among

Page 28: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

28

people. It does not have to do with giving or taking. "Monopolization" implies having all of something, whereas "divestiture" does not imply amount or degree of divesting. 9. DISPATCH: A. serenity B. leisureliness C. heedlessness D. irregularity E. aversion Explanation: "Dispatch" in this question means quick efficiency. Although "dispatch" can also be used as a verb, "serenity" in the first choice is used only as a noun and not as a verb, so "dispatch" must also be used as a noun. "Leisureliness" means unhurried pace. It implies slowness and lack of quick efficiency. "Serenity" means calmness, and may suggest a state of mind or an appearance of calm. Though "dispatch" suggests activity, it is not incompatible with "serenity". "Heedlessness" means lack of care in performance. It implies a lack of efficiency but implies nothing about the speed of operation. "Irregularity" can suggest dishonesty or a lack of continuity in action. It does not imply lack of either speed or efficiency. An "aversion" is a feeling of dislike or a desire to avoid, rather than a way of behaving. 10. SEDULOUS: A. presumptuous B. ponderous C. treacherous D. careless E. useless Explanation: "Sedulous" means applying oneself faithfully to a task. It suggests continuing effort and attention to what is to be done. D is the correct answer. "Careless" can mean failing to apply due attention to performance of a task. "Presumptuous" means showing arrogance by overstepping one's authority. Presumptuousness does not necessarily have to do with performance of a task. "Ponderous" means being hard to manage because of great weight or size. It does not suggest a lack of attention or application. "Treacherous" means likely to betray. It does not describe an approach to a task. Work might be made "useless" if effort and attention were not applied to it, but "useless" does not describe the worker's approach to the work. 11. TORTUOUS: A. enduring B. informal C. cautious D. simplistic E. straightforward

Page 29: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

29

Explanation: "Tortuous" means not straight. It can mean winding, devious, or indirect; it can refer to physical entities like roads or rivers and also to people's actions or reasonings. "Straightforward" means direct or honest. Like "tortuous," it can refer to physical entities and also to people's actions and reasonings. "Enduring" means long lasting. It does not imply straightness or directness. "Informal" means casual or not marked by ceremony. It does not imply straightness or directness. To be "cautious" means to be careful, to think ahead in order to avoid risks. It does not imply straightness or directness. To be "simplistic" means to ignore complications. It does not imply straightness or directness. 12. INDELIBILITY: A. availability B. comprehensibility C. decidability D. erasability E. retractability Explanation: Something characterized by "indelibility" cannot be removed. "Indebility" may refer to an actual mark like that made by a pen or pencil, or it may refer to an impression made on a person's mind. D is the correct answer. Something characterized by "eras ability" can be erased or deleted, and is not indelible. Something characterized by "availability" can be obtained or used. Something indelible is likely to be available as well. "Comprehensibility" indicates an ability to be understood. It is not the opposite of "indelibility". Something characterized by "decidability" can be decided; it may or may not be indelible. Something characterized by "retractability" can be disavowed or taken back, but the impression left by it may still be indelible. "retractability" usually refers to statements or physical parts of things, rather than to marks or impressions. 13. INSULARITY: A. overzealousness B. cosmopolitanism C. susceptibility D. willing hospitality E. knowledgeable consideration Explanation: "Insularity" means the state of being isolated or confined to a limited area. It often applies to nations or to peoples. B is the correct answer. "Cosmopolitanism" implies worldwide scope. "Overzealousness" is excessive concern over an issue. It might result from isolation or the lack of it, but it does not imply a lack of isolation. "Insularity" might make a nation susceptible, but "susceptibility" means inability to resist some outside influence, and does not have to do directly with isolation. It is unlikely that an insular people would be characterized by "willing hospitality,"

Page 30: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

30

but "willing hospitality" is not implied in the idea of a lack of isolation. "Insularity" might result from a lack of "knowledgeable consideration," is not itself a state like "insularity." 14. GOSSAMER: A. sincere B. taciturn C. intense D. awkward E. ponderous Explanation: "Gossamer" means light, filmy, or delicate. It is a quality of things rather than of people. You can tell that "gossamer" is used as an adjective, not as a noun, because "sincere" in the first choice can be used only as an adjective and not as a noun. E is the correct answer. "Ponderous" means heavy and possibly cumbersome. "Sincere" means honest or genuine. It refers to a quality of people rather than of things. "Taciturn" means not talkative. It is a quality of people rather than of things. "Intense" means having a quality to an extreme degree. "Awkward" means clumsy or ungraceful. Something described as "gossamer" is not likely also to be "awkward," but to be "gossamer" does not necessarily imply lack of awkwardness. 15. CRAVEN: A. indifferent B. presumptuous C. valorous D. scrupulous E. petulant Explanation:

"Craven" means cowardly, lacking courage. C is the correct answer.

"Valorous" means courageous. One who is "indifferent" is neutral or

uncaring. Indifference does not necessarily have to do with courage or

the lack of it. To be "presumptuous" means to go farther than is proper.

One who is "presumptuous" may or may not lack courage. To be "scrupulous"

means to be careful and exacting. To be scrupulous" may in some instances

require courage, but "scrupulous" does not necessarily imply being

courageous. "Petulant" means bad tempered.

16. FLUENT: A. insensitive B. inappropriate C. derogatory D. halting

Page 31: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

31

E. hypocritical Explanation: "Fluent" means able to flow rapidly. It is often used to refer to effortlessly smooth and rapid speech. D is the correct answer. "Halting" means lacking in a smoothness that permits rapidity. It is often used to refer to a manner of speech. "Insensitive" means unfeeling; it refers to a personal characteristic or the content of speech rather than to the manner of delivery. "Inappropriate" means unsuitable; it refers to the content of speech rather than to the manner of delivery. "Derogatory" means expressing a low opinion of something; it refers to the content of speech rather than to the manner of delivery. "Hypocritical" means saying one thing while meaning another, putting on a false appearance. It refers to the content of speech rather than to the manner of delivery. 17. ALLY: A. mediator B. felon C. adversary D. inventor E. conspirator Explanation: An "ally" is a helper or supporter. To be an "ally" has to do with a person's relationships with others, rather than with a particular quality a person has. C is the correct answer. An "adversary" is an enemy, one who operates against another rather than helping or supporting. A "mediator" is one who reconciles differences among other parties without taking sides. A "felon" is one who has committed a crime. An "inventor" is one who comes up with new ideas. Inventiveness does not imply anything about a person's relationships with others. A "conspirator" is one who plots with others as an "ally". A conspiracy may involve a plot against another person, but to be a "conspirator" is not necessarily to be an enemy. 18. FLUSTERED: A. mute B. calm C. heavy D. ingrained E. courageous Explanation: To be "flustered" means to be confused and agitated to such a degree that one cannot think clearly or act decisively. B is the correct answer. To be "calm" means to be free from agitation or disturbance. To be "mute" means to be silent-unable or unwilling to speak. It does not refer to a state of mind. To be "heavy" means to have great weight. It can be used in many senses, but it does not describe the presence or absence of confusion and agitation. "Ingrained" describes attitudes that have becomes so firmly established that they are very hard to get rid of. To be "courageous" means to be brave. Being "courageous" is not usually associated with being "flustered," but "courageous" does not mean the opposite of "flustered."

Page 32: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

32

19. WATERPROOF: A. soggy B. natural C. unglazed D. viscous E. permeable Explanation: Something that is "waterproof" cannot be penetrated by water. E is the correct answer. "Permeable" means capable of being penetrated, by water or other liquids. Something "soggy" has already been penetrated by a liquid. Something "soggy" is not "waterproof," but "soggy" implies more than being penetrable by water. It means having already absorbed a great deal of liquid. "Natural" does not indicate either resistance to water or lack of resistance. It is unlikely that an "unglazed" substance such as pottery is less "waterproof" than the same substance covered with a glaze. However, "unglazed" does not by definition mean lacking resistance to water. "Viscous" means gluey; it refers to the consistency of a material rather than to its resistance to water. 20. ACCELERATE: A. swerve B. arouse C. dispel D. reject E. retard Explanation: One meaning of "accelerate" is to speed up the progress or development of something. E is the correct answer. To "retard" is to slow down or impede progress. To "swerve" means to change course suddenly. It does not necessarily imply a change in speed. To "arouse" means to waken or stir up. One might "arouse" something in order to hasten its progress, but a change in speed is not implied in the definition of "arouse." To "dispel" means to do away with something, especially by scattering its parts. No change in speed is implied. To "reject" means, generally, to turn away from something. Change in speed is not implied. 21. EMIT: A. absorb B. demand C. mistake D. prevent E. require Explanation: To "emit" means to give out or send out. A is the correct answer. To "absorb" means to take in. to "demand' means to ask for. It may imply a desire to take in, but it is not the opposite of sending

Page 33: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

33

out. To "mistake" means to make an error of an unspecified kind. To "prevent" means to keep from occurring. Emission might be prevented, but the preventing itself is not the opposite of emitting. To "require" means to have a compelling need. To need something does not mean the same thing as to receive it, so "require" is not the opposite of "emit". 22. METAMORPHOSIS: A. relief from strain B. continuation without change C. cyclical motion D. dogmatic persistence E. varied activity Explanation: A "metamorphosis" is a change, usually in physical appearance or state. B is the correct answer. "Continuation without change" is the opposite of change. "Relief from strain" may or may not accompany "metamorphosis". "Cyclical motion" could itself be considered a change, rather than the opposite of change. "Dogmatic persistence" could refer to a refusal to change, but it implies a state of mind rather than the physical kind of change usually implied by "metamorphosis". "Varied activity" may or may not include the idea of physical change. 23. DISSONANCE: A. concord B. confederacy C. collusion D. consent E. contract Explanation: "Dissonance" means a clash or lack of agreement. It can be a characteristic of sounds or of relationships among people. A is the correct answer. "Concord" means harmony or a state of agreement. A "confederacy" is an agreement or a body formed by agreement. It is fostered by a harmonious relationship among people. It is not a characteristic of the relationship. "Collusion" means cooperation among people who intend to deceive others. "Collusion" is not itself either harmonious or inharmonious. It is not a characteristic of a relationship. "Consent" is approval of or compliance with something done or proposed by another. It is an action of some kind rather than a characteristic of a relationship. A "contract" is a kind of formal agreement. The existence of a "contract" may imply a lack of "dissonance," but it is not a characteristic of a relationship. 24. BROACH: A. keep track of B. lay claim to C. close off D. soothe E. simplify

Page 34: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

34

Explanation: To "broach" means to open up. It can mean opening or breaking into an actual thing, such as a container or building, or it can refer to opening a topic for discussion. C is the correct answer. To " close off" is to end discussion, or to end access to something. To "keep track of" means to follow the progress of something. It does not necessarily suggest opening or closing. To "lay claim to" means to call one's own. It raises questions of ownership but it is not the opposite of opening up or introducing. To "soothe" means to comfort or placate. In some situations, broaching could cause the opposite of comforting or placating, but "soothe" is not the opposite of "broach". To "simplify" means to lessen complication. To "broach" is not necessarily to complicate. 25. FERMENT: A. solidity B. purity C. lucidity D. transparency E. tranquility Explanation: "Ferment" in this question is a state of unrest, disorder, or turbulence. Although "ferment" can also be used as a verb, "solidity" in the first choice can be used only as a noun, so "ferment" must also be sued as a noun, not as a verb. "Tranquility" means free from disturbance or turmoil. Like "ferment," it can characterize a state of political affairs, as well as a physical state. "Solidity" means substantial, sturdy, or uniform character. Although it is unlikely that "ferment" and "solidity" would characterize the same things, they are not opposites. "Purity" means lack of contamination. Something characterized by purity may or may not be in a state of "ferment'. "Lucidity" means clarity or mental coherence. A state of "ferment" does not promote "lucidity," but it is not the opposite of a state of "lucidity". "Transparency" means clarity or obviousness. A state of "ferment" does not promote "transparency," but it is not the opposite of a state of "transparency." 26. HAPLESS: A. excited B. elated C. fortunate D. completely self-reliant E. assured of success Explanation: "Hapless" means unlucky or unable to achieve success because of bad luck. C is the correct answer. One who is "fortunate" is lucky. "Excited" means stimulated, or showing strong feeling. One might feel "elated" if one were not "hapless," but elation is an emotional state rather than the state that causes emotion. To be "completely self-reliant" means to be able to depend entirely on one's own abilities, and does not imply luck or lack of it. If one is "assured of success," one is not

Page 35: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

35

"hapless". However, luck or the lack of it is not a necessary element in the idea of being guaranteed success. 27. PLETHORA: A. vacuousness B. narrowness C. choice D. dearth E. confusion Explanation: A "plethora" is more than is necessary. It describes a characteristic of a particular quantity. D is the correct answer. A "dearth" is a scarcity. It is less than is needed, and is characteristic of a particular quantity. "Vacuousness" means a state of being empty or stupid. It is a characteristic of a person or a thing, not of a quantity. "Narrowness" means a state of lacking scope. It does not describe quantity, as does "plethora." A "choice" is an opportunity to choose or a thing chosen. It does not describe quantity as does "plethora." "Confusion" means a lack of clear perception. It does not describe a quantity, as does "plethora". 28. POSTURE: A. walk clumsily B. behave naturally C. impose arbitrarily D. publicize widely E. explain carefully Explanation: To "posture" means to pose or to take a position in order to create a desired effect. It can refer to people's appearance and actions or to their statements. You can tell that "posture" is used as a verb, not as a noun, because "walk clumsily" in the first choice can be used only as a verb and not as a noun. To "behave naturally" is to act without artifice, that is, without posing or attempting to create an effect. 29. NOISOME: A. attractively fragrant B. subtly flattering C. consistently patient D. softly glowing E. gradually diminishing Explanation: "Noisome" means bad smelling. It suggests not only unpleasant smell, but also harmful nature or unwholesomeness. A is the correct answer. To be "attractively fragrant" means to have a peasant smell. To be "subtly flattering" means to pay a possibly undeserved compliment without seeming

Page 36: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

36

to do so. It does not necessarily suggest anything about smell or wholesomeness. To be "consistently patient" means to constantly carry on without complaint. It does not necessarily suggest anything about smell or wholesomeness. "Softly glowing" means giving off a non-glaring light. It does not imply anything about smell. "Gradually diminishing" means slowly becoming smaller. It does not necessarily suggest anything about how something smells or about its wholesomeness. 30. ABROGATE: A. uphold B. defer C. discuss secretly D. admit willingly E. read thoroughly Explanation: To "abrogate" means to do away with, usually in a legal context, as when something official done away with or when something is done away with by law. To "uphold" means to support something. In a legal context, it is likely to mean to keep something (like a rule or law) in existence rather than to do away with it. In a legal context, to "defer" is most likely to mean to put off, or to delay. To "discuss secretly" is not necessarily to keep something in existence. To "admit willingly" does not necessarily mean to keep something in existence. To "read thoroughly" does not mean to keep something in existence. 31. BOISTEROUS: A. grateful B. angry C. clever D. frightened E. quiet Explanation: "Boisterous" means noisy and high spirited. It implies activity as well as noise. E is the correct answer. "Quiet" can imply low levels of both noise and activity. To be "grateful" means to appreciate something. Expressing appreciation is not necessarily associated with particular levels of noise or activity. One who is "angry" might be, but is not necessarily, quiet. To be "clever" means to be quick-witted or resourceful. It does not imply a level of activity or of feeling. A "frightened" person might not behave boisterously, but there is not, by definition, a connection between the two. 32. JABBER: A. tickle B. argue C. stroke D. speak slowly

Page 37: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

37

E. joke inaptly Explanation: To "jabber" means to speak so rapidly as to be unintelligible. D is the correct answer. To "speak slowly" is the opposite of speaking rapidly. To "tickle" means to excite in a pleasant way. It is different from jabbering in that it involves touch rather than verbal communication, but tickling is not the opposite of jabbering. To "argue" means to dispute or to give reasons for something. It refers to the content rather than to the manner of speech and so cannot be the opposite of "jabber." To "stroke" means to rub gently. It is different from jabbering in that it involves touch rather than verbal communication, but stroking is not the opposite of jabbering. To "joke inaptly" means to make inappropriate jests. It does not refer to the speed or intelligibility of speech. 33. AMALGAMATE: A. separate B. fixate C. terminate D. calibrate E. correlate Explanation: To "amalgamate" means to mix together or unite. A is the correct answer. To "separate" means to disunite. To "fixate" means to gaze steadily at something. To "terminate" means to put an end to or to come to an end. It does not necessarily imply dissolution. To "calibrate" means to adjust, as the markings on an instrument. To "correlate" means to show a relationship to something else. 34. ENDORSE: A. provoke criticism B. receive payment C. submit unwillingly D. oppose publicly E. perform quickly Explanation: One meaning of "endorse" is to approve of something. It implies attaching one's name to an indication of approval, such as a statement. D is the correct answer. To "oppose publicly" is the opposite of lending one's name in approval. To "provoke criticism" means to cause someone to criticize, rather than to express disapproval. "Endorse" can mean to sign, as one would sign a check, in order to "receive payment," but endorsement is a step in a process of receiving payment, and not its opposite. To "submit unwillingly" may or may not suggest disapproval. "Endorse" does not suggest coercion or the absence of coercion, so to "submit unwillingly" is too specific to be the opposite of the more general "endorse". To "perform quickly' does not imply approval or disapproval. 35. GIST:

Page 38: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

38

A. artificial manner B. trivial point C. informal procedure D. eccentric method E. singular event Explanation: The "gist" (of an argument, for instance,) is the main, or most important, point. B is the correct answer. A "trivial point" is an unimportant one. An "artificial manner" is an affected or unnatural way of behaving, rather than a part of an argument or discussion. An "informal procedure" is a method of operation that is not rigidly specified. There is no reason to suppose that it is no reason to suppose that it is unrelated to the main point. An "eccentric method" is a way of operating that is peculiar to a person or group. There is no reason to suppose that it is unrelated to the main point. A "singular event" is an occurrence that is individual or unusual. There is no reason to suppose that it is unrelated to the main point. 36. ANARCHY: A. courtesy B. hope C. order D. neutrality E. importance Explanation: "Anarchy" means absence of order. C is the correct answer. "Order" is the opposite of a lack of order. A lack of "courtesy" might well accompany a state of "anarchy," but this lack is not implied in the definition of "anarchy." "Hope" is an emotion, and not a state. It may or may not accompany "anarchy," but it is not the opposite of "anarchy". "Neutrality," like "anarchy," can be a political state, but it does not necessarily imply orderliness. "Importance" is a quality that does not directly or necessarily have to do with order or the lack of it. 37. BREACH: A. garner B. solder C. keep silent D. move forward E. give approval Explanation: To "breach" means to break or to break into something. You can tell from the answer choices that "breach" is used as a verb, not as a noun. B is the correct answer. To "solder" is to unite parts or to mend a break. To "garner" is to gather. To "keep silent" is to refrain from speaking or making noise. To "move forward" is to go ahead or to make progress. To "give approval" is to express a favorable opinion.

Page 39: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

39

38. EXTANT: A. extensive B. extraneous C. extricable D. extinct E. extra Explanation: "Extant" means still existing. It may refer to living things, or to documents or other inanimate objects. D is the correct answer. "Extinct" means, in the case of an animal or kind of animal, no longer existing or living. To be "extensive" means to cover a large area. Something that is "extensive" must still exist. "Extraneous" means inessential, but it does not imply nonexistence. Something "extricable" can be removed or disentangled. Such a thing is not nonexistent. "Extra" means additional. It may imply unimportance, but it does not imply nonexistence. 39. SPIRITUAL: A. eclectic B. figurative C. ephemeral D. immoral E. corporeal Explanation: "Spiritual" refers to matters of the spirit rather than to the material world or the body. E is the correct answer. "Corporeal" mean of the body or the material world. To be "eclectic" is to draw or be drawn from a variety of sources. Its use is not limited either to the realm of the material or to the realm of the immaterial. "Figurative" refers to a way of representing something rather than to its nature, so "figurative" cannot be the opposite of "spiritual". "Ephemeral" means lasting for a very short time. Something "immoral" does not conform to a standard of morality. Though morality is sometimes seen as a concern of the "spiritual' world, "immoral" is not the opposite of "spiritual". 40. INCURSION: A. loss of respect B. lack of resolve C. reparation D. relapse E. retreat Explanation: An "incursion" is an intrusion into another's territory. It suggests aggression, and is often used in a military context. "Retreat" is often used in a military context to describe an end to formal aggression, a backing off from a former position. Though "retreat" is more general than

Page 40: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

40

"incursion" in that it does not necessarily refer to a position in another's territory, it is still the answer most nearly opposite to "incursion". To make an "incursion" does not necessarily inspire respect in those whose territory is invaded, so a "loss of respect" is not the opposite of "incursion." It is likely that "incursion" is preceded by a certain amount of resolve, but a "lack of resolve" is not the opposite of an intrusion. "Reparation" (repaying wartime damages, or making amends) may be required as a result of an "incursion," but repayment is not the opposite of an intrusion. A "relapse" is a return to a previous, undesirable state. It is not the opposite of an intrusion. 41. TRACTABILITY: A. infertility B. implausibility C. incorrigibility D. impenetrability E. indefatigability Explanation: "Tractability" can be a characteristic of either persons or materials. When applied to materials, it suggests that something is easily changed or molded. When "tractability" refers to a person, it implies obedience or a tendency to be easily influenced by others. C is the correct answer. One who is incorrigible cannot be changed. "Incorrigibility" implies an unwillingness to be influenced by others. "Infertility" means inability to produce or reproduce. It does not imply anything about character when it is used to describe persons. "Implausibility" means unbelievability. "Impenetrability" may, in some circumstances, suggest unwillingness to be influenced by others, but it goes further in that it implies an obliviousness to efforts to influence. An impenetrable person is unaware that influence is being exerted. "Indefatigability" means tirelessness. It does not, by itself, imply resistance to influence. 42. SAVANT: A. flatterer B. bore C. unlearned person D. unprincipled individual E. misunderstood advisor Explanation: A "savant" is a person characterized by great knowledge, especially knowledge acquired from books. C is the correct answer. An "unlearned person" is one who has not acquired great knowledge through reading or other experience. A "flatterer" is one who praises others excessively in order to achieve some end. One who flatters may or may not have great knowledge. A "bore" is a person who is unable to hold the interest of others. A "savant" could also be a "bore". An "unprincipled individual" is one who is unethical. Such a person may or may not have great knowledge. A "misunderstood advisor" is one whose advice is not properly comprehended. Such a person may or may not have great knowledge. 43. AVER: A. collect

Page 41: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

41

B. augment C. placate D. deny E. encourage Explanation: To "aver" means to state that something is certainly true, or to prove something positively to be true. D is the correct answer. To "deny' is to state that something is false. To "collect" means to gather, and could refer to evidence in support of a position, but it does not refer to a statement or to proof. To "augment" means to make greater. To "placate" means to soothe. The ability of a statement to placate is not necessarily related to the certainty or truth of its content. To "encourage" is to inspire or to help along. Encouragement is not concerned with truth or the lack of it. 44. FACETIOUS: A. lugubrious B. contentious C. ingenuous D. prodigious E. audacious Explanation:

"Facetious" means humorous. It implies, specifically, that a special

effort to be funny has been made. A is the correct answer. "Lugubrious"

means mournful and implies that a special attempt to appear mournful is

being made. "Contentious" means likely to argue or to cause an argument.

"Ingenuous" means honest, unable to hide one' feelings. "Prodigious"

means very large. "Audacious" means bold or daring.

READING COMPLEHENSION

Reading Passage 1

The evolution of intelligence among early large mammals of the grasslands was due in great measure to the interaction between two ecologically synchronized groups of these animals, the hunting carnivores and the herbivores that they hunted. The interaction resulting from the differences between predator and prey led to a general improvement in brain functions; however, certain components of intelligence were improved far more than others.

Page 42: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

42

The kind of intelligence favored by the interplay of increasingly smarter catchers and increasingly keener escapers is defined by attention-that aspect of mind carrying consciousness forward from one moment to the next. It ranges from a passive, free-floating awareness to a highly focused, active fixation. The range through these states is mediated by the arousal system, a network of tracts converging from sensory systems to integrating centers in the brain stem. From the more relaxed to the more vigorous levels, sensitivity to novelty is increased. The organism is more awake, more vigilant; this increased vigilance results in the apprehension of ever more subtle signals as the organism becomes more sensitive to its surroundings. The processes of arousal and concentration give attention its direction. Arousal is at first general, with a flooding of impulses in the brain stem; then gradually the activation is channeled. Thus begins concentration, the holding of consistent images. One meaning of intelligence is the way in which these images and other alertly searched information are used in the context of previous experience. Consciousness links past attention to the present and permits the integration of details with perceived ends and purposes.

The elements of intelligence and consciousness come together marvelously to produce different styles in predator and prey. Herbivores and carnivores develop different kinds of attention related to escaping or chasing. Although in both kinds of animal, arousal stimulates the production of adrenaline and norepinephrine by the adrenal glands, the effect in herbivores is primarily fear, whereas in carnivores the effect is primarily aggression. For both, arousal attunes the animal to what is ahead. Perhaps it does not experience forethought as we know it,but the animal does experience something like it. The predator is searchingly aggressive, innerdirected, tuned by the nervous system and the adrenal hormones, but aware in a sense closer to human consciousness than, say, a hungry lizard's instinctive snap at a passing beetle. Using past events as a framework, the large mammal predator is working out a relationship between movement and food, sensitive to possibilities in cold trails and distant sounds-and yesterday's unforgotten lessons. The herbivore prey is of a different mind. Its mood of wariness rather than searching and its attitude of general expectancy instead of anticipating are silk-thin veils of tranquility over an explosive endocrine system.

1.The author is primarily concerned with (A) disproving the view that herbivores are less intelligent than carnivores (B) describing a relationship between animals' intelligence and their ecological roles (C) establishing a direct link between early large mammals and their modern

counterparts (D) analyzing the ecological basis for the dominance of some carnivores over other

carnivores (E) demonstrating the importance of hormones in mental activity Answer: (B) Explanation:

Page 43: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

43

This question asks you identify the author's primary concern. The author makes a number of different points, but all of them are focused on a single main concern. The primary concern of the passage is introduced in the first paragraph, and the rest of the passage presents additional information about the relationship described in that paragraph. 2. The author refers to a hungry lizard (lines 68-69) primarily in order to (A) demonstrate the similarity between the hunting methods of mammals and those

of nonmammals (B) broaden the application of his argument by including an insectivore as an

example (C) make a distinction between higher and lower levels of consciousness (D) provide an additional illustration of the brutality characteristic of predators (E) offer an objection to suggestions that all animals lack consciousness Answer: (C) Explanation: This question refers you to a specific element in the passage. You are to identify the role this element plays in the passage, specifically its role in furthering the author's argument. The "hungry lizard's instinctive snap" is contrasted with the mammal's awareness. The purpose of the contrast is to make a distinction between higher and lower levels of consciousness. 3. It can be inferred from the passage that in animals less intelligent than the mammals discussed in the passage (A) past experience is less helpful in ensuring survival (B) attention is more highly focused (C) muscular coordination is less highly developed (D) there is less need for competition among species (E) environment is more important in establishing the proper ratio of prey to

predator Answer: (A) Explanation: This question asks you to draw a conclusion from the information in the passage about animals, not discussed in the passage, that are less intelligent than the animals that are discussed. In lines 40-44, the author defines intelligence in terms of an animals use of past experience. In the context of the entire passage, it can be inferred that more intelligent animals, such as the grassland mammals discussed, are better able to use past experience to help them survive than are less intelligent animals. 4. The sensitivity described in lines 70-76 is most clearly an example of (A) "free-floating awareness" (lines 20-21) (B) "flooding of impulses in the brain stem" (lines 36-37)

Page 44: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

44

(C) "the holding of consistent images" (lines 39-40) (D) "integration of details with perceived ends and purposes" (lines 45-47) (E) "silk-thin veils of tranquility"(lines 80-81) Answer: (D) Explanation: To answer this question, you must determine the meaning of the word quoted from the passage in each answer, and then determine which quotation is most clearly illustrated by the words quoted in lines 70-76. In lines 70-76, the animal's sensitivity connects "details" such as cold trails and distant sounds with food, the perceived end. 5. The author's attitude toward the mammals discussed in the passage is best described as (A) superior and condescending (B) lighthearted and jocular (C) apologetic and conciliatory (D) wistful and tender (E) respectful and admiring Answer: (E) Explanation: This question asks you to use information in the passage to judge the author's attitude toward the main subject, intelligent mammals. The author's description of the animals' intelligence and ability to focus attention, as well as the statement that these elements come together "marvelously" (lines 49-50), suggests that the author respects and admires at least some of their characteristics. 6. The author provides information that would answer which of the following questions? I. Why is an aroused herbivore usually fearful? II. What are some of the degrees of attention in large mammals? III. What occurs when the stimulus that causes arousal of a mammal is removed? (A) I only (B) III only (C) I and II only (D) II and III only (E) I, II and III Answer: (C) Explanation: To answer this question, you must first determine which of the three questions (I,II, and III) can be answered using the information in the passage. Then you must determine which of the given answer choices includes the Roman numerals of those questions. I can be answered. An aroused herbivore is fearful because it must be ready

Page 45: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

45

for what is ahead, including escaping from a predator. II can be answered. Lines 19-21 describe two degrees of attention in large mammals, the highest degree and the lowest. III cannot be answered. The author discusses only animals' reactions to the presence of stimuli, not their reaction to the removal of a stimulus. Both I and II can be answered using information provided in the passage. 7. According to the passage, improvement in brain function among early large mammals resulted primarily from which of the following? (A) Interplay of predator and prey (B) Persistence of free-floating awareness in animals of the grasslands (C) Gradual dominance of warm-blooded mammals over cold-blooded reptiles (D) Interaction of early large mammals with less intelligent species (E) Improvement of the capacity for memory among herbivores and carnivores Answer: (A) Explanation: This question asks you to identify a reason given in the passage for improved brain function among early large mammals. A directly paraphrases the statement in lines 7-10, which describes the author's view of the development of improved brain function in early mammals. 8. According to the passage, as the process of arousal in an organism continues, all of the following may occur EXCEPT (A) the production of adrenaline (B) the production of nor epinephrine (C) a heightening of sensitivity to stimuli (D) an increase in selectivity with respect to stimuli (E) an expansion of the range of states mediated by the brain stem

Answer: (E) Explanation: This question asks you what does NOT occur during arousal. To answer the question, you must first determine what does occur. There is no indication in the passage that the range of states mediated by the brain stem expands during arousal.

Reading Passage 2

Great comic art is never other-wordly, it does not seek to mystify us, and it does not deny ambiguity by branding as evil whatever differs from good. Great comic artists assume that truth may bear all lights, and thus they seek to accentuate contradictions in social action, not gloss over or transcend them by appeals to extrasocial symbols of divine ends, cosmic purpose, or laws of nature. The moment of transcendence in great comic art is a social moment, born out of the conviction that we are human, even though we try to be gods. The comic community to which artists address themselves is a community of reasoning, loving, joyful, compassionate beings, who are willing to

Page 46: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

46

assume the human risks of acting rationally. Without invoking gods or demons, great comic art arouses courage in reason, courage which grows out of trust in what human beings can do as humans.

1.The passage suggests that great comic art can be characterized as optimistic about the ability of humans to (A) rid themselves of pride (B) transcend the human condition (C) differentiate clearly between good and evil (D) avoid social conflicts (E) act rationally Answer: (E) Explanation: This question asks you to identify a human ability about which great comic art is optimistic, that is, an ability that great comic art attributes to humans. According to the passage, the "comic community" is made up of people willing to "assume the human risks of acting rationally." That comic artists address themselves to this audience suggests optimism about the ability of humans to "act rationally". 2. It can be inferred from the passage that the author admires great comic artists primarily for their (A) ability to understand the frequently subtle differences between good and evil (B) ability to reconcile the contradictions in human behavior (C) ability to distinguish between rational and irrational behavior (D) insistence on confronting the truth about the human condition (E) insistence on condemning human faults and weaknesses Answer: (D) Explanation: This question asks you to identify the characteristic of great comic artists that the author most admires. The answer is not stated directly in the passage, but must be inferred. That great comic artists confront the truth about the human condition is implied in the author's statements that great comic art does not seek to mystify us, to deny ambiguity or to gloss over contradictions in social action. By calling the art "great", the author expresses admiration. Therefore, this is the correct answer. 3. Which of the following is the most accurate description of the organization of the passage? (A) A sequence of observations leading to a prediction (B) A list of inferences drawn from facts stated at the beginning of the passage (C) A series of assertions related to one general subject (D) A statement of the major idea, followed by specific examples (E) A succession of ideas moving from specific to general

Page 47: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

47

Answer: (C) Explanation: This question asks you to identify the most accurate description of the organization of the passage. In order to answer, you must consider all the elements in the passage and the relationships among them. C is the correct answer. The passage consists of a series of assertions, based on the author's opinions, related to the general subject of great comic art.

Reading Passage 3

The dark regions in the starry night sky are not pockets in the universe that are devoid of stars as had long been thought. Rather, they are dark because of interstellar dust that hides the stars behind it. Although its visual effect is so pronounced, dust is only a minor constituent of the material, extremely low in density, that lies between the stars. Dust accounts for about one percent of the total mass of interstellar matter. The rest is hydrogen and helium gas, with small amounts of other elements. The interstellar material, rather liketerrestrial clouds, comes in all shapes and sizes. The average density of interstellar material in the vicinity of our Sun is 1,000 to 10,000 times less than the best terrestrial laboratory vacuum. It is only because of the enormous interstellar distances that so little material per unit of volume becomes so significant. Optical astronomy is most directly affected, for although interstellar gas is perfectly transparent, the dust is not.

1.According to the passage, which of the following is a direct perceptual consequence of interstellar dust? (A) Some stars are rendered invisible to observers on Earth. (B) Many visible stars are made to seem brighter than they really are. (C) The presence of hydrogen and helium gas is revealed. (D) The night sky appears dusty at all times to observers on Earth. (E) The dust is conspicuously visible against a background of bright stars. Answer: (A) Explanation: This question asks you to identify an effect that the dust that lies between the stars has on the perceptions of observers on Earth. A is the correct answer. According to the passage, interstellar dust hides the stars behind it. 2. It can be inferred from the passage that the density of interstellar material is (A) higher where distances between the stars are shorter (B) equal to that of interstellar dust (C) unusually low in the vicinity of our Sun (D) independent of the incidence of gaseous components (E) not homogeneous throughout interstellar space

Page 48: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

48

Answer: (E) Explanation: This question asks you to draw a conclusion about the density of the material that exists between the stars. The answer is not necessarily stated in the passage, but must be inferred by putting together pieces of information found in the passage. E is the best answer. The passage compares the interstellar material to clouds, saying that it "comes in all shapes and sizes" (lines 15-16); this suggests that the material is not uniformly distributed throughout interstellar space. Also, the reference to the "average density" of the interstellar material in the vicinity of our Sun (lines 16-17) suggests that the density of interstellar material varies from region to region and is not homogeneous. 3. It can be inferred from the passage that it is because space is so vast that (A) little of the interstellar material in it seems substantial (B) normal units of volume seem futile for measurements of density (C) stars can be far enough from Earth to be obscured even by very sparsely

distributed matter (D) interstellar gases can, for all practical purposes, be regarded as transparent (E) optical astronomy would be of little use even if no interstellar dust existed Answer: (C) Explanation: This question asks what effect the vastness of space has. The answer is not necessarily stated in the passage, but must be inferred by putting together pieces of information found in the passage. C is the correct answer. The matter between the stars is very sparsely distributed (of very low density), but it is not transparent, according to the last sentence in the passage. Stars can be obscured by it. The author's statement that " It is only because of the enormous interstellar distances that so little material per unit of volume becomes so significant" indicates that it is the vastness of space that accounts for the obscuring of the stars by material of low density.

Reading Passage 4

In his 1976 study of slavery in the United States, Herbert Gutman, like Fogel, Engerman, and Genovese, has rightly stressed the slaves' achievements. But unlike these historians, Gutman gives plantation owners little credit for these achievements. Rather, Gutman argues that one must look to the Black family and the slaves' extended kinship system to understand how crucial achievements, such as the maintenance of a cultural heritage and the development of a communal consciousness, were possible.

Page 49: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

49

His findings compel attention. Gutman recreates the family and extended kinship structure mainly through an ingenious use of what any historian should draw upon, quantifiable data, derived in this case mostly from plantation birth registers. He also uses accounts of ex-slaves to probe the human reality behind his statistics. These sources indicate that the two-parent household predominated in slave quarters just as it did among freed slaves after emancipation. Although Gutman admits that forced separation by sale was frequent, he shows that the slaves'preference, revealed most clearly on plantations where sale was infrequent, was very much for stable monogamy. In less conclusive fashion Fogel, Engerman, and Genovese had already indicated the predominance of two-parent households; however, only Gutman emphasizes the preference for stable monogamy and points out what stable monogamy meant for the slaves' cultural heritage. Gutman argues convincingly that the stability of the Black family encouraged the transmission of-and so was crucial in sustaining-the Black heritage of folklore, music, and religious expression from one generation to another, a heritage that slaves were continually fashioning out of their African and American experiences.

Gutman's examination of other facets of kinship also produces important findings. Gutman discovers that cousins rarely married, an exogamous tendency that contrasted sharply with the endogamy practiced by the plantation owners. This preference for exogamy, Gutman suggests, may have derived from West African rules governing marriage, which, though they differed from one tribal group to another, all involved some kind of prohibition against unions with close kin. This taboo against cousins' marrying is important, argues Gutman, because it is one of many indications of a strong awareness among slaves of an extended kinship network.

The fact that distantly related kin would care for children separated from their families also suggests this awareness.When blood relationships were few, as in newly created plantations in the Southwest, "fictive" kinship arrangements took their place until a new pattern of consanguinity developed. Gutman presents convincing evidence that this extended kinship structure-which he believes developed by the mid-to-late eighteenth century-provided the foundations for the strong communal consciousness that existed among slaves.

In sum, Gutman's study is significant because it offers a closely reasoned and original explanation of some of the slaves' achievements, one that correctly emphasizes the resources that slaves themselves possessed.

1.According to the passage, Fogel, Engerman, Genovese, and Gutman have all done which of the following? I. Discounted the influence of plantation owners on slaves' achievements. II. Emphasized the achievements of slaves. III. Pointed out the prevalence of the two-parent household among slaves. IV. Showed the connection between stable monogamy and slaves' cultural heritage. (A) I and II only

Page 50: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

50

(B) I and IV only (C) II and III only (D) I, III, and IV only (E) II, III, and IV only Answer: (C) Explanation: This question asks you to compare Gutman's work with the work of other historians mentioned in the passage. The historians Fogel, Engerman, and Genovese are mentioned in line 3, and again in lines 34-35. I is not an answer. According to lines 6-7, Gutman is unlike the other historians in that he discounts the influence of plantation owners on slaves' achievements. II is an answer. According to lines 2-5, Gutman, like the other historians, stressed slaves' achievements. III is an answer. According to lines 24-27, Fogel, Engerman, and Genovese pointed out the prevalence of two parent households among slaves. Lines 16-23 describe Gutman's citing of sources to document the prevalence of two parent households. IV is not an answer. According to lines 28-33, only Gutman shows the relationship between stable monogamy and the slaves' cultural heritage. C is the correct answer. II and III both describe something that all the historians have done. I and IV do not. 2. With which of the following statements regarding the resources that historians ought to use would the author of the passage be most likely to agree? (A) Historians ought to make use of written rather than oral accounts. (B) Historians should rely primarily on birth registers. (C) Historians should rely exclusively on data that can be quantified. (D) Historians ought to make use of data that can be quantified. (E) Historians ought to draw on earlier historical research but they should do so in

order to refute it. Answer: (D) Explanation: This question asks you to infer something about the author's beliefs concerning historians' resources. In lines 18-19, the author mentions, " what an y historian should draw upon," that is, the resources that historians ought to use. D is the correct answer. Lines 18-20 indicate the author's belief that historians should make use of quantifiable date. 3. Which of the following statements about the formation of the Black heritage of folklore, music, and religious expression is best supported by the information presented in the passage? (A) The heritage was formed primarily out of the experiences of those slaves who

attempted to preserve the stability of their families. (B) The heritage was not formed out of the experiences of those slaves who married

their cousins.

Page 51: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

51

(C) The heritage was formed more out of the African than out of the American experiences of slaves.

(D) The heritage was not formed out of the experiences of only a single generation of slaves.

(E) The heritage was formed primarily out of slaves' experiences of interdependence on newly created plantations in the Southwest.

Answer: (D) Explanation: This question asks you to make an inference about the formation of black cultural heritage. The answer is not necessarily stated in the passage, but information in the passage permits you to make an inference. D is the correct answer. According to the passage, Black culture was passed form one generation to another and was being continually fashioned out of both African and American experiences. These two factors suggest that the heritage grew out of the experience of more than one generation. 4. It can be inferred from the passage that, of the following, the most probable reason why a historian of slavery might be interested in studying the type of plantations mentioned in line 31 is that this type would (A) give the historian access to the most complete plantation birth registers (B) permit the historian to observe the kinship patterns that had been most popular

among West African tribes (C) provide the historian with evidence concerning the preference of freed slaves for

stable monogamy (D) furnish the historian with the opportunity to discover the kind of marital

commitment that slaves themselves chose to have (E) allow the historian to examine the influence of slaves' preferences on the actions

of plantation owners Answer: (D) Explanation: This question asks you to identify the most likely reason for a historian's interest in plantations where the sale of slaves was infrequent. The answer can be inferred from the information found in lines 30-33, where it is mentioned that on these plantations the slaves' preference for stable monogamy was revealed most clearly. D is the best answer. It can be inferred that, because sale was infrequent on the plantations mentioned in lines 31-32, families were not separated against their wishes, and so the marital commitments they themselves chose were more likely to be evident. 5. According to the passage, all of the following are true of the West African rules governing marriage mentioned in lines (57-61) EXCEPT: (A) The rules were derived from rules governing fictive kinship arrangements. (B) The rules forbade marriages between close kin.

Page 52: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

52

(C) The rules are mentioned in Herbert Gutman's study. (D) The rules were not uniform in all respects from one West African tribe to

another. (E) The rules have been considered to be a possible source of slaves' marriage

preferences. Answer: (A) Explanation: This question refers you to a specific portion of the passage. Lines 59-63 describe West African rules governing marriage. You are to determine, from the information in these lines or in other parts of the passage, which statement is NOT true of these rules. A is the correct answer. Fictive kinship arrangements are mentioned later in the passage. These arrangements resulted from a set of circumstances peculiar to the settlement of new plantations and did not give rise to the marriage rules of West Africa. 6. Which of the following statements concerning the marriage practices of plantation owners during the period of Black slavery in the United States can most logically be inferred from the information in the passage. (A) These practices began to alter sometime around the mid-eighteenth century. (B) These practices varied markedly from one region of the country to another. (C) Plantation owners usually based their choice of marriage partners on economic

considerations. (D) Plantation owners often married earlier than slaves. (E) Plantation owners often married their cousins. Answer: (E) Explanation: This question asks you to draw a logical conclusion from the information in the passage about the marriage practices of plantation owners. (Marriage practices of plantation owners are mentioned only in lines 56-57.) E is the correct answer. According to lines 54-57, slaves rarely married their own cousins. This contrasted sharply with the endogamy (marriage within the same family) practiced by the plantation owners. It can be inferred, therefore, that plantation owners did marry their own cousins. 7. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage? (A) The author compares and contrasts the work of several historians and then

discusses areas for possible new research. (B) The author presents his thesis, draws on the work of several historians for

evidence to support his thesis, and concludes by reiterating his thesis. (C) The author describes some features of a historical study and then uses those

features to put forth his own argument.

Page 53: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

53

(D) The author summarizes a historical study, examines two main arguments from the study, and then shows how the arguments are potentially in conflict with one another.

(E) The author presents the general argument of a historical study, describes the study in more detail, and concludes with a brief judgments of the study's value.

Answer: (E) Explanation: This question asks you to identify the best description of the organization of the passage, that is, the relationship of the parts of the passage to one another. E is the correct answer choice. The author describes the general argument of Gutman's study in lines 8-14. He then describes the details of Gutman's study and, in lines 84-87, states the significance of the study. 8. Which of the following is the most appropriate title for the passage, based on its content? (A) The Influence of Herbert Gutman on Historians of Slavery in the United States (B) Gutman's Explanation of How Slaves Could Maintain a Cultural Heritage and

Develop a Communal Consciousness (C) Slavery in the United States: New Controversy About an Old Subject (D) The Black Heritage of Folklore, Music, and Religious Expression: Its Growing

Influence (E) The Black Family and Extended Kinship Structure: How They Were Important

for the Freed Slave Answer: (B) Explanation: This question asks you to identify the title that best describes the content of the passage. B is the correct answer. The main subject of the passage is Gutman's theory that extended kinship systems among slaves and the stability of slave families led to development of communal consciousness and the maintenance of cultural heritage.

Reading Passage 5

"I want to criticize the social system, and to show it at work, at its most intense." Virginia Woolf's provocative statement about her intentions in writing Mrs. Dalloway has regularly been ignored by the critics, since it highlights an aspect of her literary interests very different from the traditional picture of the "poetic" novelist concerned with examining states of reverie and vision and with following the intricate pathways of individual consciousness. But Virginia Woolf was a realistic as well as a poetic novelist, a satirist and social critic as well as a visionary: literary critics' cavalier dismissal of Woolf's social vision will not withstand scrutiny.

In her novels, Woolf is deeply engaged by the questions of how individuals are shaped (or deformed) by their social environments, how historical forces impinge on

Page 54: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

54

people's lives, how class, wealth, and gender help to determine people's fates. Most of her novels are rooted in a realistically rendered social setting and in a precise historical time.

Woolf's focus on society has not been generally recognized because of her intense antipathy to propaganda in art. The pictures of reformers in her novels are usually satiric or sharply critical. Even when Woolf is fundamentally sympathetic to their causes, she portrays people anxious to reform their society and possessed of a message or program as arrogant or dishonest, unaware of how their political ideas serve their own psychological needs. (Her Writer's Diary notes: "the only honest people are the artists," whereas "these social reformers and philanthropists...harbor...discreditable desires under the disguiseof loving their kind....") Woolf detested what she called "preaching" in fiction, too, and criticized novelist D.H.Lawrence(among others) for working by this method.

Woolf's own social criticism is expressed in the language of observation rather than in direct commentary, since for her, fiction is a contemplative, not an active art. She describes phenomena and provides materials for a judgment about society and social issues; it is the reader's work to put the observations together and understand the coherent point of view behind them. As a moralist, Woolf works by indirection, subtly under-mining officially accepted mores, mocking, suggesting, calling into question, rather than asserting, advocating, bearing witness: hers is the satirist's art.

Woolf's literary models were acute social observers like Checkhov and Chaucer. As she put it in The Common Reader. "It is safe to say that not a single law has been framed or one stone set upon another because of anything Chaucer said or wrote; and yet, as we read him, we are absorbing morality at every pore." Like Chaucer, Woolf chose to understand as well as to judge, to know her society root and branch-a decision curcial in order to produce art rather than polemic.

1. Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for the passage? (A) Poetry and Satire as Influences on the Novels of Virginia Woolf (B) Virginia Woolf: Critic and Commentator on the Twentieth-Century Novel (C) Trends in Contemporary Reform Movements as a Key to Understanding

Virginia Woolf's Novels (D) Society as Allegory for the Individual in the Novels of Virginia Woolf (E) Virginia Woolf's Novels: Critical Reflections on the Individual and on Society Answer: (E) Explanation: This question asks you to identify the most appropriate title for the passage. You should consider the passage as a self-contained unit, not as part of a larger work. E is the correct answer. The topics of the passage is Woolf's novels, and the author emphasizes that the novels contain observations concerning "how individuals are shaped (or deformed) by their social environments" (lines 20-22).

Page 55: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

55

2. In the first paragraph of the passage, the author's attitude toward the literary critics mentioned can best be described as (A) disparaging (B) ironic (C) factious (D) skeptical but resigned (E) disappointed but hopeful Answer: (A) Explanation: The literary critics discussed in the first paragraph ignored Woolf's intention to criticize society and saw her as a "poetic' novelist unconcerned with the real world. This question asks you to identify the tone of the remarks made by the author of the passage concerning this assessment of Woolf's work. A is the correct choice. The author's characterization of the critics' assessment as "cavalier"(line 16) can be described as "disparaging" 3. It can be inferred from the passage that Woolf chose Chaucer as a literary model because she believed that (A) Chaucer was the first English author to focus on society as a whole as well as on

individual characters (B) Chaucer was an honest and forthright author, whereas novelists like D, H,

Lawrence did not sincerely wish to change society (C) Chaucer was more concerned with understanding his society than with calling

its accepted mores into question (D) Chaucer's writing was greatly, if subtly, effective in influencing the moral

attitudes of his readers (E) her own novels would be more widely read if, like Chaucer, she did not overtly

and vehemently criticize contemporary society Answer: (D) Explanation: The author discusses Woolf's literary models, emphasizing Chaucer, in the last paragraph. The reason why Woolf chose Chaucer as her model is not directly stated in the passage but must be inferred from the information there. D is the correct answer. Line 61 indicates that Woolf's work as a moralist is subtle and done " by indirection." Woolf's statement that readers absorb morality at every pore despite the fact that no laws were changed because of Chaucer indicates that she believed Chaucer's influence to be subtle. Therefore, it is likely that it was Chaucer's subtle effectiveness that led Woolf to choose him as a model. 4. It can be inferred from the passage that the most probable reason Woolf realistically described the social setting in the majority of her novels was that she

Page 56: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

56

(A) was aware that contemporary literary critics considered the novel to be the most realistic of literary genres

(B) was interested in the effect of a person's social milieu on his or her character and actions

(C) needed to be as attentive to detail as possible in her novels in order to support the arguments she advanced in them

(D) wanted to show that a painstaking fidelity in the representation of reality did not in any way hamper the artist

(E) wished to prevent critics from charging that her novels were written in an ambiguous and inexact style

Answer: (B) Explanation: In lines 25-28, the author states that Woolf's novels presented social settings realistically. The question asks why Woolf did so. B is the best answer. In lines 19-22, Wooolf's interest in the effect of social environment on the individual is described. The juxtaposition of these lines with the statement in lines 25-28 strongly suggests that Woolf realistically described social settings because she was interested in their effect on character. 5. Which of the following phrases best expresses the sense of the word "contemplative" as it is used in line 51 of the passage? (A) Gradually elucidating the rational structures underlying accepted mores (B) Reflecting on issues in society without prejudice or emotional commitment (C) Avoiding the aggressive assertion of the author's perspective to the exclusion of

the reader's judgment (D) Conveying a broad view of society as a whole rather than focusing on an isolated

individual consciousness (E) Appreciating the world as the artist sees it rather than judging it in moral terms Answer: (C) Explanation: This question refers you to line 54 of the passage so that you can evaluate the context in which the author uses the word "contemplative." You are to choose the definition of "contemplative" that is closest in meaning to the use of the word in that context. C is the best answer. Lines 51-55 suggest that a contemplative art is expressed indirectly, rather than by "aggressive assertion." Lines 57-60 point out that Woolf, as a contemplative novelist, encourages readers to make their own judgements. 6. The author implies that a major element of the satirist's art is the satirist's (A) consistent adherence to a position of lofty disdain when viewing the foibles of

humanity (B) insistence on the helplessness of individuals against the social forces that seek to

determine an individual's fate

Page 57: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

57

(C) cynical disbelief that visionaries can either enlighten or improve their societies (D) fundamental assumption that some ambiguity must remain in a work of art in

order for it to reflect society and social mores accurately (E) refusal to indulge in polemic when presenting social mores to readers for their

scrutiny Answer: (E) Explanation: This question asks you to identify an element that the author thinks is important in the satirist's art. The colon in line 65 indicates that the information in lines 61-65 describing Woolf's work leads to the statement, "hers is the satirist's art." This statement indicates that conclusions about Woolf's work as a satirist can lead you to conclusions about the art of satirists in general. E is the correct answer. Lines 61-65 describe Woolf's satirical art as providing the materials for judgments about mores in an indirect, subtle, and nonassertive way, that is, in a nonpolemical way. 7. The passage supplies information for answering which of the following questions? (A) Have literary critics ignored the social criticism inherent in the work of Chekhov

and Chaucer? (B) Does the author believe that Woolf is solely an introspective and visionary

novelist? (C) What are the social causes with which Woolf shows herself to be sympathetic in

her writings? (D) Was D. H. Lawrence as concerned as Woolf was with creating realistic settings

for his novels? (E) Does Woolf attribute more power to social environment or to historical forces as

shapers of a person's life? Answer: (B) Explanation: This question asks you to determine which of the questions given can be answered using the information in the passage. To make this determination, you must first attempt to answer each question using only the information presented by the author. B is the correct answer. The answer to the question is "No". In lines 13-15, the author characterizes Woolf as realistic and satirical as well as introspective and visionary.

Reading Passage 6

It is a popular misconception that nuclear fusion power is free of radioactivity; in fact, the deuterium-tritium reaction that nuclear scientists are currently exploring with such zeal produces both alpha particles and neutrons, (The neutrons are used to produce tritium from a lithium blanket surrounding the reactor.) Another common misconception is that nuclear fusion power is a virtually unlimited source of energy because of the enormous quantity of deuterium in the sea. Actually, its limits are set by the amount of available lithium, which is about as plentiful as uranium in the

Page 58: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

58

Earth's crust. Research should certainly continue on controlled nuclear fusion, but no energy program should be premised on its existence until it has proven practical. For the immediate future, we must continue to use hydroelectric power, nuclear fission, and fossil fuels to meet our energy needs. The energy sources already in major use are in major use for good reason.

1. The primary purpose of the passage is to (A) criticize scientists who believe that the deuterium-tritium fusion reaction can be

made feasible as an energy source (B) admonish scientists who have failed to correctly calculate the amount of lithium

(C) defend the continued short-term use of fossil fuels as a major energy source (D) caution against uncritical embrace of nuclear fusion power as a major energy

source (E) correct the misconception that nuclear fusion power is entirely free of

radioactivity Answer: (D) Explanation: This question asks you to determine the primary purpose of the passage. In order to do this, you must take into account all of the information in the passage. D is the best answer. The author mentions several reasons why nuclear fusion should not be accepted as a major source of energy at this time and recommends continued critical evaluation of its potential. 2. It can be inferred from the passage that the author believes which of the following about the current state of public awareness concerning nuclear fusion power? (A) The public has been deliberately misinformed about the advantages and

disadvantages of nuclear fusion power. (B) The public is unaware of the principal advantage of nuclear fusion over nuclear

fission as an energy source. (C) The public's awareness of the scientific facts concerning nuclear fusion power is

somewhat distorted and incomplete. (D) The public is not interested in increasing its awareness of the advantages and

disadvantages of nuclear fusion power. (E) The public is aware of the disadvantages of nuclear fusion power but not of its

advantages. Answer: (C) Explanation: This question asks you to use the specific statements made in the passage to determine what the author believes about public awareness of nuclear fusion power. C is the correct answer. The author specifically mentions two misconceptions about nuclear fusion that he believes are generally held, indicating that he believes that people's knowledge of the scientific facts is incomplete.

Page 59: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

59

3. The passage provides information that would answer which of the following questions? (A) What is likely to be the principal source of deuterium for nuclear fusion power? (B) How much incidental radiation is produced in the deuterium-tritium fusion

reaction? (C) Why are scientists exploring the deuterium-tritium fusion reaction with such

zeal? (D) Why must the tritium for nuclear fusion be synthesized from lithium? (E) Why does the deuterium-tritium reaction yield both alpha particles and

neutrons? Answer: (A) Explanation: This question asks you to determine which of the questions given can be answered using the information in the passage. To make this determination, you must first attempt to answer each question using only the information presented by the author. A is the correct answer. The answer to the question posed in this choice is "the sea." The passage states that it is commonly believed that there is an enormous quantity of deuterium in the sea; the author does not deny this. 4. Which of the following statements concerning nuclear scientists is most directly suggested in the passage? (A) Nuclear scientists are not themselves aware of all of the facts surrounding the

deuterium-tritium fusion reaction. (B) Nuclear scientists exploring the decuterium-tritium reaction have overlooked

key facts in their eagerness to prove nuclear fusion practical. (C) Nuclear scientists may have overestimated the amount of lithium actually

available in the Earth's crust. (D) Nuclear scientists have not been entirely dispassionate in their investigation of

the deuterium-tritium reaction. (E) Nuclear scientists have insufficiently investigated the lithium-to-tritium reaction

in nuclear fusion. Answer: (D) Explanation: The author mentions nuclear scientists only once, near the beginning of the passage. This question asks you to determine what the passage most directly suggests about them. D is the correct answer. The author's statement that scientists are studying the deuterium-tritium reaction with "zeal" suggests that he believes that they are not dispassionate.

Reading Passage 7

Page 60: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

60

It has long been known that the rate of oxidative metabolism (the process that uses oxygen to convert food into energy) in any animal has a profound effect on its living patterns. The high metabolic rate of small animals, for example, gives them sustained power and activity per unit of weight, but at the cost of requiring constant consumption of food and water.

Very large animals, with their relatively low metabolic rates, can survive well on a sporadic food supply, but can generate little metabolic energy per gram of body weight. If only oxidative metabolic rate is considered, therefore, one might assume that smaller, more active, animals could prey on larger ones, at least if they attacked in groups. Perhaps they could if it were not for anaerobic glycolysis, the great equalizer. Anaerobic glcolysis is a process in which energy is produced, without oxygen, through the breakdown of muscle glycogen into lactic acid and adenosine tri-phosphate (ATP), the energy provider. The amount of energy that can be produced anaerobically is a function of the amount of glycogen present-in all vertebrates about 0.5 percent of their muscles' wet weight. Thus the anaerobic energy reserves of a vertebrate are proportional to the size of the animal.

If, for example, some predators had attacked a 100-ton dinosaur, normally torpid, the dinosaur would have been able to generate almost instantaneously, via anaerobic glycolysis, the energy of 3,000 humans at maximum oxidative metabolic energy production. This explains how many large species have managed to compete with their more active neighbor: the compensation for a low oxidative metabolic rate is glycolysis.

There are limitations, however, to this compensation. The glycogen reserves of any animal are good, at most, for only about two minutes at maximum effort, after which only the normal oxidative metabolic source of energy remains. With the conclusion of a burst of activity, the lactic acid level is high in the body fluids, leaving the large animal vulnerable to attack until the acid is reconverted, via oxidative metabolism, by the liver into glucose, which is then sent (in part) back to the muscles for glycogen resynthesis. During this process the enormous energy debt that the animal has run up through anaerobic glycolysis must be repaid, a debt that is proportionally much greater for the larger vertebrates than for the smaller ones. Whereas the tiny shrew can replace in minutes the glycogen used for maximum effort, for example, the gigantic dinosaur would have required more than three weeks. It might seem that this interminably long recovery time in a large vertebrate would prove a grave disadvantage for survival. Fortunately, muscle glycogen is used only when needed and even then only in whatever quantity is necessary. Only in times of panic or during mortal combat would the entire reserves be consumed.

1. The primary purpose of the passage is to (A) refute a misconception about anaerobic glycolysis (B) introduce a new hypothesis about anaerobic glycolysis (C) describe the limitations of anaerobic glycolysis

Page 61: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

61

(D) analyze the chemistry of anaerobic glycolysis and its similarity to oxidative metabolism

(E) explain anaerobic glycolysis and its effects on animal survival Answer: (E) Explanation: This question asks you to identify the primary purpose of the passage. In order to do this, you must consider all the parts of the passage. E is the correct answer. The passage provides information about the nature, chemistry, and limitations of anaerobic glycolysis in order to describe how the process affects animal survival. 2.According to the author, glycogen is crucial to the process of anaerobic glycolysis because glycogen (A) increases the organism's need for ATP (B) reduces the amount of ATP in the tissues (C) is an inhibitor of the oxidative metabolic production of ATP (D) ensures that the synthesis of ATP will occur speedily (E) is the material from which ATP is derived Answer: (E) Explanation: The process of anaerobic glycolysis is described in the second paragraph. You are to determine the role of glycogen in the process. E is the correct answer. According to the first sentence in the second paragraph, glycogen is broken down into APT and lactic acid. It is the material from which ATP is derived, and therefore is crucial to anaerobic glycolysis. 3. According to the author, a major limitation of anaerobic glycolysis is that it can (A) produce in large animals more lactic acid than the liver can safely reconvert (B) necessitate a dangerously long recovery period in large animals (C) produce energy more slowly than it can be used by large animals (D) consume all of the available glycogen regardless of need (E) reduce significantly the rate at which energy is produced by oxidative

metabolism

Answer: (B) Explanation: The limitations of anaerobic glycolysis as a compensation for slow oxidative metabolism are discussed in the third paragraph. To answer this question, you must identify a limitation that the author mentions. B is the best answer. The author describes the recovery period in large animals as "interminably long." Though he denies that it is a "grave disadvantage," he does state that the recovery period leaves the animal vulnerable to attack.

Page 62: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

62

4. The passage suggests that the total anaerobic energy reserves of a vertebrate are proportional to the vertebrate's size because (A) larger vertebrates conserve more energy than smaller vertebrates (B) larger vertebrates use less oxygen per unit weight than smaller vertebrates (C) the ability of a vertebrate to consume food is a function of its size (D) the amount of muscle tissue in a vertebrate is directly related to its size (E) the size of a vertebrate is proportional to the quantity of energy it can utilize Answer: (D) Explanation: This question asks you why anaerobic energy reserves are proportional to a vertebrate's size. The author discusses the relationship of size to anaerobic energy reserves in the second paragraph. The second paragraph states that "The amount of energy that can be produced anaerobically is a function of the amount of glycogen present-in all vertebrates about 0.5 percent of their muscles' wet weight." D is the correct answer. The passage states that the amount of glycogen is a fixed proportion of the vertebrate's muscle weight. If the amount of muscle tissue in a vertebrate is related to its size, then the amount of glycogen must increase with size. Therefore, since the amount of energy that can be produced is a function of the amount of glycogen present, the animal's energy reserves are proportional to its size. 5. The author suggests that, on the basis of energy production, a 100-ton dinosaur would have been markedly vulnerable to which of the following? I. Repeated attacks by a single smaller, more active adversary II. Sustained attack by numerous smaller, more active adversaries III. An attack by an individual adversary of similar size (A) II only (B) I and II only (C) I and III only (D) II and III only (E) I, II, and III Answer: (A) Explanation: This question is concerned with the vulnerability of a 100-ton dinosaur to different kinds of attacks. You are to recognize the situation or situations in which the dinosaur's method of energy production would have made it particularly vulnerable to attack. The author discusses a 100-ton dinosaur in the second paragraph. In the third paragraph the author continues the discussion of how energy production helps the dinosaur and what price the animal's body must pay for this help. I is not an answer. The author's statement in the first paragraph that smaller, more active animals might be able to prey on larger ones "at least if they attacked in groups" suggests that a single smaller, more active adversary would not be a marked threat to a large animal. II is an answer. In the first paragraph, the author states that it is possible that smaller,

Page 63: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

63

more active animals could prey on a larger one if they attacked as a group. In the third paragraph, the author states that the energy generated by anaerobic glycolysis lasts only about two minutes when the animal puts forth maximum effort. After that, the animal is vulnerable to attack until the lactic acid in its body fluids is converted back to glycogen. For the dinosaur, this process takes about three weeks. III is not an answer. The information in the passage suggests that a 100-ton dinosaur and an adversary of similar size would have available similar amounts of energy. Thus, the dinosaur's method of energy production would not have disadvantaged it in this situation by making it particularly vulnerable to attack. A is the correct answer. II is an answer to the question posed; I and III are not answers. 6. It can be inferred from the passage that the time required to replenish muscle glycogen following anaerobic glycolysis is determined by which of the following factors? I. Rate of oxidative metabolism

II. Quantity of lactic acid in the body fluids III. Percentage of glucose that is returned to the muscles (A) I only (B) III only (C) I and II only (D) I and III only (E) I, II, and III Answer: (E) Explanation: To answer this question, you must infer from the information given in the third paragraph what factors influence the amount of time it will take an animal to replace the muscle glycogen it used during the production of energy by means of anaerobic glycolysis. I is an answer. The lactic acid left in the muscles following anaerobic glycolysis is reconverted, by means of oxidative metabolism, into glucose for use in muscle glycogen resynthesis. Therefore, the rate at which oxidative metabolism takes place is a factor in determining how quickly the reconversion takes place. II is an answer. Muscle glycogen is replenished by the reconversion of lactic acid into glucose. If the rate of reconversion is held constant, a larger quantity of lactic acid will take more time to reconvert than will a smaller amount. III is an answer. After lactic acid is reconverted to glucose, part of it is sent to the muscles for glycogen resynthesis. Sending a greater proportion to the muscles will decrease the time required to repay the animal's energy debt. E is the correct answer. I, II and III are all factors. 7. The author is most probably addressing which of the following audiences? (A) College students in an introductory course on animal physiology (B) Historians of science investigating the discovery of anaerobic glycolysis (C) Graduate students with specialized training in comparative anatomy

Page 64: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

64

(D) Zoologists interested in prehistoric animals (E) Biochemists doing research on oxidative metabolism

Answer: (A) Explanation: This question asks you to decide what audience the author is addressing in the passage. To do this, you must note the author's style, as well as the kind of information provided, and what the author assumes about the knowledge already possessed by the audience. A is the correct answer. The topic of the passage, animal energy production, is appropriate for inclusion in an introductory course on animal physiology. The subject matter is complex, as it would be in a college-level course, but technical terms are defined and processes are explained in detail, as they would be in an introductory course. 8. Which of the following best states the central idea of the passage? (A) The disadvantage of a low oxidative metabolic rate in large animals can be

offset by their ability to convert substantial amounts of glycogen into energy. (B) The most significant problem facing animals that have used anaerobic glycolysis

for energy is the resynthesis of its by-product, glucose, into glycogen. (C) The benefits to animals of anaerobic glycolysis are offset by the profound costs

that must be paid. (D) The major factor ensuring that a large animal will triumph over a smaller animal

is the large animal's ability to produce energy via anaerobic glycolysis. (E) The great differences that exist in metabolic rates between species of small

animals and species of large animals can have important effects on the patterns of their activities.

Answer: (A) Explanation: To determine the central idea of the passage, you must take into account the way the passage is organized as well as the kind of information given. A is the correct answer. The passage begins with a discussion of oxidative metabolism and its disadvantage for large animals. The rest of the passage discusses in detail how the disadvantage can be overcome.

Reading Passage 8

Tocqueville, apparently, was wrong. Jacksonian America was not a fluid, egalitarian society where individual wealth and poverty were ephemeral conditions. At least to argues E. Pessen in his iconoclastic study of the very rich in the United States between 1825 and 1850.

Page 65: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

65

Pessen does present a quantity of examples, together with some refreshingly intelligible statistics, to establish the existence of an inordinately wealthy class. Though active in commerce or the professions, most of the wealthy were not self-made, but had inherited family fortunes. In no sense mercurial, these great fortunes survived the financial panics that destroyed lesser ones. Indeed, in several cities the wealthiest one percent constantly increased its share until by 1850 it owned half of the community's wealth. Although these observations are true, Pessen overestimates their importance by concluding from them that the undoubted progress toward inequality in the late eighteenth century continued in the Jacksonian period and that the United States was a class-ridden, plutocratic society even before industrialization.

1. According to the passage, Pessen indicates that all of the following were true of the very wealthy in the United States between 1825 and 1850 EXCEPT: (A) They formed a distinct upper class. (B) Many of them were able to increase their holdings. (C) Some of them worked as professionals or in business. (D) Most of them accumulated their own fortunes. (E) Many of them retained their wealth in spite of financial upheavals. Answer: (D) Explanation:

The author of the passage discusses the work of another author, Pessen. This question asks what statements the author of the passage attributes to pessen concerning the very wealthy in the United States between 1825 and 1850. You are to identify the one statement that CANNOT be correctly attributed to Pessen. Therefore, you must first determine which of the statements given can be attributed to Pessen. D is the correct answer. According to the second paragraph, "most of the wealthy were not self-made, but had inherited family fortunes." Therefore, they did NOT accumulate their own fortunes.

2.The author's attitude toward Pessen's presentation of statistics can be best described as (A) disapproving (B) shocked (C) suspicious (D) amused (E) laudatory Answer: (E)

Explanation:

Page 66: GRE-Sample-Verbal-Questions

66

To answer this question, you must determine the attitude of the author of the passage toward Pessen's presentation of statistics. The author of the passage discusses Pessen's statistics near the beginning of the second paragraph. He calls Pessen's statistics "refreshingly intelligible." E is the correct answer. The words "refreshingly intelligible" can be taken as praise, so "laudatory" describes the author's attitude toward Pessen's presentation of statistics.

3. Which of the following best states the author's main point? (A) Pessen's study has overturned the previously established view of the social and

economic structure of early nineteenth-century America. (B) Tocqueville's analysis of the United States in the Jacksonian era remains the

definitive account of this period. (C) Pessen's study is valuable primarily because it shows the continuity of the social

system in the United States throughout the nineteenth century. (D) The social patterns and political power of the extremely wealthy in the United

States between 1825 and 1850 are well documented. (E) Pessen challenges a view of the social and economic system in the United States

from 1825 to 1850, but he draws conclusions that are incorrect.

Answer: (E)

Explanation: This question asks you to identify the main point that the author of the passage makes. To do this, you must separate the author's description of Pessen's work and views from the author's evaluation of Pessen's work.. E is the correct answer. According to the first paragraph, Pessen challenges Tocqueville's view. According to the first paragraph, Pessen challenges Tocquevile's view. According to the second paragraph, Pessen's conclusions are incorrect.