GENERAL KNOWLEDGE Time: 2 HOURS (a) (c) (d)cavalier.in/uploaded_files/userfiles/files/GENERAL KNOWLEDGE.pdf · 42. The Mansabdari system of the Mughals was a complex system. Its efficient

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

Time: 2 HOURS

MAX MARKS: 120

1. When an incandescent electric bulb glows

(a) the electric energy is completely converted

into light

(b) the electric energy is partly converted into

light energy and partly into heat energy

(c) the light energy is converted into electric

energy

(d) the electric energy is converted into

magnetic energy

2. Dirty cloths containing grease and oil stains are

cleaned by adding detergents to water. Stains are

removed because detergent

(a) reduces drastically the surface tension

between water and oil

(b) incre3ases the surface tension between water

and oil

(c) increases the viscosity of water and oil

(d) decreases the viscosity in detergent mixed

water

3. A ray of white light strikes the surface of an object. If

all the colours are reflected the surface would appear

(a) black (b) white (c) grey (d) opaque

4. Which one among the following is not a correct

statement?

(a) Cathode rays are negatively charged

particles

(b) Cathode rays are produced from all the

gases

(c) Electrons are basic constituents of all the

atoms

(d) Hydrogen ions do not contain any proton

5. Light Emitting Diode (LED) converts

(a) light energy into electrical energy

(b) electrical energy into light energy

(c) thermal energy into light energy

(d) mechanical energy into electrical energy

6. In step-down transformer, the AC output gives the

(a) current more than the input current

(b) current less than the input current

(c) current equal to the input current

(d) voltage more than the input voltage

7. Before X-ray examination (coloured X-ray) of the

stomach, patients are given suitable salt of barium

because

(a) barium salts are white in colour and this

helps stomach to appear clearly

(b) barium is a good absorber of X-rays and

helps stomach to appear clearly

(c) Barium salts are easily available

(d) Barium allows X-rays to pass through the

stomach

8. The time period of a simple pendulum having a

spherical wooden bob is 2 s. If the bob is replaced by

a metallic one twice as heavy, the time period will be

(a) more than 2s (b) 2 s

(c) 1s (d) less than 1 s

9. A body has a mass of 6 kg on the Earth: when

measured on the Moon, its mass would be

(a) nearly 1 kg (b) less than 1 kg

(c) less than 6 kg (d) 6 kg

10. If a ship moves from freshwater into seawater, it will

(a) sink completely (b) sink a little bit

(c) rise a little higher (d) remain unaffected

11. Which of the following solutions will not change the

colour of blue litmus paper to red?

1. Acid solution

2. Base solution

3. Common salt solution

Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a)

1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3

(c) Only 1 (d) Only 2

12. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Amnion contains fluid.

2. Ultrasound scan can detect the sex of an

embryo.


Only 1 (b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

13. Consider the following statements.

Statement I Clay layers are poor aquifers. Statement

II The inter-particle space of clay minerals is the

least.

Select the correct answer below

(a) Both the statements are individually true and

Statement II is the correct explanation of

Statement I

(b) Both the statements are individually true but

Statement Il is not the correct explanation of

Statement I

(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

14. What type of mixture is smoke?

(a) Solid mixed with a gas

(b) Gas mixed with a gas

(c) Liquid mixed with a gas

(d) Gas mixed with a liquid and a solid

15. Which one among the following is responsible for the

expansion of water in the ocean?

(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Nitrogen dioxide

(c) Carbon monoxide (d) Sulphur dioxide

16. Food cans are coated with tin but not with zinc

because

(a) zinc is costlier than tin

(b) zinc has a higher melting point than tin

(c) zinc is more reactive than tin

(d) tin is more reactive than zinc

17. Which allotropy of carbon is in rigid three-

dimensional structure?

(a) Graphite (b) Fullerene

(c) Diamond (d) Carbon black

18. Which one among the following gases readily

combines with the hemoglobin of the blood?

(a) Methane (b) Nitrogen dioxide

(c) Carbon monoxide (d) Sulphur dioxide

19. Iodised salt is a

(a) mixture of potassium iodide and common

salt

(b) mixture of molecular iodide and common

salt

(c) compound formed by combination of

potassium iodide and common salt

(d) compound formed by molecular iodine and

common salt

20. In an atomic explosion, release of large amount of

(a) chemical energy into nuclear energy

(b) nuclear energy into heat

(c) mass into energy

(d) chemical energy into heat

21. People suffering from 'anorexia nervosa'

(a) develop paralysis

(b) show poor reflex

(c) cannot speak properly

(d) eat very little and fear gaining weight

22. Which of the following statements is/are correct

regarding fats?

1. Fats are needed for the formation of cell

membrane.

2. Fats help the body to absorb calcium from

food.

3. Fats are required to repair damaged tissue.

4. Body cannot release energy in fats as

quickly as the energy in carbohydrates.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 1 and 4 (b) Only 1 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4

23. In a forest, animals like voles and woodlice feed n

plant roots and barks respectively A owls the o other

carnivores, foxes, shrews and owls, resent in that

forest. Following predictions are made by a group of

observers who have visited the forest.

1. If the roots of the tree develop a, then voles

and foxes will starve and not disease the

owls.

2. Population of voles is dependent on wood

lice population through food web.

3. If owl population declines, it will indirectly

affect wood lice population.

4. If barks of tree are affected due to a disease

then reduction of wood lice will affect the

shrew population forcing owls to eat more

voles.

Which of the above predictions is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2, and 4 (b) Only 3

(C) 1 and 2 (d) Only 2

24. Two strands of DNA are held together by

(a) hydrogen bonds (b) covalent bonds

(c) Electrostatic force (d) Van der Waals'

forces

25. A person feeds on rice and vegetable made up of

potato only. He is likely to suffer from deficiency of

(a) carbohydrate and vitamins

(b) proteins

(c) carbohydrate and proteins

(d) proteins and fats

26. Blood does not coagulate inside the body due to the

presence of

(a) hemoglobin (b) heparin

(c) fibrin (c) plasma

27. What would happen if human blood becomes acidic

(low pH)?

(a) Oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin is

increased

(b) Oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin is

decreased

(c) RBC count increases

(d) RBC count decreases

28. The crew and passengers of a flying aircraft suffer

generally from chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

due to the effect of

(a) solar radiation (b) ozone concentration

(c) nitrogen oxide (d) particulate pollutant

29. The fossil of Archaeopteryx represents the evidence

of origin of

(a) birds from reptiles

(b) mammals from reptiles

(c) reptiles from amphibians

(d) mammals from birds

30. anti-malarial drug quinine is made from a plant. The

plant is

(a) neem (b) eucalyptus

(c) cinnamon (d) cinchona

31. Consider the following statements regarding the

Indus valley civilization

1. A dockyard was been found at lethal

2. A terawatt model of a plough has been found at

Banawali.

3. There is conclusive evidence that Indus valley

civilization was destroyed by Aryans

Which of the following are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2

(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of the above

32. Match the following

List I List II

A. Kitab-al-Hind

B. Rehla

C. Humayun Nama

D. Badshah Nama

1. Ibn Battuta

2. Al- Biruni

3. Lahori

4. Gulbadan Begum

Code

A B C D A B C D

(a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 3 1 4 2

(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 2 1 4 3

33. Consider the following statements concerning the

initial of the Industrial Revolution in England.

1. England was fortunate in that coal and iron ore

were available to be used in industry.

2. Until the 18th century, there was a scarcity of

usable iron.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2


34. Which among the following was the reason of the

resignations of the Indian Ministers in all the

provinces in the year 1939?

a) The Governors refused to act as

constitutional heads

b) The Centre did not provide the required

financial help to provinces

c) The Governor-General converted Indian

administration from federal to unitary one

because of the beginning of the World War

II

d) India was declared a party to the World War

II without the consent of the provincial

government

35. Consider the following statements about the sessions

of I.N.C.

1. First session was held in 1885 in Bombay.

2. The first session was presided by A O Hume.

3. The first Muslim president, Badruddin Tyabji

presided over the Madras session

Which of the following are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 2 (d) All of the above

36. Consider the following statements

1. The second Anglo Afghan war took place during

the time of Lord Lytton.

2. The Ilbert Bill controversy took place during the

tome of Lord Lytton.

Which of these statements is/are correct?



37. In which of the following did Gandhi mention that

British rule was established due to the collaboration

of Indians

a) Hind Swaraj

b) The Story of My Experiments with Truth

c) History of the Satyagraha in South Africa

d) The Bhagavad Gita According to Gandhi

38. Which one among the following statements about

Civil Disobedience Movement is correct?

a) It started with Gandhiji's march to Champaran

b) Under Gandhi-Irwin agreement Congress agreed

to give up Civil Disobedience Movement

c) The British Government was quite soft towards

the movement from the beginning

d) There was no violence during the movement

39. Which one among the following events was

associated with American War of Independence?

(a) Tennis Court Oath (b) Boston Tea Party

(c) Fall of Bastille (d) Reign of Terror

40. Who amongst the following deciphered the Brahmi

and the Kharoshthi scripts?

(a) William Jones (b) Waves hastings

(c) Charles Wolkins (d) James

Princep

41. Which of the following was not a participant in the

triangular struggle in Early Medieval India

(a) Pallavas (b) Rashtrakutas

(c) Pratihavas (d) Palas

42. The Mansabdari system of the Mughals was a

complex system. Its efficient functioning depended

upon

1. the practice of offering the title of ‘Mansabdar’ to

military personnel only.

2. proper functioning of the dagh (branding) system.

3. proper functioning of the jagirdari system.

Select the correct answer using the given below

(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and3

(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these

43. Ibn Batuta’s work, Rihla, completed in 1355, is

a) an autobiography

b) an account of the Delhi Sultans from Aibak to

Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq

c) a religious text

d) an account of trade with morocco


1. Ram Mohan Roy believed in monotheism.

2. Ram Mohan Roy was greatly influences by the

Vedas

3. The Brahma Samaj established by Ram Mohan

Roy split twice, once in 1866 and then in 1878

Which of the following is/are correct

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

45. Dalhousie has been regarded as the maker of modern

India because he brought about reforms and made a

beginning in many fields. Which one among the

following was not one of his schemes of reforms?

a) Educational reforms

b) Construction of railways and introduction of

telegraph and postal services

c) Establishment of a public works department

d) Factories Act to improve the condition of Indian

labour

46. Which one among the following statements is

correct?

a) The Revolt of 1857 was not supported by the

Nizam of Hyderabad

b) Dinabandhu Mitra was the author of the book,

Unhappy India

c) The Sindhias of Gwalior gave shelter to the Rani

of Jhansi

d) Mangal Pandey led the Sepoys March to Delhi

47. Who among the following Governor Generals formed

the Triple Alliance against Tipu Sultan?

(a) Warren Hastings

(b) Lord Cornwallis

(c) Lord Wellesley

(d) Lord William Bentinck


1. The government of India Act of 1919 introduced

diarchy in the provinces

2. This act introduced direct elections in India

Which of the following is/are true

a) only 1 b) only 2

b) Both 1 & 2 d) Neither 1 not 2

49. Identify the correct sequence of the following events

of Indian history (starting with the earliest)

1. The Doctrine of Lapse

2. The Subsidiary Alliance

3. The Treaty of Lahore

4. The Pitt's India Act


4, 2, 3, 1 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4

(c) 2, 1, 4, 3 (d) 3, 2, 1, 4

50. Which among the following was the most V'

immediate factor for the spread of Swadeshi and

boycott of foreign goods during the first decade of the

last century?

a) Curzon's design to curtail the sphere of local self-

government

b) Curzon's attempt to control the universities

c) Curzon's partition of Bengal

d) Curzon's plan to curb the growing popularity of

the Indian National Congress

51. Which of the following methods is/are suitable for

soil conservation in hilly region?

1. Terracing and contour bunding

2. Shifting cultivation

3. Contour ploughing


1 and 3 (b) Only 2

(c) Only 3 (d) All of these

52. Which of the following is/are West flowing river(s)

of India?

1. Mahanadi 2. Krishna

3. Narmada 4. Cauvery


1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 3

(c) Only 3 (d) 1 and 3

53. Which of the following statements relating to

Earthquakes is/are correct?

1. The point of origin of Earthquake is called

epicenter.

2. The lines joining the places which were affected

Earthquake at the same point of time are called

homoseismal lines.




54. Population dividend' refers to

a) total number of population

b) youthful age structure of a population

c) relatively high proportion of experienced aged

people

d) migration from richer region to poorer region

55. Arrange the locations of four oil refineries of India

from west to East.

a) Koyali, Kochi, Panipat, Mathura

b) Kochi, koyali, Panipat, Mathura

c) Koyali, Panipat, Kochi, Mathura

d) Koyali, Panipat, Mathura, Kochi

56. Which of the following statements regarding the

duration of day and night is correct?

a) Difference is least near the Equator and

progressively increases away from it

b) Difference is maximum at the Equator and

progressively decreases away from it

c) Difference is least at the Tropics and

progressively increases towards the Equator and

Poles

d) Difference is maximum at the Tropics and

progressively decreases towards the Equator and

Poles

57. Chinook is a

a) cold wind in Europe

b) tropical desert storm in west Asia

c) warm wind in North America

d) depression to South Africa

58. Why is Himalayan region poor in mineral resources?

a) Himalayan region is made up of crystalline rocks

b) Displacement of rock strata has disturbed the

arrangement of rocks and made it complex

c) The climatic conditions are not suitable for

exploration of minerals

d) The rugged terrain makes exploration of minerals

difficult and costly

59. Which one among the following is responsible for

formation of ‘Ozone Holes’ in the stratosphere?

a) Benzopyrene b) Hydrocarbons

c) Chloro Fluoro Carbons d) UV radiation

60. Arrange the following from North to South

1. Nilgiris 2. Cardamom

3. Ajanta 4. Annamalai

a) 1, 4, 2, 3 b) 3, 1, 4, 2

c) 3, 4, 1, 2 d) 1, 4, 3, 2

61. Which of the following is a warm ocean current?

a) Falkland b) Labrador

c) California d) Gulf stream

62. Which of the following are true of matrilineal

societies?

1. Newly married couple stays with the woman’s

parents.

2. As per the rules of inheritance, the property

passes from mother to daughter.

3. Women play a dominant role in the family.

4. Examples of matrilineal societies are those of the

khasi and Jaintia tribes of Meghalaya.


(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4

63. Oil is found in petroliferous rock. Which one among

the following structures demonstrates an ideal trap?

(a) Horizontal structure (b) Fault structure

(c) Synclinal structure (d) Anticlinal structure

64. ‘Global Dimming’ means

a) gradual increase of the temperature of ionosphere

b) gradual loss of biodiversity hot spots

c) gradual reduction in the amount of global direct

irradiance at the Earth Surface

d) gradual increase in the melting of ice in polar

regions

65. Confirmation of the presence of Higgs Boson will

justify

a) both the standard model and superstring theory

b) the unification of all the four fundamental forces

c) the steady-state model of the universe

d) the mass of the fundamental particles

66. Which parts of the Earth’s surface experience least

variation in incoming solar radiation throughout the

year?

a) Poles

b) Equatorial regions

c) Tropics of Cancer and Capricorn

d) Arctic and Antarctic circles

67. The highest of all spring tides occurs at the time of

a) Full or new moon in association with winter

solstice

b) Full or new moon in association with equinox

c) Full or new moon in association with summer

solstice

d) Winter as well as summer solstices

68. Match List 1 with List II

List I List II

(TRIBE) (STATE)

A. Amandine 1. Orissa

B. Jarawa 2. Lakshadweep

C. Khond 3. Arunachal Pradesh

D. Mushmi 4. Andaman & Nicobar

A B C D

a) 2 3 4 1

b) 4 3 2 1

c) 1 4 2 3

d) 2 4 1 3

69. The Karewas of Kashmir refers to which among the

following types of deposits?

a) Aeolian and glacial b) Fluvial

c) Lacustrine d) Volcanic

70. Which among the following phenomenas can occur

when very warm and humid air is rising over a mass

of a very cold air?

1. Calm weather

2. Snowfall

3. Storms and cyclonic storms

4. Intense rain and hail


a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3

c) 3 and 4 d) 1 and 4

71. Farmers are requested to mix lime with soil while

farming their fields. This is because

a) Lime is very helpful in maintaining the water

content in the soil

b) Lime decreases the acidity of soil

c) Lime decreases the basicity of soil

d) high concentration of lime is necessary for the

plant growth

72. Match the following

List I

(River)

List II

(Tributary)

A. Ganga

B. Indus

C. Yumuna

D. Godavari

1. Chambal and ken

2. Wainganga and

Indravati

3. Chenab and Sutlej

4. Gomti and Kosi

Codes

A B C D A B C D

a) 4 1 3 2 b) 4 3 1 2

c) 2 1 3 4 d) 2 3 1 4

73. Tank irrigation is practiced mainly in Peninsular India

because

1. undulating relief and hard rocks make it difficult

to big canals and wells

2. rivers are rainfed

3. of compact nature of population and agriculture

fields


Codes

a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3 d) All of these


1. Rural forestry aims to raise the trees on

community land and on privately owned land.

2. Farm forestry encourages individual farmers to

plant trees on their own farmland to meet the

domestic need of the family.

Which of the statement (s) given above is/are correct?

a) Only 1 b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2 d) Nei ther 1 nor 2

75. Rain bearing clouds look black because

a) all light is scattered by them

b) the large number of water droplets in them absorb

all the sunlight

c) they reflect the sunlight back into the atmosphere

d) there is a lot of dust condensed on the water vapor

in such clouds

76. Certain Bills cannot be introduced or proceeded with

unless the recommendation of the President is

received. However, no recommendation is required in

some other cases. In which one of the following cases

such recommendation is not required?

a) For introduction of Bills and for moving

amendments relating to financial matters

b) For introduction of a Bill relating to formation of

new states or of alternation of areas of existing

states

c) For moving of an amendment making provision

for the reduction or abolition of any tax

d) For introduction of a Bill or moving of an

amendment affecting taxation in which states are

interested

77. Which of the following statements are correct

regarding Joint Session of the Houses of the

Parliament in India?

1. It is an enabling provision, empowering the

President to take steps for resolving deadlock

between the two Houses.

2. Polity It is not obligatory upon the President to

summon the Houses to meet in a joint sitting.

3. It is being notified by the President.

4. It is frequently resorted to establish the

supremacy of the Lok Sabha.


(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4

78. Consider the following statements about democracy

1. It consists with the formation of government

elected by the people.

2. In democracy, those currently in power have a

fair chance of losing.

3. Each vote has one value.


(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) Only 1 (d) 2 and 3


1. Forming a cooperative society is a Fundamental

Right in India.

2. Cooperative societies do not fall within the ambit

of the Right to Information Act. 2005.

Which of the statement given below is/are correct?

a) Only b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

80. The legislative power of the Parliament includes

making laws

1. on matters not enumerated in the Concurrent List

and State List.

2. in respect of entries in the State List if two or

more State Legislatures consider it desirable

3. for implementing any treaty agreement or

convention with any country even if it falls in the

State List.


a) Only 2 b) 1 and 2

c) 1 and 3 d) All of these

81. In which of the following cases was passive

euthanasia allowed

a) Shyam Narayan Chouksey vs UOI 2018

b) Shakti Vahini vs UOI 2018

c) Common Cause vs UOI 2018

d) Supreme Court Advocates on Retired Association

vs UOI, 2015

82. When the provident reduces period of sentence

without changing us character he uses, power of

(a) Commutation (b) Reprieve

(c) Remission (d) Respite

83. The Committee on Public Accounts under the

Constitution of India is meant for

1. the examination of accounts showing the

appropriation of sums granted by the House for

the expenditure of the Government Of India

2. scrutinizing the report of the Comptroller and

Auditor-General

3. suggesting the form in which estimates shall be

presented on the Parliament

Select the correct answer using the codes given the below

(a) only 1 (b) only 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these

84. The principal of ‘collective responsibility’ under

parliamentary democracy implies that

1. a motion of no-confidence can be moved in the

Council of Ministers as a whole as well as an

individual minister.

2. No person shall be nominated to the cabinet

expect on the advice of the Prime Minister.

3. No person shall be retained as a member of the

Cabinet if the Prime Minister says that he shall be

dismissed.

Select correct answer using the codes given below

(a) only 1 (b) only 2 (c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these

85. The Planning Commission of India has been

constituted

a) under constitutional provision with specific

mention for it

b) through an Act of Parliament

c) through a cabinet decision in this regard

d) through constitutional amendment

86. The maximum life of an ordinance made by the

president is

a) 6 months

b) 6 months and 6 weeks

c) 7 and a half month

d) 6 weeks

87. Which of the following freedoms is not specifically

mentioned in the Constitution of India as a

Fundamental Right but has been subsequently upheld

by the Supreme Court as such?

a) Freedom of trade, occupation and business

b) Freedom to reside and settle in any part of the

country

c) Freedom of association and union

d) Freedom of the press

88. Among the following ideals and philosophy, identify

those enshrined in the Preamble to the Constitution of

India.

1. Sovereign democratic republic.

2. Socialism and secularism.

3. Capitalism and free trade.


(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3

(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3

89. Which of the following pairs of constitutional

authority and procedure of appointment is/are

correctly matched?

1. President : Elected by an electoral college

consisting of elected MLAs and MPs

2. Vice-President : Elected by an electoral college

consisting of MLAs and MPs

3. Speaker : The House of People chooses after its

first sitting


(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 1 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3

90. Which of the following statements is not correct?

a) A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the

Council of States

b) The Council of States has no power to reject or

amend a Money Bill

c) the Council of Ministers is responsible to the

House of the People and not to the Council of

States

d) The House of the People has special powers with

respect to the State List compared to the Council

of States

91. The Government of India Act, 1919

1. Established a bicameral legislature at the centre.

2. Introduced dyarchy in the provincial executive.

3. Introduced a Federal System of Government in

India.


1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1,2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2

92. Which one among the following is a Fundamental

Duties of citizens under the Constitution of India?

a) To provide friendly cooperation to the people of

the neighboring countries

b) To visit the monuments of national importance

c) To defend the country and render national

service when called upon to do so

d) To know more and more about the religions of

India

93. India's Look East Policy was conceived in the early

1990s at a time when India was in the process of

adjusting to the post-cold war watershed changes in

the international geostrategic environment. The Look

East Policy

1. reflects both historical imperatives and

contemporary compulsion of the post-cold war

new world order.

2. seeks to optimize India's synergies in the

extended Asia-Pacific neighborhood.

3. has led to India's participation in Asia-Pacific

forums like ASEAN, East Asia Summit,

BIMSTEC and other institutions.


(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Only 2

94. Which one among the following is not a

constitutional body in India?

a) Comptroller and Auditor General

b) National Commissioner for religious and

Linguistic Minorities

c) National Commission for Scheduled Castes

d) National Human Rights Commission


1. The Anti-Defection Law bans an elected member

from voting against the explicit mandate of

his/her party.

2. The Anti-Defection provisions do not apply if

one-third of the members of a party disobey the

mandate of the party and constitute themselves as

a separate party.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?



96. Which one among the following writs literally means

you may have the body?

(a) Certiorari (b) Habeas Corpus

(c) Mandamus (d) Quo Warranto

97. By which of the following articles does the parliament

has the power to make any law for the whole or part

of territory of India for implementing any treaty,

agreement to which India is a party

a) Article 249 b) Article 250

b) Article 252 d) Article 253

98. Delimitation of constituencies and determination of

constituencies reserved for Scheduled Castes and

Scheduled Tribes are done by

a) Election Commission

b) Delimitation Commission

c) Planning Commission

d) Election Commission with the assistance of

Delimitation

99. “Schedule areas” are declared by the

a) Parliament b) Governor of a state

b) President d) Prime minister

100. What is/are the major difference/differences

between a written and an unwritten Constitution?

1. A written Constitution is the formal source of all

Constitutional Laws in the country and the

unwritten Constitution is not the formal source.

2. A written Constitution is entirely codified

whereas an unwritten Constitution is not.


Only 1 (b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor

101. According to the Companies Act, 2013, 'nominal

capital' implies

a) such part of capital, which has been called for

payment

b) the maximum amount of share capital of a

company

c) such part of capital, which has been received by a

company from its shareholders

d) such capital as the company issues from time to

time for subscription

102. Which of the following statements about India’s

unorganized sector are true?

1. Labour is more in number than that in the

organized sector.

2. Job security and work regulation are better in

unorganized sector.

3. They are usually not organized into trade unions.

4. Workers are usually employed for a limited

number of days.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

a) 1,2 and 4 b) 1,3 and 4

c) 3 and 4 d) 1 and 3

103. Classification of an enterprise into public or

private sector is based on

a) number of employees in the enterprise

b) ownership of assets of the enterprise

c) employment conditions for workers in the

enterprise

d) nature of products manufactured by the

enterprise

104. Which of the following statements about Prof.

CNR Rao is/are correct?

1. He is considered to be an international authority

in solid-state and structural chemistry.

2. He is the first Indian to reach the H-index of 100,

reflecting the economy of the body of his

published research work.


Only 1 (b) Only 2


105. In a perfectly competitive economy production II

and consumption will both be Pareto optimal, if the

economy operates at a point where

a) there is general equilibrium

b) output levels are below equilibrium

c) output levels are above equilibrium

d) consumption is less than output

106. In India, the price of petroleum products has been

deregulated mainly to

a) reduce the burden of subsidies given to the oil

companies

b) discourage the exploration of oil reserves in the

country

c) discourage the demand for private vehicles

d) curb the use of black money in the economy

107. Which one among the following is a fixed cost to

a manufacturing firm in the short run?

a) Insurance on buildings

b) Overtime payment to worker

c) Cost of energy

d) Cost of raw materials

108. Which one among the following is an appropriate

description of deflation?

a) It is a sudden fall in the value of a currency

against other currencies

b) It is a persistent recession in the economy

c) It is a persistent fall in the general price level of

goods and services

d) It is fall in the rate of inflation over a period of

time

109. Which among the following Indians won the

Magasayay award 2018 :

a) Bharat Vatwani and Sonam Wangchuck

b) Devdutt Patnaik and Ramchandra Guha

c) Medha Patkar and Kailash Satyarthi

d) TM Krishna and Sanjiv Chaturvedi

110. World Environment Day is celebrated on 05 Jun,

what was the theme of 2019 :

a) Air Pollution c) Vehicle Pollution

b) Industry pollution d) None of these

111. Under the Adopt a Heritage project which

corporate has signed MOU to maintain Red Fort :

a) Dalmia Bharat c) Reliance Industries

b) Jaypee Group d) Tata Power

112. Consider the following statements about National Register of Citizens:

1. It is a list containing the bona fide Indian Citizens

and Migrants

2. Currently the list is being updated in the state of

Assam

Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?

(a) Only 1 (c)Only 2

(b) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor

113. Poor women have been benefited the most from

which of these schemes :

(a)Saubhagya (b)Deen Dyal Upadhya Gram Jyoti

(c) PM Ujjawala (d) PM Mudra

114. Which of the following statements is/are correct

about Electoral Bonds ?

1. These bonds can be bought by any person or

organization or firm or a company at a bank in

denominations ranging from Rs 1000 to Rs 1 crore

2. These bonds are given to a political party which can

exchange them for cash.

3. These bonds do not carry the name of donor and

are exempted from tax.

4. The move is being criticized for allegedly

legalizing large anonymous donations that can

potentially lead to businesses and foreign companies

gaining influence over elections.

(a) Only 1 (b) 1&2 are correct (c) 1,2,3,4 are correct

(d) Only 4 is correct

115. With the successful testing of Anti Satellite

Missile on March 27, 2019 India enters into super

four league. Which are other 3 countries in the world

in this group /

(a) USA, China, Russia (b) USA, Russia, Japan (c)

USA, Russia, Germany (d) USA, Japan, China

Q.116. Consider the following statements.

1. The Permanent Indus Commission is mandated to

implement the 1960 Indus Waters Treaty (IWT).

2. The commission has experts who look into issues and

disputes on the ground over the utilisation of the

waters of six rivers of the Indus system.

3. Under the treaty, India has full use of the three

“eastern” rivers (Beas, Ravi, Sutlej), while Pakistan

has control over the three “western” rivers (Indus,

Chenab, Jhelum), although India is given rights to use

these partially as well for certain purposes.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 2, and 3 b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 2 only d) 1and 3 only

Q.117 With reference to Goods and Services Tax (GST), consider the following statements:

1. It is a type of value added tax.

2. The tax under GST regime is imposed at the point of

consumption.

3. It is not applicable on imports of goods and services.


a) 1 only b) 1, 2 and 3

c) 2 only d) 1 and 2 only

Q.118 Which Indian city is the cleanest in Swach

Survekshan award 2019 :

(a) Chandigarh (b) Bengaluru

(c) Indore (d) Pune

Q.119 Which of the following statements is correct about

Lokpal ?

(a) Chairperson and members shall hold office for term of

6 years or till they attain 70 years

(b) Chairperson and members shall hold office for 5 years

or till 65 years age

© Chairperson and members shall hold office for 5 years


(d) Chairperson and member shall hold office for 5 years


Q.120 How many Gold medals did India win in Asian

Games 2018 :

(a) 20 (b) 15 (c) 25 (d) 30

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE Time: 2 HOURS (a) (c) (d)cavalier.in/uploaded_files/userfiles/files/GENERAL KNOWLEDGE.pdf · 42. The Mansabdari system of the Mughals was a complex system. Its efficient

Documents