FYBMS- INTRODUCTION TO FINANCIAL ACCOUNTS -SEM-I 1. The accounts which are prepared at the end of financial year are called_____ a) journal entries b) final accounts c) ledger accounts d) trial balance 2. The article purchased, sold or produced by the businessman a) fixed assets b) financial asset c) real asset d) goods 3. Going concern may be defined best as: a) this concept provides the basis for the formation of the accounting equation b) this concept refuses allocation of cost on different accounting periods c) this concept discusses the issue of the realization of profit d) this concept assumes that the business will operate for a long period of time and will not be dissolved in near future 4. What is the full form of ENIAC? a) Electronic numerical integrated and compressor b) Electronic numeric integrated and computer c) Electronic numeric integrated and computer d) electronic numbers in all calculators
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FYBMS- INTRODUCTION TO FINANCIAL ACCOUNTS -SEM-I
1. The accounts which are prepared at the end of financial year are called_____
a) journal entries
b) final accounts
c) ledger accounts
d) trial balance
2. The article purchased, sold or produced by the businessman
a) fixed assets
b) financial asset
c) real asset
d) goods
3. Going concern may be defined best as:
a) this concept provides the basis for the formation of the accounting equation
b) this concept refuses allocation of cost on different accounting periods
c) this concept discusses the issue of the realization of profit
d) this concept assumes that the business will operate for a long period of time and will not
be dissolved in near future
4. What is the full form of ENIAC?
a) Electronic numerical integrated and compressor
b) Electronic numeric integrated and computer
c) Electronic numeric integrated and computer
d) electronic numbers in all calculators
5. Which of these is not a depreciable asset according to AS6?
a) Plant and Machinery
b) buildings
c) computers
d) wasting assets
6. Revaluation of fixed asset is carried out for
a) current market value
b) profit
c) depreciation
d) selling
7. Which menu appears after starting tally for the first time?
a) gateway of tally
b) display
c) company info
d) accounting info
8. Which option is used in tally to make changes in created company?
a) select company
b) shut company
c) alter
d) company information
9. How much types a transaction has?
a) one
b) two
c) three
d) four
10. Recording of transactions is done in a book called
a) journal entries
b) transaction book
c) record book
d) ledger
11. The economic factors causing depreciation are
a) wear and tear
b) obsolescence and inadequacy
c) effluxion of time
d) depletion
12. Which categories of fixed assets are covered under accounting standard 10?
a) tangible assets
b) natural assets
c) wasting assets
d) financial assets
13. According to AS 10 machinery spares should be treated as
a) revenue expenditure
b) inventory
c) capital expenditure
d) deferred revenue expenditure
14. Journal is also known as book of ________ entry.
a) secondary
b) prime
c) wrong
d) rectification
15. The ledger account which relates to all the assets and wealth of the business.
a) Real Account
b) Personal Account
c) Nominal Account
d) Suspense Account
16. Outstanding Expenses is a _____
a) Real Account
b) Personal Account
c) Nominal Account
d) Suspense Account
17. The Rule for Personal account is
a) Debit all Expenses and Losses Credit all Incomes and Gains
b) Debit what comes in Credit what goes out.
c) Debit the receiver Credit the giver
d) Debit the Giver and Credit the Receiver
18. Recording of business transaction in the prime books of accounts is called ______
a) entry
b) folio
c) Narration
d) Accounting
19. _____ discount is allowed in order to recover the amounts due in time.
a) Trade
b) Cash
c) Retail
d) Gross
20. Goods withdrawn by the proprietor for his personal use should be debited to _______
A/c.
a) Goods
b) Trading
c) Drawings
d) profit & Loss
21. Cash Book is used to record
a) all receipts only
b) all payments only
c) all cash and credit sales
d) all receipts and payments of cash
22. Which of the following is correct
a) Cash Book is a Journal and not a ledger
b) Cash Book is a ledger and not a Journal
c) Cash Book is both ledger and Journal
d) Cash Book is neither ledger nor Journal
23. Which of the following transaction is entered on the debit side of the Cash Book?
a) Trade Discount received
b) Trade Discount allowed
c) Cash Discount received
d) Cash Discount allowed
24. Discount that requires no accounting entry is ______ discount.
a) Cash
b) Trade
c) wholesale
d) retail
25. Each page in Ledger is known as _____
a) Journal
b) Folio
c) Sheet
d) Statement
26. _____ means finding the difference between the total of the debit side and the credit side
of an account.
a) Casting
b) Posting
c) Balancing
d) Tallying
27. An agreed Trial Balance indicates that the books are _________ accurate.
a) Technically
b) Arithmetically
c) Not
d) Principally
28. When the ledger balances are considered for a Trial Balance, it is ______ Trial Balance.
a) Gross
b) Interim
c) Final
d) Net
29. Trial Balance is prepared from ______
a) Ledger
b) Cash Book
c) Ledger and Cash Book
d) Balance Sheet
30. Nominal accounts of income and gains have credit balances and are shown on ______
side of Trial balance.
a) Debit
b) Credit
c) Either debit or credit
d) Neither debit not credit
31. Return Inwards are shown on the ______ side of the Trial balance.
a) Debit
b) Credit
c) Either debit or credit
d) Neither debit not credit
32. Selling expenses are shown on the ______ side of the Trial balance.
a) Debit
b) Credit
c) Either debit or credit
d) Neither debit not credit
33. A machine is purchased for Rs. 50,000. Installation expenses incurred on the machine is
Rs. 5,000. What will be the total cost of the machine?
a) Rs. 50,000
b) Rs. 5,000
c) Rs. 55,000
d) Rs. 45,000
34. In _______ method, rate of depreciation is applied to written down value.
a) Straight Line
b) Written Down Value
c) Rising Balance
d) Fluctuating Instalment
35. ________ method of depreciation is the only method allowed under the Income Tax Act.
a) Straight Line
b) Written Down Value
c) Rising Balance
d) Fluctuating Instalment
36. Loss on sale of asset = __________
a) Original cost - Depreciation
b) Sale price - W.D.V.
c) W.D.V. - Sale Price
d) Sale price - Depreciation
37. Cost of the machine = Rs. 2,90,000; Cost of installing the machine = Rs. 10,000;
Depreciation @ 15% p.a. on Straight Line Method; Life of the machine = 10 years. Calculate
WDV of the machine after 1 year.
a) Rs. 3,00,000
b) Rs. 2,46,500
c) Rs. 2,38,000
d) Rs. 2,55,000
38. Cost of the machine = Rs. 45,000; Depreciation is charged @ 10% p.a. on Written Down
Value method. The life of the machine is 7 years. What will be the depreciation amount charged
on the machine for the first 2 years?
a) Year 1 = Rs. 4,000; Year 2 = Rs. 3,000
b) Year 1 = Rs. 4,500; Year 2 = Rs. 4,050
c) Year 1 = Rs. 5,000; Year 2 = Rs. 4,500
d) Year 1 = Rs. 4,500; Year 2 = Rs. 4,000
39. The balance of manufacturing A/ c is called as ---------------
a) Gross profit
b) Net profit
c) Cost of production
d) Gross loss
40. Debit balance of profit and loss A/c indicate ----------------
a) Gross loss
b) Gross profit
c) Net profit
d) Net loss
41. Depreciation on Furniture is a part of ---------- A/c
a) Trading a/c
b) profit &loss a/c
c) Manufacturing a/c
d) Partners capital a/c
42. Adjustment has minimum -------------- effects
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
43. Return inward is deducted from ---------------
a) Sales
b) Purchase
c) Debtors
d) Creditors
44. Closing stock of Work –in – progress is recorded in manufacturing a/c and ------------
a) Liabilities
b) Assets
c) Trading a/c
d) Partners capital a/c
45. Interest on Drawing is --------- to capital
a) Added
b) Multiplied
c) No effect
d) Subtracted
46. Discount received is posted in ------------
a) Debit side of profit & loss a/c
b) Credit side of profit & loss a/c
c) Credit side of manufacturing a/c
d) Assets
47. Goods taken by proprietor is posted in ------------------
a) Trading a/c Debit side
b) Trading a/c Credit side
c) profit & loss a/c Credit side
d) Manufacturing a/c Debit side
48. Salary and wages will appear in -----------
a) Trading a/c
b) Profit & loss a/c
c) Manufacturing a/c
d) Partners capital a/c.
49. Bank loan taken Rs. 5,00,000 is shown in ---------------
a) Trading a/c
b) Profit & loss a/c
c) Asset
d) Liabilities
50. Net loss should be --------------- to capital
a) subtracted
b) Multiplied
c) Ignore
d) Added
FYBMS- BUSINESS ECONOMIC-SEM-I
Q.1
The father of Economics is ____________.
a Adam smith
b Marshall
c Keynes
d Ricardo
Q.2 Concept of Production possibility curve was developed by_____________. Correct option
a Smith
b Marshall
c Samuelson
d Ricardo
Q.3 __________economics refers to integration of economic theories and business practices. Correct option
a development
b growth
c business
d urban
Q.4 when demand increases, it shift to _________________ side. Correct option
a left hand
b right hand
c upward
d downward
Q.5
when Supply increases, it shift to _________________ side.
a upward
b downward
c leftward
d rightward
Q.6 price and supply have _____________________ relationship. Correct option
a direct
b indirect
c backward
d inverse
Q.7 when demand decreases and supply is constant, then price will_____________ Correct option
a fall
b rise
c contant
d equilibrium
Q.8 the market period is also called as __________________period. Correct option
a very short run
b short run
c long run
d very long run
Q.9 when supply increases and demand is constant, then price will_____________ Correct option
a fall
b rise
c contant
d equilibrium
Q.10 the demand for Electricity is __________________demand. Correct option
a joint
b direct
c indirect
d composite
Q.11 the addition made to total revenue by selling one more unit, is called as _______________revenue. Correct option
a Government
b marginal
c average
d total cost
Q.12 On the basis of place there are ____________types of market. Correct option
a two
b three
c four
d five
Q.13 the commodities are perfectly substitutes under ____________________market. Correct option
a monopoly
b oligopoly
c duopoly
d perfect
Q.14 income elasticity of demand means,demand changes only due to change in______________. Correct option
a technology
b Price
c income
d population
Q.15
when change in price by 10 % leads to change in demand 20 %,then the elasticity of demand will
be_______. Correct option
a perfectly elastic
b perfectly inelastic
c relatively elastic
d unitary elastic
Q.16
when change in price by 20 % leads to change in demand 10 %,then the elasticity of demand will
be_______. Correct option
a perfectly elastic
b perfectly inelastic
c relatively elastic
d relatively inelastic
Q.17 Ratio method of measuring elasticity of demand was developed by_______________________ Correct option
a smith
b ricardo
c marshall
d keynes
Q.18 income elasticity of demand for inferior goods is _________________ Correct option
a positive
b negative
c constant
d falling
19.
LAC is used to determine
a) the lowest possible AC for producing various levels of output
b) the maximum output at lowest variable cost
c) the output at which fixed cost is minimised
d) the optimum firm size
20.
If Average fixed cost is Rs. 40 and average variable cost is Rs. 80 for an
output level of 10, then the total cost is
a) Rs. 1200
b) Rs. 120
c) Rs. 40
d) Rs. 400
21.
Implicit costs are
a) equal to total fixed costs
b) equal to variable costs
c) always less than explicit costs
d) cost of using factors belonging to the business owner
22.
When-MP is maximum, which of the following is true?
a) AP is equal to MP
b) AP is declining
c) AP is maximum
d) AP is rising
23.
If an iso-quant touches either of the two axis, it indicates
a) zero substitutability of factors
b) perfect substitutability of factors
c) continuous substitutability of factors
d) limited substitutability of factors
24.
In the short run, a firm's fixed cost
a) is zero
b) will always have to be incurred
c) can be zero if production is zero
d) will decline with every increase in output
25.
Variable costs are:
a) sunk costs.
b) multiplied by fixed costs.
c) costs that change with the level of production.
d) defined as the change in total cost resulting from the production of an additional unit of output.
26.
Which cost always increases as output increases?
a) total cost
b) average total cost
c) marginal cost
d) average fixed cost
27.
Diminishing marginal returns occurs when
a) all inputs are increased and output decreases.
b) all inputs are increased and output increases by a smaller proportion.
c) a variable unit is increased and its marginal product falls
d) a variable input is increased and output decreases.
28.
The long run is a time period in which
a) all inputs are variable.
b) one year or less elapses.
c) all inputs are fixed
d) there is at least one fixed input and at least one variable input.
29.
By using more labor to produce more output, a firm can always reduce its
a) average fixed cost.
b) marginal fixed cost of labor
c) marginal fixed cost of output.
d) average cost of labor.
30.
Total variable cost is the sum of all .
a) implicit costs
b) costs of the firm's fixed inputs.
c) costs that rise as output increases.
d) costs associated with the production of goods.
31.
Marginal cost is
a) all the costs of production of goods.
b) all the costs of the fixed inputs.
c) the change in the total cost resulting from a one-unit change in output.
d) all the costs that vary with output.
32.
Average total costs are
a) the change in output divided by the change in total costs
b) total costs divided by total output.
c) the change in total costs divided by the change in output.
d) total output divided by total costs.
33.
The expansion path identifies
a)
the least cost combination of inputs required to produce various levels of
output
b) the firm's demand curves for the inputs.
c)
the various combinations of inputs that can be used to produce a given
level of output
d) the least-cost combination of outputs.
34.
Which of the following is an examples of variable costs?
a Salaries of management
B Insurance
c Rent
D Raw materials
35.
A firm is at break- even point when _________.
a TR > TC
B TR < TC
c TR = TC
D TR > AVC
36.
A firm earns supernormal profit when its ______________.
a TR = TC
B TR > TC
c TR < TC
D TR > AVC
37.
Which of the following is the most competitive market structure?
a perfect competition
b monopoly
c monopolistic
d oligopoly
38.
Which of the following is the least competitive market structure?
a perfect competition
B monopoly
c monopolistic
D oligopoly
39.
If a firm sells its output on a market that is characterized by many sellers
and buyers, a differentiated product, and unlimited long-run resource
mobility, then the firm is
a competitive player
b monopolist
c monopolistic
D oligopolistic
40.
If a firm sells its output on a market that is characterized by few sellers
and many buyers and limited long-run resource mobility, then the firm is
a competitive player
B monopolist
c monopolistic
D oligopolistic
41.
The demand curve for a perfectly competitive industry is QD = 12 -
2P.The supply curve is QS = 3 + P.The market will be in equilibrium if
a P = 6 and Q = 9
B P = 5 and Q = 2
c P = 4 and Q = 4
D P = 3 and Q = 6
42.
The demand curve faced by a monopolistically competitive firm is
____________________.
a perfectly elastic
b elastic
c unit elastic
D inelastic
43.
In perfect competition,
a there are significant restrictions on entry.
b each firm can influence the price of the good.
c there are few buyers.
d all firms in the market sell their product at the same price.
44.
If the price elasticity of demand is greater than 1, a monopoly's
a marginal revenue is zero.
b total revenue decreases when the firm lowers its price.
c marginal revenue is negative.
d total revenue increases when the firm lowers its price.
45.
If the price elasticity of demand is less than 1, a monopoly's
a marginal revenue is undefined.
b total revenue decreases when the firm lowers its price.
c total revenue increases when the firm lowers its price.
d marginal revenue is zero.
46. There is no consumer’s surplus in ____________price discrimination.
a first degree
b second degree
c third degree
d forth degree
47. ___________is also called as International price discrimination.
a dumping
b monopoly
c monopolistic
d oligopoly
48. When the Railway charges different fares to different passengers for the same services, it is called as _________discrimination.
a. gender
b. age
c. personal
d. local
49. __________is an intra-firm trading of goods and services.
a. Dumping
b. marginal cost pricing
c. cost push pricing
d. transfer pricing
50. __________ ignores the role of consumers.
a. Dumping
b. marginal cost pricing
c. cost push pricing
d. transfer pricing
FYBMS- FOUNDATION OF HUMAN SKILLS-SEM-I
1. Which of the following is considered as Physical Differences?
a. Difference in intelligence
b. Difference in abilities
c. Difference in Social Behavior
d. Difference in appearance
2. One’s family and peer group influences one’s ___ considerably.
a. Motivation
b. Development
c. Emotions
d. Characteristics
3. Personality is the dynamic organization with the individual of those _____ factors that
determine his unique adjustment in the environment.
a. Emotional
b. Psycho-physical
c. Psychological
d. Intellectual
4. Trying to influence one’s fate is called as:
a. External Locus of Control
b. Machiavellianism
c. Internal Locus of Control
d. Self-Monitoring
5. How do Individual’s with less Self-efficacy take negative feedback?
a. Motivation
b. Increase in efforts
c. Lessen their efforts
d. No change in efforts
6. Size of Open self window ____ as the process of getting to know each other Continues.
a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. Belittles
7. In Blind self window, Who is unaware of things?
a. Others
b. Us
c. No one
d. All of us Worsen
8. Which of the following can be considered as perception in subjective manner?
a. Thoughts
b. Chair
c. Table
d. Sofa
9. ___is not a function of Attitudes
a. Value expressive function
b. Unorganized function
c. Knowledge function
d. Ego-Defensive function
10. ____ is based on the idea that behavior is repeated and strengthened if the outcome is
positive and behavior is weakened if the outcome is negative.
a. Operant Conditioning
b. Social Learning
c. Classical Conditioning
d. Observation Learning
11. For being successful an individual needs IQ, EQ and __
a. PQ
b. CQ
c. SQ
d. OQ
12. According to Goleman, Emotional intelligence has __ dimensions
a. Two
b. Six
c. Five
d. Three
13. ___ intelligence is the ability to think critically and analytically
a. Experiential
b. Contextual
c. Componential
d. Abstract
14. Yellow Thinking Hat represents____
a. Caution
b. Values and Benefits
c. Emotions, feelings, hunches, gut, instinct, intuition and justification
d. Memorizing skills
15. The essence of power is _________
a. Do all alone
b. Do not let others work
c. Control Behaviour of others
d. Interfere in everyone's work
16. Which of the following is not a types of informal power?
a. Expert Power
b. Referent Power
c. Charismatic Power
d. Academic Power
17. Intensity of politics is influenced by ______
a. People
b. Power
c. Profit
d. Loss
18. If there is a conflict or disagreements within a group it Is said to be ______
a. Inter-group
b. Intra-group
c. Inter-Departmental
d. Inter-Organizational
19. Accomodating style of conflict resolution approach is suitable when
a. Good relationship and harmony is more important
b. Winning is very crucial
c. Winning is very easy
d. Winning is very difficult
20. A Management team is an example of ____________________ group.
a. informal
b. formal
c. friendly
d. interest
21. _______________ groups are generally permanent in nature and continue to exist until a
decision is made to change them or restructure the organization.
a. informal
b. task
c. friendship
d. command
22. A special feature of ________________ group is that, there is heirarchy of authority, with
specified rules and regulations.
a. informal
b. interest
c. friendly
d. formal
23. In a/an ______________ group, a member's behavior is guided by his own point of view of
what is approporiate.
a. Formal
b. Command
c. Task
d. Informal
24. People who share common likes and hobbies is an example of ______________ group.
a. command
b. task
c. friendship
d. interest
25. A command group is ___________________________.
a. made up of individuals who report directly to a given manager
b. People who share common likes and hobbies
c. Employees who join together to have their vacation schedules changed, to support pay
increase, to support improved working conditions
d. an association of persons which is not structured nor created by an organization
26. People do not join groups __________________________.
a. to achieve goals
b. to have a bad public image
c. to reduce insecurity
d. to enjoy regual interaction
27. ______________________ not an influence of groups on interaction skills.
a. Encouragement
b. Harmonizing
c. Insecurity
d. Cohesiveness
28. _____________________ is the pattern of inter-relationships between the individuals
constituting a group.
a. Role
b. Team
c. Group structure
d. Leadership
29. ______________________ is a situation when an individual is faced with role expectations
that clash.
a. Role Identity
b. Role Perception
c. Role Conflict
d. Role Expection
30. ______ include role ambiguity, role erosion, and overload
a. Social loafing
b. role demand
c. task demand
d. organizational leadership
31. ____ is an individual response to a stressor such as an environmental condition or a stimulus.
a. Attitude
b. Stress
c. Change
d. Development
32. ______ involves the decision to initiate a behavior.
a. Activation
b. Persistence
c. Intensity
d. Power
33. _____ can be seen in the concentration and vigor that goes into perusing goal.
a. Activation
b. Persistence
c. Intensity
d. Power
34. The ______ in one’s own life relates to a safe environment.
a. Physiological needs
b. Safety needs
c. Love needs
d. self-esteem needs
35. The philosophy that guides an organisation’s policies towards its employees and customers is
an important part of ______
a. Management strategy
b. Organisation behaviour
c. Organisational culture
d. Organisation development
36. Communication begins with_______
a. Encoding
b. Idea Origination
c. Decoding
d. Channel Selection
37. Handling of crises by managers and employees reveals an organizational …………. .
a. Culture
b. Society
c. Environment
d. Structure
38. Characteristics of organizational culture include all but which one of the following?
a. Common language, terminology and norms of behavior
b. Sustainability policies
c. Preference for formal or informal communication
d. Rulebook of do’s and don’ts for staff
39. Which of the following statements regarding internal forces of motivation is true?
a. They are more important to understand than external forces of motivation.
b. They are less important to understand than external forces of motivation.
c. They are as important as external forces of motivation.
d. They are seldom recognized by managers.
40. Which one of the following would be considered a motivator in the motivation-hygiene
theory?
a. salary
b. supervision
c. working conditions
d. recognition
41. Which is not a sign of emotional symptom of stress ?
a. Irritability
b. Drug addiction
c. Depression
d. Frustation
42. ____________________ is an effort, planned, organization-wide and managed from the top,
to increase organization effectiveness and health through planned interventions in the
organizations processes, using behavioral science knowledge.
a. Organizational Change
b. Organizational Climate
c. Organizational Development
d. Organizational Effectiveness
43. Which of the following is not a quality of a creative person ?
a. Originality in thoughts
b. Unrealistic ideas
c. Curious and imaginative
d. Problem sensitive
44. One among the following is not an internal factor of change _____________.
a. Performance gaps
b. Employee needs and values
c. Business environment
d. Organizational change
45. ____________ is a mental process involving the generation of new ideas or concepts, or new
association with the existing ones.
a. Brainstorming
b. Creative thinking
c. Problem solving
d. Organizational development
46. Which among the following is not a symptom of stress. ,
a. Indecisiveness
b. Muscle tension
c. Concentration
d. Anxiety
47. Factors of organisational change of two types ____________ (, , none of the above)
a. internal and external
b. abstract and cognitive
c. physical and psychological
d. political and non-political
48. ____________ is a widely used OD technique.
a. survey feedback
b. dancing
c. perception
d. brain stilling
49. _________ personalities are more stress prone.
a. Type A
b. Type B
c. Theory Z
d. Theory X
50. Managerial Grid Theory is given by _________________.
a. Black & Mouton
b. Peter Drucker
c. Henry Fayo
d. F W Taylor
FYBMS- BUSINESS STATISTICS -SEM-I
1) The average age of 5 persons is 45 years .The oldest person with 65 years old .What is the
average of the remaining 4?
a) 40
b) 43
c) 39
d) 44
2) _________used to present data involving one variable
a) multiple pie diagram
b) pie diagram
c) simple bar diagram
d) histogram
3) The data collected for the first time is known as_________
a) information
b) secondary data
c) primary data
d) research data
4) The mean monthly salary paid to hundred employee size of an established was found to be
2500 salaries of two employees were taken rupees 3400 rupees 2000 which were found to be
wrong the correct figures were rupees 4300 rupees 2200 find the corrected mean
a) 2514
b) 2511
c) 2512
d) 2513
5) The data which have already been collected by someone are called
a) Fictitious data
b) Array data
c) Raw data
d) Secondary data
6) Cumulative Frequency is ___________________ frequency.
a) Increasing
b) Decreasing
c) Fixed
d) variable
7) The number of accidents in a city during 2010 is
a) Discrete variable
b) Continuous variable
c) Qualitative variable
d) Constant
8) Sum of dots when two dice are rolled is
a) Discrete variable
b) Continuous variable
c) Qualitative variable
d) Constant
9) Average age of a group for 50 personis 40 years . The average age of 30 of them is 30 years.
What is the average age of remaining 20 persons ?
a) 50
b) 55
c) 49
d) 40
10) The mean of marks of hundred students was found to be 42 .Later on it was found that the
marks of 2 students were taken from early as 53 and 63 instead of correct mark 83 and 36
.Find the corrected mean
a) 43.2
b) 43.4
c) 44.3
d) 42.3
11) The construction of cumulative frequency table is useful in determining the ______
a) Frequency
b) Mean
c) Median
d) mode
12) ________________ gives actual extent of scatter of the data.
a) Absolute Measure
b) Relative measure
c) mode
d) graph
13) Range is defined as _______
a) Maximum + Minimum
b) Maximum ÷ Minimum
c) Maximum × Minimum
Maximum – Minimum
14)
The semi inter quartile range considers only the middle ______ of the
observations
a) 60%
b) 50%
c) 70%
d) 30%
15) Find the standard deviation of the following set :12, 17, 15,11, 25
a) 5.7896
b) 3.5674
c) 4.9799
d) 6.8934
16) The following are the prices in Rs of different brands of television sets . Find the range of