Final Exam Answers

1. Answer A You need to draw a network diagram for this question.

This diagram has two paths: Start, 1,2,3, End and Start, 1,4, End. The length of the first path is 10 and the second is nine making the first path critical and the duration of the critical path 10. Notice that almost every other answer someone could pick is also listed.

2. Answer B If activity 4 now takes lo weeks instead of eight, the critical path would change to Start, 1, 4, End and be 11 weeks long.

3. Answer C Did you notice how difficult this question was to read? Such wording is intentional, to prepare you for interpreting questions on the real exam. Looking at this situation, you see that there are three paths through the network. They are Start, A, C, E, F, End with a duration of 40 + 35 + lo + 22 or 107, Start, A, C, D, End with a duration of 40 + 35 + 30 or 105, and Start, B, D, End with a duration of 25 + 30 or 55. If the duration of activity B changes from 25 to 37, the activity will take 12 hours longer. As the activity is only on the third path, it will only change the duration of that path from 55 to 55 + 12 or 67 hours. Since the duration of the critical path is 107 hours, the delay with activity B will have no impact on the project timeline or the current critical path.

4. Answer B PERT uses a weighted average.

5. Answer C Choice A is the same thing as create a network diagram. Choice B is another name for scope verification, and is done during the monitoring and controlling process group, not during project

planning. Since a schedule is an input to risk management, choice D comes after choice C and so it is not the "next thing to do." The only remaining choice is C.

6. Answer D The question is really asking, "What is done after activity duration estimating?" Choices A and B are done before activity duration estimating. Duration compression (choice D) occurs before finalizing the schedule (choice C) and is, therefore, the best answer.

7. Answer D Notice how this question and the one previous seem very similar. This is intended to prepare you for similar questions on the exam. Choices B and C should have already been completed. The situation described is within the schedule development process of time management. Choice A is the next time process after schedule development, but schedule development is not finished. Final approval (choice D) of the schedule by the stakeholders is needed before one has a project schedule.

8. Answer A Past history is being used to calculate an estimate. Monte Carlo (choice D) relates to what-if analysis. Choice B uses three time estimates per activity. One could use past history to come up with the estimate (choice C) but the best answer is choice A because an estimate such as hours per installation is a chief characteristic of parametric estimates.

9. Answer D The activity described has float because there is a difference between the early start and late start. An activity that has float is probably not on the critical path. There is no information presented about lag (choice B) or progress (choice C) so choice D is the best answer.

10. Answer B Cutting resources from an activity (choice A) would not save time, nor would moving resources in the way described (choice C). Removing an activity from the project (choice D) is a possibility, but since the dependencies are preferential and the risk is low, the best choice would be to make more activities concurrent (choice B) as this would have less impact on the project.

11. Answer A Did you get lost looking at all the numbers presented in this question? Notice that there are no calculations required, simply an understanding of what the problem is. Many project managers try to solve problems that are not within their area of control. This question describes schedule management, which is a responsibility of the project manager. This question relates to cost, integration, human resources and time.

12. Answer D Detailed estimates (choice A) have nothing to do with the situation described. Project management plans (choice B) will have more detail than is necessary for the situation described and may distract from the conversation if used in this situation. Bar charts (choice C) are usually only for the team. The best answer is choice D because milestone reports present the right level of detail for upper management.13. Answer C The key to this question is the phrase "constant number used each month." Only leveling, choice C, has such an effect on the schedule.

14. Answer C Remember that analogous estimates are top-down, high-level estimates. Therefore, choices A and B cannot be correct. The project manager needs more than an analogous estimate to determine if the project will meet the schedule (choice D). It is a benefit to know management's expectations of how much the project will cost so thatany differences between the analogous estimate and the detailed bottom-up estimate can be reconciled in the planning processes. The best choice is C.

15. Answer B Asking percent complete (choice A) is not a best practice since it is usually a guess. Often the easiest work is done first on a project, throwing off any percentage calculations of work remaining. It may be a good thing to use the 50/50 rule, as in choice C. However, the 50/50 rule is not necessarily included in the progress report, and the second part of the sentence is incorrect. The life cycle cost cannot be lower than the project cost as the life cycle cost includes the project cost. Choice D is often done by inexperienced project managers who know of nothing else. Not only does it provide little information, but also it cannot be used to predict the future. Choice B is the best answer since it looks at the past and uses this information to estimate future costs.

16. Answer D The CPI is less than one, so the situation is bad. Choice D is the best answer.

17. Answer C Earned value questions ask for a calculation or an interpretation of the results. See the tricks under this topic in this book.

18. Answer D A change control procedure is not required to obtain estimates, but without the other three choices, you cannot develop the estimates. You need the WBS to define the activities, the network diagram to see the dependencies and the risks to determine contingencies. NOTE: These are high-level risks, not the detailed risks we identify later in the planning process group.

19. Answer A Parametric estimates use a mathematical model to predict project cost or time.

20. Answer D This estimate has a wide range. It is done during project initiating, when very little is known about the project.

21. Answer B this question is designed to determine whether you understand that estimates should be in a range and what are the standard ranges.

22. Answer A

This is a question about project selection and could easily be included in other chapters. In order to interpret the information, you need to know what each item is. The benefit cost ratio for choice B is unfavorable. There is not enough information provided to support recommending or not recommending choices C or D. This leaves only choice A, with a 12 percent return, as providing a clear benefit.

23. Answer A This is one of those questions that combines topics from various knowledge areas. Did you fall into the trap of calculating the float for Z? The amount of float for one activity and the number of stakeholders does not tell you anything in this case, so choices B and D cannot be the best answers. The CPI is greater than one and the SPI is less than one. Therefore, the thing to be most worried about would be schedule.

24. Answer A The cost accounts are included in the project cost estimate and the management reserve is added to that to come up with the cost baseline. Thereafter the management reserve is added to come up with the cost budget. Therefore, only choice A is correct.

25. Answer C This question is full of choices that are not correct project management actions. If you picked the wrong answer, look again at the choices and try to determine what you are missing. Whatever it is, it will show up more than once on the real exam! To answer the question, you must first realize that it is never appropriate for a project manager to just cut estimates across the board (choice B). The project manager should have created an estimate with realistic work package estimates that do not include padding. Then, if costs must be decreased, the project manager can look to cut quality, decrease risk, cut scope or use cheaper resources (and at the same time closely monitoring the impact of changes on the project schedule). One of the worst things a project manager can do is to start a project while knowing that the time or cost for the project is unrealistic. Therefore, choice A cannot be best. Notice that choice D suggests adding additional resources. That would cost more. Choice C involves evaluating, looking for alternatives and then going to the sponsor to tell him the impact of the cost cutting.

26. Answer D Choice A could be done, but it is not a pressing issue based on the situation provided. Choice B could also be done, but not until risk planning is completed. It is always important to carefully complete a project charter, choice C, but there are other issues needing detailed attention in this situation, so choice C cannot be best. Since this project has never been done before, and there will be a large cost outlay, it would be best for the project manager to spend more time on risk management. Risk identification is the most proactive response and would have the greatest positive impact on the project.

27. Answer A This question relates real-world situations to the risk types. Did you realize that the entire first paragraph is extraneous? Based on the question, you cannot delete the work to avoid it, nor can you insure or outsource to transfer the risk. This leaves acceptance as the only correct choice.

28. Answer D

The Delphi Technique is most commonly used to obtain expert opinions on technical issues, the necessary project or product scope, or the risks.

29. Answer D Did you realize that this situation is taking place during the initiating process group? Choices B and C are created in the project planning process and so are not yet available. Therefore, we are left with deciding if choice A or choice D provides the greater value. Since the information gained in choice D is more specific to your company, it is the best choice.

30. Answer B Team members (choice A) will have knowledge of the project and the product of the project and will thus have a lot to contribute to risk responses. Those responsible for risk templates (choice C) will be able to provide the templates from past projects (historical records) and therefore will be very important. Key stakeholders (choice D) will know more about the technical working of the project to help plan "What are we going to do about it?" so choice D is not likely to be the least important. The sponsor (choice B) may have the least knowledge of what will work to solve the problems. Sponsors need to be involved in the project and help identify risks. They may even approve the response plans created by others, but they would not generally be major contributors to response plans. This makes B the best choice.

31. Answer C The risk is the loss of data due to a power outage. Choice A is not related to "mitigating" the problem. It transfers the risk. A reserve fund (choice B) is acceptance and would help address the cost factors after the power failure, but would not reduce the probablilty or impact of it. Avoiding the hurricane by scheduling the installation at a different time (choice D) mitigates the power outage risk but could have a large negative impact on the project schedule and so is not the best choice. The better choice of the mitigation options (choices C and D) is to monitor the weather and know when to implement the contingency plan. It is relevant that this is a two-year project. If the project was shorter, choice D may have been a more appropriate choice.

32. Answer B You would need to analyze the problem before you would talk to the sponsor (choice A). You could not mitigate the risk (choice C) until you qualified the risk. A workaround (choice D) is an unplanned response to a risk that is occurring. This risk is identified, not occurring, so there is no need to take action by creating a workaround. Qualifying the risk (choice B) will give you an indication of how great the risk is. That information will help you determine how to proceed.

33. Answer A This project has deviated so far from the baseline that updated risk identification and risk analysis should be performed.

34. Answer B When a new risk is identified, it should go through the risk management process. Choice A cannot be the best choice, as you first need to determine the probability and impact of the risk and then try to diminish impact through risk response planning. Only after these efforts should you add reserves. Choice C addresses only costs, when there could also be a time impact. This choice also ignores risk response

planning work. Choice D cannot be the best choice because it is better to determine reserves based on a detailed analysis of risk. Therefore the best choice is B.

35. Answer A Did you notice that this project has already begun? Risk management is a required element of project management. You must complete the risk management process, starting with risk management planning, making choice A the correct choice.

36. Answer D First you want to determine what the risk entails and the impact to the project, then determine what actions you will take regarding the risk.

37. Answer A Notice that choice B is really saying "halt ALL payments." Halting all payments would be a breach of contract on the buyer's part. Choice C is too severe and cannot be done unilaterally. Choice D does not solve the problem presented. A choice that said, "Halt payments on the disputed amount" would probably be the best answer,but it is not offered. Therefore, the best answer is A.

38. Answer B As a project manager, you want to develop a relationship during negotiations that will last throughout the project.

39. Answer D The seller does not have the choice to start over. The contract that exists is binding. Both parties could agree to start over, but this is a drastic step.

40. Answer C Expect many questions on the exam that require you to know in what part of the procurement process activities are done.

41. Answer C Many people miss the fact that a contract includes a contract statement of work (choice A). To have a contract, you must also have acceptance (choice B). One set of signatures is not enough; you must have sign-off (i.e., acceptance) from both parties, so choice D is only partially correct. The address of the seller (choice C) is not required, and therefore is the exception.

42. Answer C As the project manager, you know what the project risks are. You need to make sure that provisions are included in the contract to address these risks.

43. Answer A Choices C and D are good ideas, but not the key objective. Negotiations should be winlwin, so choice B is not the best choice. A fair and equitable price (choice A) will create a good working atmosphere. Otherwise, you will pay later, on change orders.

44. Answer A Answering sellers' questions (choice B) occurs during request seller responses; the contract and RFP (choices C and D) are created during plan contracting.

45. Answer D During request seller responses, you normally answer questions submitted by the sellers. Risk identification (choice A) is done before the procurement process begins, as procurement is a risk mitigation and transference tool. Submittals (choice B) is another name for deliverables that are sent during contract administration. Contract changes (choice C) may be made in select sellers and contract administration.

46. Answer B Choice A cannot be best because cutting scope decreases profits on this type of contract. Choice C cannot be best, as CPFF contracts generally do not limit fee increases. Choice D cannot be best, as the fee in a CPFF contract is usually paid out on a continuous basis during the life of the project. One of the ways to change the profit in a cost plus fixed fee contract is to invoice for items not chargeable to the project (choice B).

47. Answer A To the seller, it is known, but this question is from the buyer's perspective. You do not know what profit the seller included in the contract.

48. Answer D Of the options given, the only contract that limits fees for large projects with limited scope definition is CPFF.

49. Answer C Party B is only required to deliver what is defined in the contract.

50. Answer B Although you have used this contractor before, how can you be sure the company is qualified to do the new work, since it is not exactly like the previous work? This is the risk you are taking.

51. A period of time in work weeks which includes non-working days is called:

a) Elapsed time CORRECT! Elapsed time takes into account non-working days. Duration only includes working days. PMBOK page 359

b) Duration

c) Effort

d) Earned time

52. The amount of time that an activity can be delayed without delaying the early start of any immediate successor activities on the network path is called:

a) Negative float

b) Free floatCORRECT! See PMBOK page 145

c) Total float

d) Lead

53. What are you likely to see in the schedule if a project has a fixed end date and activities are starting to fall behind?

a) Lots of free float

b) Idle resources

c) Negative float CORRECT! In most projects activities trending over their deadline would cause the project to be delayed. However, if the deadline of the project is fixed, negative float will occur to keep the project on schedule. Negative float means that successor activities must start before a predecessor activity has completed. PMBOK page 145.

d) Positive float

54. In crashing the schedule, you would focus on:

a) Accelerating as many tasks as possible

b) Accelerating just the non-critical tasksc) Accelerating the performance of tasks

on the critical pathCORRECT! Crashing involves accelerating the schedule. The only way this can be done is by focusing on the critical path. PMBOK page 145.

d) Completing two parallel activities at the same time.

55. A modification of a logical relationship that allows an acceleration of the successor task is represented by:

a) Lead time CORRECT! A lead allows the acceleration of a successor activity. PMBOK page 134

b) Lag time

c) Free float

d) Slack

56. You are the Project Manager assigned to build a next generation vehicle. You determine that the wheels MUST be developed before the assembly of the vehicle can be performed. This is an example of which type of dependency?

a) Soft logic

b) Mandatory CORRECT! Mandatory dependencies must take place in the given order. They are inherent in the nature of the work. If nothing else the focus on the word MUST tells us that this dependency is mandatory. See PMBOK page 133.

c) Discretionary

d) External

57. You are the Project Manager assigned to build a next generation vehicle. You identify a dependency that before the vehicle can be sold the government regulatory authority must approve it. This is an example of which type of dependency?

a) Discretionary

b) External CORRECT! This example shows a relationship that is outside of the project. It may be true that the relationship is mandatory, but since the relationship is outside the project, the more correct answer is External. See PMBOK page 134.

c) Soft logic

d) Mandatory

58. During the schedule development process the project manager may have to go through several iterations of the schedule before establishing the schedule baseline. All of the following are tools and techniques that may be used during this process:

a) Critical path method, GERT, resource requirements

b) Resource leveling, project scope statement, mathematical analysis

c) Schedule compression, resource leveling, critical chain

CORRECT! The schedule is an output from Schedule Development. These answers are all tools and techniques in that process. PMBOK page 143

d) GERT, PERT, leads and lags

59. During what Time Management Process are the specific activities that must be performed to produce the deliverables in the WBS identified and documented?

a) Activity Sequencing

b) Activity DefinitionCORRECT! PMBOK page 127

c) Schedule Development

d) Activity Duration Estimating

60. What is critical path?

a) The shortest path through the network, which represents the longest amount of time in which a project can be completed

b) The path with the most critical activities on the project

c) The longest path through the network that determines the duration of the project.

CORRECT! PMBOK page 357

d) The path with the most activities with the longest durations

61. The Time Management Process that involves identifying and documenting the logical relationship among schedule activities is called:

a) Activity definition

b) Activity duration estimating

c) Activity dependencies

d) Activity sequencingCORRECT! PMBOK page 130

62. A network diagram that uses nodes to represent activities and arrows to show the activity dependencies and allows no loops is called:

a) AOA

b) AONCORRECT! Activity on Node PMBOK page 132

c) ADM

d) GERT

63. You are the project manager of the JHG Project. This project has 32 stakeholders and will require implementation activities in North and South America. You have been requested to provide a duration estimate for the project. Of the following, which will offer the best level of detail in your estimate?

a) Order of magnitude effort and cost estimate

b) Activity list and resource requirements

CORRECT! You should realize that you are in the Activity Duration Estimating process. Inputs to this process include activity list and resource requirements. The other answers are not input to this process. PMBOK page 139

c) Preliminary scope statement

d) Stakeholder analysis and communication management plan

64. You are the project manager. Your project will impact several lines of business at completion. Each milestone in the project is scheduled so the work does not impact month-end business processes. This is an example of which one of the following?

a) WBS scheduling

b) Soft logic CORRECT! In this example your preference is to schedule work so that it does not hit the month-end activities. Discretionary dependencies are also refereed to as soft logic. This is a discretionary dependency. PMBOK page 134

c) Constraint

d) Expert judgment

65. You are the project manager for the Aerotech Project. Should this project run over schedule, it will cost your organization $35,000 per day in lost sales. With four months to completion, you realize the project is running late. You decide, with management's approval, to add more project team members to the project plan to complete the work on time. This is an example of which of the following?

a) Fast tracking

b) Expert judgment

c) Cost benefit analysis

d) Crashing CORRECT! Crashing means that you are adding more resources to compress the project duration. PMBOK page 145

66. Jared, the project manager of the TGF Project, has allowed a subsequent project phase to begin before the predecessor phase is complete. This is an example of which of the following?

a) Crashing

b) Fast tracking CORRECT! Fast tracking is a technique to take two activities that are normally sequential and attempt to work on them partially in parallel. PMBOK page 146

c) Risk management

d) Tandem scheduling

67. Chris, a project manager, is explaining the difference between a Gantt chart and a milestone chart. Which of the following best describes a Gantt chart?

a) A Gantt chart depicts the work in the project against each resource's calendar.

b) A Gantt chart depicts the work in the project against the work that has been completed.

c) A Gantt chart depicts what was planned against what actually occurred.

d) A Gantt chart depicts start and end dates and expected durations.

CORRECT! PMBOK page 149

68. Bertha is the project manager for the HAR Project. The project is behind schedule and Bertha has elected, with management's approval, to fast track the critical path. This process adds more what? (Choose the best answer.)

a) Time

b) Cost

c) Documentation

d) Risk CORRECT! Fast tracking may or may not add time and cost, but it always adds schedule risk. PMBOK page 146.

69. When estimating activity durations, what inputs should you consider?

a) Resource requirements, resource calendars, project management plan and activity list.

CORRECT! This list is referenced as inputs for activity duration estimating. PMBOK page 139

b) Management expectations, resource requirements, resource capabilities, and past project files

c) Management expectations, budget constraints, resource capabilities, and lessons learned from past projects

d) Stakeholder expectations, resource capabilities, project team knowledge, and past project files

70. A new product-development project has five levels in the WBS and has been sequenced using the precedence diagramming method. The activity duration estimates have been received. Which activity would you do next?

a) Finalize the schedule

b) Determine the resources, quantities and availability.

CORRECT! Activity definition uses the lowest level of the WBS. This process is followed by activity sequencing. The next process is activity resource estimating, which is defined by this answer. PMBOK page 135

c) Create an activity list

d) Create a code of accounts

71. A team member from the design department tells you that her work is too creative to provide you with a fixed, single estimate for the task. You both decide to use the average time the task has taken for past projects. This is an example of which of the following?

a) PERT

b) Monte Carlo

c) Analogy CORRECT! Analogous estimates means to use actual duration from prior projects for similar work. PMBOK page 141

d) CPM

72. Fast tracking can be best described as which of the following?

a) The quickest way to achieve project manager status

b) An accelerated method of monitoring project performance

c) The practice of adding additional resources to critical path activities to compress the duration of the project

d) The practice of overlapping project activities that are normally done sequentially.

CORRECT! PMBOK page 146

73. Schedule variance is:

a) Considered a major problem by PMI

b) Not an issue for project managers because schedules do typically vary

c) The difference between the amount of time a task is scheduled to take and the actual amount of time it takes

CORRECT! Variances are always the difference between actuals and the project baselines. PMBOK page 154

d) The difference between how much the project was expected to cost and how much it is actually costing

74. You are using PERT for planning of your project. A task has a pessimistic estimate of 24 days, a most likely estimate of 15 days and an optimistic estimate of 12 days. What is the PERT estimate?

a) 15 days

b) 16 days CORRECT! The PERT formula is (O + 4(M) +P)/6. For this question this is (24 + 4(15) + 12)/6 or 16.

c) 25.5 days

d) 18 days

75. You are the project manager for a new technology implementation project. Management has requested that your estimates be as exact as possible. Which one of the following methods of estimating will provide the most accurate estimate?

a) Bottom-up estimating

b) Parametric modeling

c) Expert opinion

d) Hard to know for sure CORRECT! It is not possible to tell given the information provided. In many cases bottom-up estimates are more precise, but it is possible that there are some factors or prior history that will make one of the other estimates more accurate.

76. The level of accuracy for order of magnitude estimation is:

a) -25% to +50%

b) -50 to +100% CORRECT! This is the correct range for an order of

magnitude estimate. PMBOK page 161

c) -25% to +25%

d) -25% to +10%

77. The ongoing process of detailed planning as the project progresses s also known as:

a) Rolling wave planningCORRECT! PMBOK page 128

b) Constant integration planning

c) Continuous planning

d) Phase gates

78. Which of the following is not needed in order to develop a project duration estimate?

a) Resource requirements

b) Change-control procedure CORRECT! You need to review the activity duration estimating process. The other answers are all listed as inputs. PMBOK page 139

c) Project management plan

d) Activity list

79. What is the primary purpose of a milestone chart?

a) To highlight the critical path

b) To show resource constraints

c) To show task dependencies

d) To show the completion of significant CORRECT! A milestone chart could show the beginning or

events end dates of significant event, but the end date is most common. PMBOK page 149

80. Of the following, which one is not an example of formal communications?

a) Presentations to groups

b) Contractual agreements

c) Ad hoc conversations CORRECT! Communication can be formal or informal. Presentations and contracts are formal. Ad-hoc conversations are informal. PMBOK page 229.

d) Presentations to management

81. Of the following, which one is an example of informal communications?

a) Presentations to groups

b) Briefings

c) Speeches

d) Memos CORRECT! Communication can be formal or informal. Presentations, briefings and speeches are formal. Memos are informal. PMBOK page 229.

82. You are the project manager for the LKH Project. Management has requested that you create a document detailing the information needs of the project stakeholders and to whom that information will be disseminated. Management is asking for which one of the following?

a) Communications worksheet

b) Scope management plan

c) Roles and responsibilities matrix

d) Communications management plan CORRECT! The Communications Management Plan contains the project stakeholders and their communication needs. PMBOK page 227.

83. Which one of the following will help the project manager complete the Communications Management Plan by identifying the stakeholders and their communication needs?

a) Formal documentation of all stakeholders

b) Formal documentation of all communication channels

c) Communication requirements analysis

CORRECT! Communications Requirements Analysis is a techniques used to create the Communications Management Plan. It is the best answer here. PMBOK page 226

d) Identification of all communication channels

84. A memo has been sent to the project manager, project team members, and the project customers from the project sponsor. In this instance, who is the encoder?

a) Project manager

b) Project sponsor CORRECT! The encoder is the person sending the message. In this case it would be the sponsor. PMBOK page 224.

c) Project team members

d) Project customers

85. Of the following, which term describes the pitch and tone of an individual’s voice?

a) Feedback

b) Effective listening

c) Paralingual CORRECT! Paralingual refers to the pitch, volume and tone of the voice. It is used to convey meaning in addition to the

actual words being spoken.

d) Active listening

86. You are the project manager of the KMH Project. This project is slated to last eight years. You have just calculated EVM and have a CV of –$3500. What type of report is needed for management?

a) Performance report CORRECT! Performance reports are an output from the Performance Reporting process. It is used to summarize results compared with the project baseline. Since you have a negative CV you would want to report that you are trending overbudget. PMBOK Page 233

b) Trends report

c) Forecast report

d) Progress report

87. The three basic elements needed for information to be sent and received by two parties is:

a) Verbal, nonverbal, action

b) Proper grammar, spelling, ideas

c) Words, sentences, paragraphs

d) Sender, receiver, message CORRECT! These are the three basic elements. See PMBOK page 224

88. Which one is not a filter for receivers of communication?

a) Culture

b) Magazines CORRECT! Filters effect how we perceive messages that we receive. Our perception of the information we receive is based on our culture, our knowledge, our language, etc.

Magazines are a communication medium, not a filter.

c) Knowledge

d) Language

89. You are the project manager for the PMU Project. Your project has 13 members. You have been informed that next week your project will receive the seven additional members you requested. How many channels of communications will you have next week?

a) 20

b) 380

c) 190 CORRECT! Next week you will have 20 members (13 + 7). The formula for the number of communication channels is n(n-1)/2. In this example (20)(19)/2 is 190/. See PMBOK page 226.

d) 10

90. The process of sending information from the project manager to the project team is called which of the following:

a) Blended communications

b) Matrixing

c) Transmitting CORRECT! Transmitting is a term used to describe information being passed from the sender to the receiver.

d) Functioning

91. The results of communication planning will be reviewed and revised as needed

a) In the project execution phase

b) In the project controlling phase

c) Throughout the project CORRECT! The results of all of the outputs in the planning

process group are continually revised as needed throughout the project.

d) In the project planning phase

92. Information typically required to determine project communication requirements includes all of the following except?

a) Project organization needs

b) External communication needs

c) Organization charts

d) The communications management plan

CORRECT! The communications management plan would be the output of the Communications Planning – not an input. PMBOK page 227

93. Of the following, what does the project manager typically do the most of?

a) Budget management

b) Communications CORRECT! Studies have found that at least 50% and perhaps up to 80% of project management time is spent in communications.

c) Project organization

d) Manage team negotiations

94. Which of the following is NOT an example of a type of schedule report?

a) Network diagram

b) Milestone chart

c) Gantt chart

d) Fishbone diagram CORRECT! This is not a schedule technique. PMBOK page 149

95. Which of the following choices indicates that a project has a CPI of 1.2?

a) The PV is 100 and the AC is 120.

b) The AC is 100 and the EV is 120.CORRECT! CPI = EV/AC PMBOK page 173

c) The AC is 120 and the EV is 100.

d) The EV is 100 and the PV is 120.

96. The inputs to Cost Budgeting includes all of the following except:

a) Cost estimates

b) Cost baseline CORRECT! The cost baseline is an output from this process PMBOK page 167

c) WBS

d) Project schedule

97. Which of the following Cost Management processes are concerned with cost baseline?

a) Cost estimating

b) Cost Control CORRECT! The cost baseline is created in Cost Budgeting and used as input in Cost Control. It is not available in the Cost Estimating process. The other two answers are made up. PMBOK page 171

c) Cost verification

d) Cost of human resources

98. Estimate to completion is calculated by:

a) AC/BAC

b) EV-AC

c) EV/BAC

d) EAC – AC CORRECT! There are a number of formulas, but this is one. The others are not valid. PMBOK page 175

99. Life cycle costing:

a) Includes acquisition, operating, and disposal costs when evaluating various alternatives

CORRECT! This is the better answer. Full life cycle costs include the costs from beginning to the end of the product life.

b) Includes only the cost of the development or acquisition of a product or service

c) Does not take into consideration the effect of project decisions on the cost of using the resulting product

d) Includes costs associated with the life of the project but not before or after the project.

100. You are the project manager for the construction of a new hotel. Before you begin the cost budgeting process, what is needed?

a) Costs estimates and project schedule CORRECT! These are both inputs to the Cost Budgeting process. PMBOK page 167

b) Cost estimates and cost baseline

c) EAC and BAC

d) Parametric model used to arrive at the costs submitted

101. You are the project manager of the NXT Project. Your project is falling behind schedule and you have already spent $130,000 of your $150,000 budget. What do you call the $130,000?

a) Present value

b) Sunk costs CORRECT! Sunk cost is the term given to the money you have already spent on a project.

c) Planned value

d) Capital expenditure

102. You are the project manager of the LKG Project. The project has a budget of $290,000 and is expected to last three years. The project is now ten percent complete and is on schedule. What is the BAC?

a) $29,000

b) $96,666

c) $290,000 CORRECT! The Budget at Completion (BAC) is the expected budget you will need to complete the project. Since the project appears to be on track we can assume the currently allocated budget is still valid. PMBOK page 175

d) $9,666

103. Using the following earned value metrics; calculate the SV and CV for this project: PV=$5,000, EV=$5,250, AC=$5,500, BAC=$25,000

a) SV=–$250, CV=–$500

b) SV=$250, CV=–$500

c) SV=$250, CV=–$250 CORRECT! SV is EV-PV = $250. CV is EV – AC = -250 PMBOK page 175

d) SV=–$250, CV=$250

104. A project Earned Value Analysis gives the following results: EV: 523,000; PV: 623,000; AC: 643,000.Which results are correct?

a) CV: -100,000; SV: -120,000

b) CV: +100,000; SV: +120,000

c) CV: +120,000; SV: +100,000

d) CV: -120,000; SV: -100,000CORRECT! PMBOK page 173

105. The construction of a residential home will cost a certain amount per square foot of living space. This is an example of what type of estimating?

a) Parametric estimating CORRECT! Parametric estimating uses formulas. PMBOK page 142

b) Analogous estimating

c) Bottom-up estimating

d) Top-down estimating

106. Which performance measurement is the budgeted cost of work scheduled to be completed within a certain time frame?

a) AC

b) EV

c) EAC

d) PVCORRECT! PMBOK page 173

107. You are performing Earned Value Reporting for your project. The project's CPI is 0.9 and the budget at completion is one thousand dollars ($1000). What is the estimated cost at completion?

a) One thousand one hundred and eleven dollars ($1111)

CORRECT! EAC – BAC/CPI. There are other ways to calculate BAC but this is the only answer that makes sense. PMBOK page 175

b) Nine hundred dollars ($900)

c) One thousand dollars ($1000)

d) One thousand nine hundred dollars ($1900)

108. A series of activities to create a unique product or service by a specific date is best described as which one of the following?

a) An operationb) Programc) Sub-Projectd) Project CORRECT! Section 1.2 on page 5 of the PMBOK 3rd

Edition.

109. What is the main difference between a program manager and a project manager?

a) There are no major differences. The terms are interchangeable.

b) A program manager coordinates and manages a group of projects to obtain benefits not available by managing them individually.

CORRECT! Refer to page 16 in the PMBOK Guide 3rd Edition. Section 1.6.1

c) A project manager may direct one or more program managers.

d) A program manager is part of a PMO.

110. Which of the following statements regarding authority types is true?

a) Referential authority is based on the number of references on your resume.

b) Legitimate authority is based on an individual’s organizational authority or position.

CORRECT! Legitimate authority is based on an individual’s organizational authority or position. Answers A and C are incorrect because referential authority is based on the ability to use authority, other than your own, to get a project done. Answer D is incorrect because coercive power is based on fear.

c) With referential authority, a project manager can enforce the execution of certain project tasks.

d) Legitimate authority is based on fear.

111. The characteristics of a project lifecycle include all the following except which one?

a) Deliverable approvalsb) A phase to transition the project to

ongoing operationsc) High risk CORRECT!d) A defined beginning and ending

112. Typically signing of project charter is the responsibility of?

a) Senior Management CORRECT! It is the process necessary for

documenting the business needs and the new product, service, or other result that is intended to satisfy those requirements. This chartering links the project to the ongoing work of the organization and authorizes the project. Projects are chartered and authorized external to the project by the organization, a program or portfolio management body. See page 45 in the PMBOK Guide 3rd Edition

b) Project Sponsorc) Project Managerd) Project stakeholders

113. Which process identifies the project manager?

a) Project Initiation CORRECT! The project manager is assigned and authorized by the Project Charter which occurs during the Project Initiation Phases.

b) Project Planningc) Scope Planningd) Project Selection Process

114. Key Interpersonal skills do NOT include:

a) Negotiatingb) Leadingc) Communicatingd) Computer programming skills CORRECT! See section 1.5.5 in the PMBOK Guide

3rd Edition on page 15.

115. A Participative style of leadership is best suited for optimizing team performance in projects. However, a project manager with a highly participative style is apt to encounter problems in which type of organization?

a) Participativeb) Hierarchical CORRECT! See page 28 in the PMBOK Guide 3rd

Edition.c) Functionald) Autocratic

116. The information from the initiating phase is input into which of the following processes?

a) Executingb) Controlling and Monitoringc) Planning CORRECT! I.P.E.C.C Initiate - Planning - Execution -

Control and Monitor - Close in the order.d) Closing

117. Which process represents an ongoing effort throughout the project?

a) Planning CORRECT! See Section 3.2.2 on page 46 in the PMBOK Guide 3rd Edition

b) Lessons learnedc) Closingd) EVM

118. Which of the following processes happen in the correct order?

a) Scope definition, scope planning, activity definition, activity sequencing

b) Scope planning, resource planning, activity duration estimating, activity sequencing

c) Scope planning, activity definition, activity duration estimating, cost budgeting

d) Scope planning, scope definition, activity definition, activity sequencing

CORRECT! See Pages 48 - 51 in the PMBOK Guide 3rd Edition

119. In what process is the project manager selected to manage a project?

a) Planningb) Initiation CORRECT! The PM is assigned and authorized during

the Project Charter phases. The Project Charter phase occurs during Project Initiation. The initial scope description and the resources that the organization is willing to invest are further refined during the initiation process. If not already assigned, the project manager will be selected. Initial assumptions and constraints will also be documented. This information is captured in the Project Charter and, when it is approved, the project becomes officially authorized.

c) Controllingd) Design

120. Which of the following planning processes identifies which standards are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy them?

a) Resource planningb) Quality planning CORRECT! See page 52 in the PMBOK Guide 3rd

Edition.c) Cost budgetingd) Activity definition