RET–8 (CHAMP) FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited., 5-9-14/B, Saifabad, (Opp. Secretariat) Hyderabad–500 063. Phone: 040-66777000-03 Fax: 040-66777004 FIITJEE RET – 8 (2018– 2020)(2 ND YEAR_CHAMPIONS) IIT-2017 (P2) DATE: 19.08.2019 Time: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 183 INSTRUCTIONS: A. General 1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 54 questions. 2. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall. 3. Fill in the boxes provided for Name and Enrolment No. 4. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response (ORS), is provided separately. 5. DO NOT TAMPER WITH / MULTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET. B. Filling in the OMR: 6. The instructions for the OMR sheet are given on the OMR itself. C. Question paper format & Marking Scheme 7. Each part has three sections as detailed in the following table: Section Question Type Number of Questions Category wise Marks Each Question Maximum marks of the section Full Marks Partial Marks Zero Marks Negative Marks 1 Single Correct Option 7 +3 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct option is darkened ––– 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened –1 In all other cases 21 2 One or more correct option(s) 7 +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) is (are) darkened. +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided NO incorrect option is darkened. 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened. –2 In all other case. 28 3 Compreh ension 4 +3 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct option is darkened ––– 0 In all other case. ––– 12 Don’t write / mark your answers in this question booklet. If you mark the answers in question booklet, you will not be allowed to continue the exam. NAME: ENROLLMENT NO.:
This document is posted to help you gain knowledge. Please leave a comment to let me know what you think about it! Share it to your friends and learn new things together.
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 54 questions.
2. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.
3. Fill in the boxes provided for Name and Enrolment No.
4. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response (ORS), is provided separately.
5. DO NOT TAMPER WITH / MULTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.
B. Filling in the OMR:
6. The instructions for the OMR sheet are given on the OMR itself.
C. Question paper format & Marking Scheme
7. Each part has three sections as detailed in the following table:
Section Question Type
Number of Questions
Category wise Marks Each Question Maximum marks of the section
Full Marks Partial Marks Zero Marks Negative Marks
1 Single Correct Option
7
+3
If only the bubble corresponding to the correct option is darkened
––– 0
If none of the bubbles is darkened
–1
In all other cases
21
2 One or more correct option(s)
7
+4
If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) is (are) darkened.
+1
For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided NO incorrect
option is darkened.
0
If none of the bubbles is darkened.
–2
In all other case.
28
3 Comprehension
4
+3
If only the bubble corresponding to the correct option is darkened
––– 0
In all other case.
––– 12
Don’t write / mark your answers in this question booklet. If you mark the answers in question booklet, you will not be allowed to continue the exam.
SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 15) This section contains SEVEN questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) in the ORS.
For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three will get +4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will get +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B) will get –2 marks, as a wrong option is also darkened.
8. A charged particle of specific charge moves with a velocity oˆv v i in a magnetic field 0B ˆ ˆB ( j k)
2 .
Then (specific charge = charger per unit mass)a (A) Path of the particle is helix (B) Path of the particle is circle
(C) Distance moved by particle in time 0
tB
is 0
0
v
B
(D) Velocity of particle after time 0
tB
is 0 0v vˆ ˆi j
2 2
9. A positively charged particle with velocity ˆ ˆv x i y j moves in a magnetic field ˆ ˆB y i x j both x and y are
constants. The magnitude of magnetic force acting on the particle is F. Which one of the following statement(s) is/are correct:
(A) no force will act on particle if x = y (B) F (x2 – y
2) if x > y
(C) the force will act along z-axis if x > y (D) the force will act along y-axis if y >x 10. Three infinitely long conductors A, B and C are carrying
current as shown in figure. The position of the point lying in the straight line AC, where magnetic field is zero, is approximately given by
(A) between A and B at a distance of 3.2 cm from B
(B) between B and C at a distance of 3.2 cm from B (C) between A and B at a distance of 1.3 cm from B (D) between B and C at a distance of 1.3 cm from B 11. A straight conductor carries a current. Assume that all free electrons in the conductor move with the same
drift velocity . A and B are two observers on a straight line XY parallel to the conductor. A is stationary, B
moves along XY with a velocity in the direction of the free electrons.
A) A and B observe the same magnetic field
B) A observes a magnetic field, B does not
C) A and B observe magnetic fields of the same magnitude but opposite directions.
12. In the loops shown, all curved sections are either semicircles or quarter circles. All the loops carry the
same current. The magnetic fields at the centres have magnitudes B1, B2, B3 and B4.
A) B4 is maximum B) B3 is minimum C) B4 > B1 > B2 > B3 D) B1 > B4 > B3 > B2
13. An infinite current carrying wire passes through point O
and in perpendicular to the plane containing a current carrying loop ABCD as shown in the figure. Choose the correct option(s).
(A) Net force on the loop is zero (B) Net torque on the loop is zero (C)As seen from O, the loop rotates clockwise (D) As seen from O, the loop rotates anticlockwise
14. Two infinite plates carry j ampere of
current out of the page per unit width of the plate as shown. BP and BQ represent magnitude of magnetic field at points P and Q respectively.
18. The magnitude and direction of the magnetic field in terms of 0,I,r and a at point
2P is ____________.
(A) 2 2
0
2 2
I 2r aB
r 4r a
directed toward the top of the page
(B) 2 2
0
2 2
I 2r aB
r 4r a
directed toward the bottom of the page
(C) 2 2
0
2 2
I 4r aB
r 2r a
directed toward the top of the page
(D) 2 2
0
2 2
I 4r aB
r 2r a
directed toward the bottom of the page
PART II: CHEMISTRY SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 28)
This section contains SEVEN questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to all the correct option in the ORS.
19. The minimum concentration of an electrolyte which is able to cause coagulation of a sol is termed as its (A) emulsification value (B) saponification value (C) flocculation value (D) gold number. 20. Which of the following is a hydrophilic colloidal sol ? (A) Barium sulphate solution (B) Arsenius sulphide solution (C) Starch sol (D) Silver iodide sol. 21. The colloidal sols are purified by (A) peptization (B) coagulation (C) dialysis (D) flocculation 22. If the disperse phase and the dispersion medium both are liquid, the colloidal solution is classified as (A) emulsion (B) foam (C) gel (D) supercooled liquid 23. The emulsifying agent in milk is (A) lactic acid (B) casein (C) lactose (D) fat
24. A butter is (A) a gel (B) an emulsion (C) a sol (D) none of these
25. Which of the following statements is correct in the context of sodium stearate, 3 2 16CH CH COO Na
?
(A) It is a major component of many bar soaps. (B) The R–group is the nonpolar tail and is hydrophobic (C) The –COO group is the polar–ionic head nad is hydrophilic. (D) All of these
SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 15) This section contains SEVEN questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) in the ORS.
For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three will get +4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will get +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B) will get –2 marks, as a wrong option is also darkened.
26. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ? (A) Adsorption is a non-spontaneous process (B) Surface energy decreases during the process of adsorption (C) Adsorption takes place with decrease of entropy (D) Physical adsorption is exothermic process whereas chemisorption is endothermic 27. Point out the false statement (A) Brownian motion and Tyndall effect are shown by colloidal systems (B) The colloidal solution of a liquid in liquid is called emulsion (C) Hardy–Schulze law is related with coagulation of a sol (D) Higher is the gold number, greater will be the protective power of a lyophilic colloid 28. Which of the following is arranged in order of decreasing coagulating power ? (A) NaCl > BaCl2 > AlCl3 (B) BaCl2 > AlCl3 > NaCl (C) AlCl3 > BaCl2 > NaCl (D) BaCl2 > NaCl > AlCl3
29. On adding AgNO3 solution in KI solution, a negatively charged colloidal sol is formed when the contents are
(A) 100 mL of 0.1 M AgNO3 + 100 mL of 0.1 M KI (B) 100 mL of 0.1 M AgNO3 + 100 mL of 0.2 M KI (C) 100 mL of 0.2 M AgNO3 + 100 mL of 0.1 M KI (D) 100 mL of 0.1 M AgNO3 + 100 mL of 0.25 M KI 30. Which of the following properties of lyophilic sols are more than that of lyophobic sols ? (A) surface tension compared to medium (B) viscosity compared to meidum (C) stability (D) solubility in a given solvent 31. Select the correct statement(s) about macromolecular colloids (A) Multimolecular or macromolecular colloids consist of aggregate of atoms or small molecules with
diameter less than 1 nm (B) Molecules are hold together by van dar Waal’s forces (C) Most lyophilic sols belong to this class (D) Most lyophobic sols belong to this class 32. Select the correct statement(s).
(A) The cleansing action of soap is due to affinity of soap anions as stearate 17 35C H COO
(B) Soap are known as emulsifyng agents
(C) 17 35C H R part of soap has affinity for grease, oil or dirt and is tail of the anion
(D) COO– part of soap has affinity for water and is head of the anion
SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 18) This section contains TWO paragraphs.
Based on each paragraph, there are TWO questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
Paragraph–1 Ferric hydroxide sol is formed by adding FeCl3 to hot distilled water.
3 2 2 3 2FeCl 6H O Fe O .3H O 6HCl
33. Advantage of boiling during process is that (A) HCl formed is removed along with water vapour from the system (B) FeOCl is removed (C) Fe2O3 is removed (D) FeCl3 is removed 34. Sol is stabilised by (A) HCl (B) FeOCl (C) FeCl3 (D) All of these
Paragraph–2 There are certain colloids which behave as normal strong electrolytes at low concentrations, but exhibit collidal properties at higher concentrations due to formation of aggregated particles. 35. Aggregated particles are called (A) emulsions (B) micelles (C) aerosols (D) aquosols 36. Select correct statement(s) about CMC. (A) It is the lowest concentration at which formatio of aggreagted particle starts (B) For soaps, CMC is 10
–4 to 10
–3 mol L
–1
(C) Both (a) and (b) (D) None of the above
PART III: MATHEMATICS SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 28)
This section contains SEVEN questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to all the correct option in the ORS.
SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 15) This section contains SEVEN questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) in the ORS.
For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three will get +4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will get +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B) will get –2 marks, as a wrong option is also darkened.
44. If x x
2x
ex x
4e 6edx Ax Blog 9e 4 C
9e 4e
(A) A = 3/2 (B) B = 35/36 (C) C is indefinite (D) 19
A B36
45. Let
1/ 2
3
x 2dx gof x c
31 x
, then
(A) f x x (B) 3/ 2f x x (C) 2/3f x x (D) 1g x sin x
46. If cosec2xdx f g x c , then
(A) range of g(x) = (-,) (B) domain of f(x) = (-,) – {0}
(C) g’(x) = sec2x (D) f’(x) = 1/x for all x (0, )
47. If x tan 1/n In 1/n
nf x lim e
and
113
f xdx g x c
sin xcosx , then
(A) 3
g4 2
(B) g(x) is continuous for all x
(C) 15
g4 8
(D) g(x) is non differentiable at infinitely many points
48. If 1 1 2 1 2cos x cos 1 x dx Ax f x sin x 2 1 x c x [-1, 0), then
(A) f(x) = x (B) f(x) = -2x (C) A4
(D) A
2
49. The value of
2
x
20
t tdt
1 t
is equal to
(A) 14 x tan x , if x < 0 (B) 0, if x > 0
(C) 2In 1 x , if x > 0 (D) none of these
50. If the primitive of sin(In x) is f(x) {sin g(x) – cos h(x) } + c (c being the constant of integration), then
(A) x 2limf x 1
(B)
x 1
g xlim 1
h x (C) 3g e 3 (D) 5h e 5
SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 18) This section contains TWO paragraphs.
Based on each paragraph, there are TWO questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
Paragraph–1
y = f(x) is a polynomial function passing through point (0, 1) and which increases in the intervals (1, 2) and
(3, ) and decreases in the intervals (-, 1) and (2, 3) 51. If f(1) = -8 then the value of f(2) is (A) -3 (B) -6 (C) -20 (D) -7 52. If f(1) = -8, then the range of f(x) is