fd

N a m e : W a e l A b d e l H a m i d E l - M a g h r a b iE - m a i l : [email protected] o b i l e : 0 1 0 8 4 8 8 7 8 3

No Subject Page No Subject Page1 Table of Parts 1 23 Non-Metallic Materials - Wood 54

2 HYD 2 24 Reinforced Plastics 54

3 Landing Gear 6 25 WASTE & WATER 56

4 Flight Control 9 26

ENGINE

Gas Turbine engine 58

5 A/C structures 17 27 Turbine Construction 61

6 Ground handling 22 28 Propeller provision 63

7 Safety equipment 24 29 Thrust reverser 65

8 Oxygen 25 30 APU 66

9 Baggage 28 31 Engine Fuel SYS 68

10 Air conditioning 29 32 A/C fuel SYS 70

11 Pneumatic Systems 32 33 Lubrication 74

12 Ice & rain protection 33 34 water/methanol injection 72

13 Pressurization 35 35 Air sealing 80

14 Basic Electrics 39 36 Surge protection 81

15 Electrical 41 37 Ice protection 81

16 Work shop tool 43 38 Ignition 82

17 Work shop practices 45 39 Starting 83

18 Common Parts 46 40 Engine controls 84

19 Gases & Compounds 47 41 Electrical 87

20 Metals 49 42 Engine indication 88

21 Aerodynamics 50 43 Answers 90

22 Substructures 51 44 Comments 99

ATITA1

In French: L’Association Technique des Industries Thermiques et Aérauliques.In English : The Technical Association of Thermal and Aeraulic Industries.

EASA2

European Aviation Safety Agency3

EASA Part 21 requirements includeDOAs: Design Organization ApprovalsPOAs: Production Organization Approvals.

Shortcuts:A/C : A/CHYD : HydraulicSYS : SystemConst. : Constant.DC : Direct CurrentAC : Alternative CurrentT/O : Take off

و . ?1 الدافئ للتيار التقنية .صناعاتالالجمعية الهوائية 2. http://www.easa.eu.int/home/pressroom_vid.html.

األوروبية� .3 الطيراِن� أماِن� وكالة

Eng. M.Nasr.Shams Re-Edited By Eng. Wael El-Maghrabi August 2007-Hangar 6000 EAME. 1 / 36

http://www.easa.eu.int/home/pressroom_vid.html

mailto:[email protected]

E N G I N E

Gas Turbine Engine

Thrust Calculations (g = 32.2ft/sec/sec)1. The thrust produced by an engine or propeller can be calculated

from the following formula, thrust equals:a. W x (V2 + VI) x g.b. M x V2 x g.c. (W x (V2 - VI))/g

2. Given that the mass airflow through a propeller is 322 lb/sec, inlet velocity 200 ft/sec. and outlet velocity 1000 ft/sec, the thrust developed will be:a. 8,000 lbs.b. 12,000 lbs.c. 32,200 lbs.

Convergent/Divergent Ducts3. If we measure the speed of air flowing through a venture we find

that it is at a maximum at the:a. Inlet.b. Outlet.c. Throat.

4. The flow of air through a convergent duct is subject to a process of:a. Compression.b. Expansion.c. Diffusion.

5. A nozzle is said to be 'choked' when the air flow:a. Becomes sonic.b. Is supersonic.c. Decreases due to increasing dynamic pressure.

6. For any given engine, if the velocity of the jet stream is increased this will cause the: •a. Overall efficiency to increase.b. Propulsive efficiency to decrease.c. Thrust to decrease.

7. If the temperature drop across the turbine is increased, this results in an increase in:a. Thermal efficiency.b. Propulsive efficiency.c. Overall efficiency.

8. On a straight gas turbine engine, to achieve a relatively low SFC it will be necessary to operate the engine at a:a. Higher thrust setting.b. Higher exhaust velocity.c. Reduced gas temperature.

9. A high propulsive efficiency will be achieved if for a given A/C speed:a. More fuel is burnt.b. The gas temperature is reduced.c. The jet velocity is increased.


10.When considering a typical bypass type turbo jet twin spool engine, the bypass ratio is determined by the:a. Splitter unit.b. HP compressor speed.c. LP turbine speed.

11.On a twin spool type engine, what unit controls Nl?a. The HP governor.b. The P3 limiter.c. The LP governor.

12.What unit controls HP compressor pressure?a. The P3 limiter.b. The HP rpm controller.c. The top temperature controller.

13.Increasing altitude will cause an overall:a. Increase in thrust.b. increase in momentum drag.c. decrease in thrust.

14.Increasing forward speed will cause:a. Decreasing momentum drag.b. an overall reduction in thrust.c. increasing pressure thrust.

15.What effect does decreasing OAT have on engine thrust? It causes:a. An increase in overall thrust.b. a thrust decrease, because of decreasing rpm.c. a decrease in thrust due to increasing momentum drag.

16.The pressure ratio at each stage of compression in an axial flow engine is about:a. 4.5 to 1b. 1.2 to 1c. 3.5 to 1

17.During a surge condition the exhaust gas temperature will:a. Increase.b. Decrease.c. Remain stable.

18.A stall normally develops at the:a. Combustion chamber.b. forward stages of compression.c. later stages of compression.

19.As air is compressed it will:a. Reduce in temperature.b. Remain stable.c. Increase in temperature.

20.Energy extraction to drive the turbine is:a. 25% of total energy.b. 75% of total energy.c. 10% of total energy.

21.Air passing through the diffuser case will:a. Increase in velocity.b. Decrease in temperature,c. Increase in pressure.


22.How much air is taken in by the combustion section snout for combustion purposes?a. 25%.b. 75%.c. 35%.

23.Nozzle guide vanes are cooled by air extracted from:a. Turbine flow.b. Combustion section.c. Compressor section.

24.Dilution holes in a combustion section are used toa. Allow air into the can for mixing purposes.b. Stabilise the flame.c. Cool the hot gases before they reach the nozzle guide vanes.

25.To prolong the life of turbine blades and prevent creep, it is advisable to:a. Keep exhaust temperature to a maximum.b. Keep exhaust temperature to a minimum.c. Fit additional stages of compression.

26.The part of the turbine engine that initially directs air onto the first stage turbine is known as the:a. Nozzle guide vanes.b. Swirl vanes.c. Stators.

27.During a certain stage of its life a turbine blade will creep at a small but const. rate. This stage is known as:a. Tertiary.b. Secondary.c. Primary.

28.The term N1, relates to:a. The low pressure compressor rotation.b. The high pressure compressor rotation.c. The accessory gearbox speed.

29.The water used in water injection Systems has to be:a. Distilled.b. Clean tap water.c. De-mineralised.

30.Compressor discharge pressure (CDP) is sensed at:a. The turbine outlet.b. The compressor inlet.c. The compressor outlet.

31.Fuel fogging takes place at the:a. Compressor inlet.b. Exhaust pipe outlet.c. Compressor outlet.

32.Water injection of fuel Systems:a. Increases the air density.b. Reduces air density.c. Makes no change in air density.

33.The method used by modern airliners to reduce landing runs and wear on wheel and brake Systems is known as :a. Arrester wire and hook method.b. Brake parachute.c. Thrust reversal.


34.In the free turbine propeller turbine design, the propeller is connected to:a. The compressor.b. The turbine via a separate shaft.c. The engine by-pass fan.

35.The auxiliary power unit:a. Provides electrical power when the engines are not running.b. Is used for additional thrust.c. Is battery operated from a ground power unit.

36.Select the true statement from the three below.a. The propeller turbine engine is more efficient at high altitudes

above 36,000 ft.b. It is more efficient above 450 knots.c. It has better fuel and power efficiency at low altitudes.

37.An engine trim run will be required when:a. An engine is replaced.b. After every landing.c. If the temperature is above 15°C.

38.Information relating to engine trimming and associated charts will be found in:a. Chapter 72 of the Maintenance Manual.b. Chapter 24 of the Maintenance Manual.c. Chapter 79 of the Maintenance Manual.

39.Use of part power settings during trim runs will:a. Reduce hot section life.b. Increase hot section life.c. Increase noise levels but reduce fuel consumption.

Turbine construction

1. To ensure high compressor efficiency, the velocity of the airflow at the compressor inlet is normally not in excess of:

a. Mach 0.5.b. Mach 0.75.c. Mach 1.

2. A supersonic diffuser takes the form of a:a. Convergent/divergent duct.b. Divergent duct.c. Convergent duct.

3. In the vaneless space, the pressure, velocity and temperature of air leaving the impeller will:

a. Increase.b. Remain unchanged.c. Decrease.

4. The maximum pressure ratio obtained by a single stage centrifugal compressor is relatively low, being in the region of:

a. 1:1.b. 4:1.c. 6.25:1.


5. The rotating guide vanes of a centrifugal impeller are normally manufactured from:

a. Steel, as the leading edges are more prone to impact damage.b. Aluminium alloy, because lightness of structure is important.c. Titanium, because of its good resistance to high temperature.

6. When considering the rotating assembly, the complete disc assembly including spacer rings is secured on the shaft by:

a. Splines.b. a retaining ring nut.c. a bolted flanged plate.

7. Stagger angle is the term applicable to the:a. Angle of twist on a rotor blade.b. Misalignment permissible between rotor blades and stator blades.c. Tangential disposition of inlet guide vanes.

8. The passage formed between individual rotor blades is:a. Convergent.b. Convergent/divergent.c. Divergent.

9. The pressure rise across one stage of the axial flow compressor is:a. Not more than 1.3:1.b. 4:1 maximum.c. Greater than that attained by a single stage centrifugal

compressor.10.Stop plates are fitted in an axial compressor in order to prevent:a. Axial movement of the rotor spacer rings.b. Circumferential movement of the stator blades.c. Axial movement of the compressor shaft at high rpm.

11.Air used for combustion is termed:a. Primary and secondary.b. Primary.c. Tertiary.

12.The ratio of kerosine to air for efficient combustion is :a. 1:45b. 1:130.c. 1:15.

13.What is a can-annular combustion SYS?a. A set of flame tubes each mounted in a separate air casing.b. A set of flame tubes enclosed in a common air casing.c. One common tube enclosed in a common air casing.

14.What is the purpose of the tertiary airflow created in the combustion chamber?

a. To reduce the gas temperature and to cool the flame head.b. To reduce the gas temperature and to cool the burner head.c. To ensure the complete combustion of the fuel.

15.An advantage of an annular combustion chamber is that:a. The diameter of the engine is reduced.b. There is unrestricted airflow at maximum rpm.c. There is a decrease in engine length.

16.The approximate amount of mass airflow taken in by the combustor snout is:

a. 18%.b. 82%.c. 25%.


17.The overall air/fuel ratio of a combustion chamber can vary between:

a. 10:1 to 45:1.b. 45:1 to 130:1.c. 130:1 to 200:1.

18.Combustion chamber flame temperatures can be as high as:a. 500 C.b. 2000 C.c. 1400 C.

Propeller provision

1. The propulsive efficiency of a propeller turbine engine is higher than that of a jet-turbine at A/C speeds:a. Above 450 mph.b. Below 400 mph.c. Within the range 450 mph and 700 mph.

2. The performance of a turbo-prop engine is measured in:a. Lbs thrust.b. Lbs per square inch.c. Shaft horse power.

3. If the rpm of a variable pitch propeller increases, the blade angle:a. Decreases.b. Increases.c. Remains unchanged.

4. If the blade angle is increased:a. The pitch becomes coarser.b. The pitch becomes finer.c. It has no effect on the pitch of the blade.

5. What does the term 'onspeed' mean?a. The blade pitch remains fixed and the engine speed is const.b. There is sufficient turbine power to drive the propeller.c. The engine has left the minimum const. speed range.

6. Turbo-prop engines require a slightly higher viscosity oil than turbo-jet engines due to:a. The higher engine rpm.b. The lower engine rpm.c. The reduction gear and pitch change mechanism.

7. The taxi range on a turbo-propeller assembly is known as the :a. Alpha range.b. Beta range.c. Delta range.

8. A low torque indication provides a signal which:a. Causes the blades to feather.b. Decreases blade angle.c. Increases blade angle.

9. Propeller pitch is:a. The angle of attack of the blades in relation to the propeller

hub.b. The distance moved forward in one revolution of the propeller.c. The angle between the propeller and the engine shaft.


10.What is blade angle?a. The angle between the chord line and the propeller axis.b. The angle between the line of airflow and the propeller axis.c. The angle between the chord line and plane of rotation.

11.Blades are said to be feathered:a. When the blade angle is at course.b. When the blade has been turned leading edge on to the airflow.c. When the propeller is wind milling.

12.The const. speed governor works on the principle of:a. Oil under pressure.b. Manual operation.c. Centrifugal force.

13.Centrifugal turning moment tends to turn the blade towards:a. Coarse pitch.b. Fine pitch.c. Negative pitch.

14.What does 'on speed" mean when related to the PCU?a. That the speed of the propeller has been controlled to the speed

of the engine.b. That the speed ratio between the engine and propeller is

correct.c. That the governor weights are balanced to the opposing PCU

spring force.15.On engine starting, the painted lines on the propeller blades and

the spinner coincide when the pitch is:a. Flight fineb. Featherc. Ground fine.

16.If on throttling back to idle during a ground run the EGT starts to rise rapidly, would you:a. Close the HP cock.b. Open the throttle.c. Select 'lock out'.

17.The purpose of the FFPS is to:a. Maintain minimum const. speed in flight.b. Prevent the propeller moving into GFP in flightc. Maintain a minimum blade angle in cruise.


Thrust reverser

1. To ensure that reversers only operate on the ground one of the inputs to the isolation valve control unit is the:a. Ground/air sense.b. Deactivation pin in the isolation valve.c. Feedback cables to the control drum.

2. The directional control valve receives signals from the:a. Isolation valve.b. Control drum.c. Feedback cable.

3. Feedback cables are normally connected to the control drum at one end, and the other end is connected to the:a. Door linkage.b. Isolation valve.c. Directional control valve.

4. Before Reverse Thrust can be selected ,The Fwd Thrust lever must be a. At idle.b. At full power.c. At intermediate power position.

5. The purpose of cascade Vanes is that they direct gas flowa. rearwardb. onto the fan bladesc. In a Forward direction

6. The electric Solenoid on the isolation valve receives its Signal from the: a. reverse thrust leverb. directional control valvec. strut drum box

7. The directional control valve is activated by mechanical signal from the: a. Strut boxb. Isolation valvec. Feedback cable

8. As a safety measure, Pins can be inserted into the SYS to prevent an advertent operation during maintenance, this can be inserted in the:a. Feedback cable b. Strut boxc. Isolation valve

9. In the HYD fan reverser SYS described, how is the centre actuator UN locked?a. By HYD pressure unlocking the lock leverb. By pneumatic air unlocking lock leverc. By the directional control valve unlocking the lock lever

10.Normally the air supply for pneumatic Fan reversers is from: a. Air bottle supplyb. Compressor bleedc. Turbine air bleed

11.How can a thrust reverser SYS be electrically isolated: a. By inserting a locking pinb. By a pulling circuit breakerc. By locking the reverser thrust lever


12.What component is fitted to ensure the correct operating Pressure for a pneumatically operated reverse SYS?a. An isolation valveb. A directional control valvec. A pressure regulating valve

APU

1. The load compressor is driven by the:a. turbine,b. Accessory gearbox.c. Combustion chamber exhausts gas.

2. As well as providing electrical power, the APU provides pneumatic power to:a. Drive the HYD pump.b. Provide an engine start function.c. Provide equipment cooling.

3. The A/C structure and components are protected from exhaust duct temperature by:a. Wrapping the duct in an insulating blanket.b. Directing cooling air into the exhaust duct.c. Nothing. There is no requirement for structural protection

because of the APU bay size.4. Once the APU inlet door open, signal is sent from the ctrl box to:

a. Operate the load compressor.b. Turn the fuel supply on.c. Turn the starter motor.

5. The by-pass valve acceleration limiter senses air pressure::a. From the exhaust duct.b. From the compressor air.c. From the turbine.

6. During an over temperature condition, the thermostat will bleed air from the:a. By-pass valve (acceleration limiter).b. Exhaust duct.c. Speed governor.

7. The APU speed is controlled by the:a. Thermostat.b. Governor.c. Acceleration limiter.

8. The operation of the flow divider is controlled by the:a. Air pressure.b. Thermostat.c. Fuel pressure.

9. The bleed control valves are:a. Pneumatically operated, electrically controlled.b. Hydraulically operated, pneumatically controlled.c. Pneumatically operated, pneumatically controlled.

10.The control thermostat bleeds air from the:a. Compressor.b. Inlet guide vane actuator.c. Bleed control valve.


11.The switcher valve controls the pressure air to the:a. Inlet guide vane actuator.b. bleed control valve,c. Control thermostat.

12.In the event of a failure of the control thermostat to operate, the bleed SYS is protected from over temperature by the:a. Bleed valve opening.b. IGV actuator moving the vanes to the open position.c. Immersion thermocouple interrupting power to the bleed valve.

13.The movement of the IGV actuator is controlled by the:a. Bleed switch.b. Control thermostat.c. Auxiliary power control unit.

14.The cooling fan on an APU is driven by the:a. Turbine.b. Compressor.c. Gearbox.

15.The cooling fan shut-off valve is controlled by the:a. Compressor discharge pressure.b. Turbine exhausts pressure.c. Compressor inlet pressure.

16.What component is fitted to protect the APU compartment from differential pressures?a. A pressure switch in the pneumatic duct.b. A 'blow in' door assembly.c. A bleed valve fitted in the pneumatic duct.

17.Which APU indicating gauge will give an indication of the condition of the APU?a. The EGT gauge.b. The bleed air duct pressure gauge.c. The rpm gauge.

18.For the typical APU start sequence described in this booklet, the APU starter will dropout at:a. 7 % rpmb. 50% rpmc. 95%rpm

19.How can we ascertain that the extinguishing has been discharged from the APU fire bottle:a. By a bottle discharge light.b. By a red light on the APU fire handle.c. By a master warning light illuminating.

20.APU electrical generators are designed to run at:a. 12,000 rpm.b. 42,000 rpm.c. 8,000 rpm.

21.During APU start sequence the APU 'load' light illuminate at:a. 50%.b. 100%.c. 95%.


Engine Fuel System

1. Which type of fuel pump has an impeller fitted:a. The const. displacement pump.b. The variable displacement pump.c. The double acting displacement pump.

2. What will be the position of the cam plate of a variable displacement pump if the interrupter blade in the kinetic spill valve completely separates the two opposing flows?a. Off load.b. On load.c. Intermediate load.

3. In a const. displacement type pump, how is maximum pressure controlled?a. By a servo valve.b. By a cam plate.c. By a pressure relief valve.

4. In an engine fuel SYS, the component that meters and computes the correct fuel flow to the engines is the:a. Fuel pump.b. Fuel control unit.c. Fuel heater.

5. A decrease in air density will cause:a. An increase in thrust.b. A decrease in thrust.c. No effect on thrust.

6. Which sensor adjusts fuel flow in relation to temperature changes?a. The CDP limiter.b. The compressor inlet temperature sensor.c. The throttle valve.

7. In which ATA Maintenance Manual chapter will you find information on fuel control?a. Chapter 71.b. Chapter 36.c. Chapter 73.

8. Servo pressure operates certain components within the fuel control unit, one of these is the :a. Pilot valve.b. CDP limiter.c. Compressor inlet temperature sensor.

9. The purpose of the throttle valve is to:a. Ensure that the correct amount of fuel is directed to the

burners.b. Allow servo pressure to the CIT sensor.c. Direct unwanted fuel back to the high pressure boost pump.

10.The electronic engine control SYS receives its electrical power: a. From the A/C's main generators.b. From the battery supply.c. From an independent power source.

11.The T2 electrical sensor provides inlet temperature signal to:a. EEC computer.b. The thrust management computer.c. The fuel control unit.


12.The digital air data computer receives signals related to the:a. Fuel flow.b. Ambient pressure.c. Compressor discharge pressure.

13.The torque drive motor receives its signal from the:a. Electronic engine control computer.b. Thrust management computer.c. Fuel control unit.

14.The digital air data computer provides signals to the :a. Fuel control unit.b. Electronic engine control computer.c. Flight deck instruments.

15.The flow meter indicates the:a. Mass flow.b. Fuel density.c. Specific gravity.

16.A fuel filter light indicates:a. A fuel filters by-pass condition.b. An oil cooler blockage.c. A blocked fuel filter.

17.The fuel filter differential switch senses:a. Filter inlet pressure only.b. Filter outlet pressure only.c. A combination of inlet and outlet pressures.

18.To prevent fuel loss from the SYS during a fuel filter change, the filter has a:a. By-pass valve fitted.b. Fuel shut-off valve fitted.c. Non return valve in the fuel pump assembly.

19.Duplex nozzles have:a. Primary and secondary flow.b. Secondary flow only.c. Primary flow only.

20.The type of fuel flow associated with a 'tulip' spray is:a. Low pressure flow.b. High pressure flow.c. Intermediate pressure flow.

21.Some nozzles have an airflow directed across the fuel outlet, this is to:a. Help create a better spray pattern.b. Cool the nozzle head.c. Prevent carbon deposits forming.

22.Which nozzle type has tangential swirl ports?a. Duplex.b. Simplex.c. A combination of both.

23.In a typical flow divider, how is the fuel flow prevented from reaching the secondary manifold during start-up?a. By using a spring loaded pressurising valve.b. By incorporating a dump valve.c. By inclusion of a spring loaded filter assembly.


24.A secondary fuel flow manifold is required during:a. Start-up.b. High power settings.c. Low power settings.

A/C fuel System

1. There are three types of fuel tank. These are:a. Fuselage, wing and saddle tanks.b. Rigid, semi-rigid and flexible.c. Rigid, flexible and integral.

2. An 'integral1 tank is:a. A specific fuel tank fitted in a fuselage.b. A sealed compartment of an A/C structure.c. A permanently fitted external tank.

3. Baffle plates are fitted in fuel tanks to:a. Strengthen the internal structure.b. Attach a rigid tank to the A/C structure.c. Prevent surging of the fuel during abnormal manoeuvres.

4. How are flexible tanks supported within their compartments?a. With rivets.b. With studs or cord.c. No support is required as they are 'wet' assembled during

manufacture.5. When fitting flexible tanks it is important that any protruding

material is:a. Removed.b. Smoothed flat with files.c. Covered with tape or rubber.

6. A 'wet1 tank is:a. An integral tank.b. A flexible tank.c. A rigid tank.

7. Fuel tanks are vented so that:a. Excess fuel can drain away rapidly after over-filling.b. Fuel can be jettisoned in an emergency.c. A vacuum will not form as fuel is used.

8. The international marking symbol for fuel is:a. A black four pointed star.b. A black circle.c. A red triangle.

9. The normal maximum pressure for pressure refuelling is :a. 55 psi,b. 50 psi.c. 70 psi.

10. Fuel tanks are electrically bonded to:a. Prevent a build up of static electricity.b. Ensure a power source is available to operate refuel valves.c. Vent the fuel tank.


11. In an auto slumping jet pump scavenging SYS, the motive force is provided by:a. Boost pump pressure.b. Refuelling pressure.c. Jet pump pressure.

12. Microbiological organisms are identified by:a. A blue slime.b. A black slime.c. A cloudy fuel mixture.

13. Sump drain valves are positioned at:a. The highest point of the tank.b. In the refuel manifold.c. The lowest point of the tank.

14. Where are boost pumps usually located on large A/C:a. Under the wing.b. In the refuel panel.c. In the refuel manifold.

15. What is the purpose of a float valve?a. To de-energise a fuel shut-off valve.b. To de-energise a refuel valve.c. To vent air to and from a fuel tank.

16. What is the purpose of a fuel boost pump?a. To pump fuel to the engines.b. To assist in venting of the fuel tanks.c. To assist in refuelling of the A/C.

17. State the purpose of a float switch.a. To close off fuel to and from tanks during fuel transfer.b. To de-energise a refuel valve.c. To operate low pressure warning lights on the flight deck.

18. Turbine fuels are normally manufactured from:a. Crude oil.b. Shale oil.c. Petroleum spirits.

19. JET A-l turbine fuel is used:a. For high altitude operations.b. Only in hot climates.c. In low temperatures.

20. Micro-organism growth within fuel tanks can be identified by:a. Blue slime.b. Black slime.c. Yellow slime.

21. Micro-organism growth can be eliminated by:a. The addition of additives in the fuel.b. By heating the fuel.c. By cooling the fuel.

22. What type of liquid supports microbiological growth within fuel tanks:a. Gasoline.b. Water.c. biofor.


23. A drip stick:a. Indicates the amount of water in the fuel.b. Indicates the severity of a leak.c. Indicates the contents of a fuel tank.

24. Leaks may be classified as:a. Slight or severe.b. A stain, seep or run.c. Small medium and large.

25. State the approximate size of the diameter of a heavy seep:a. 3" - 4".b. 1 1/2" - 3".c. 3/4".

26. One type of fuel measuring SYS is used as a back up for the electrical type. This is the:a. Float switch.b. Float valve.c. Drip stick/sight glass.

27. Filter differential pop out indicators are normally coloured:a. blackb. Greenc. Red

28. When using a heater for filter de-icing, the hot air is obtained from the:a. Engine bleeds air.b. Engine exhausts air.c. Heater mats.

29. High pressure filters are located:a. Downstream of the fuel heater.b. Upstream of the fuel heater.c. Upstream of the wing booster pump.

30. Drain valves are:a. Located at the highest point of the fuel tank.b. Located at the lowest point of the fuel tank.c. Attached to engine driven fuel pump.

31. Wire mesh screens are a form of filter, they are located in:a. The fuel tanks.b. The high pressure filters.c. The fuel heaters.

Water/Methanol injection

1. Injecting water into an engine compressor inlet will:a. Reduce the density of the air.b. Increase the density of the air.c. Increase the density of the water.

2. The correct type of water used in water/methanol Systems is:a. Distilled water.b. Heavy water.c. Demineralised water.

3. Engine inlet compressor water injection should not be used below:a. 40°F.b. 10°C.c. 4 0°C.


4. The addition of water/methanol into a compressor or combustor will:a. Increase thrust.b. Decrease thrust.c. Cause surging of the engine.

5. In addition to providing another source of combustion, the methanol in the water will:a. Act as a lubricant.b. Act as an anti-freeze.c. Cause a reduction in thrust.

6. The pressure indicating light on the flight deck indicates:a. The SYS tank quantity.b. The SYS operating pressure.c. That the water shut-off valve is open.

7. Where water/methanol is normally injected?a. Into the compressor inlet.b. Into the compressor outlet.c. Into the turbine disc.

8. Air to drive the air turbine pump is extracted from:a. The engine turbine.b. A storage bottle.c. The engine compressor stage.

9. The regulator valve is energised when:a. The throttle is at the idle position.b. The throttle is at the cruise position.c. The throttle is at the take-off position.

Lubrication

1. The oil tank for a gas turbine engine is normally located:a. On the engine casings.b. On the airframe structure.c. Inside the engine structure.

2. An oil tank may be manufactured from:a. Copper.b. Mild steel.c. Aluminium alloy.

3. Which statement is correct?a. An oil tank is always pressurised.b. An oil tank normally has a vent.c. An oil tank level is correct when it is completely full.

4. The primary function of an oil tank is to:a. Provide a means of filling and checking the SYS.b. Store oil and provide a supply to the SYS.c. Provide for expansion within the SYS.

5. Oil flow from the tank to the pressure pump is:a. By means of suction from the pump.b. Under gravity to the pump.c. Under pressure from within the tank.

6. Which statement is correct?a. The manufacturer will state which type of oil must be used.b. The operator will state which type of oil must be used.c. The operator can use any type of oil he chooses.


7. An oil tank is checked for the correct level:a. At any time after a flight.b. Immediately after a flight.c. At a prescribed time after a flight.

8. Gas turbine lubricating oils:a. Can harm the skin after prolonged contact.b. Will not cause harm to the skin.c. Will only stain the skin.

9. Oil tanks should be topped up from:a. Clean opened cans of the correct type of oil.b. Unopened cans of any type of gas turbine lubricating oil.c. Unopened cans of the approved type specified by the operator.

10.Which statement is correct?a. Oil is not normally drained and replaced as a routine servicing

item.b. Oil is drained and replaced as a routine servicing item.c. Oil is never completely drained from the oil tank or SYS.

11.Oil filter elements are changed:a. Only when they become blocked.b. Whenever they are removed for examination.c. When laid down in the Maintenance Schedule.

12.The oil flow through a spur gear pump:a. Is around the outside of the gears.b. Is between the gears.c. Is around the outside and through the centre of the gears.

13.On a gearotor pump:a. Only the inner rotor rotates.b. Only the outer rotor rotates.c. Both inner and outer rotors rotate.

14.An oil pressure relief valve is fitted:a. To limit the SYS pressure.b. To limit the SYS pressure and protect the pump.c. To by-pass the filter element if it becomes blocked.

15.Engine oil pressure is normally checked:a. At high engine r.p.m.b. At any engine speed.c. At ground idle r.p.m.

16.How many microns are there to the inch?a. 25,400.b. 1,000.c. 25.4.

17.A stacked screen type of filter:a. Is a disposable type filter.b. Is a cleanable type filter.c. Is a self cleaning type filter.

18.A filter by-pass:a. Prevents damage to the filter element if the oil pressure is

high.b. Prevents oil flow back through the filter when the SYS is shut

down.c. Allows unfiltered oil flow through the SYS when the filter

element is blocked.


19.When removing a magnetic plug type filter, oil loss is prevented:a. Because there is a check valve in the filter housing.b. Because the filter is always on the highest point in the SYS.c. Because the SYS is always shut down before removing the plug.

20.When refitting a filter element:a. New seals are fitted if old ones are damaged.b. New seals are always fitted.c. Seals may be used a second time only.

21.You are ground running an engine, and the oil temperature rapidly increases. The oil pressure is normal, what is the possible cause?a. The oil cooler relief valve is stuck closed.b. The oil cooler relief valve is stuck open.c. The main regulator valve is not working correctly.

22.You are starting an engine and the low oil pressure warning indicator remains illuminated. The main oil pressure indication is normal. What is the possible cause?a. Low oil pressure switch malfunction.b. Not enough oil in the SYS.c. Main pressure pumps not working.

23.If the wax compound in a thermostatic by-pass leaks out of the capsule in an oil cooler. The valve will:a. Stay open.b. Close.c. Not move.

24.As the oil temperature of an engine increases, the oil pressure will:a. Decrease.b. Increase.c. Stay const.

25.The cooling medium used in most gas turbine oil coolers is:a. Fuel.b. HYD fluid.c. Oil and air.

26.The oil cooler will normally be located:a. On the airframe.b. In the engine air intake.c. On the engine.

27.The low oil pressure warning light will illuminate:a. If oil pressure falls below the minimum.b. When oil pressure rises above the minimum.c. If the oil pressure transmitter fails.

28.When ground running an engine the oil pressure indicator falls to zero, the low oil pressure warning light is out and the oil temperature is normal. You should suspect:a. Low oil level in SYS.b. Failure of low oil pressure warning light.c. Failure of oil pressure transmitter.

29."O" ring seals:a. Should be changed each time the component they are fitted to be

dismantled.b. Should be changed only if their condition warrants it.c. Are changed only when stated in the Maintenance Manual.


30.A spring ring seal is only effective:a. When it is stationary.b. When it is rotating.c. When it is either rotating or stationary.

31.On a labyrinth seal fitted to protect a bearing:a. Air does not pass across the seal.b. Air and oil meet at the centre of the seal.c. Air will pass across the seal.

32.A screw back seal will normally:a. Screw the oil away from the bearing.b. Screw the air away from the bearing.c. Screw oil back to the bearing.

33.Consider the following types of seal. If they became defective, which one is most likely to cause a high breather pressure to occur?a. Screw back.b. Labyrinth.c. '0' ring.

34.Oil is leaking from main filter housing. The most likely cause would be:a. A defective spring ring seal.b. A defective HYD seal.c. A defective '0' ring seal.

35.An oil leak onto the compressor may cause:a. Burning and distress on the compressor.b. Oil baking onto the compressor or dirt sticking to it.c. An increase in oil and breather pressure.

36.Which statement is correct?a. If a carbon seal is defective, both halves would be changed.b. A carbon seal is always backed up with a labyrinth seal.c. If a carbon seal becomes defective, only the defective half

needs to be changed.37.Oil leaking internally into an engine may causer

a. A decrease in fuel consumption.b. A decrease in engine performance.c. A decrease in breather pressure.

38.With respect to seals in the lubrication SYS, which statement is correct?a. They help to prevent loss of oil from the SYS.b. They help to keep breather pressure low in the SYS.c. They help to keep the oil clean in the SYS.

39.A bearing which can accept radial and axial loads in one direction is a:a. Needle roller bearing.b. Angular contact bearing.c. Plain bearing.

40.A cylindrical roller bearing is:a. Used where there is a large radial load.b. Used where there is a large axial load.c. Only used where the motion of the bearing is oscillatory.


41.Tapered roller bearings which are fitted in pairs are :a. Fitted with the cone ends towards each other.b. Fitted with the cone ends away from each other.c. Fitted with the cone ends both facing in the same direction.

42.Fluid damped bearings :a. Dampen out noise.b. Dampen out vibration.c. Are always ball bearings.

43.Bearings which are to be stored should be stored:a. Flat.b. On their edges.c. In either condition.

44.Which gear would be quietest in operation?a. Spur.b. Straight bevel.c. Helical.

45.Backlash in gears:a. Will only occur with wear.b. Is necessary.c. Should be eliminated on installation.

46.Helical gears:a. Produce an axial load.b. Produce a radial load.c. Are only used to change direction.

47.Plain bearings:a. are made from hard alloys,b. Are made from soft metals.c. Can be made from either.

48.On a torque meter SYS what happens to the oil spill with an increase in engine power?a. It remains const.b. It will decrease.c. It will increase.

49.On a torque meter SYS what will happen to torque meter pressure if the propeller feathers in flight?a. It will remain normal until the gearbox stops rotating.b. It will increase very slowly.c. It will decrease.

50.The oil pressure required for operation of a propeller pitch change mechanism:a. Is the same as the engine oil pressure?b. Will be a higher value than engine oil pressure.c. Will fluctuate above and below engine oil pressure dependent on

engine speed.51.A feathering pump is normally driven:

a. Hydraulically.b. Pneumatically.c. Electrically.

52.The feathering pump oil is supplied from:a. The pitch change mechanism returns supply.b. A separate oil tank.c. The engine oil tank.


53.Turbo-prop engines use a slightly higher viscosity oil than a turbo jet engine, this is due to:a. Higher engine rpm.b. Lower propeller rpm.c. Gear loading in the reduction gearbox.

54.Which type of oil is used for gas turbine engine lubricating Systems?a. Mineral.b. Vegetable.c. Synthetic.

55.Which type of lubrication provides a measurable quantity of oil between the bearing surfaces?a. Film lubrication.b. Boundary lubrication.c. Splash lubrication.

56.A gas turbine lubricant should possess:a. Stable viscosity.b. Low viscosity.c. High viscosity.

57.Which material would not be affected by synthetic lubricating oil?a. Neoprene.b. Silicones rubber.c. Natural rubber.

58.An extreme pressure additive would be found in engine oil used in an engine where there were:a. Heavily loaded gears.b. High temperature bearings.c. Two or more compressors.

59.An oil sample for an A/C on a SOAP programme will be taken:a. Immediately after engine shutdown.b. Any time after engine shutdown.c. When instructed in the oil sampling procedure.

60.A quick method used to detect water in lubricating oil would be:a. Heat a small sample to 200 C.b. Freeze a small sample to -20 C.c. Mix a small sample in kerosene. Any water falls to the bottom of

the container.61.The amount of solid metallic contaminants in an oil sample is

given as:a. grams per cubic centimetre of fluid,b. a rate of change in its viscosity,c. Parts per million.

62.A chip detector is normally installed:a. In the pressure SYS.b. In the scavenge SYS.c. In either the pressure or scavenge SYS.

63.Which statement is correct?a. Synthetic turbine oils will affect thermo setting plastics.b. Prolonged exposure to synthetic oils may cause dermatitis.c. The flash points of synthetic turbine oils are very low.


64.If you find ageing cracks on a flexible hose during an inspection:a. It is classed as unserviceable and can not be used.b. It is unserviceable only if the cracks penetrate to the first

braided layer.c. It is unserviceable if the cracks go completely around the hose.

65.When carrying out a ball test the ball is:a. Passed through the hose from both ends.b. Only passed through from one end.c. Pushed through the hose from both ends.

66.A removed flexible hose is found to have a permanent set or twist:a. this would make the hose unserviceableb. This may be gently straightened whilst testing the hose.c. No attempt should be made to straighten out a permanent set.

67.A hose which has been previously installed develops a small blister or bulge when under a pressure test It:a. Is considered unserviceable if the full test pressure has not

been reached.b. Is considered serviceable if the blister or bulge dissipates

when pressure is released.c. would be classed as unserviceable

68.A hose assembly which normally flexes in use:a. Should not be flexed during a pressure test.b. Should be flexed 15 in all directions during a test.c. Should be flexed through its normal angle plus 15 either way

during a test.69.A flexible fire resistant hose may have:

a. A metallic braided outer cover.b. Asbestos braided outer cover.c. A neoprene outer sleeve.

70.On which type of engine drain would there be a 'nil' allowance of drainage?a. Failure drains.b. Unit drains.c. Dump drains.

71.A flexible hose when under pressure:a. Increases in length and diameter.b. Increases in diameter and decreases in length.c. Increases in length and decreases in diameter.


Air sealing

1. Cooling air cleansing is achieved by using a: a. Centrifugal filter.b. Micronics filter.c. Felt filter element.

2. Which stage of cooling air is used for oil sump pressurisation?a. Intermediate air.b. HP air.c. LP air.

3. Which type of air/oil seal is machine ground and finally lapped to a micro finish?a. Rubber Micronics seal.b. Carbon seal.c. Labyrinth seal.

4. How is air sealing achieved with a labyrinth seal arrangement?a. By reduction of air pressure across the knife edge seals.b. By an increase of air pressure across the knife edge seal.c. By application of springs on the carbon seal.

5. Once air cleansing has taken place, where is the dirty air directed?a. Into the turbine disc.b. Into the turbine exhaust.c. Overboard from the engine through side vents.

6. The cooling air that is used to cool the bleed air passing through the heat exchanger is from the:a. Turbine stream.b. Fan stream.c. Bleed air ducts.

7. Pressurising air to the HYD tank:a. Prevents the oil from boiling at altitude.b. Provides cooling of the oil.c. Provides a head of pressure in the tank.

8. Turbine case cooling:a. Prevents the turbine case from expanding.b. Prevents the turbine case from contracting.c. Ensures that compressors run efficiently.

9. The bleed air valve can be electrically closed in an over temperature situation by the:a. Overheat switch.b. Duct temperature sensor.c. Fan air valve.


Surge protection

1. The part of the engine in which surge occurs is the:a. Front fan.b. Turbine.c. Compressor.

2. Compressor stall can be caused by the blades being subjected toa. sonic vibration,b. A low angle of attack.c. An excessively high angle of attack.

3. What should a ground run engineer do when he discovers the first indication of surge?a. Reduce the throttle setting.b. Close the fuel valve.c. Carry out shut down procedure.

4. The value of the airflow and pressure ratio at which a surge occurs is termed the:a. Surge margin.b. Working line.c. Surge point.

5. What must a variable geometry intake SYS do to supersonic airflow?a. Slow it down.b. Compress it.c. Keep it at sonic speeds.

Ice protection

1. An engine requires protection against the icing up of the front of the compressor! Section, and the:a. Turbine disc.b. Leading edge, of the intake.c. Temperature probe.

2. Rotor blades of compressors are:a. Always anti-iced.b. Never anti-iced.c. Sometimes anti-iced.

3. The hot air SYS of ice protection is known as:a. De-icing.b. Ice heating.c. Anti-icing.

4. The stator anti-ice valve is powered by:a. 28 V AC.b. 115 V AC.c. 28 V DC.

5. The nacelle anti-ice valve is located:a. On the engine.b. In the pylon.c. In the wing leading edge.

6. The stator anti-ice valve is located:a. On the engine.b. In the pylon.c. In the wing leading edge.


7. Engine heater elements are sometimes called:a. Heater strips.b. Ribbon heaters.c. Coils.

8. AC. power is used for anti-icing Systems because it:a. Is readily available.b. Is frequency conscious?c. Has a high power output.

9. Electrical heating pads are attached to the skin by:a. Rivets.b. Bolts.c. Bonding.

10.A two speed cycling SYS is often used for :a. A spinner.b. Generator air cooling.c. Variable inlet guide vanes.

11.The thickness of protective coating covering a de-icing mat is approximately:a. 012 inch.b. 0012 inch.c. 12 inch.

12.The thickness of the conductive film in the de-icing mat is:a. 5 inch.b. 05 inch.c. 005 inch.

Ignition

1. Engine relight circuits are used for:a. Engine starting.b. Wet runway take offs.c. Flame out situations.

2. A joule is a unit of:a. Work done.b. Energy.c. Power.

3. A high energy ignition unit may be supplied by: a. AC. power only.b. DC. Power only.c. AC. or DC. Power.

4. The safe waiting period after disconnecting the low-tension supply before maintenance is :a. Ten seconds.b. 1/2 minute.c. One minute.

5. Which type of HEIU has a trembler unit?a. AC. type.b. DC. Type.c. Transistor type.

6. One of the advantages of a transistorised HEIU is that it:a. Have no moving parts.b. Is fitted with a small trembler.c. Produces a higher voltage than the AC. and DC. Type.


7. Fouling of an igniter plug is minimised by:a. Cleaning nozzle airflows.b. The fuel.c. The intensity of the spark.

8. The igniter plug sometimes referred to as the long reach igniter plug is the:a. Annular-gap igniter.b. Bi-annular-gap igniter.c. Constrained-gap igniter.

Starting

1. Self-sustaining speed is:a. Higher than ground idle.b. Lower than ground idle.c. The same as ground idle.

2. Stopping the starting cycle may be achieved by closing the fuel cock and placing the ignition switch to:a. Stand by.b. Off.c. Flight.

3. In a triple spool engine, the compressor connected to the starter is the:a. LP compressor.b. Intermediate compressor.c. HP compressor.

4. As the cranking speed increases, the starter voltage:a. Reduces.b. Increases.c. Remains unaffected.

5. Which starter is permanently coupled to the engine shaft?a. Current control direct drive.b. Sprag clutch type.c. Starter generator.

6. During starting, the igniter relays are energised by the:a. Throttle ignition switch.b. Battery earth.c. Acceleration control unit.

7. The instrument used for checking the electrical resistance between the insulated terminal and the starter case is a:a. 500 volt insulation tester.b. 250 volt insulation tester.c. Bonding tester.

8. The acceptable resistance for a starter insulation check is:a. 50 fl.b. 500 ft.c. 500000 ft.

9. When compared with an air turbine starter the electric starter:a. Is lighter.b. Produces more torque.c. Is heavier.


10.During a normal start, the starter is disengaged by the:a. Aircrew.b. Ground crew.c. sprag clutch assembly.

11.Air starter rotating parts are lubricated by:a. Application of a grease gun.b. An oil reservoir.c. A drip feed wick.

12.The starter magnetic plug is combined with the:a. Oil fill plug.b. Level plug.c. Drain plug.

13.The type of valve used for a start valve is a:a. Butterfly valve.b. Annular valve.c. Gate valve.

14.When starting speed is reached, the earth for the start solenoid is broken by the:a. Over speed switch.b. Centrifugal cut-out switch.c. Engine start switches being released.

15.The starting air used in an air impingement starting SYS is directed directly onto the engine by the:a. Compressor.b. Turbine.c. Starter.

16.During an engine start the surge bleed valve will be :a. Open.b. Closed.c. Modulating.

Engine control

1. Under normal conditions, the operation of thrust reversers will only be carried out when:a. The feed back signal senses the doors are closed.b. The forward thrust levers are at full power settings.c. The reverser doors are fully open.

2. Insertion of a locking clip into a turnbuckle can only be accomplished when:a. Both slots are opposite each other.b. Three threads are exposed.c. Both slots align with each other.

3. Control cable quick stops :a. Is part of engine control range of movement checks?b. Allow cables to separate when engines separate from the wing.c. Are quick release units used during engine changes?

4. A control cable friction brake:a. Allows the cable to stay in one selected position during engine

changes.


b. Ensures cables do not move from their selected position.c. Allows auto throttle drive units to move the controls.

5. The thrust reverser directional control valve:a. Ports pressure fluid to the pulley control box.b. Keeps a steady tension on the control cables.c. Ports pressure fluid (air or oil) through to the thrust reverser

SYS on a signal from the thrust reverse lever.6. Control cable collets will be found:

a. In pressure seals.b. In pulley assemblies.c. In turnbuckle assemblies.

7. The method of checking the friction of control cables uses a:a. Spring balance.b. Cable tensiometer.c. Clinometers.

8. The prime purpose of friction brakes is to:a. Ensure they cannot be accidentally moved by the crew.b. Ensure that the LP cock opens before the throttle is moved.c. Ensure that the cables stay in their selected position.

9. The engine control drum assembly:a. Converts the cable to control rod operation.b. Converts electrical signals into cable operation.c. Converts control rod movement into cable operation.

10.In a mechanical HP cock operation and thrust lever control, how many cables are required for operation of the control drum assembly?a. Twob. Fourc. Six

11.Controls for the mechanical HP cock operation will be found:a. On the control pedestal.b. On the control column.c. Attached to the fuel control unit.

12.The LP fuel cock is normally:a. Mechanical in operation.b. Pneumatic in operation.c. Electrical in operation.

13.The HP fuel cock will normally be found:a. In the fuel pipe into the engine fuel SYS.b. Adjacent to the fuel outlet pipe from the fuel control unit.c. Within the fuel pump.

14.The auto throttle servo drive receives signals from the:a. Air data computer.b. Thrust management computer.c. Mode control panel.

15.The thrust management computer uses signals from bleed inputs to calculate the thrust setting of the engine. If bleeds are increased the auto throttle will:a. Increase engine thrust.b. Decrease engine thrust.c. Make no change in thrust lever position.

16.The air data computer senses:a. Temperature.


b. Engine speed.c. Throttle position.

17.Selection of a desired airspeed in flight is achieved by the:a. Air data computer.b. Thrust management computer.c. Mode control panel.

18.Selection of the NLG/EPR button is normally done during:a. climbb. crusec. take off

19.Selection of propeller brake can only be achieved:a. When the HP cock is open.b. When the HP cock is closed.c. When the fine pitch control is activated.

20.Engine sensors send information to the:a. Mode control panel.b. Air data computer.c. Thrust management computer.

21.In flight the idle select solenoid is:a. Energised to flight idle.b. De-energised to ground idle.c. De-energised to flight idle.

22.The torque motor within the electronic engine control SYS:a. Provides down trim only.b. Provides up trim only.c. Provides both down and up trim.

23.The electronic engine control computer computes engine speed using two inputs. These inputs originate from:a. The engine.b. The flight deck.c. Air data computers.

24.As the A/C climbs to altitude, the cable tension:a. Decreases.b. Increases.c. Remains the same.

25.How can the correct riser on a tensiometer be determined?a. From the Maintenance Manual.b. By a code number on the riser.c. From a temperature chart.

26.What time should be allowed for a thermometer to stabilize before determining a temperature correction for the cable tension?a. 3 hours.b. 1 hour.c. 1/2 hour.

27.To determine the temperature before calculating cable tensions, the thermometer must sense temperature:a. Within the airframe.b. Outside the airframe.c. On information supplied by the control tower.

28.Before switching off the EEC, the thrust levers must be:a. At full power position.b. At idle position.


c. Any position.

29.Pulling the circuit breaker on the idle reset solenoid on the ground will:a. De-energise the solenoid.b. Energise the solenoid.c. Make no difference.

Electrical

1. You have energised the disconnect solenoid of the CSD. The worm drive has disconnected:a. The oil pump shaft.b. The input shaft from the gearbox.c. The output shaft to the generator.

2. The disconnect solenoid can only be reconnected when:a. The engine is shut down in flight.b. The engine is rotating on ground.c. The engine is stationary on ground.

3. The governor assembly controls oil pressure toa. The oil pump.b. The differential unit.c. The control cylinder.

4. What may cause a high oil temperature within the CSD?a. Lack of oil in the SYS.b. An over speeding pump.c. A bypassing filter assembly.

5. The overdrive mode of CSD operation is used for:a. Low engine speeds.b. On speed conditions.c. High engine speeds.

6. Where is the shear section of the CSD located?a. On the oil pump drive shaft.b. On the input drive shaft from the accessory gearbox.c. On the output drive shaft to the generator.

7. What indication is given when a filter element is blocked?a. A pop out indicator.b. A low oil temperature light.c. A high oil pressure light.

8. The governor adjusters alter the:a. Speed of the input shaft.b. Output of the oil pump.c. Generator frequency.

9. The generator in an IDG installation is cooled by:a. Fan air.b. Fuel.c. Oil.

10.What purpose does the undercurrent relay in a starter/generator circuit serve?a. To initially start the motor rotating.b. To terminate the start sequence by de-energising the relays.


c. To energise the pump relay to start the fuel pumps.

11.A generator in a CSD/generator configuration normally cooled by:a. Fan air.b. Fuel.c. Oil.

12.A DRIVE light illuminates on the electrical control panel. What does this indicate?a. High oil pressure - low oil temperature.b. Low oil pressure - high oil temperature.c. High oil pressure - high oil temperature.

13.Oil temperature sensing for high oil temperature indications in a CSD/IDG unit occurs at:a. The oil inlet into the CSD.b. The oil outlet of the CSD.c. The oil passing through the differential.

14.Oil pressure sensing:a. Occurs upstream of the charge oil pump.b. Occurs at the scavenge pump outlet.c. Occurs downstream of the charge oil pump.

Engine indication

1. How is EPR expressed?a. Inlet Pressure/ Exhaust Pressureb. Exhaust Pressure/ Inlet Pressurec. Inlet Temperature/ Exhaust Pressure

2. Rapid response thermocouples are found on:a. Turboprop engines.b. Jet turbine engines.c. Piston engines.

3. EGT thermocouples are linked in parallel. This is to ensure that:a. They will continue to indicate if one fails.b. The A/C electric power is directed to all probes.c. They give an average figure.

4. The hot junction of a thermocouple is found at the:a. Probe end.b. Indicator end.c. Junction box.

5. Thermocouples have two wires, one is calomel, the other is normally:a. Steel.b. copperc. Chrome.

6. EGT gauges indicate temperature in degreesa. Fahrenheit.b. Celsius.c. Rankin.

7. Where in the oil SYS is oil temperature sensed?a. As the oil passes into the engine.b. As the oil passes out of the engine.


c. Within the oil tank.

8. Which component in a fuel flow transmitter ensures that the fuel flow turns the rotor in the correct direction?a. Swirl generator.b. Restraining spring.c. Turbine.

9. Too little fuel during engine start may cause:a. A hot start.b. A cold start.c. A hung start.

10.The low oil pressure warning light will indicate:a. When the pressure gauge pointer reaches the low limit.b. When the pressure gauge pointer reaches the upper limit.c. When the pointer goes into the yellow band of the pressure

gauge.11.Vibration monitoring sensors:

a. Are non self-generating - requiring electrical power.b. Are self electric generating sensors.c. Are fed from the main battery.

12.The status mode of indication is associated with:a. The minimum dispatch equipment list.b. Maintenance SYS faults.c. A standby indicating SYS.

13.Which of the following is a primary engine indication?a. N2.b. EGT.c. Oil pressure.

14.Secondary engine parameters will be seen on the:a. Upper CRT.b. Lower CRT.c. Maintenance screens„

15.SYS alert messages will be seen on the:a. Lower CRT display.b. Status mode display.c. Upper CRT display.

16.If an engine parameter exceeds its design limits, the indications on the CRT turn:a. Blue.b. Yellow.c. Red.

------------


ANSWERSGas Turbine

engineTurbine

ConstructionPropeller provision

APU

1 c 1 a 1 b 1 a

2 a 2 c 2 c 2 b

3 c 3 b 3 b 3 a

4 b 4 b 4 a 4 c

5 a 5 a 5 a 5 b

6 b 6 b 6 c 6 a

7 a 7 a 7 b 7 b

8 c 8 c 8 a 8 c

9 b 9 a 9 b 9 a

10 a 10 b 10 c 10 c

11 c 11 b 11 b 11 b

12 a 12 c 12 c 12 c

13 c 13 b 13 b 13 c

14 b 14 a 14 c 14 c

15 a 15 c 15 c 15 a

16 b 16 a 16 a 16 b

17 a 17 b 17 b 17 a

18 b 18 b Thrust reverser 18 b

19 c 1 a 19 a

20 b 2 b 20 a

21 c 3 a 21 c

22 a 4 a

23 c 5 c

24 c 6 a

25 b 7 a

26 a 8 c

27 b 9 a

28 a 10 b

29 c 12 b

30 c 13 c

31 b

32 a

33 c

34 b

35 a

36 c

37 a

38 a

39 b

Engine Fuel SYS A/C fuel SYS Lubrication

1 a 1 c 1 a 48 b


2 a 2 b 2 c 49 c3 c 3 c 3 b 50 b4 b 4 b 4 b 51 c5 b 5 c 5 b 52 c6 b 6 a 6 a 53 c7 c 7 c 7 c 54 c8 a 8 a 8 a 55 a9 a 9 b 9 c 56 a10 c 10 a 10 a 57 b11 a 11 a 11 c 58 a12 b 12 b 12 a 59 c13 a 13 c 13 c 60 a14 b 14 a 14 b 61 c15 a 15 c 15 c 62 b16 c 16 a 16 a 63 b17 c 17 b 17 b 64 b18 b 18 a 18 c 65 a19 a 19 c 19 a 66 c20 c 20 b 20 b 67 c21 a 21 a 21 b 68 c22 b 22 b 22 a 69 b23 a 23 c 23 b 70 a24 b 24 b 24 a 71 b

25 b 25 a26 c 26 c27 c 27 a28 a 28 c29 a 29 a30 b 30 b31 a 31 c

Water/Methanol Injection

32 c

1 b 33 b2 c 34 c3 a 35 b4 a 36 a5 b 37 b6 b 38 a7 a 39 b8 c 40 a9 c 41 a

42 b43 a44 c45 b46 a47 b

Air sealing Engine controls Electrical Engine indication1 a 1 c 1 b 1 b2 c 2 c 2 c 2 a3 b 3 b 3 c 3 c4 a 4 b 4 a 4 a5 c 5 c 5 a 5 c6 b 6 a 6 b 6 b7 c 7 a 7 a 7 b


8 a 8 c 8 c 8 a9 a 9 a 9 c 9 c

Surge protection 10 b 10 b 10 a1 c 11 a 11 a 11 b2 c 12 c 12 b 12 a3 a 13 b 13 a 13 b4 c 14 b 14 c 14 b5 a 15 a

15 cIce protection 16 a 16 c

1 b 17 c

2 b 18 c3 19 b4 20 c

Ice protection Engine controls

5 b 21 c6 a 22 a7 a 23 c8 c 24 a9 c 25 b10 26 c11 27 a12 28 b

Ignition 29 a1 c

2 b3 c4 c5 b6 a7 c8 aStarting1 b2 b3 c4 b5 c6 a7 b8 c9 c10 c11 b12 c13 a14 b15 b16 a

Comments:


fd

Documents

given engine

x v2 x

speed of air

jet velocity

thermal efficiency

overall efficiency

straight gas turbine

lp turbine speed