Falcon 50 Training Exercises

8/10/2019 Falcon 50 Training Exercises

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Falcon 50Self-Check Exercises

August 2006


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Copyright 2006, CAE SimuFlite, Inc.All rights reserved

Printed in the United States of America

SimuFlite


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Orientation

Falcon 50 Developed for Training Purposes 1August 2006

Welcome toCAE SimuFlite

CAE SimuFlite Training International welcomes you to one of the

worlds premier aviation training facilities. Our goal is to provide train-

ing that increases your ability to operate your aircraft at the highest pro-

fessional standards. In pursuit of this goal, we conduct training in

accordance with Airline Transport Pilot (ATP) standards to ensure a

level of competency and safety unsurpassed in the business aviation

industry.

Use of these Self-Check Exercises

CAE SimuFlite developed these exercises to reinforce your training.

The questions parallel your course. Refer to your training guide for

completion schedule of exercises.


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2 Developed for Training Purposes Falcon 50August 2006


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Contents


Table of Contents Self-Check 1 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5Self-Check 2 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 15

Self-Check 3 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 27

Self-Check 4 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 39

Self-Check 5 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 47

Self-Check 6 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 59

Self-Check 1 Answer Key . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 67






System Schematics . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 78

Loading Form Example. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 83


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Self-Check 1

Aircraft Flight

Manual

Reference: Aircraft Flight Manual

Multiple Choice

1. Who ensures that the FAA Approved Airplane Flight Manua(AFM) is complete and current at all times?

a. Owner

b. Pilot

c. Copilot

d. Flight department manager

2. The three Falcon 50 Operating Manuals contain specific

information on:

a. Expanded Normals

b. Aircraft Systems

c. Avionics installations.d. All of the above.

3. What performance information is not found in the AFM?

a. Cruise

b. Holding

c. Descent

d. All of the above are in the AFM

e. None of the above are in the AFM

4. Data for wet, slush, snow, and ice-covered runways can be found in

the:

a. AFMb. Performance Manual, section 4

c. Section 3D, Initial Pilot Training Manual

d. Both b and c

e. All of the above.

1


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True or False

1. _____ Pages of the AFM applicable to a particular certifying coun-

try are noted by a country designation on the bottom center

of the page.

2. _____ The aircraft configuration codes that appear at the bottom of

each page of the basic AFM indicate page effectivity by unit

number.

3. _____ Advisory information contained in the AFM provides

guidance that is approved by the FAA.

4. _____ Operating limitations must be complied with at all times as

required by law.

5. ____ Emergency action contained in boxes should be committed to

memory in order to be accomplished without the aid of the

checklist.


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Aircraft Overview Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5A

Multiple Choice

1. For an extended overwater flight, the aircraft is required to be

equipped with ___.

a. life vests

b. life rafts

c. emergency locator transmitter

d. all of the above

2. The overall height of the Falcon 50 is ___ feet.

a. 18

b. 23

c. 28

3. The track of the Falcon 50 is ___ feet.

a. 10

b. 13

c. 20

4. The wingspan of the Falcon 50 is ___ feet.

a. 48

b. 62

c. 72

5. The length of the Falcon 50 is ___ feet.

a. 61

b. 80

c. 69

1


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Electrical Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5C

Multiple Choice

1. The predominent aircraft batteries are ____.

a. nickel-cadmium

b. lead-acid

c. a combination of nickel-cadmium and lead-acid

d. either a or b

2. Each main aircraft battery is rated at ____VDC and ____ amps/hour.

a. 28, 23

b. 26, 28

c. 26, 23

d. 23, 26

3. How many starter/generators are on Falcon 50s equipped with an

APU?

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

4. The battery make-break relay trips after a time delay when reverse

current amperage is ____ amps or greater.

a. 350

b. 250

c. 300

d. 200

5. The ____ switch on the overhead controls the ice detection light.

a. WING

b. TAXI

c. NAV

d. ANTICOL

6. Which of the following is not correct concerning the APU driven

generator?

a. It can assist in engine starts by reducing battery drain and start

time.

b. It can provide electrical system power on the ground.

c. It can provide electrical system power in flight.

d. It can provide battery charging.


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7. In aircraft with the three inverter AC system, the inverters supply

power to pilot and copilot buses that are ____V AC and ____ V AC.

a. 26, 23

b. 28, 26

c. 115, 28

d. 115, 26

8. Normally, the main aircraft batteries are connected ____, but they

can be connected ____ for cold weather starts.

a. together, separately

b. in parallel, in series

c. together, in series

d. in parallel, separately

9. Which of the following are functions of the generator control units

(GCUs)?

1. Voltage regulation

2. Generator paralleling3. Overvoltage protection

4. 300 amp limiting

5. Starter current activation

6. Voltmeter supply

a. 1, 2, 3

b. 1, 3, 4

c. 1, 3, 5

d. 2, 4, 6

10. What buses normally supply the Primary A and Auxiliary C buses

and the Primary B and Auxiliary D buses?a. Left Main, Right Main

b. Gen 1, Gen 2

c. Battery, Start

d. B, A

11. With a ground power cart used for engine starting, what is the bes

indication the start sequence has electrically terminated at % N2(starter no longer powered) for the respective engine?

a. Ignition light ON

b. Gen light OFF

c. Bat light OFF

d. Ignition light OFF

12. The battery charge rate is ___ amps when the ground power cart is

connected and external power is selected.

a. 0

b. 250

c. 300

d. 1500

1


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True or False

1. ____ In order to start an engine (not the APU), the associated gener-

ator switch must be in ON, the associated power lever must be

in IDLE, and the associated computer switch must be in ON.

2. ____ When the failure warning panel is tested, none of the overhead

blue switchlights are tested.

Matching

Match the condition at left with the generator output limitations at right.

Condition Output Limit

1. _____ Transient (1 minute maximum) A. 500

2. _____ Up to 39,000 ft B. 350

3. _____ Above 39,000 ft C. 300

4. _____ APU D. 250

E. 200

F. 100


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Hydraulics Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5G

Multiple Choice

1. The airbrakes are operated by the No. ____ hydraulic system.

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

2. The maximum altitude for standby hydraulic pump operation is

____ feet.

a. 30,000

b. 40,000

c. 45,000

d. 49,000

3. The standby hydraulic pump can replace the ____ hydraulic system(s)

engine driven pump in flight.

a. No. 1

b. No. 2

c. both No. 1 and No. 2

d. either No. 1 or No. 2

4. If the standby pump operates continuously for more than 60 seconds

the ____ annunciator illuminates.

a. #2 PBK

b. STBY PMP

c. PMP 1

d. OPRESS

True or False

1. ____ Engine-driven pumps Nos. 1 and 2 power the No. 1 hydraulic

system.

2. ____ The PMP 1 light is illuminated; the pressure delivered by the

No. 1 engine-driven pump is below 1,500 PSI.

3. ____ The STBY PMP Light illuminates when the FLIGHT

GROUND selector is in the FLIGHT position.

1


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Flight

Controls

Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5E

Multiple Choice

1. The emergency slats are selected electrically and actuated hydrauli-

cally by which systems?

a. A Bus, No. 1

b. B Bus, No. 2

c. C Bus, No. 1

d. D Bus, No. 3

2. The control force exerted on the ailerons is not dependent on which

of the following?

a. Flap setting

b. Control displacement

c. Airspeed

d. Trim unit displacement

3. Emergency roll trim is available utilizing which of the following?

a. Left aileron

b. Right aileron

c. Both a and b

d. Neither a nor b

4. Which of the following is not true concerning Arthur Q units?

a. The copilot pitot/static system supplies airspeed information for

the aileron Arthur Q

b. The copilot static system and No. 1 engine Pt2/Tt2probe provide

airspeed information for the elevator Arthur Q

c. The copilot pitot/static system supplies airspeed control for therudder Arthur Q

d. Airspeed from the air data system is used to monitor the Arthur

Q unit positions

5. A continuous clacker sounds to indicate ____.

a. VMO/MMOlimits are exceded

b. the horizontal stabilizer is moving

c. a fire condition is detected

d. the aircraft is approaching or deviating from preselected altitude

6. Which of the following is true concerning the Arthur Q units?

a. The No. 1 hydraulic system provides operating pressure for bothArthur Q units.

b. The No. 2 hydraulic system provides operating pressure for all

Arthur Q units.

c. The No. 1 hydraulic system provides operating pressure only for

the aileron Arthur Q.

d. The No. 2 hydraulic system provides operating pressure only for

the elevator Arthur Q.


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7. The TAIL PLANE toggle switch actuates the ___ trim and trips the

____ trim CB.

a. emergency, emergency

b. emergency, autopilot

c. emergency, normal

d. normal, emergency

8. In normal operations, No. 1 hydraulic system pressure is applied to

the ____ side of the normal slat actuators at all times.

a. retract

b. extend

c. retract and extend

d. neither

9. At altitudes above ____ feet, do not establish or maintain a configu-

ration with the flaps or slats extended.

a. 10,000

b. 14,000

c. 20,000

d. 24,000

10. The stall systems automatic slat operation is disarmed above

approximately ____ KIAS.

a. 200

b. 270

c. 280

d. 300

1


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Self-Check 2

Landing Gear Reference: Technical Manual, Chapter 5I

Multiple Choice1. The ____ bus(es) power the landing gear indication circuit.

a. A

b. B

c. A or B

d. A and C

2. Shortly after takeoff, the pilot calls Gear up. The pilot not flying

finds the gear handle stuck in the down position. What could cause

this?

a. Flight/ground proximity switch in ground mode

b. Mechanical interlock stuck lockedc. Nose wheel centered

d. Brakes applied

3. Each main gear and the nose gear have ___ electrical proximity

switches which send signals to various aircraft systems indicating

whether the aircraft is on the ground or in the air.

a. 3

b. 1

c. 4

d. 2

True or False

1. ____ The No. 1 hydraulic system supplies the pressure for emer-

gency hydraulic gear extension.

2. ____ Brakes are applied automatically as the landing gear is

retracted.

3. ____ After retraction, hydraulic pressure holds each main gear

assembly in place.

2


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Brakes Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5I

Multiple Choice

1. The No. 1 hydraulic system supplies the No. 1 braking system with

up to ___ PSI of pressure. The No. 2 hydraulic system supplies the

No. 2 braking system with up to ___ PSI.

a. 1,600, 800

b. 1,600, 400

c. 800, 400

d. 400, 800

2. At the first detent of the PARK BRAKE handle, approximately ___

PSI is applied to the brakes. At the second detent, approximately

___ PSI is applied.

a. 1,560, 800

b. 800, 1,560

c. 390, 1,600d. 390, 800

True or False

1. ____ During landing, the main gear touches down, but not the nose

gear; anti-skid is available.

2. ____ A pressure switch causes the amber #2 P. BK annunciator to

flash when the pressure drops to 1200 PSI in the parking

brake accumulator.

3. ____ The brake indicating system is powered by the Primary A buswhen the landing gear handle is down.

4. ____ If the normal gear selector is positioned to the down posi-

tion and normal braking is possible, anti-skid system opera-

tion is available if the EMER GEAR pull handle or manual

uplock release have been applied.


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Powerplant Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5L

Multiple Choice

1. If the thrust reverser is not stowed and locked when the EMER

STOW switch is in STOW, the ____ annunciator illuminates.

a. DEPLOYED

b. PMP2

c. REV UNLOCK

d. ARMED

2. Electrical power for the N1and N2indicating systems normally is

supplied from ____ bus for engines Nos. 1 and 2 and from ____ bus

for engine No. 3.

a. A, C

b. C, D

c. L Main, C

d. A, B

3. The engine fan is driven by the ____ spool that is the measure o

engine thrust.

a. N2b. accessory

c. N1d. transfer

4. What results if the accessory box breather pressurization valve fails

to close when it should?

a. Oil pressure decreases with altitude increase.

b. Oil pressure increases with altitude increase.

c. Oil temperature increases with altitude increase.

d. Oil pressure and temperature increases with altitude increase.

5. Electrical power for the oil pressure and temperature indicating sys-

tem is supplied from ____ bus for engines Nos. 1 and 2 and from

____ bus for engine No. 3.

a. B, C

b. A, B

c. A, C

d. C, D

6. The Electronic Engine Control (EEC) provides engine overspeedshutdown protection at 109% N1or 110% N2if the ___.

a. computer is off and the normal/manual switch is normal

b. computer is off and the normal/manual switch is manual

c. computer is on and the normal/manual switch is normal

d. aircraft has experienced a total electric power failure

2


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7. During thrust reverser deployment, the reverse thrust lever setting is

limited to approximately ___% N1.

a. 98

b. 96

c. 93

d. 84

8. The emergency thrust reverser stow switch operates depending on

____.

a. thrust reverser lever position

b. ground proximity switches

c. all of the above

d. none of the above

9. To reduce stress on the reverser doors, reduce airspeed to ____

KIAS.

a. 330

b. 300

c. 230

d. 180

10. What is the minimum number of cycles (i.e. deploy and restow) that

the thrust reverse accumulator should be able to supply?

a. 8 full cycles

b. 4 complete cycles

c. one full cycle

d. It can only deploy once.

11. The engine oil light will illuminate for the following reason(s):

a. Pressure is below 25 PSI

b. Oil temperature is above 160F

c. A chip is detected

d. Both a and c.

12. With an operating EEC in cold weather (i.e., below -15C), the SPR

can be used during an engine start until an ITT of ____ C is

observed.

a. 400

b. 300

c. 250

d. 200

13. The engine models installed on the Falcon 50 and Falcon 50EX are

____.

a. TFE 738 A, B, or C

b. TFE 731 - 3, 4, or 5

c. TFE 731 - 3, 3B, or 3A

d. TFE 731 - 3, -1C, 3D-1C, or 40-1C


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APU Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5L

Multiple Choice

1. If the APU fails to complete a start on the first start attempt, the sec-

ond start attempt should not be begun until ____ minute(s) elapse(s)

a. 1

b. 2

c. 5

d. 10

2. APU fuel consumption is approximately ___pph.

a. 500

b. 100

c. 250

d. 150

True or False

1.___ The APU will not automatically shut down if aircraft becomes

airborn with APU operating.

2.___ The APU BLEED annunciator will illuminate if the APU bleed

valve is open when it should be closed.

2


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Thrust

Reverser

Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5J

Multiple Choice

1. The reverser doors can deflect approximately ___% of the takeoff

thrust forward.

a. 93

b. 100

c. 40

d. 80

2. The primary ___ bus provides electrical activation and #___

hydraulic system provides for operation of the Thrust Reverser.

a. B, 2

b. A, 2

c. A, 1

d. B, 1

3. If the Thrust Reverser does not stow, the No. 2 engine should be

shut down:

a. If you want

b. If performance is sufficient.

c. If optimum performance is critical.

d. None of the above.

True or False

1. ____ The thrust reverser may be used for backing the aircraft on the

ground.

2. ____ Maximum continuous usage is limited to 1 minute.


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Fuel System Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5L

Multiple Choice

1. The ____ bus supplies electrical power for vent valve operationwhen single point refueling.a. Primary A

b. Left Main

c. Right Main

d. Battery

2. The fuel pressurization system maintains pressure in both the wingtanks and the feeder tanks. Which has the higher pressure?a. Wing tanks

b. Feeder tanks

3. The regulation level in each feeder tank is ____ pounds.

a. 300

b. 609

c. 1,404d. 6,000

4. Use of the EMERG FUEL TRANSFER switch shifts the control ofthe transfer valve from the ____ level float valve to the ____ levefloat valve.a. emergency, low

b. low, high

c. high, low

d. high, emergency

5. The fuel shutoff valve is controlled by the ____.

a. fire pull handleb. T - handle

c. K - handle

d. refueling switch

6. The fuel transfer shutoff valve is operated by the ____.a. transfer switch

b. XFR switch

c. T-handle tool

d. FTS switch

Matching

Match the capacity to the fuel tank.

Capacity Tank

1. _____ 3,748 lbs a. Left or right wing tank

2. _____ 2,749 lbs b. Left or right feeder tank high level

3. _____ 2,460 lbs c. Center wing tank

4. _____ 1,750 lbs d. Center feeder tank, refueling low level

5. _____ 1,404 lbs e. Center feeder tank, high level

2


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Pressurization Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5K

Multiple Choice

1. LP bleed air from engines Nos. ____ and ____ pressurizes the

hydraulic system reservoirs, wing fuel tanks, and feeder fuel tanks.

a. 1, 2

b. 1, 3

c. 2, 3

2. On aircraft without SB F50-0163, the pressurization system main-

tains a cabin altitude of 8,000 ft at a flight altitude of ____ feet with

a normal differential of ____ PSI.

a. 49,000, 9.5

b. 48,000, 8.8

c. 46,000, 9.1

d. 45,000, 8.8

3. On aircraft with SB F50-0163, the pressurization system maintains

a cabin altitude of 8,000 ft at a flight altitude of ____ feet with a

normal differential of____ PSI.

a. 49,000, 9.5

b. 49,000, 9.1

c. 46,000, 9.1

4. The rate knob detent provides a ____ FPM rate of climb and a ____

FPM rate of descent.

a. 600, 400

b. 800, 450

c. 750, 550d. 650, 450

5. With AUTO selected, the outflow valves are commaned closed with

the power levers forward of ____ FCU.

a. 85

b. 70

c. 54

d. 84

6. With the aircraft altitude at 30,000 ft and the dump mode selected,

aircraft without SB F50-154 will have cabin altitude limited to

____.a. 5000 ft

b. 10,000 ft

c. 11,500 ft

d. 12,500 ft


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7. After landing with the power levers at less than 54 FCU and the

ground/flight relays in ground mode, the outflow valves are com-

manded to a ____ foot-per-minute cabin climb rate.

a. 0

b. 450

c. 650

d. 1,000

8. HP bleed air from engines Nos. ____ and ____ supplies air for oper

ating the pressurization jet pump.

a. 1, 2

b. 1, 3

c. 2, 3

True or False

1. ____ Neither the baggage compartment nor the nose cone has a hea

regulator control.2. ____ The dump mode is a manual operation.

3. ____ The red CABIN annunciator illuminates and the warning horn

sounds if the passenger door locking handle is not latched.

2


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Air Conditioning Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5K

Multiple Choice

1. LP bleed air from which engines pressurizes the wing and feeder

fuel tanks?a. 1 and 2

b. 1 and 3

c. 2 and 3

2. The cold side valve in the temperature regulating valve allows at

least ____% of total airflow to pass through it; this ensures that the

aircraft has an ample supply of fresh air.

a. 10

b. 30

c. 50

d. 70

3. With any power lever forward of ____ FCU, if the flight-ground

detection system senses the aircraft on ground, the conditioning

valve(s) ____. This is a normal situation for takeoff.

a. 84, opens

b. 84, closes

c. 54, opens

d. 54, closes

4. The APU may supply bleed air for ____.a. tank pressurization

b. air conditioning

c. pressurization

d. pneumatic motors

5. ____ temperature control system, for the passengers or for the crew,

can provide conditioned air to the passenger area and the cockpit.

a. Either

b. Neither

c. The masterd. The slave


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6. The ECU is powered by the ____.

a. primary A bus

b. load-shed C bus

c. no. 1 hydraulic system

d. bleed air flowing through it

True or False

1. ____ When any power lever is advanced beyond 54 FCU, the APU

bleed air valve opens.

2. ____ If the pressure regulating valve (PRV) switch is in AUTO and

the ENG 2 anti-ice switch is in OFF, the PRV modulates in

response to bleed air pressure downstream of the valve.

2


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Self-Check 3

Ice and Rain

Protection

Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5H

Multiple Choice1. With all ANTI-ICE switches selected OFF, the amber portion of the

ENG 2 annunciator remains illuminated. What does this annuncia-

tor indicate?

a. Pressure is more than 4 PSI in the S-duct anti-icing ducts

b. Pressure is more than 4 PSI in the No.2 inlet anti-ice system

c. Either A or B

d. Neither A nor B

2. Engine anti-ice must be OFF when total temperature is above ____

C TAT, and turned ON when total temperature is ____C.

a. +10, +10 or belowb. + 5, +5

c. -5, -5

d. -10, -10

3. When the No. 2 engine anti-ice is operating, the No.2 engine S-duc

is anti-iced by ____.

a. heated air from the common bleed air manifold

b. LP bleed air from the No. 2 engine

c. HP bleed air from the No. 2 engine

d. All of the above.

4. Both windshield wipers are operating. The PILOT WIPER switch ismoved from ON to OFF, then the COPILOT switch is moved from

ON to PARK. What happens?

a. Both wipers stop where they are

b. Both wipers park

c. The pilots wiper stops where it is and the copilots wiper parks

5. During ground testing of airframe anti-icing systems, do not leave

the AIRFRAME switch in NORM or STBY for more than ____

seconds.

a. 10

b. 20

c. 30d. 40

3


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6. Electrical power for the normal airframe anti-ice switch position is

from the ____ bus; electrical power for the standby airframe anti-ice

switch position is from the ____ bus.

a. B, C

b. A, B

c. C, D

d. A, D

7. In flight, the pilots windshield heat switch is set to MAX; the

copilots windshield heat switch should be set to ____.

a. NORM

b. MAX

c. OFF

d. STBY

8. The AIRFRAME switch is moved from OFF to NORM. As the HP

bleed valves open, the ____ and ____ ITTs should ____.

a. No. 1, No. 3, rise

b. No. 1, No. 2, fall

c. remain the same

d. a or b, depending on the icing condition

9. The pilots pitot/static system anti-icing is powered by a ____ bus;

the copilots pitot/static system anti-icing is powered by a ____ bus.

a. non load-shed A, load-shed D

b. load-shed C, non load-shed B

c. non load-shed A, non load-shed B

d. Main, Battery

10. Which electrically anti-iced components are monitored by

annunciator warning lights?

a. AOA probe (if installed) and pitot pressure probes

b. Pitot pressure probes and static pressure ports

c. Stall vanes and static pressure ports

d. Static pressure ports and TAT probe

11. With SBF50-225 only one anti-ice valve is powered by B bus in

NORM, and C bus in STBY

a. True

b. False


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Communications Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5B

Multiple Choice

1. The ____ panel permits the oxygen mask to be used for crew and

ATC communication if the panel selections ____ and ____ are

selected.

a. HF CONTROL, USSB, SQUELCH

b. ICS, MASK, CPIT

c. VHF 2, EMERG, AUDIO

2. The No. 1 VHF transciever receives power from Primary ___ Bus

and No. 2 transceiver receives power from Auxiliary ___ Bus.

a. B, D

b. A, C

c. A, D

d. B, C

3


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Instruments Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5B

Multiple Choice

1. Depending on component installation, the flight instruments (e.g.,

ADI, HSI) receive information for flight from ____.

a. mechanical gyros, INS, IRS, AHRS, or MHRS

b. mechanical gyros, MHRS, DPU, MFD

c. mechanical gyros, HACS, MPU, DCP

d. mechanical gyros, magnetic information system, OHAS


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Navigation Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5B

Multiple Choice

1. The VOR and LOC receiving antennae are on the ____.

a. landing gear doors

b. nose cone

c. wing leading edges

d. vertical stabilizer

3


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Autopilot Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5B

Multiple Choice

1. Excluding approach, the minimum altitude for Collins autopilot

operation is ____ feet.

a. 1,000

b. 500

c. 200

d. 100

2. For approach with the radio altimeter operative, the minimum alti-

tude for Collins autopilot operation is ____ feet.

a. 1,000

b. 500

c. 100

d. 50

3. For approach with the radio altimeter inoperative, the minimum alti-

tude for Collins autopilot operation is ____ feet.

a. 500

b. 200

c. 100

d. 50

4. Aircraft with the Collins APS-85 Autopilot experience movement

of the ___ but not the ___ ___ to stabilize the aircraft about the yaw

axis.

a. Rudder, rudder pedals

b. Rudder pedals, rudderc. Ailerons, rudder pedals


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Self-Check


Fire Protection Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5D

Multiple Choice

1. At least how many portable fire extinguishers are in the Falcon 50?

a. None

b. One

c. Two

d. Three

2. During the preflight walkaround inspection, it was not noticed tha

one of the fire extinguisher thermal discharge discs was missing

During power on checks, could a valid fire warning system test

occur when the fire test button is depressed?

a. Yes

b. No

c. Lights yes, horn no

d. Lights no, horn yes

True or False

1. ____ Except in the baggage compartment, increased gas pressure in

the fire detection tube closes the switch that triggers the fire

warning circuits.

2. ____ The APU and baggage compartment fire detection systems are

identical.

3. ____ Position 2 of the ENG 3 fire estinguishing switch can be fired

with the battery switches OFF.4. ____ The detection circuits are on both A and B buses.

5. ____ If CBrF3also known as Halon 1301 leakage or discharge is

suspected, vacate the area and ventilate well.

3


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Oxygen Reference: Technical Manual chapter 5J

Multiple Choice

1. The maximum operating pressure of the standard oxygen bottle is

____ PSI at 70F (21C).

a. 1,850

b. 1,760

c. 1,670

d. 1,580

2. Pressure breathing of 100% oxygen is actuated at approximately

____ ft.

a. 41,000

b. 33,000

c. 30,000

d. 27,000

3. During cruise, the cabin pressure altitude rose to 12,000 ft; the pas-

senger oxygen selector was in NORMAL when the passenger

masks deployed automatically. Oxygen was supplied at deployment

pressure, then dropped to 27.5 PSI. Was this a malfunction?

Why?

a. Yes, the passengers should have continued to receive oxygen at

deployment pressure.

b. Yes, the passengers should have initially received oxygen at stor-

age pressure; then it should have dropped to distribution pressure.

c. No, the cabin controller used storage pressure to deploy the

masks; then reduced the pressure for passenger use.d. No, the cabin controller used deployment pressure to deploy the

masks; then reduced the pressure to passenger use.

4. Oxygen is supplied to the passengers at 27.5 PSI. The ARMED

indicator is ____, and the SUPPLY indicator is ____.

a. partially white, partially white

b. partially white, white

c. white, partially white

d. white, white

5. For flights below 10,000 ft, the required oxygen pressure at dispatch

is ____ PSI. For flights above 10,000 ft, the required oxygen pres-sure at dispatch is ____ PSI.

a. 0, 700

b. 650, 700

c. 650, 1,850

d. 1,000, 1,850


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Self-Check


Flight Planning Reference: Technical Manual chapter 4

Multiple Choice

1. Normal climb speed is ____.

a. 230 KIAS/0.72 M

b. 250 KIAS/0.72 M

c. 260 KIAS/0.72 M

d. 280 KIAS/0.72 M

2. VAP, approach target speed, is equivalent to ____.

a. VREF+ 10

b. VREF+ 10 + 1/2 headwind

c. VREF+ 10 + 1/2 headwind + 1/2 gust

d. VREF+ 10 + 1/2 headwind + full gust (VREF+ 20, maximum)

3. VFR, flap retract speed, is equivalent to ____.

a. 160 KIASb. 145 KIAS

c. V2+ 15 (takeoff)

d. V2+ 25 (takeoff)

4. What conditions require an adjustment to V1for a given weight?

a. temperature/wind/runway

b. runway gradient/altitude/temperature/wind

c. runway gradient/temperature only

d. wind/runway gradient

5. Do not attempt to take off in snow depths greater than ____.a. 2.0 inches (dry)

b. 4.0 inches (dry)/2.0 inches (wet)

c. 0.25 inch

d. 0.5 inch equivalent water depth

6. For takeoff operations on contaminated runways, adopt V1 = VRand do not use ____ ____.

a. V1= V1 right rudder

b. V1= VR reduced thrust

c. V1= VR full power

d. V2= VR reduced thrust

3


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Weight and

Balance

Reference: Technical Manual chapter 4

Multiple Choice

1. Zero fuel weight includes ____.

a. reserve fuel

b. taxi fuel

c. alternate and reserve fuel

d. unusable fuel

2. The Falcon 50 BOW is typically around ____ pounds.

a. 28,000

b. 26,000

c. 22,000

d. 21,000

3. After computing and recording ZFW figures on the Loading

Diagram, which chart do you refer to next?

a. Balanced Field S +20

b. Maximum Take-Off Weight Limited By Climb Requirements

c. V1-VRTake-Off Attitude

d. Weight and Balance Diagram

4. Where can Enroute Climb Speed Chart (1.5 VS) be found in the Per-

formance Manual?

a. In the Takeoff and Climb Section

b. Both a and c

c. Sec 4, Sub Sec 15, Pg 2

d. Sec 5


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Self-Check


Takeoff

Performance

Reference: Technical Manual chapter 4

1. Use charts provided to determine the maximum takeoff weight and

complete the TOLD card for takeoff at Cheyenne Airport. Bring to

class for review.

Information: Outside Air Temperature (OAT) - 86F

Altimeter Reading - 30.11

Runway - 26/8

Runway Length 9200 ft

Wind - Calm

Field Elevation - 6156 ft

(Use charts provided by instructor.)

3


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41/86

Self-Check


Self-Check 4

ElectricalAbnormals/

Emergencies

References: Technical Manual chapter 5L,

Operating Handbook E-pages

Matching: Phase I Memory Items

For ELECTRICAL SMOKE OR FIRE

1. ___ a. O2Masks/Smoke Goggles -

100%/DONNED

2. __ b. No Smoking - ON

3. __ c. MIC Select - MASK + CPIT

& TEST

4. __ d. If no fire: Passenger Control/Masks - OVERIDE/DONNED

For ALL THREE GENs INOP

5. ___ a. Bus Tie - FLT NORM

6. ___ b. C and D Buses -OFF

7. ___ c. Generators -(OFF/ON) RESET

Multiple Choice

1. Batteries in good condition last approximately ____ with____ per

bat load.

a. 20 MIN, 50 AMP

b. 50 MIN, 20 AMP

c. 20 AMP, 50 MIN

d. 50 AMP, 20 MIN

e. 30 MIN, 50 AMP

2. During ALL THREE GENs INOP, battery load may be further

reduced by selecting ___.

a. Booster Pumps - OFF

b. INS & Nav - OFF

c. Windshield Heat - OFFd. All of the above

e. None of the above

4


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3. During battery failure, or illumination of the BAT 1 or BAT 2 annun-

ciator, _______ attempt(s) can be made to reconnect the battery.

a. one

b. two

c. three

d. four

e. no further

f. unlimited

4. For the ONE GEN INOP checklist, three separate one generator

inoperative procedures are used. Of the following, which one is not

a procedure?

a. ONE GEN INOP: SWITCH TRIPPED

b. ONE GEN INOP: SWITCH NOT TRIPPED: GEN 1 OR 2

c. ONE GEN INOP: SWITCH NOT TRIPPED: GEN 3

d. ONE GEN INOP: SWITCH TRIPPED: BUS TIED

5. Illumination of the HOT BAT warning light indicates a battery tem-

perature exceeds ___ and a thermal runaway may be occurring.

a. 130F

b. 140F

c. 150F

d. 130C

e. 140C

f. 150C

True or False

1. ____ Maximum of two attempts to reset a failed generator are

allowed. However, if only one generator is inoperative andthe switch is tripped, only one reset attempt is allowed.

2. ____ Illumination of the BAT 1 or BAT 2 warning annunciator indi-

cates that the associated battery is isolated from the respec-

tive main bus and the battery make-and-break relay is open.


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Self-Check


Ice and Rain

Protection

Abnormals/

Emergencies

References: Technical Manual chapter 5H,


Multiple Choice

1. Illumination of the AIRFRAME amber light with the AIRFRAME

anti-ice switch in NORM indicates the anti-ice air is at ___.a. too high temperature

b. too low temperature

c. too low pressure

d. too high pressure

2. Select the proper sequence from the list below for ANTI-ICE LATE

ACTIVATION.

1. Start Selector Sws - AIR START

2. Eng 1 and 3 Sw - ON

3. Wait 30 seconds

4. Eng 2 Sw - ON5. Wait 30 seconds

6. Airframe Sw - NORMAL

a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

b. 1, 3, 5, 2, 4, 6

c. 2, 4, 6, 1, 3, 5

d. 1, 2, 5, 6, 4, 3

e. 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1

3. If engine No. 2 amber annunciator illuminates and the engine No. 2

ANTI-ICE switch is OFF, the anti-icing pressure is more than 4 PSI

in either the ___ anti-icing ducts or the ___ inlet anti-ice system.a. No.2 engine/No.2

b. No.3 engine/No.1

c. No.1 engine/No.3

d. S-duct/No.2

4. To remove ice, after the SLATS FAIL TO RETRACT AFTER

TAKEOFF, extend the stats, activate the airframe anti-ice system

and maintain airspeed less than ___ knots.

a. 250

b. 240

c. 200

d. 180

5. The minimum N1speeds for anti-ice operations with the TAT of

- 10C to 0C, in cruise conditions is ___.

a. 84

b. 78

c. 91

d. Listed in the AFM

e. Both b and d

4


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Flight Profiles References: Technical Manual chapter 5DOperating Handbook E-pages

Multiple Choice

Questions 1 through 3 refer to a rolling takeoff.

1. Under normal conditions nosewheel steering is released at ___.

a. 60 kts

b. 80 kts

c. 100 kts

d. V1

2. The pilot flying moves his right hand from the throttles to the yoke

at ___.

a. 80 kts

b. VRc. V1d. 400 ft AGL

3. Nose wheel steering is restricted by speed and should not be used to

maintain directional control.

a. T

b. F

4. Raise the flaps at ___.

a. V2+ 15 (minimum)

b. 400 ft AGL (minimum)

c. a and b

d. none of the above


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Self-Check


Questions 5 through 7 refer to a rejected takeoff.

5. If the crew trains to a firmly established SOP, which flight crew

member may call for an abort?

a. PF

b. PIC

c. PNFd. Most senior crewmember

e. Either crewmember

6. The first PF action during a rejected takeoff is ___.

a. Power - IDLE

b. Brakes - AS REQUIRED

c. Brakes - MAXIMUM

d. ATC - ADVISE

7. Prior to V1, for which of the following malfunctions is there cause

for a rejected takeoff?

a. Engine fireb. Engine failure

c. Thrust reverser deployment

d. All of the above

Questions 8 and 9 refer to engine failure after V1.

8. Minimum rotation pitch attitude is ___.

a. 8

b. 14

c. 15

d. dependent on weight

9. After flap retraction, accelerate to and begin to climb at ___.

a. V2+ 25

b. VAC

c. VFS/1.5 VS

d. VMCA

4


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CAE Simuflite


Question 10 and 11 refer to a normal ILS approach.

10. Procedure turn speed and configuration targets are ___ and ___.

a. clean, 180 kts

b. flaps 7, 160 kts

c. flaps 20, 140 kts

d. gear down and flaps 20, VREF+ 10

11. Flaps are lowered to full ___.

a. when the glideslope is alive

b. at 500 ft above DA(H)

c. when the glideslope is captured

d. when the landing is assured

12. On a standard ILS, the callouts to DA(H) are ___.

a. 500. 100. Minimums

b. 1,000. 100. Minimums

c. 1,000. 500. 200. 100. Minimums

d. 1,000. 500. 400. 300. 200. 100. Minimums

13. On a one engine ILS approach, the minimum clean configuration

maneuvering speed is ___.

a. 200 kts

b. 180 kts

c. 1.5Vsd. VREF + 10

14. During a non-precision approach, the maximum recommended rate

of descent from the FAF to MDA is ___ feet per minute.

a. 2,000

b. 1,500

c. 1,000

d. 700

True or False

1. ____ During a visual approach/balked landing, set the airspeed bug

to VREF, and the airspeed pointers to VA, and 1.5VAP.

2. ____ A normal landing may be made with either 20 flaps or full

flaps.


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Self-Check


Use of Normal

Checklist

References: Technical Manual chapter 5C


Multiple Choice

1. Who initiates a checklist by calling for the specific checklist title?

a. PFb. PIC

c. PNF

d. SIC

2. Who reads the checklist challenge item aloud?

a. PF

b. PIC

c. PNF

d. SIC

3. How is the response made to the challenge?

a. The PNF reads the response after reading the challenge.b. The PF responds verbally to the PNF challenge after completing

the required action.

c. The PNF responds verbally to his own challenge after completing

required action.

d. None of the above.

e. Both b and c.

4. Good crew resource management (CRM) calls for which of the

following?

a. The PNF to announce the completion of any checklist.

b. The PNF to ask the PF if a checklist should be started if the PNF

thinks it was overlooked.

c. The PNF issues a second challenge if the PF does not respond by

action or verbal communication.

d. All of the above.

5. If the PF does not respond to the second challenge, the PNF mus

ensure the safety of the aircraft by ___.

a. issuing a third challenge

b. assuming control of the aircraft

c. announcing he is assuming control and then taking the necessary

actions to return the aircraft to a safe operating envelope

6. Abnormal and emergency checklists are handled differently than

normal checklists in that the ___.

a. PIC must accomplish the checklist items

b. PF must handle the checklist items

c. PIC designates who controls the aircraft and who performs the

tasks

d. PNF not only reads the challenge, he reads the response as wel

when challenging each item.

4


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49/86

Self-Check


Self-Check 5

FuelAbnormal/

Emergencies

References: Technical Manual chapter 5F,


Multiple Choice

1. Illumination of the FUEL 1 annunciator indicates that the respective

fuel pressure sensed in the supply line between the booster pump

and the engine is ___.

a. high

b. negative

c. positive

d. low

2. In normal operations, illumination of the FUEL 1 annunciator

requires the BOOSTER PUMP PRESSURE LOW procedure be

accomplished. You complete steps: (1) X-Feed - OPEN and (2) LowBooster Pump - OFF. The flight is continued and the fuel is bal-

anced if ___.

a. the light goes out

b. the light stays on

c. fuel loss not noticed

d. fuel loss is noticed

3. In normal operations, illumination of the FUEL 1 annunciator

requires the BOOSTER PUMP PRESSURE LOW procedure to be

accomplished . You complete steps: (1) X-Feed - OPEN and (2)

Low Booster Pump - OFF. Later, you accomplish step (5) AssocFire Pull - PULL and (6) Power Lever - CUTOFF if ___.

a. the light goes out

b. the light stays on

c. fuel loss not noticed

d. fuel loss is noticed

4. When the FUELING light illuminates indicating a FUEL TANK

PRESSURIZATION INOP problem, which of the following apply?

a. Avoid rapid changes in attitude

b. Restrict pitch and bank to low angles

c. Land if possible

d. Land as soon as possible

5. When the FUELING light illuminates, indicating a FUEL TANK

PRESSURIZATION INOP problem, choose the correct possibilities

a. One of the three air vent valves may be open

b. Fueling door may be open

c. D Bus may not be powered

d. Defueling valve may be open

5


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CAE Simuflite


6. Illumination of the LO FUEL annunciator indicates that the fuel

remaining in at least one of the feeder tanks is less than ___ pounds.

a. 300

b. 400

c. 500

d. 600

e. 700

f. 800

7. Illumination of XFR advisory light indicates that the sensed pres-

sure in a fuel transfer line is low. This condition may be due to ___.

a. low fuel in the respective wing tank

b. a transfer pump failed or turned off

c. a leak in the respective transfer system

d. a faulty pressure switch

True or False

1. ____ When a FUEL WING TANK LEVEL ABNORMALLY LOW

situation develops, the discrepancy between TOT fuel indica-

tors should be verified by checking aileron trim.

2. ____ If all feeders are low and the EMERG FUEL TRANSFER

switch is not incorporated, an immediate landing may be

required.


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Self-Check


PowerplantAbnormals/

Emergencies

References: Technical Manual chapter 5L,


Multiple Choice

1. Place the following steps in the correct order for the ALL

ENGINES OUT procedure.1. C&D Buses - OFF

2. Comm - VHF 1/ATC 1

3. Establish A/C - WITHIN AIRSTART ENVELOPE

4. Elec Load - REDUCE 50 AMP/BATT

5. Airstarts - ATTEMPT

a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

b. 5, 4, 3, 2, 1

c. 1, 2, 3, 5, 4

d. 3, 4, 1, 2, 5

e. 5, 4, 2, 1, 32. The illumination of the amber OIL 1 (or 2, or 3) annunciator signals

that either metal chips have been detected in the oil scavenge line or

the oil pressure is less than ___ PSI.

a. 21

b. 22

c. 23

d. 24

e. 25

f. 26

3. Place the steps in the correct order for the ENGINE FAILUREDURING TAKEOFF procedure BEFORE V1: REJECT TAKEOFF

1. Power Levers - IDLE

2. Brakes - MAX PRESSURE

3. Airbrakes - (POSITION 2) EXTEND

4. T/R - DEPLOYED

a. 1, 2, 3, 4

b. 1, 3, 2, 4

c. 1, 4, 2, 3

d. 2, 1, 4, 3

e. 2, 1, 3, 4

4. Which step is not listed in the ENGINE FAILURE DURING

TAKEOFF AFTER V1: CONTINUE TAKEOFF procedure, but is

understood.

a. At VR- ROTATE

b. Takeoff Attitude - SET

c. Directional Control - MAINTAIN

d. At Positive Rate of Climb, Landing Gear - UP

5


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CAE Simuflite


5. Abort airstart if ITT is rising rapidly toward ___.

a. 707C

b. 807C

c. 907C

d. 707F

e. 807F

f. 907F

6. For the ENGINE FAILURE DURING TAKEOFF AFTER V1:

CONTINUE TAKEOFF and AT 400 FEET AGL MINIMUM pro-

cedure, place these steps in correct order.

5. At V2+ 15 - (FLAPS UP) SLATS ONLY

6. At V2+ 25 - CLEAN WING

7. Climb Speed - 1.5 VSa. 5, 6, 7

b. 5, 7, 6

c. 6, 7, 5

d. 6, 5, 7

e. 7, 5, 6

f. 7, 6, 5

7. The time limit for windmilling airstart from windmilling N2to 60%

N2 is ___ seconds.

a. 25

b. 30

c. 35

d. 40

e. 45f. no time limit

8. The memory items in the correct order for ENGINE FIRE

1. Fire Pull- PULL

2. Power Lever - IDENTIFY/CUTOFF

3. Speed - BELOW 250 Kts

4. Fire Ext Eng - POS 1

5. Fire Ext Eng - POS 2

a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

b. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5

c. 1, 2, 3, 5, 4

d. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5

e. 2, 1, 4, 5, 3

f. 2, 3, 1, 4, 5


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Self-Check


9. During the EMERGENCY SHUTDOWN AND EVACUATION

procedure, are the power levers placed in CUTOFF and the fire pull

handles pulled before or after the parking brake is placed full aft?

a. Before

b. After

10. From the list below, what could cause the OIL 1 light to illuminate?

1. oil pressure is less than 25 PSI

2. metal chips are on the chip detector

3. computer may have failed

4. specific fuel consumption is higher

a. 1, 2, 3, 4

b. 1, 2, 3

c. 1, 2

d. 2, 3, 4

e. 2, 3f. 3, 4

11. CAUTION: Wait ___ seconds between consecutive airstar

attempts. Do not make more than ___ successive airstart attempts.

a. 10, 3

b. 3, 10

c. 10, 10

d. 3, 3

12. The clean configuration airspeed during the APPROACH AND

LANDING - 2 ENGS INOP procedure in the preparatory phase

prior to final approach is ___ VS(minimum).a. 1.3

b. 1.4

c. 1.5

d. 1.6

e. 1.7

13. The decision to make a missed approach with 2 ENGINES INOP

must be made no later than ___ feet AGL.

a. 1,400

b. 1,000

c. 800

d. 400e. 180

5


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14. If the INADVERTENT THRUST REVERSER DEPLOYMENT

procedure is used, what is the proper order for the corrective action?

1. Engine No. 1 - CUTOFF

2. T/N Norm/Stow Sw - UNSTOW

3. Speed - 220 KTs OR LESSa. The steps are correct

b. The steps are not correct

c. 2, 1, 3

d. 1, 3, 2

e. 3, 1, 2

True or False

1. ___ CAUTION: If engine failure occurs at a speed above V1,

maintain speed attained.

2. ___ An engine restart may be attempted, after a failure or fire ifengine integrity is not in question.

3. ___ CAUTION: If the light in the fire pull handle illuminates with-

out any other indications of an engine fire, the indication must

be treated as a fire and the engine fire checklist accomplished

immediately.


55/86

Self-Check


APU

Abnormals/

Emergencies

References: Technical Manual chapter 5L,Operating Handbook E-pages

Multiple Choice

1. What are the red print memory item(s) for APU FIRE (in correc

order)?1. Horn - SILENCE

2. APU Master Sw - PUSH

3. Fire APU Sw - POS 1

4. APU Bleed - OFF

5. APU Gen - OFF

a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

b. 1, 2, 3

c. 2, 3

d. 2, 3, 4,

e. 2, 3, 4, 5

True or False

1. ____ Illumination of the APU BLEED annunciator indicates the

APU bleed air valve is not closed when it should be.

2. ____ The APU will automaticlly shut off for fire, low oil pressure

overspeed, overvoltage, or if still ON after takeoff.

5


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Fire Protection

Abnormals/

Emergencies

References: Technical Manual chapter 5D,Operating Handbook E-pages

Multiple Choice

1. During an ENGINE FIRE, reducing the airspeed to below ___ will

reduce the airflow through the engine nacelle.a. 150 kts

b. 200 kts

c. 250 kts

d. 300 kts

e. VMO

2. Pulling the No. 2 eng FIRE PULL handle ___.

a. closes the No. 2 eng fuel shutoff valve

b. stops the fuel flow to the APU

c. stops the fuel flow to the No. 2 engine

d. All of the above


3. In the event of an APU fire, depressing the APU Master switch will

___.

a. close the apu fuel shutoff valve

b. close the air inlet door

c. close the bleed air valve

d. reduce the air in the fire area

e. All of the above

4. In case a WHEELS L or R fire warning occurs, the first procedure is

to ___.

a. reduce speed to 190 kts or lessb. extend the landing gear

c. leave gear extended for at least 10 mins after light goes out

d. fire the wheel well fire extinguisher


57/86

Self-Check


Flight Controls

Abnormals/

Emergencies

References: Technical Manual chapter 5E,


Multiple Choice

1. During an INOPERATIVE (JAMMED) STABILIZER LANDINGwith the Stabilizer Position Range +1 to -5, which step(s) are

correct?

a. Approach - SHALLOW

b. Configuration - S + FLAPS 20

c. Approach speed - VREF + 20

d. Landing Dist/Fld Length - INCREASE 480 FT/800 FT

e. All of the above.

2. With an INOPERATIVE (JAMMED) ELEVATOR LANDING

problem, pitch is controlled ___.

a. By the stationary horizontal stabilizer

b. By the moveable horizontal stabilizerc. By adjusting power settings up and down

d. By shifting fuel from the wings to the center tank

3. For a SLAT INTRANSIT LIGHT DURING CRUISE, reduce air-

craft speed to below ___ KIAS to avoid possible damage.

a. 180

b. 200

c. 220

d. 240

4. With the flaps down between 20 and 48, with the FLAP ASYM

light illuminated on the Failure Warning Panel, the minimum speedto be flown on final is ___.

a. VREF+ 0

b. VREF+ 5

c. VREF+ 10

d. VREF+ 15

e. VREF+ 20

f. VREF+ 30

5. ARTHUR Q INOP, shown by illumination of Q UNIT annunciator

should be followed initially with the first step of ___.

a. AP - OFFb. Copilots Pitot/Static Selector - NORMAL

c. Temperature < +10C No.1 Engine Anti-Ice - ON

d. All of the above


5


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True or False

1. ____ If the red light remains on throughout the procedure for

SLATS SELECTED AND SLAT INTRANSIT LIGHT

STAYS ILLUMINATED (Slats Malfunction on Approach),

the flaps are not extended; follow the clean wing landing pro-

cedure.

2. ____ To confirm outboard slots are extended after activating

EMERGENCY SLATS Switch, place the SLAT/FLAP Lever

in CLEAN WING.


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Self-Check


AvionicsAbnormals/

Emergencies

References: Technical Manual chapter 5B,


Multiple Choice

1. The only source of dynamic pressure to the No. 1 ADC is __.a. pitot/static ports

b. Q UNIT

c. AUTO SLATS

d. EFIS

e. AFM - pages 3.35

f. Pilots pitot tube

2. From recognition of a nose down hardover to recovery usually takes

___ and results in an altitude loss of ___ altitude during cruise.

a. 10 seconds, less than 50 feet.

b. 0 seconds, 0 feet

c. 2 seconds, more than 1,000 feetd. 3 seconds, less than 1,000 feet

3. For an EFIS failure on the Dassault EFIS 86 system or FJC EFIS 86

system, ___.

a. Assoc. RSP DN Switch - DEPRESS

b. Assoc. Usp UP Switch - DEPRESS

c. Assoc. RSP CDRV Switch - DEPRESS

d. Assoc. RSP ATT/HDG Switch - DEPRESS

e. Consult the Operating Handbook, page E-79

4. The procedure for a Collins Autopilot - NOSE DOWN HARDOVER

is ____.a. Autopilot - DISENGAGE

b. Aircraft trim - RETRIM

c. TD - OFF

d. Arthur Q - STNBY

e. both a and b.

5


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61/86

Self-Check


Self-Check 6

Hydraulics

Abnormals/

Emergencies

References: Technical Manual chapter 5G,


Multiple Choice

1. Place the red print memory items in correct order for LOSS OF

BOTH HYDRAULIC SYSTEMS.

1. AP/YD - OFF

2. Airspeed - BELOW 260/MI .76

3. Turbulence - AVOID

a. 1, 2, 3

b. 1, 2

c. 2, 3

d. 1, 3, 2

e. 3, 2f. 3, 2, 1

2. The associated TK.P1 or TK.P2 annunciator illuminates if air pres

sure in the respective hydraulic reservoir is ___.

a. High

b. Negative

c. Positive

d. Low

3. Choose correct steps from the following steps for the LOSS OF NO

1 HYD SYS.

1. Speed - 260/MI .76 MAX

2. Altitude - 15,000 FT

3. ST-BY Pump - ON

a. 1, 2, 3

b. 1, 3, 2

c. 1, 2

d. 1, 3

e. 2, 3, 1

f. 3, 2, 1

6


62/86

CAE Simuflite


True or False

1. ___ CAUTION: Landing with loss of both hydraulic systems

requires higher control forces & landing requires increased

caution. Directional control during landing can be achieved

with rudder and differential thrust.

2. ___ Illumination of the PMP 1 light indicates that the output pres-

sure of No. 1 engine driven pump is below 1500 PSI.

3. ___ If the ST-BY pump is operating and the ST-BY pump light illu-

minates, the electric ST-BY pump has operated continuously

for more than 60 seconds. The pump must be turned OFF to

prevent possible failure or fire.


63/86

Self-Check


Landing Gear

Abnormals/

Emergencies

References: Technical Manual chapter 5I,


Multiple Choice

1. During landing gear emergency extension, ___ minutes should be

allowed for free fall of all the landing gear.a. .1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

2. The main gear manual release requires about ___ pounds pull force

to release the uplocks.

a. 10

b. 20

c. 40

d. 60

3. The airspeed for emergency gear extension should be ___ knots.

a. 150 10

b. 170 (10)

c. 160 to 190

d. 200 to 210

4. Of the following items, which are red print memory items for the

WHEEL WELL OVERHEAT procedure?

a. Speed - 190KTs MAX

b. Gear - DOWN

c. Gear Down - MIN 10 MINS

d. Consider Brakes - NO. 2/OFF

e. a, b, and c

f. none of the above

5. If the landing gear handle will not move up, it is possible the nose

gear did not center. Is retraction recommended?

a. No

b. Yes

True or False

1. ___ If emergency gear extension has been accomplished, the normagear handle may be actuated once the gear is down and locked.

2. ___ The landing gear handle will not move up; use of the override

button is discouraged.

6


64/86

CAE Simuflite


Matching

Match the components affected (left) by the loss of a hydraulic system

(right).

Component Failed Hydraulic System

1. ___ Airbrakes a. No. 1 Hydraulic System

2. ___ Arthur Q b. No. 2 Hydraulic System

3. ___ #2 Brake System

4. ___ Emergency Slats

5. ___ Flaps

6. ___ Hydraulic Operations

of Landing Gear

7. ___ No. 1 Barrel of Flight

Control Servos

8. ___ No. 2 Barrel of Flight

Control Servos

9. ___ #1 Brake System

10. ___ Normal Slats

11. ___ Nosewheel Steering

12. ___ Parking (Emergency)

Braking May Be Lost

13. ___ Pitch and Roll Arthur

Q Units14. ___ Thrust Reverser May

Be Lost


65/86

Self-Check


Brakes

Abnormals/

Emergencies

References: Technical Manual chapter 5I,


Multiple Choice

1. If a malfunction is indicated in the anti-skid system, which braking

procedure is suggested?a. use Brakes #1 with Anti-skid OFF

b. use Brakes #1 with Anti-skid ON

c. use Brakes #2 with Anti-skid OFF

d. use Brakes #2 with Anti-skid ON

2. With a flashing #2P.BK light, indicating low parking brake accumu

lator pressure, standby hydraulic pump operation may charge the

parking brake accumulator to a pressure above ___; the parking

brake ___ hold the aircraft in position.

a. 1,800 PSI, will then

b. 1,800 PSI, will not then

c. 1,200 PSI, will then

d. 1,200 PSI, will not then

e. 2,500 PSI, will then

f. 2,500 PSI, will not then

3. The brake pressure technique used for a landing with No. 1 brake

system inoperative and No. 2 brakes, with anti-skid OFF selected, is

___.

a. moderate

b. modulate

c. light

d. modulate and moderate

True or False

1. ____The #1 OFF position is used in flight to pump NORMAL

BRAKES to free them from possible icing. Then #1 ON is

reselected.

2. ____ Anti-skid is not available below 12 knots.

6


66/86

CAE Simuflite


Pressurization

Abnormals/

Emergencies

References: Technical Manual chapter 5K,


Multiple Choice

1. Place the memory items for the EMERGENCY DESCENT proce-

dure in the proper order.1. O2MASKS - DONNED

2. Fasten Seat Belts and Smoking Lights - ON

3. MIC SELECT - MASK

4. Emergency Descent - INITIATE

5. O2Controller and Passenger Mask - OVERRIDE / DONNED

a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

b. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5

c. 1, 3, 2, 5, 4

d. 1, 2, 5, 3, 4

e. 1, 5, 4, 2, 3f. 1, 5, 2, 3, 4

2. Place the memory items in correct order for the AFT COMPART-MENT FIRE procedure.

1. Horn - SILENCE

2. Eng No. 2 Anti-Ice - OFF

3. Batt 1 & 2 Switches - OFF

4. HP/PRV (ALL) - OFF

5. ST-BY Pump - OFF

6. Fire Aft Comp Sw - POS 1

a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

b. 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

c. 1, 4, 2, 3, 5, 6

d. 4, 2, 3, 5, 6

e. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5, 6

f. 4, 3, 2, 6, 5

3. Place the following steps for EMERGENCY DESCENT in theproper order:

1.Power Levers - IDLE

2. Autopilot (A.P.) - DISENGAGED

3. Descent Airspeed - VMO/MMO4. Airbrake Handle - POSITION 2

5. ATC Transponder - MAYDAY CODE

a. 1, 2, 4, 5, 3

b. 2, 1, 4, 3, 5

c. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

d. 5, 4, 3, 2, 1

e. 2, 4, 1, 3, 5


67/86

Self-Check


Air Conditioning

Abnormals/

Emergencies

References: Technical Manual chapter 5K,


Multiple Choice

1. Which of the following steps apply for the CRACKED WIND-

SHIELD PANE procedure?a. Speed - 230 Kts

b. Cabin Pressure - 7.5 PSI MAX

c. Cracked Windshield Heat - NORM

d. All of the above


2. To determine the area of abnormal operation for a bleed air system

overheat, when the BLEED OVHT annunciator illuminates, what is

the proper sequence for turning the valves off?

a. HP1, HP3, HP2, PRV

b. HP1, HP3, PRV, HP2c. HP1, HP2, HP3, PRV

d. PRV, HP2, HP3, HP1

e. PRV, HP3, HP2, HP1

f. PRV, HP3, HP1, HP2

6


68/86

CAE Simuflite



69/86

Self-Check

Answer Key


Self-Check 1Answer Key

Refer to pages 5 through 14

Aircraft Flight ManualMultiple Choice

1. b

2. d

3. e

4. d

True or False

1. T

2. T

3. F

4. T

5. T

Aircraft Overview

Multiple Choice

1. d

2. b

3. b

4. b

5. a

ElectricalMultiple Choice

1. a

2. c

3. c

4. b

5. c

6. c

7. d

8. b

9. a

10. a

11. d

12. a

True or False

1. F

2. T

Matching

1. b

2. c

3. d

4. c

Hydraulic SystemMultiple Choice

1. b

2. c

3. b

4. b

True or False1. T

2. T

3. F

Flight Controls

Multiple Choice

1. b

2. a

3. a

4. c

5. b

6. a

7. c

8. a

9. c

10. b

1


70/86

CAE Simuflite



71/86

Self-Check

Answer Key




Landing Gear

Multiple Choice1. c

2. a

3. d

True or False1. T

2. T

3. F

Brakes

Multiple Choice

1. a

2. c

True or False

1. F

2. T

3. F

4. T

Powerplant

Multiple Choice

1. c

2. d

3. c

4. a

5. d

6. c

7. c

8. d

9. c

10. c

11. d

12. a

13. d

APU

Multiple Choice

1. c

2. d

True or False

1. F

2. T

Thrust Reverser

Multiple Choice

1. c

2. c

3. c

True or False

1. F

2. F

Fuel System

Multiple Choice1. d

2. a

3. b

4. b

5. a

6. c

Matching

1. a

2. c

3. e

4. d

5. b

PressurizationMultiple Choice

1. a

2. d

3. b

4. d

5. c

6. d

7. c

8. a

True or False1. T2. F

3. F

Air Conditioning

Multiple Choice

1. a

2. b

3. d

4. b5. a

6. d

True or False

1. F

2. T

2


72/86

CAE Simuflite



73/86

Self-Check

Answer Key




Ice and Rain Protection

Multiple Choice

1. c

2. a

3. d

4. c

5. c

6. a

7. b

8. a

9. a10. b

11. a

Communications

Multple Choice

1. b

2. c

Instruments

Multple Choice1. a

Navigation

Multple Choice

1. d

AutopilotMultple Choice

1. a

2. d

3. c

4. a

Fire Protection

Multple Choice

1. c

2. aTrue or False1. T

2. F

3. T

4. T

5. T

Oxygen

Multple Choice

1. a2. b

3. d

4. c

5. b

Flight Planning

Multiple Choice

1. c

2. d

3. c

4. b

5. c

6. b

Weight and Balance

Multiple Choice

1. d

2. c

3. d

4. b

3


74/86

CAE Simuflite



75/86

Self-Check

Answer Key




ElectricalAbnormals/EmergenciesMatching: Phase 1 Memory Items

1. a

2. c

3. b

4. d

5. b

6. a

7. c

Multiple Choice

1. a

2. d

3. b

4. d

5. c

True or False

1. T

2. T

Ice and Rain ProtectionAbnormals/Emergencies

Multiple Choice1. c

2. a

3. d

4. c

5. e

Flight Profiles

Multiple Choice

1. b

2. c

3. b

4. c

5. e

6. c

7. d

8. b

9. c

10. c

11. c

12. c

13. c

14. b

True or False

1. T

2. T

Use of Normal ChecklistMultiple Choice

1. a

2. c

3. e

4. d

5. c

6. c

4


76/86

CAE Simuflite



77/86

Self-Check

Answer Key



Refer to pages 47-58

FuelAbnormals/Emergencies

Multiple Choice

1. d

2. a

3. d

4. a, b, c

5. a, b, c, d

6. a

7. a, b, c, d

True or False1. T2. T

PowerplantAbnormals/EmergenciesMultiple Choice

1. a

2. e

3. e

4. c

5. c

6. a

7. a

8. d

9. a

10. c

11. a

12. c

13. b

14. b

True or False1. F2. F

3. F

APUAbnormals/Emergencies

Multiple Choice

1. c

True or False

1. T

2. T

Fire ProtectionAbnormals/Emergencies

Multiple Choice

1. c

2. d

3. e

4. a

Flight ControlsAbnormals/Emergencies

Multiple Choice1. e

2. b3. b

4. b

5. a

True or False

1. T

2. T

AvionicsAbnormals/Emergencies

Multiple Choice

1. f

2. d

3. e

4. e

5


78/86

CAE Simuflite



79/86

Self-Check

Answer Key



Refer to pages 59-66

HydraulicsAbnormals/Emergencies

Multiple Choice

1. b

2. d

3. d

True or False

1. T

2. T

3. T

Landing GearAbnormals/Emergencies

Multiple Choice

1. b

2. c

3. c

4. f

5. a

True or False

1. F2. T

Matching1. b

2. a

3. b

4. b

5. b

6. a

7. a

8. b

9. a10. a

11. b

12. b

13. a

14. a

BrakesAbnormals/Emergencies

Multiple Choice

1. c

2. c

3. d

True or False

1. T

2. T

PressurizationAbnormals/Emergencie

Multiple Choice1. c

2. d

3. b

Air ConditioningAbnormals/Emergencie

Multiple Choice

1. d

2. d

6


80/86

CAE Simuflite


DC Electrical System

PILOT COPILOT

C BUS

BUS

TIED

GEN 1 BAT

START

GPU

B1

A

V V

B2

LEFT MAIN

B

A

T

B

U

S

A BUS D BUS

CONTROL

B BUS

RIGHT MAIN

G1 G2 G3 APU

BUS

TIE

A

STANDBY

Figure - 1


81/86

Answer Key


AC Electrical System

R

M

A

I

N

B

U

S

B

B

U

S

INV

1

ST BY

INV

INV

2

A

B

U

S

26V AC

115V AC

115V AC

26V AC

ST BY

INV 5WAC2

26V/400HZ

FREQUENCY

MONITOR

AC1

26V/400HZ

FREQUENCY

MONITOR

115 V

COPILOT'S

PILOT'SAC1

AC2

Figure - 2


82/86

CAE Simuflite


Pneumatic System

*

*

*

BLEED OVHT SENSORS

COND'G OVHT SENSORS

TOAIRDIST

BAG

HP3

CREWCOND'GVALVE

CABINCOND'GVALVE

CREW

ECU

CABINECU

PRESSUREBULKHEAD

S DUCTANTI-ICE

HP2

PRV

PRESSURIZATIONJET PUMP

TOFUEL

TOHYDRAULICS

APU

AIRFRAME

ANTI-ICE


TO FUEL

TO HYDRAULICS

ENGINEANTI-ICE

HP

TEMPREGULATING

VALVE

No. 2

No. 3

No. 1


MANIFOLD

C

OMMON

Figure - 3


83/86

Answer Key


Fuel System

XFR

FUEL 1

APU

LOW

LEVEL

FILLHIGH

LEVEL

REGULATION

LEVEL

LOW

LEVEL

No. 1

No. 2

No.3

FIRE

1

PULL

FIRE

2

PULL

FIRE

3

PULL

ENG 1 & 2 LP BLEED AIR

Figure - 4


84/86

CAE Simuflite


Hydraulic System

ENG 1&2

LP

BLEED

AIR

RESERVOIR

#1

RESERVOIR

#2

THRUST

REVERSER

ELEVATOR

AILERON

RUDDER

ELEVATOR

ARTHUR Q

AILERON

ARTHUR Q

SLATS

NORMAL

LANDING

GEAR

NORMAL

BRAKES

FLAPS

AIR BRAKES

EMERGENCY

SLATS

NOSEWHEEL

STEERING

EMERG#2 BRAKES

PMP 1

PUMP 1 PUMP 2

STANDBY

PUMP

PUMP 3

PARKINGBRAKES

ST PMP

60" T

TKP2

Q1 P1 Q2 P2

Figure - 5


85/86

Answer Key


Loading Form Example

Figure - 6


86/86

CAE Simuflite

Falcon 50 Training Exercises

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