Dr.yayooo Novmber 2012 Expected Exam Questions

Dr.Yayooo November 2012 Expected Exam Questions with answers

1. One of your regular patients comes to the pharmacy in search of Dogmatil for her brother. He has just arrived from Singapore for a visit, but his medication was lost with his luggage. She says her brother needs the

medication for a CNS condition and shouldnt go without it. She wants to know if he can get Dogmatil here. Which of the following appropriate reference:

a. Canadian hospital journal

b. American hospital journal

c. CPS

d. Martindale, The complete drug reference

e. National formulary

2. Pharmacy professional ethical standards include non-maleficence, which means: a. Pharmacist should act with honesty and veracity

b. Pharmacist should act with fairness

c. Pharmacist should prevent harm

d. Pharmacist should place the benefit of the patient above all else.

e. Pharmacist should respect patient choice.

3. Planes and Sections of the body: separates the body into unequal right and left portions is referred as: a. Sagittal plane

b. Midsagittal plane

c. Coronal plane

d. Parasagittal plane

e. Oblique

4. Which of the following drug is reserved for treatment of ulcerative colitis because the drug is not absorbed

from the gut and acts locally?

a. Sulfamethoxazole

b. Sulfasalazine

c. Trimethorpim + Sulfamethaxazole

d. Sulfaetamide

e. Metronidazole

5. A 55 year pharmacy manager want to delegate a project to a pharmacy technician, The principles of

delegation consist of:

I- Responsibility II-Authority

III-Accountability

A-I only

B-III only

C-I and II only

D-II and III only

E-All of the above

6. If the PCO

2 60 while normal is 40 and bicarbonate is 10 while normal is 15, the disorder is called

a. metabolic acidosis

b. metabolic alkalosis

c. no acid base disorder

d. respiratory acidosis

e. respiratory alkalosis

7. In Michelis menten equation, 1st

order kinetic achieved at:

I-higher concentration of substrate than Vmax

II-Same concentration of substrate at Vmax

III-Lower concentration of substrate than Vmax

A-I only

B-III only

C-I and II only

D-II and III only

E-All of the above

8. A drug is wrongly dispensed to a patient, and patient has no knowledge of wrong medication. Who should be

informed first:

A-Doctor

B-Nurse

C-Patient

D-Pharmacy manager

E-Pharmacy technician

9. Which of the following drugs that causes vitamin B6 deficiency:

I-Isoniazid

II- Penicillamine

III- Methotrexate

A-I only

B-III only

C-I and II only

D-II and III only

E-All of the above

10. Which of the following molecule form free radicals?

I-Fatty acid peroxidation is result of free radical formation

II-Hydrogen peroxide and other peroxide produce free radicals

III-Oxygen produces free radicals

A-I only

B-III only

C-I and II only

D-II and III only

E-All of the above

11. This year sales is $150,000, at start of year $25,000 at the end of year 50,000 the inventory capital. What is

the turn over?

A-2

B-3

C-4

D-5

E-6

12. Which of the following is the most common metabolic reaction in stomach:

A-Oxidation

B-Reduction

C-Hydrolysis

D-Conjugation

E-Glucoronidation

13. A 33 year old woman receives long term and high dose treatment of sulfamethaxazole. After 2 weeks of

treatment, she has low grade of fever, rash, and muscle and joint pains. These symptoms indicate which type of

hypersensitive reaction.

A-Type I

B-Type II

C-Type III

D-Type IV

E-Type V

14. A 14 year old patient coming to pharmacy for oral contraceptive, which of the following is the appropriate

action.

A-Do not dispense oral contraceptive

B-Dispense oral contraceptives

C-Call doctor and verify

D-Call parents and inform about oral contraceptives

15. What are the incorrect statement in ophthalmic drops administration techniques:

I- Tilt head forward and look downwards

II-Draw eyelid down with index finger

III-Instill drop in conjunctiva sack

A-I only

B-III only

C-I and II only

D-II and III only

E-All of the above

16. What is QALY?

A- Quantity adjusted life year

B-Quality adjusted life year

C-Quantity adjusted life period

D-Quality adjusted life period

E-Quality administration life year

17. Which of the following is not a parametric test?

A- Mean B- Chi-square test

C- Standard deviation

D- t-test (student test)

E- None of the above

18. What is a rate of constant of heparin in first order kinetic if 50 units/cc of heparin remains in solution after

10 days ? [Initial concentration of heparin was 5000 units/cc]

A.2.1 day-1

B. 0.5 day-1

C. 0.46 day-1

D.10 days-1

E. 1.23 day-1

19. Drugs that may affect the normal activity of warfarin include:

A. Ibuprofen

B. Aspirin

C. Vitamin K

D. Acetaminophen

E. All are correct

20. A pharmacist received a prescription for cimetidine 300 mg tablets but did not have the item in stock. The

pharmacist decided to substitute famotidine 20 mg tablets in its place, this substitution is called:

A. Generic substitution

B. Pharmaceutical substitution

C. Therapeutic substitution

D. Biological substitution

E. Brand substitution

21. Lipooxigenase function in the following mechanism:

A. Conversion of arachidonic acid to prostaglandin

B. Conversion of histidine to histamine

C. Conversion of tryptophan to serotonin

D. Conversion of arachidonic acid to leukotriene

E. Inhibits Leukocyte migration.

22. Which of the following should be monitored in-patient taking warfarin:

I-INR

II-Prothrombin time (PT)

III-aPTT

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All of the above

23. A researcher develops a new drug to prevent the common cold in children over of two. 1000 children

received placebo and 1000 received the drug. During the one year follow up the research diagnosed colds in

2.5% of the kids on placebo and in 2% of the active treatment. What is the absolute risk reduction?

A. 05%

B. 20%

C. 10%

D. 40%

E. 5%

24. Chemical ring structure in folic acid that binds to para aminobenzoic acid is;

A. PABA ring

B. Pteridine ring

C. Glutamate

D. Quinolone ring

E. Epoxide ring

25. What is the mechanism of action of montelukast (Singulair)?

A-Leukotriene inhibitors

B-LTC4 and LTD4 inhibitors

C-Cyclooxygenase inhibitors

D-5HT1D inhibitors

E-Antihistamines

26. All of the following drugs have sulfa allergy EXCEPT:

A. Acetazolamide

B. Hydrochlorothiazide

C. Chlorothiazide

D. Furosemide

E. Diazoxide

27. All of the following conditions are essential for thiazide structure:

I-sulfonamide group on benzene ring

II-Chloro or trifluoromethyl group on position 6.

III-Double bond on position 3 and 4

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All of the above

28. Vitamin is characterized as:

A. It is cofactor

B. It is inorganic substance

C. It is catalyst

D. It is organic substance

E. It is enzyme

29. In the oral treatment of iron deficient anemia, choice of administration of iron is:

I-Elemental iron

II-Iron complex form

III-Ferrous iron

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All of the above

30. Choose correct answer about linolenic acid and linoleic acid:

I-Linolenic acid is should be taken with diet

II-Linolenic acid and linoleic acid have only difference of double bond in chemical structure

III-Both of them are essential fatty acids

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All are correct

31. Which vitamin structure is related to steroidal hormone structures:

A. Vitamin A

B. Vitamin B

C. Vitamin C

D. Vitamin D

E. Vitamin E

32. The effectiveness of VANCOMYCIN is seen ONLY in:

A. Virus

B. Gram-negative bacteria

C. Gram-positive bacteria

D. Both gram-positive and negative bacteria

E. Plasmodium

33. A 38 year old bus operator with history of arrhythmias suffering from seasonal rhinitis. This of the

following is the best choice for his condition:

A. Meclizine

B. Fexofenadine

C. Famotidine

D. Diphenhydramine

E. Dimenhydrinate

34. Oral anticoagulants such as warfarin have the following properties:

I-Interfere with vitamin K dependent coagulant factors II, VII, IX and X

II-Interfere with vitamin K dependent coagulant factors I, II, IX and X

III- Interfere with vitamin K dependent coagulant factors II, VII, IX, X and XII

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II Only

D. II and III only

E. All of the above

35. Correct statements regarding using Permethrin 1% (nix) in the treatment of head lice may include

I. Head lice may be resistant to nix 1% so second application is required after 7 days

II. Comb hair with fine toothed comb to remove nits

III. Change and clean bedding, clothing and towels

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All of the above

36. A 26 year old young woman presents with the symptoms of urinary tract infections. Which of the following

is least likely her symptom?

A. Frequent urination

B. Hyperhidrosis (diaphorosis)

C. Urinary urgency

D. Suprapubic discomfort

E. Burning sensation

37. The structure shown below is:

A. Hydrochlorothiazide

B. Furosemide

C. Chlorothiazide

D. Mannitol

E. Warfarin

38. If a structure of a drug contain three stereogenic centers (chiral center), there will be how many isomer

possible for this structure;

A. 8

B. 12

C. 21

D. 9

E. 6

39. In which of the following indications are the fluoroquinolones are ineffective?

A. UTI due to E. coli

B. UTI due to pseudomonas

C. Pneumonia due to S. pneumonia

D. UTI due to resistant strain of klebsiella

E. Chronic bronchitis due to M. catarrhalis

40. All of the following statement are correct about enantiomers, EXCEPT:

A. Enantiomers are optical isomers that are mirror images of one another.

B. Enantiomers have identical physical and chemical properties.

C. Enantiomers one rotate plane of polarized light in clockwise direction are known as dextrorotatory, D or +

D. Enantiomers one rotate plane of polarized light in anti clockwise direction are known as levorotatory, L or -

E. one hundred percent mixture of D or L enantiomers is called racemic mixture.

41. Ulcers are complications of gastrointestinal tract. The risk of having ulcers is bigger in people having which

of the following conditions:

A. Smokers

B. Alcoholics

C. NSAID long-term treatment

D. Corticosteroids long-term treatment

E. All are correct

42. Poison Ivy can be treated by which of the following agents?

I- Topical antipruritic

II- Antihistaminics

III- Systemic corticosteroids

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All are correct

43. Acetaminophen toxicity most well knows complication is:

A. Cardiovascular failure

B. Pulmonary edema

C. CNS lethargy

D. Liver necrosis

E. Sedation

44. Glutathione catalysis is extremely important in preventing toxicity from variety of drugs, toxic products are

excreted as:

A. S-adenosyl transferase

B. Glutamic acid

C. Mercapturic acid

D. Amino acids

E. Sulfadryl groups

45. Metabolism of drug is enhanced by:

I-Passive reabsorption

II-Excretion

III-Tubular secretion

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All of the above

46. The abrupt release of large and uncontrolled amount of drug from the modified release dosage form

affecting the bioavailability is called:

A. Dose extended release

B. Dose dumping

C. First-pass dose effect

D. Fast release dose

E. Tumbling

47. Thin walled, fluid blistered develop within minute in burn depth of:

A. 1st degree

B. 2nd degree superficial partial thickness

C. 2nd degree deep partial thickness

D. 3rd degree

E. 3rd degree full thickness

48. Treatment of tricyclic antidepressants overdose is done by all the following procedures, EXCEPT:

A. Control the seizures and cardiotoxicity

B. Administration of benzodiazepine or phenytoin to control seizures

C. Activated charcoal can be used

D. MAO antidepressants can helps to overcome the patients seizure E. Control acidosis with administration of sodium bicarbonate

49. True statements regarding the treatment of hyperkalemia:

I- If change in ECG is detected give Ca to counteract the excess of K on the heart

II- Bicarbonate and insulin administration can shift K from extra to intracellular

III- Enema of kafexolate (exchange resin) or dialysis helps to remove excess of K from the body

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All are correct

50. Management and characteristics of Digoxin toxicity may include:

I- May cause heart failure, cardiac dysrhythmias, nausea, anorexia, vomiting, and confusion

II- Treated by decontamination and supportive therapy

III- Treated with a digoxin specific antidote known as FAB antibodies

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All are correct

51. Type I error, also called alpha-error give what kind of results?

A. False-positive

B. False-negative

C. Positive false

D. False-false

E. Positive-positive

52. Structure Activity Relationship (SAR) studies of cholinergic drugs indicate that:

I- Maximum activity is achieved when the quaternary nitrogen is three carbons removed from the ester group

II- Structures which display a quasi-ring conformation exhibit muscarinic activity

III- One methyl group of the trimethylammonium group can be replaced by an ethyl group with only slight loss

of activity.

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All are correct

53. All of the following are pathophysiologic characteristics of asthma, EXCEPT:

A. Airway obstruction and inflammation

B. Destructive changes in the alveolar walls

C. Thickened smooth muscle of airway

D. Mucosal edema

E. Narrowed lumen of airway

54. Pyridine is a mono heterocyclic compound very important in the activity of many different drugs. The

molecular structure 1,4-dihydropyridine is found in:

A. Verapamil

B. Digoxin

C. Clonidine

D. Nifedipine

E. Diltiazen

55. A liquid whose viscosity is increased when an agent is combined is called as:

A. Dilatant

B. Surfactant

C. Wetting agent

D. Emulsion

E. Suspension

56. The only phospholipid with pharmaceutical application

I. Lecithin

II. Cephalin

III. Sphingomyelins

A.I only

B. III only

C.I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All of the above

57. A doctor wants to know more about tetracycline class of medication, which of the following are the

incorrect statement about tetracyclines

A. Tetracycline must be taken empty stomach

B. Doxycycline may be taken regardless of meals

C. Minocycline may be indicated for acne treatment

D. Tetracycline is not photosensitive however, minocycline is photosensitive

E. Doxycycline is drug of choice in renal disease patient.

58. Imidazoline is a molecular structure that contains a heterocyclic ring and belong the molecular structure of:

A. Prazosin

B. Nifedipine

C. Atropine

D. Clonidine

E. Allopurinol

59. Transdermal diffusion:

I. To avoid drug from the first pass effect

II. Prolong duration of action of drug

III. Overcome pharmaceutical problems

A.I only

B. III only

C.I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All of the above

60. In the following formulations

Phenol 0.5%

Cimetidine HCl

Water for injection USP

What is the role of phenol in this preparation?

A. Preservative

B. Solvent

C. Co-solvent

D. Diluents

E. Disinfectant

61. Levigation:

I-Reducing particle size of solids by the addition of a small amount of liquid

II-Ointment base to make a paste, which is then rubbed with a spatula against a tile.

III-Grinding to small particle using mortar and pestle adding solvent that evaporates after grinding to give dry

powder

A.I only

B. III only

C.I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All of the above

62. Fluorinated hydrocarbons are restricted to be used as propellant gases in aerosols because:

I-They have poor bronchial absorption

II-They are toxic

III-They deplete ozone layer in atmosphere

A.I only

B. III only

C.I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All of the above

63. Choose incorrect combination of cytochrome and suitable class of drug metabolism:

A. CYP3A Benzodiazepine

B. CYP3A Lovastatin

C. CYP2D6 TCA and SSRI

D. CYP1A2 tobacco smoking

E. CYP11 omeprazole

64. The pH of buffer system can be calculated with

A. Noyes-Whitney equation

B. Henderson-Hesselbach equation

C. Michaelis-Menten equation

D. Yonge Equation

E. Stokes equation

65. When does co-precipitation occurs:

A. Slow addition of precipitant

B. Rapid addition of precipitant

C. Addition of cold solution

D. Addition of hot solution

E. Very slow addition of precipitant

66. Eutectic mixture:

A. Increases melting point of mixture

B. Decreases melting point of mixture

C. Increase boiling point

D. Decreases boiling point of mixture

E. Neither melting point nor boiling point will effect.

67. Amines are one of the most common group present in the molecular structure of drugs. Primary amines are

mainly metabolized by phase II metabolism:

A. Deamination

B. De alkylation

C. Acetylation

D. Hydrolysis

E. Oxidation

68. Mesh size of filters used against microbial contamination:

A.0.22 m B.0.22 mm

C.2.2 m D-22 m E. 2.2 mm

69. Vapor pressure:

I-It is the pressure of vapor above the boiling liquid

II-Increase solute causes decrease of vapor pressure

III-Increase of solute caused increase of vapor pressure

A.I only

B. III only

C.I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All of the above

70. The Latin abbreviation for: Take one tablet four time daily after meals and at bedtime is:

A. I QID AC & PC

B. I QID PC & HS

C. II BID PC & HS

D. III OD AC & PC

E. I QID AC & HS

71. Autoclaving is sterilization process of:

A. Dry heat sterilization

B. Steam Sterilization

C. Filtration

D. Gas sterilization

E. Irradiation

72. A patient using lugol solution should be counseled:

I-Lugol solution may cause stains

II-Use topical only

III-Used in hypothyroidism patients

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All of the above

73. A 56 year female, mother of two teenage daughter, receiving oral anticoagulant warfarin. What is the goal

of INR for warfarin oral anticoagulant therapy?

A. 2.5 to 3.5

B. 2.0 to 3.0

C. 3.0 to 3.5

D. 1.5 to 2.0

E. 2.0 to 3.5

74. A 55 year old woman receiving bisphosphonates (alendronate) for osteoporosis treatment. A pharmacist

counseled her that Do not lie down for 30 min after taking this medication, that may cause;

I-Esophageal ulcers

II-Mouth ulcer

III-stomach ulcers

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All of the above

75. Instructions for Synthroid tablet:

I. Should not be taken with Iron and soya

II. Should not be taken within 4 hours of Ibuprofen

III. Should not be crushed

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. I, II, and III

76. Ancrod, a thrombolytic agent is characterized by:

I- It is derivate from snake venom

II- It depletes fibrinogen

III- It is an alternative to heparin

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All are correct

77. Correct statements regarding chlorpromazine may include:

I- A phenothiazine class anti-psychotic drug

II- Long-term treatment produces tardive dyskinesia, abnormal movements of tongue and mouth, as side effect

of its long-term therapy.

III- Contra indicated in Parkinsons disease because decrease dopamine levels.

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All are correct

78. All of the following include as part of income statement, EXCEPT:

A. sales

B. profit

C. cost of goods sold

D. account payable

E. Gross margin

79. Example of anti-anxiety drug with great antihistaminic effect may include:

A. Diazepan

B. Hydroxazine

C. Memprobamate

D. Chlorodiazepoxide

E. Oxazepan

80. Example of anti-anxiety drug with great antihistaminic effect may include:

A. Diazepan

B. Hydroxazine

C. Memprobamate

D. Chlorodiazepoxide

E. Oxazepan

81. The following drug completely blocks the Sodium ion channels, and abolishes action potential.

A. Bungarotoxin

B. Tetradotoxin

C. Digoxin

D. warfarin

E. Vitamin K

82. Which of the following drug does increase cardiac output (CO) with little change in heart rate (HR).

I-Dobutamine

II-Clonidine

III-methyl dopa

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All of the above

83. The earliest evidence that a drug is stored in tissue is:

A. A large apparent volume of distribution

B. An increasing in plasma protein binding

C. A decrease in the amount of free drug excreted in the urine

D. An increase in the number of side effects produced by the drug

E. A decrease in the rate of metabolites formation in the liver

84. When you need to give a loading dose of a drug, what should be considered?

A. Total body clearance

B. Area under the curve

C. Quantity of drug excreted unchanged in the urine

D. Volume of distribution and desired drug concentration in plasma

E. Plasma protein binding

85. Drugs that increase hepatic microsomal enzyme and increase its own metabolism, this is known as:

A. Potentiation

B. Addiction

C. Tolerance

D. Toxic effect

E. Resistance

86. For first order elimination constant (K), the plot log:

A. Form a straight line which slope is negative

B. Form a straight line which slope is positive

C. Form a curve line which slope is negative

D. Form a curve line which slope is positive

E. Form a linear line parallel to X slope.

87. A magenta tongue and lesions in the corners of mouth suggest a deficiency of

A. Niacin

B. Thiamine

C. Folic acid

D. Riboflavin

E. Cyanocobalamin

88. Opioid analgesics are classified as:

A. Controlled drugs

B. Prescription drugs

C. Schedule I drugs

D. Narcotics

E. Prohibited drugs

89. Levodopa associated with which of following problems:

I-GI symptoms

II-decline in efficacy after 3-5 years (wearing off)

III-Involuntary movement

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All of the above

90. Advantages of nasal route over oral route absorption of drugs may include:

I- Nasal route has a higher surface area

II- Nasal route has more blood vessels

III- Nasal route has a higher onset of absorption

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All are correct

91. Doctor writes a prescription of ciprofloxacin to a 9 year old boy for respiratory tract infections, which of the

following is appropriate action:

A. Recommend daily single dose for better compliance

B. Recommend suspension for better compliance in children

C. Call doctor to recommend appropriate medication to 9 year old

D. Ciprofloxacin is good choice in less than 18 years old children.

E. All of the above

92. Which of the following statements are correct about smoking cessation?

I-Stop smoking from the day when start using nicotine products.

II-Can continue smoking for 1 or 2 weeks when start non nicotine (zyban) products.

III-Start 21 mg of nicotine patch and slowly taper the dose to 14 mg after 4-6 weeks.

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All of the above

93. Lethal dose LD50 is classified as:

I-Dose causes 50% of toxic response in tests

II-Dose causes 50% of effect response in tests

III-Dose cause 50% of death response in tests

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All of the above

94. Amenorrhea may be described as:

A. Impotence

B. Premenstrual symptoms

C. Menopause

D. Painful menstruation

E. Missing menstruation

95. Mr. Brown, 55 year old asthmatic patient have difficulty in urination and goes frequent urination, wakes ups

several times in night. His blood pressure indicates 160/95 mm Hg. This of the following medication would be

appropriate to treat Mr. Brown conditions.

A. Acebutolol

B. Labetalol

C. Hydralazine

D. Doxazosin

E. Yohimbine

96. Which is true for simple syrup

A. support microbial growth

B. contain alcohol 10%v/v

C. contain sucrose 85%w/v

D. form turbid solution

E. None of the above

97. A nurse calls about a patient having fentanyl patch that falls during bathing and destroyed, the refill stay 2

days after. She wants to get another patch. What should the pharmacist do?

A. call the prescriber to have a written confirmation to dispense it today

B. gives the nurse instruction how to use the patch again

C. gives the patient instruction how to use the patch again

D. advance 2 days refill and make documentation


98. Flowability of powder measured by:

I. Angle of repose

II. Tapped density

III. Laser Diffraction

A. I only correct

B. I & II only correct

C. II & III only correct

D. All of the above

99. Isotonic solution

A. 0.09% w/v NaCl

B. 0.9% w/v NaCl

C. 9% w/v NaCl

D. 0.1 % w/v NaCl


100. Drug undergo renal excreted means it is

A. filtered

B. secreted

C. reabsorbed

D. absorbable

E. lipophilic

101. Ca carbonate regimen is

A. 600 mg twice on empty stomach

B. 600 mg twice with food

C. 1000mg once on empty stomach

D. 1000 mg twice with food

E. 2000 IU twice on empty stomach

102. valproic acid conjugated with

A. glucoronide

B. glutamate

C. acetylation

D. methylation

E. Hemoglobin

103. Serum creatinine is less in elder men compared to young because

A. protein binding is more in elder

B. decreased body protein in muscles

C. renal clearance is more in elder

D. all of the above

E. none of the above

104. Woman in her 24 week of pregnancy suffer from popliteal pain (pain in the back knee) which is the sign of

deep vein thrombosis, she should take

A. ASA

B. clopidogrel

C. heparin IV followed by warfarin

D. warfarin

E. dalteparin

105. 45 years old man has to check his blood for insurance purpose, he found fasting blood level 8mmole/l .his

brother 40 yrs. was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus 2 yrs. ago. What would be the convenient therapy?

A. insulin

B. metformin

C. metformin and glypiride

D. weight control and exercise

E. any of above is useful

106. Which information is not found in patient self-care

A. candida

B. smoking cessation

C. xerostamia

D. diaper rash

E. vaccination schedules

107. Skin does not contain which receptor

A. pressure

B. pain

C. touch

D. temperature

E. olfactory

108. A lady uses sun block with SPF 15, thats means

A. concentration of active ingredient is 15%

B. 15 sun protection factors are present

C. she should apply it every 15 min

D. sun burn will occur 15 times less if sun block was not applied

E. without sun block sun burn will be 15 more times

109. Pharmacist will protect the confidentiality of the patient, which is wrong

A. refuses to give the information of the patient to the doctor

B. release information to a concerned party if the aim is to prevent him from committing suicide

C. gives the patient a copy of the prescription

D. discuss PHI with anyone not involved in Treatment, Payment or Operations

E. Carry charts and printed material in a manner where the name is clearly visible to others.

110. What is the most complicated form if one wants to establish a pharmacy

A. partnership

B. Corporation

C. co operative

D. franchise

E. sole ownership

111. Problems confronting sole proprietary

A. double taxation for profit

B. takes all responsibility and decision

C. bank doesnt give loan easily D. All of the above


112. Pharmacist tell the pharmacy assistant to council a patient about antibiotic, this is against

A. justice

B. autonomy

C. paternalism

D. beneficence

E. commensalism

113. Flu symptoms, all except

A. watery eye

B. sneezing

C. runny nose

D. hives

E. itchy eye

114. Rhabdomyolisis, symptoms all except

A. muscle pain

B. muscle cramp

C. muscle weakness

D. colored urine

E. odoury urine

115. JN, a 17 year old male with a highly resistant form of testicular cancer, is in hospital for treatment. He is an

intelligent, articulate young man. His parents are insisting that the physician treat him with the latest

experimental therapy, but JN does not want to undergo the treatment. If the physician goes ahead and gives the

experimental therapy what ethical principle will have been violated the most?

A. justice

B. autonomy

C. beneficence

D. paternalism

E. veracity

116. Council on ACE inhibitors, all except

A. dry cough

B. swollen face, refer to physician

C. takes high protein diet

D. increase prolactin


117. Food increase absorption of

A. amoxicillin

B. etidronate

C. cefuxetine acetate

D. norfloxacin

E. all of the above

118. A female has a prescription for corticosteroids cause she suffer from inflammatory bowel disease, the

concern of the pharmacist to ask her if she suffers from all except

A. diabetes mellitus

B. hypertension

C. breast cancer

D. infection

E. osteoporosis

119. Infliximab is used in

A. ashma

B. glomuronephritis

C. chronic inflammatory bowel disease

D. hepatitis


120. Which is wrong about emulsion?

A. if we add water to o/w emulsion, it will be miscible with it

B. w/o emulsion conducts electricity

C. dispersed phase can be more than 50%

D. decrease creaming by decrease droplet size

E. o/w emulsion is hydrophilic

121. Symptoms of stopping antidepressant all except:

A. Insomnia

B. Sweeting

C. Tremor

D. myalgia

E. withdrawal

122. Not used in acute gout :

A. Allopurinol

B. Cortisone

C. Colchicine

D. Meloxicam

E. NSAID

123. All In ketoacidosis except:

A. Aceton

B. Acetoacetic acid

C. B-hydroxybutyrate

D. Lacitic acid

E. Keton bodies

124. C.DNA obtained from:

A. ds.DNA

B. ss.RNA

C. mRNA

D. tRNA

E. rRNA

125. A Pharmacist owner for 30 years always takes decisions alone. He is considered :

A. Autocratic

B. Selfish

C. Participative

D. Free-rein


126. Incidence of disease is :

A. Number of past infected people by the disease at a particular time B. Already existing cases of disease.

C. Measure of the risk of developing some new condition within a specified period of time.

D. The prevalence of disease

E. all of the above

127. Liquid which become more rigid as the rate of deformation increases is?

A. Thixotropic

B. Newtonic

C. Dilatant.

D. Pseudoplastic


128. Crystalline materials compared to amorphous materials have:

A. No space lattice

B. Less stability

C. Well defined melting point

D. All of the above


129. Fluid with constant viscosity that does not depend upon the strain rate is said to be-

A. Plastic

B. Pseudoplastic

C. Viscouselastic

D. Newtonic

E. Non-Newtonian

130. Primary care:

A. Doctor & nurse

B. Hospitalization.

C. Specialist

D. HMO

E. POS

131. Which of the following atomic bond are characterized by physical forces

A.Ionic bond

B.Vander waals bonds

C.Metallic bonds

D.Cavalent bonds

E. hydrophilic bond

132. Microcytic anemia like:

A. Iron deficiency

B. Thalassemia

C. lead poisoning

D. All of the above


133. All of the followings are diuretics except:

A. Ethacrinic acid

B. Hydrochlorothiazide

C. Mannitol

D. Carbonic anhydrase

E. Bumetanide

134. How many days that a pharmacist should dispense of Augmentin 250mg TID 30 days:

A. 10 days

B. 15 days

C. 1 week

D. 1 month

E. 2 weeks

135. - A patient has a prescription of Enalapril and KCL, what do you ask him?

A. Which product of KCL do you need?

B. Do you take any other antihypertensive?

C. Do you need syrup or tablet?

D. Who prescribe those drugs for you?


136. Single dose package container packed in the pharmacy must have

expiration date

A. 10 % of remain shelf life of the stock but not longer than 6 month

B. 25 % of remain shelf life of the stock but not longer than 6 month

C. 35 % of remain shelf life of the stock but not longer than 4 month

D. 20 % of remain shelf life of the stock but not longer than 6 month

E. 10 % of remain shelf life of the stock but not longer than 12 month

137. A pharmacist can counsel BPH patient with which of the followings:

A. decreases fluid intake before bedtime

B. decreases the consumption of alcohol and caffeine-containing products

C. can use Saw palmetto herb for decrease the hypertrophy

D. All of the above


138. Which of the following is 5-reductase inhibitor?

A. Kava Kava

B. finasteride dutasteride

C. tamsulosin

D. phenoxybenzamine

E. All of the above

139. Factors important for a drug to reach CSF for treatment of meningitis:

A. O/W partition coefficient.

B. Dose.

C. Plasma protein binding

D. pKa

E. All of the above

140. Which of the following is considered the normal potassium serum in human body?

A. 2.0 to 3.5mEq/L

B. 3.5 to 5.0mEq/L

C. 5.0 to 7.5mEq/L

D. 3.5 to 7.5mEq/L

E. 3.0 to 6.0mEq/L

141. Which of the following is considered as essential vitamin for breast-feed babies?

A. Vitamin A

B. Vitamin B

C. Vitamin C

D. Vitamin D

E. Vitamin E

142. Which of the following hormone acts on cell membrane?

A. Insulin

B. Prolactin

C. Cortisol

D. Estrogen

E. Alanine

143. Correct statements regarding mutation may include:

I- Cell division

II- Change in genotype

III- Change in DNA replication altering the gene

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All are correct

144. Shaped network present in the cell between nucleus and cell wall:

A. Ribossomes

B. Endoplasmic reticulum

C. Mitocondria

D. Cell membrane

E. Nucleotide

145. False statement regarding vitamin D3 metabolism include:

A. Vitamin C facilitates absorption of vitamin D3 in the liver

B. Hydroxylation of D3 is in kidney

C. Hydroxylation of is D3 in the liver

D. Parathyroid hormone activate metabolism of vitamin D3 in the kidney

E. Skin activates synthesis of vitamin D3 by sunlight

146. In an enzymatic reaction, addition of competitive inhibitor leads to:

A. Increase the rate of reaction

B. Decrease the rate of reaction

C. Same rate of reaction

D. Decrease rate and increase substrate concentration

E. Decrease both rate and substrate concentration

147. Which of the following is the end product of ANAEROBIC reactions?

A. Pyruvic acid

B. CO2

C. CO2 + H2O

D. Lactic acid

E. Proteins

148. The conversion of -carotene to vitamin A is carried out in:

A. Pancreas

B. Spleen

C. Liver

D. Adrenal cortex

E. Nephrons

149. The metabolic degradation of hemoglobin takes place principally in:

A. RBCs

B. Reticulum Endothelial

C. Liver

D. Kidney

E. Pancreas

150. Which of the following amino acid is an important precursor of hemoglobin?

A. Alanine

B. Proline

C. Leucine

D. Glycin

E. Histadin

151. which of the following is an important enzymatic reaction involved in muscular contraction?

A. Glucose-6-phosphatase reaction

B. Glycogenolysis

C. ATP-Creatine phosphokinase reaction

D. Enolase reaction

E. Glucogenolysis

152. Which of the following enzyme is responsible for the synthesis of DNA?

A. DNA polymerase

B. DNA gyrase

C. DNA ligase

D. RNA transferase


153. Which of the following is the predominant intracellular element?

A. Sodium

B. Magnesium

C. Potassium

D. Calcium

E. Phosphorous

154. Heparin synthesized in the body and can be classified as:

A. Monosaccharideo

B. Polysaccharide

C. Disaccharide

D. Oligosaccharide


155. Which of the following reactions is controlled by the pancreatic hormone INSULIN?

A. Glycogenolysis

B. Glycolysis

C. Glycogenesis

D. Gluconeogenesis

E. Anaerobic glycolysis

156. Correct statements regarding RNA messenger may include:

A. Carrier activated amino acids to the ribosome

B. Specifies amino acids sequence template for protein synthesis

C. Enable DNA fragments to be joined

D. Synthesize RNA

E. Carrier the genetic information for all the other cells

157. Element found in the center of vitamin B12-cyanocobalamin:

A. Iron

B. Zinc

C. Cobalt

D. Magnesium

E. Calcium

158. Beriberi is caused by deficiency of which of the following vitamins?

A. Thiamine

B. Riboflavin

C. Niacin

D. Pyridoxine

E. Folic acid

159. Which of the following is the most important vitamin in pregnancy?

A. Cyanocobalamin

B. Folic acid

C. Pantothenic acid

D. Pyridoxine

E. Niacin

160. Which of the following vitamin is derivated from the amino acid tryptophan?

A. Thiamine

B. Riboflavin

C. Niacin

D. Pyridoxine

E. Folic acid

161. Which of the following vitamin has its chemical structure related to PABA?

A. Cyanocobalamin

B. Folic acid

C. Pantothenic acid

D. Pyridoxine

E. Niacin

162. Vitamin that requires an intrinsic factor to be carried out to ileum in order to suffer absorption from the

small intestine:

A. Cyanocobalamin

B. Folic acid

C. Pantothenic acid

D. Pyridoxine

E. Niacin

163. Which of the following vitamin is the precursor of collagen synthesis?

A. Vitanin A

B. Vitamin B

C. Vitamin C

D. Vitamin D

E. Vitamin E

164. Correct statements concerning vitamin E include:

I- It is a lipid soluble vitamin stored in adipose tissues

II- It is absorbed from the small intestine

III- Widely used in pharmaceutical formulations as antioxidant agent

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All are correct

165. Which of the following compounds are considered the building blocks of nucleic acids?

A. Nucleotides

B. Nucleosides

C. Monosaccharides

D. Purines

E. Amino acids

166. Proteins are formed from:

A. Purines

B. Carbohydrates

C. Amino acids

D. Monosaccharides

E. Nucleosides

167. MG requests a refill for her prescription of Marvelon 21 (desogestrel / ethinyl estradiol), that she has

taken for several years. MG tells the pharmacist that she is getting married in two weeks and has calculated that

her period will likely start the day before her wedding. MG asks the pharmacist to suggest a way to delay her

period so that it will not coincide with her wedding and honeymoon trip. Appropriate counselling information

by the pharmacist includes which of the following?

A. Take 1 tablets every second day for the next 2 cycles (42 consecutive days), followed by 7 days pill-free, and

then resumes her regular schedule.

B. Take 1 tablet daily for the next 2 cycles (42 consecutive days), followed by 7 days pill-free period, and then

resumes her regular schedule.

C. Take 2 tablets daily for the next 21 days, followed by a 30 day pill-free period, and then resume her regular

schedule.

D. Take 1 tablet of erythromycin 250 mg together with each tablet of the oral contraceptive daily, for 1 week

prior to her wedding and during the honeymoon period, and then resume her regular schedule.

E. Take 1 tablet daily for one week, followed by a pill-free period for the second week and alternate in this

manner for the duration of the honeymoon period, and then resume her regular schedule.

168. When considering the appropriateness of metformin monotherapy for a patient with type 2 diabetes

mellitus, relevant patient factors to consider include:

I. Obesity

II. Renal dysfunction.

III. Thyroid function.

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. I, II and III

169. The pharmacist fills a prescription for sumatriptan 100 mg tablets for a patient with migraine. Appropriate

information to provide to the patient includes which of the following?

A. If the sumatriptan does not relieve the headache within four hours, ergotamine may be used.

B. If no relief is achieved in two hours, sumatriptan may be repeated.

C. If the headache is relieved but another headache occurs eight hours later, sumatriptan may be used for the

second headache.

D. The maximum dosage in any 24 hour period is six tablets.

E. If relief is not achieved, no other medication can be used for 24 hours.

170. Which of the following drugs does NOT require witnessed destruction?

A. Ketamine

B. Propoxyphene

C. Diazepam

D. Phentermine

E. Gabapentin

171. ST is no longer satisfied with the service she has been getting at Pharmacy X, so she comes to your

pharmacy requesting a refill on a prescription for Ortho 7/7/7 that she originally had filled at Pharmacy X.

What is the correct procedure for obtaining the remaining refills?

A. The pharmacist must contact Pharmacy X to get the prescription refills transferred, and document the

transfer appropriately.

B. The pharmacist cannot refill this prescription without phoning the prescribing physician.

C. The pharmacist may refill the prescription as long as the patient provides you with the label from the

original prescription.

D. The pharmacist may refill the prescription and notify Pharmacy X within 24 hours that this has been done.

E. Inform ST that the prescription resides at Pharmacy X and she must return there for refills.

172. Which of the following examples shows a legally correct refill designation on a written prescription for

dexamphetamine for a patient with hyperkinesis?

A. Repeat twice.

B. Repeat monthly

C. Repeat as needed.

D. Repeat twice as required.

E. Repeat twice at 14 day intervals.

173. According to the Benzodiazepine and Other Targeted Substances Regulations, what is the expiry date for a

prescription for lorazepam?

A. One month from the date written

B. Six months from the date written

C. One year from the date written

D. Two years from the date written

E. No specific expiry date; at the pharmacists discretion

174. Which of the following would be the most useful reference to learn what combination of antiretroviral

agents is currently recommended as a first line therapy to treat HIV infection?

A. Meta-analysis

B. Randomized, controlled trial

C. Applied Therapeutics textbook

D. Clinical practice guidelines

E. Compendium of Pharmaceuticals and Specialities

175. Type II statistical error in a study comparing 2 drug treatment regimens occurs when:

A. p level is > 0.05.

B. the exclusion criteria are too rigid.

C. the control drug is not a "gold standard" treatment.

D. the data shows no difference between 2 treatment regimens and a difference actually does exist.

E. the data shows a difference between 2 treatment regimens but a difference does not actually exist.

176. In an adequately powered, randomized controlled trial conducted over 2 years, the desired clinical outcome

(i.e. prevention of a serious cardiovascular event) with a new drug is achieved in 25% of the study sample. In

the patients who receive a placebo, only 15% obtain the same clinical benefit. The relative risk reduction

achieved with the new drug over the study period is:

A. 10%.

B. 15%.

C. 25%.

D. 40%.

E. 50%.

177. A pharmacist is making a presentation on appropriate medication use to a group of clients. Which of the

following would be an indicator of the effectiveness of the presentation for an individual?

A. Increase in number of prescriptions filled per month

B. Reduced number of prescriptions filled per month

C. Increase in use of nonprescription medications

D. Reduced number of prescription fill dates per month

E. Prescription fill dates closer to expected fill intervals

178. Which of the following vaccinations are usually recommended, on a yearly basis, for elderly patients with

chronic respiratory conditions?

I. Influenza virus

II. Pneumococcus

III. Meningococcus

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. I, II and III

179. Which of the following clinical days presented in a community pharmacy would be beneficial in helping

clients reduce their risk factors for heart disease?

I. Smoking cessation

II. Dietary strategies for fat and cholesterol

III. Pulmonary function home testing

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. I, II and III

180. A vertical laminar flow hood would be the best choice when preparing a parenteral formulation of:

A. aminophylline.

B. doxorubicin.

C. magnesium sulfate.

D. nitroglycerin.

E. penicillin.

181. During a busy period in the pharmacy, a regular patient comes in for refills of amlodipine,

hydrochlorothiazide and atorvastatin. Inadvertently, the vial he receives for atorvastatin contains atenolol

instead. If this error is not identified and corrected, then what is the most likely effect to be experienced by this

patient?

A. Diarrhea

B. Heartburn

C. Drowsiness

D. Blurry vision

E. Lightheadedness

182. MT, a pharmacy technician, has worked in a community pharmacy for 5 years. He is well-trained and

welcomes new learning opportunities. His manager, now wanting to delegate a new technical project to him,

should:

I. discuss suggested steps to accomplish the project.

II. negotiate a time schedule for completion of the project.

III. provide support and follow-up as required.

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. I, II and III

183. Which financial statement could be used to determine the total value of prescription drug sales for a

pharmacy for a period of a year?

A. Balance Sheet

B. Statement of investments

C. Statement of changes in financial position

D. Income statement

E. Statement of equity

184. Factors that determine bioequivalence of two brands of a drug include:

I. the taste of the preparations.

II. the physical appearance of the preparations.

III. pharmacokinetic parameters of the preparations.

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. I, II and III

185. Experimental error resulted from poor collection of data or inaccurate measurement is called:

A. Selection Bias

B. Information Bias

C. Confounding Bias

D. Type II error

E. Type I error

186. Contact dermatitis can be treated by:

I. Cool compresses

II. Oatmeal bath

III. Corticosteroids

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All of the above

187. The difference between peak and trough concentrations is greatest when;

A. Drug is given at dosing intervals much longer than the half life

B. Drug is given at dosing intervals much smaller than the half life

C. Drug is given at dosing intervals same as half life

D. Not related to half life


188. In a family of 6, there are grandparents, parents and children. One of the child have got flu. Who should

receive flu vaccine?

I-All family, except child with flu

II-Parents and grandparents only

III-Child who got flu

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All of the above

189. Pre-Menstrual Symptoms:

I-All women have PMS

II-Luteal phase of cycle have PMS

III-vitamins, and estrogen deficiency may cause PMS

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All of the above

190. Zero slope graphs:

A. Parallel to x-axis

B. Parallel to y-axis

C. Diagonal x- axis

D. Does not exist


191. A drug is completely metabolized in liver, if a patient has renal failure, what will be the effect:

A. Metabolite excreted

B. Metabolite accumulate in liver

C. Metabolite reabsorbed

D. Metabolite cleared


192. Cp = Co e-kt first order equation log Cp vs. time give?

A. A straight line with negative slope

B. A straight line with positive slope

C. A curve

D. Zero slopes


193. Which of the following eye condition require referral to physician?

I-Red eye

II-Pain in eye

III-Bacterial conjunctivitis

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All of the above

194. Area under the curve (AUC)

A. Plot of Cp versus Time

B. The AUC value is very useful for calculating the relative efficiency of different drug products

C. Units for AUC are concentration x times. That is, mg.hr/L or mg.hr.L-1.

D. All of the above


195. Volume of distribution (Vd):

I. mathematical relationship between the total amount of drug in the body and the concentration of drug in the

blood.

II. Vd is greater for drugs that concentrate in tissues rather than in plasma

III. Vd is greater for drugs that concentrate in plasma rather than in tissue

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II D. II, and III

E. All of the above are correct

196. Correct statements pertaining to first-order elimination kinetics include:

I. A constant amount of drug is eliminated per unit of time

II. Clearance will vary as blood concentrations change

III. For drugs following this elimination pattern, doubling the rate of administration will yield a doubling of

serum or plasma concentration at steady-state.

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only


197. Correct statements pertaining to protein binding include:

I. The degree to which a drug is protein-bound in plasma will affect its apparent volume of distribution.

II. Basic drugs are most likely to be bound to 1-acid glycoprotein III. For highly protein-bound drugs, decreasing the extent of protein binding in plasma will enhance the rate of

glomerular filtration

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only


198. Which of the following drugs cause urine, feces and vomiting discoloration?

I- Pyrvinium pamoate (vanquin)

II- Pyrantel pamoate (combantrin

III-Mebendazole (vermox)

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only


199. in case a pharmacist misread a Tamoxifen prescription and filled it with Tambocor.

A.Vicarious

B.Negligence

C.Veracity

D.Autocratic


200. Decrease in elimination from body due to one of the following factor.

A. Increase in half life

B. Decrease in reabsorption

C. Increase in reabsorptions

D. Increase steady state (Css)


201. What is liquidity?

A. Measures a pharmacys ability to meet its current liabilities with little or no interruption in the regular conduct of business.

B. Measures a pharmacys ability to meet its current liabilities with moderate change in the composition of current assets.

C. Measures a pharmacys ability to meet its current liabilities with current assets. D. Measures a pharmacys ability to meet its current liabilities with interruption in the regular conduct of business.


202. Which of the following functional groups would NOT form a glucuronide conjugate?

203. Which of the following is the most appropriate choice for the hospital formulary among the following

selected antibiotics; Drug A, Drug B, Drug C Drug D, and Drug E have equal efficacy, associated workload,

and acquisition cost.

Drug cost/day Dose Hospitalization duration

A $2.50 QID 14 days

B $5.00 BID 7 days

C $2.25 QD 14 days

D $2.25 BID 7 days

E $2.25 QID 7 days

204. There are four Ps of marketing basics, Except

A. Product

B. Place

C. Person

D. Promotion

E. Price

205. 2-Butene can form;

A. Constitutional isomers

B. Geometrical isomers (cis/trans)

C. Enantiomers

D. Identical

E. all of the above

206. Drug interaction information can be obtained from the following sources:

A. CPS

B. Drug Facts and comparisons

C. Therapeutic choices

D. Patient self-care

E. Pharmacy Prep Books

207. Nitroglycerine available in all of the following dosage form Except:

A. Injection

B. ointment (topical)

C. Transdermal patch

D. Sustain release

E. suspension

208. The inventory turnover rate is a measure of a pharmacys

A. liquidity

B. solvency

C. Efficacy

D. Profitability

E. Sufficiency

209. Fab fragment, Abciximab mechanism includes:

I-Glycoprotein (GP) IIb/IIIa inhibitor

II- Platelet inhibitors

III- tissue plasminogen activator

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All are correct

210. A compound that induces cytochrome CYP450 would:

A. Increase CYP450 protein content in the liver B. Decrease CYP450 protein content in the liver

C. Inhibit CYP450 activity

D. None of the above

E. All of the above

211. The oxygen atom that is incorporated into a molecule upon oxidation by cytochromes CYP450 comes from

what source?

A.Water

B.Molecular Oxygen

C.NADPH

D.Acetylcoenzyme A


212. A pharmacist prepared 1 gallon of KCl solution mixing 565 gram of KCl (valency =1) in appropriate

vehicle. How many milliequivalents of K are in 15 ml of this solution? (MW = K 39, Cl 35.5)

A.8

B.20

C.30

D.40

E. 80

213. The pelvic girdle consists of two coxal bones which unite in the front with the symphysis pubis and in the

back with the sacrum. The coxal bones are composed of the ilium, the ischium, and the pubis. This described

which body joints;

A. elbow

B. shoulder

C. Hip

D. Knee


214. Osteoporosis is a disease characterized by loss of bone mass and may be aggravated by:

I-Corticosteroids

II-Menopause

III-Graves disease

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All are correct

215. When is a person classified as a diabetic, after a fasting blood glucose concentration:

A.3 mmol/dL

B.6 mmol/dL

C.7 mmol/dL

D.8 mmol/dL

E.10 mmol/dL

216. Common tests to monitor patients receiving replacement therapy for hypothyroidism include all of the

following: EXCEPT

A. Free thyroxin index (FTI)

B. Resin triiodothyronine uptake (RT3 U)

C. Thyrotropin (TSH) stimulating test

D. Sensitive TSH assay

E. Total thyroxin (TT4)

217. Which of the following drug does not cause hypoglycemia as side effect:

A. Metformin

B. Repaglinide

C. Acarbose

D. Glyburide

E. Chlorpropamide

218. The inventory and merchandising are part of store management. The major economic reason for low

inventory:

A. Internal theft

B. Money locked in overstock

C. Product expired soon

D. External theft

E. Felony convict

219. How many cyclopentane rings exist in steroid structure skeleton?

A. 3

B. 1

C. 2

D. 4

E. 5

220. All of the following are symptoms of diabetes mellitus, EXCEPT:

A. Glucosuria

B. Polyphagia

C. Polydipsia

D. Increased in muscle wasting

E. Decreased lipolysis

221. What are the long term side effects of using oral contraceptive pills

I.Hypertension

II. Ovarian cancer

III.Breast cancer

A.I only

B. III only

C.I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All of the above

222. Chronic bronchitis causes:

I. Emphysema

II. Wheezing

III. Respiratory tissue inflammation

A.I only

B. III only

C.I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All of the above

223. MINOXIDIL: A prodrug which must be conjugated with . to form the active drug. Minoxidil is potent renal vasodilator and stimulator of renin release.

A. sulfate

B. phosphate

C. Nitrate

D. carbonate

E. carboxylate

224. 1 po q4-6h prn pain means:

A. Take 1 tablet every 4-6 hours as needed for pain.

B. Take 4-6 tablets every 1 hour as needed for pain.

C. Take 1 tablet every 4-6 hours with milk

D. Take 1 tablet every 4-6 hours with juice

E. Take 1 tablet every 4-6 hours every other day

225. How does losartan functions:

I.Angiotensin (AT-1) receptor blocker

II. Angiotensin (AT-1) receptor agonist

III.Angiotensin Converting Enzyme inhibitor

A. I only

B. III only

C.I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All of the above

226. All of the following statements correct about hyperparathyroidism

I- Causes deficiency of vitamin D

II- Decreases calcium in blood

III- Increases calcium reabsorption from renal tubules.

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All of the above

227. Sciatic nerve is found in;

A. Brain

B. All foot branches

C. Arms

D. Hip joints


228. Which is the most recognized side effect of acetaminophen:

A. Ototoxicity

B. Hepatic necrosis

C. GI disturbances

D. Disulfiram like reactions

E. all of the above

229. In case of left ventricular failure blood pour in:

A. vena cava

B. aorta

C. upper chest area

D. Lung

E. heart

230. Embolism is caused by:

A. Obstruction of nerves

B. Obstruction of blood vessels

C. Bulging of arteries and veins

D. Blockade of systemic circulation

E. Lack of oxygen supply

231. At what dose aspirin has anticoagulant (antiplatelet) property

A. 80 mg

B. 325 mg

C. 500 mg

D. 800 mg

E. 1 g

232. What is good choice of antihypertensive in diabetic patients:

A.Thiazide diuretics

B.-blockers C.ACE II inhibitors

D.Potassium sparings


233. Because of the possibility of serious toxic reactions, methotrexate should be used only:

I-Psoriasis, inadequate responsive with other medications

II-Rheumatoid arthritis with severe recalcitrant

III-Life threatening cancer diseases

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All of the above

234. Nitrogen from nitrous oxide (NO) originates from?

A. oxygen

B. Carbon dioxide

C. L-arginine

D. Tyrosine

E. Carbon

235. Asthma acute exacerbation can be triggered by all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Warm and dry weather

B. Stressful emotional time

C. Bacterial and viral pneumonia

D. Withdrawal of asthma medications

E. Penicillin hypersensitivity reactions

236. What is Point-of-Sale (POS) system:

I. Combination of computer software, hardware and cash register that capture product information at time of

sale or when it is received into inventory.

II. Provide accurate information more promptly overstocks and out-of-stock situations can be reduced through

early detection.

III. Which makes it possible to scan products on scanning counters or hand held scanners.

A.I only

B. III only

C.I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All of the above

237. Which of the following is NOT a counselling after steroid inhaler administration?

I-Rinse your mouth before steroid inhaler

II-Shake inhaler before use.

III-Rinse your mouth after steroid inhaler

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All of the above

238. Which of the following is NOT a side effect of spironolactone:

A. GI disturbances and diarrhea

B. Hirsutism

C. CNS effect and confusion

D. Hypokalemia

E. All of the above

239. A 30 year old girl Tracy comes to pharmacy for refill of salbutamol and steroid inhalers, she has

uncontrolled asthma. Which of the following are appropriate recommendations?

I-Refer to the Dr.

II-Increase the dose of steroids

III-Increase the dose of short acting inhalers

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All of the above

240. Which of the following patients are most suited for primary therapy of hydrochlorothiazide:

A. Patients with impaired renal function

B. Patients with gout arthritis

C. Patient with hyperlipidemia

D. Elderly patient

E. Young hypertensive patient

241. Nitrates and sildenafil cannot be used together because:

I-Enhance hypotensive effect of nitrates (nitroglycerine)

II-Enhance hypotensive effect of sildenafil (Viagra)

III-Enhance hypertensive effect of nitrates

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All of the above

242. The profit obtained from good sold has not increased but inventory stock decreased. The reason could be:

A. Goods sold in bulk

B. Purchased from distributor but not from wholesaler

C. Shrink (internal or external theft)

D. Goods not sold

E. Good Faith

243. Normal cholesterol level;

A. 150-270 mg/dL

B. 130-230 mg/dL

C. 230-300 mg/dL

D. 300-400 mg/dL

E.

B. tachycardia

C. hallucinations

D. mania/paranoid psychosis

E. nausea/vomiting

246. The molecular structure of the most muscarinic antagonist contain a specific heterocyclic ring which is

best described as an:

A. aniline and piperazine rings.

B. aniline and pyrrolidine rings.

C. pyrrolidine and piperazine rings.

D. pyrrolidine and piperidine rings.


247. In organ transplant the rejection is due to;

I. Infiltration of T cells

II. Infiltration of B cells

III. Bacteriophages

A.I only

B. III only

C.I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All of the above

248. The invention of biotechnology include:

I. Tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA)

II. Streptokinase

III. Recombinant DNA technology

A.I only

B. III only

C.I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All of the above

249. Kopliks spots are associated with

A. Tetanus

B. Measles

C. Mumps

D. Chicken pox

E. All of the above

250. The chemical basis of heredity is:

A.RNA

B.DNA

C.RBC

D.WBC

E. Cell

251. Which of the following drug least likely to effect on oral contraceptives:

A. Tetracycline

B. Phenytoin

C. Carbamazepine

D. Gabapentin

E. Phenobarbital

252. Antibody is chemically

A. Polysaccharide

B. Amino acids

C. Virus

D. Proteins

E. lipopolysaccharide

253. Phenytoin is indicated the treatment of all of the following types of seizure EXCEPT:

A. Grand mal

B. Complex partial

C. Simple partial

D. Tonic clonic

E. Absence seizure (petit mal)

254. All of the following drugs require waiting period for 2 weeks, before begin other antidepressants, Except;

A. Fluvoxamine

B. Sertraline

C. Citalopram

D. Fluoxetine

E. Venlafaxine

255. Interferon is a protein produced by the:

A. RBCs B. Heart

C. WBC

D. Liver

E. Spleen

256. Gray patches on the tonsils or mucus membranes of the nose and throat are associated with:

A. Measles

B. Mumps

C. Diphtheria

D. German measles

E. EBV

257. Which of the following is NOT a platelet aggregate inhibitor

A. Aspirin

B. Ticlopidine

C. Clopidrogel

D. Streptokinase


258. What is the correct statement about Antisense or non-sense codons:

I.A piece of DNA producing a mirror image ("antisense") messenger RNA that is opposite in sequence to one

directing protein synthesis.

II. Antisense technology is used to selectively turn off production of certain proteins

III-Antisense technology is used in production recombinant DNA

A.I only

B. III only

C.I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All of the above

259. What are the correct statements about retrovirus:

I-A virus that contains the enzyme reverse transcriptase.

II-These enzymes converts the viral RNA into DNA, which can combine with the DNA of the host cell and

produce more viral particles.

III-Viral proteins that can be used antiviral drugs

A.I only B. III only

C.I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All of the above

260. all of the following are SSRIs only except:

A. Fluvoxamine

B. Fluoxetine

C. Sertraline

D. Venlafaxine

E. Trazodone

261. To achieve the pharmaceutical care?

I-Pharmacist must establish professional relationship and maintained

II-Patient specific information must be collected, organized, recorded and maintained

III-The pharmacist reviews, monitors, and modifies the therapeutic plan as necessary and appropriate, in

concert with the patient and healthcare team.

A.I only

B. III only

C.I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All of the above

262. Venlafaxine (Effexor) 150 mg dose QD, shows effect on the following receptors:

A. 5HT

B. NE

C. Dopamine

D. A and B


263. Assertive skills

A. How much we stand up for our own and how much consideration we have for others.

B. Boldly insist that your needs are met

C. Assertive people create unpleasant atmosphere that other people want to avoid.

D. Their lack of confidence or inability to voice their opinion forces them to agree to anything or to let

important information go unsaid.


264. Aerosols are defined as:

A. colloidal systems of very finely subdivided liquid or solid particles dispersed in and surrounded by a gas.

B. Colloidal systems of very finely subdivided liquid or solid particles dispersed in and surrounded by liquid

C. Colloidal systems of very finely subdivided liquid or solid particles dispersed in and surrounded by solid

D. Colloidal systems of very finely subdivided gas particles dispersed in and surrounded by liquid or solid.


265. Rubbing Alcohol: Contains about 70% of Ethyl Alcohol by volume, used in

I. Externally for bedridden patients.

II. Germicide for instruments

III. Skin cleanser prior to injection

A.I only

B. III only

C.I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All of the above

266. How to use intranasal sprays or pumps.

I. Hold your head in an upright position

II. Close one nostril with one finger

III. With the mouth closed, insert the tip of the spray or pump into the open nostril. Sniff in through the nostril

while quickly and firmly squeezing the spray container or activating the pump.

A.I only

B. III only

C.I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All of the above

267. Emergency contraception regimens are two doses of oral contraceptive tablets. The first dose is

administered;

A. Within 4 days of unprotected intercourse, the second dose is taken 2 days later

B. Within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse; the second dose is taken 12 hours later.

C. Within 48 hours of unprotected intercourse; the second dose is taken 12 hours later.

D. Within 24 hours of unprotected intercourse, the second dose is taken 12 hours later.


268. If the pharmacist becomes aware that a child (anyone under the age of 19) has been physically harmed,

sexually abused or sexually exploited by a parent or other person, the pharmacist must report these

circumstances to:

A. The parents

B. The appropriate provincial authority

C. Police

D. Coworker


269. The pharmacist upholds and acts on the ethical principle that the primary accountability of the pharmacist

is to the patient, with respect to:

I. Patient confidentiality

II. Involvement of the patient in the decision-making process, and the right of the patient to make their own

choices.

III. The patient's well-being is at the center of the pharmacist's professional and business practices.

A.I only

B. III only

C.I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All of the above

270. Define Delegation?

A. In a larger operation, the pharmacy owners delegate certain supervisory responsibilities that include store

manager, assistance manager, head cashier and head cosmetician.

B. Delegation is problem of beyond managerial growth.

C. Delegation is each employee responsibility would be accountable to his or her supervisor.

D. Delegation is a staff requirement assessment

E. All of the above

271. What is function of High Efficiency Particulate Air filter?

A. To removes particles

B. To maintain temperature

C. To maintain humidity

D. To removes fine bacterial contaminants


272. Define Pharmacoeconomics

A. Cost of illness and pharmaceutical services and products.

B. The description and analysis of the costs of drug therapy to healthcare systems and society

C. Cost of pharmaceutical services and products.

D. Price determination of pharmaceutical services and products


273. Which of the following antidepressants least likely cause sexual dysfunction side effects?

I-Bupropion

II-Mirtazapine

III-Fluoxetine

A-I only

B-III only

C-I and II only

D-II and III only

E-All of the above

274. Pharmacy manager who puts certain rules and expects his subordinate to follow them without exception;

A. Co-operative

B. Autocratic

C. Beurocratic

D. Assertive


275. Which of the following prevents withdrawal symptoms and helps reduce drug cravings in opioid dependent

individuals?

A. Morphine

B. Codiene

C. Methadone

D. Oxycodone

E. Tramadol

Dr.yayooo Novmber 2012 Expected Exam Questions

Documents

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