DISTANCE LEARNING PROGRAMME TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL NURTURE TEST SERIES / JOINT PACKAGE COURSE Corporate Office : CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005 +91-744-2757575 [email protected]www.dlp.allen.ac.in, dsat.allen.ac.in 1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat only. If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them. 2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720. 3 180 720 3. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall. 4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge. 5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing. 6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful. 1 7. Use Blue or Black Ball Point Pen Only to completely darken the appropriate circle. 8. If you want to attempt any question then circle should be properly darkened as shown below, otherwise leave blank. Correct Method ( ) Wrong Method ( ) 9. Please do not fold the Answer Sheet and do not make any stray marks on it. 10. The candidate will not do any rough work on the Answer Sheet. 11. CHANGING AN ANSWER IS NOT ALLOWED. 12. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited Ensure that your OMR Answer Sheet has been signed by the Invigilator and the candidate himself/ herself. OMR Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so Important Instructions / Test Type : MAJOR Test Pattern : NEET-UG TEST SYLLABUS : FULL SYLLABUS
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DISTANCE LEARNING PROGRAMME
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL
NURTURE TEST SERIES / JOINT PACKAGE COURSE
Corporate Office : CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat only.If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination andshall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.
2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.
3 180 7203. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.
4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.
5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.
6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful.
17. Use Blue or Black Ball Point Pen Only to completely darken the appropriate circle.
8. If you want to attempt any question then circle should be properly darkened as shown below, otherwise leave blank.
Correct Method () Wrong Method ()
9. Please do not fold the Answer Sheet and do not make any stray marks on it.
10. The candidate will not do any rough work on the Answer Sheet.
11. CHANGING AN ANSWER IS NOT ALLOWED.
12. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited
Ensure that your OMR Answer Sheet has been signed by the Invigilator and the candidate himself/ herself.
OMR
Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so
Important Instructions /
Test Type : MAJOR Test Pattern : NEET-UG
TEST SYLLABUS : FULL SYLLABUS
ALLEN
1/31
BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS
1. If y = e–2x, then find 2
2
d y
dx
(1) 4e–2x (2) 2xe
4
(3) –4e–2x (4) e–2x
2. A ball of mass 500 gm, initially at rest, is acted
upon by an impulsive force as shown
F (KN)
4
20t (ms)
maximum velocity gained by ball is equal to :-
(1) 20 m/s (2) 40 m/s
(3) 60 m/s (4) 80 m/s
3. A ball of mass 1 kg bounces against the ground
as shown in figure. The approaching velocity
is 25 m/s and the velocity after hitting the
ground is 25
m / s.3
The impulse exerted on the
ball is :-
25m/s1kg
253
m/s
30°60° x
y
(1) 7.8 N–s (2) 27.68 N–s
(3) 28.87 N–s (4) 62 N–s
4. Two liquids A and B are at 32°C and 24°C. When
mixed in equal masses the temperature of the
mixture is found to be 28°C. Their specific heats
are in the ratio of :
(1) 3 : 2 (2) 2 : 3
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 4 : 3
1. y = e–2x 2
2
d y
dx
(1) 4e–2x (2) 2xe
4
(3) –4e–2x (4) e–2x
2.
F (KN)
4
20t (ms)
:-
(1) 20 m/s (2) 40 m/s
(3) 60 m/s (4) 80 m/s
3. 1
25 m/s
25
3m/s :-
25m/s1kg
253
m/s
30°60° x
y
(1) 7.8 N–s (2) 27.68 N–s
(3) 28.87 N–s (4) 62 N–s
4. 32°C 24°CA B
28°C
(1) 3 : 2 (2) 2 : 3
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 4 : 3
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5. A particle is executing SHM with time period T.
Starting from mean position, time taken by it to
complete 5
8 oscillations, is :-
(1) T
12(2)
T
6(3)
5T
12(4)
7T
12
6. If ˆa b 2 , then the angle between a and b is :-
(1) 0 (2) rad3
(3) rad
2
(4) rad
7. Two blocks of masses of 40 kg and 30 kg are
connected by a weightless string passing over a
frictionless pulley as shown in the figure.
(Pulley remains at rest)
30º 30º
30kg40kg
Fixed
The acceleration of the system would be
(1) 0.7 ms–2 (2) 0.8 ms–2
(3) 0.6 ms–2 (4) 0.5 ms–2
8. A ball of mass 0.1 kg coming with speed 30 m/s
strikes with a bat and returns in opposite
direction with speed 40 m/s, then the impulse
exerted on the ball is : (Taking final velocity as
positive)
(1) 7 N–s (2) 1 N–s
(3) 3 N–s (4) 4 N–s
9. If pressure of CO2 (real gas) in a container is given
by P = 2
RT a
2V b 4V
; then mass of the gas in
container is :
(1) 11 g (2) 22 g (3) 33 g (4) 44 g
10. Two satellites S and S' revolve around the earth
at distances 3R and 6R from the centre of the earth.
Their periods of revolution will be in the ratio :-
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 21.5 (4) 1 : 20.67
11. Given that v is speed, r is the radius and g is theacceleration due to gravity. Which of the
following is dimensionless.
(1)2v
rg(2)
2v r
g(3)
2v g
r(4) v2rg
5. T
5
8
:-
(1) T
12(2)
T
6(3)
5T
12(4)
7T
12
6. ˆa b 2 a b
(1) 0 (2) rad3
(3) rad
2
(4) rad
7. 40 30
30º 30º
30kg40kg
Fixed
?
(1) 0.7 ms–2 (2) 0.8 ms–2
(3) 0.6 ms–2 (4) 0.5 ms–2
8. 0.1 kg 30 m/s
40 m/s
(1) 7 N–s (2) 1 N–s
(3) 3 N–s (4) 4 N–s
9. CO2
P = 2
RT a
2V b 4V
;
(1) 11 g (2) 22 g (3) 33 g (4) 44 g
10. S S' 3R 6R
:-(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1(3) 1 : 21.5 (4) 1 : 20.67
11. v r g
(1)2v
rg(2)
2v r
g(3)
2v g
r(4) v2rg
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12. Which of the following is a self adjusting force?
(1) Static friction (2) Rolling friction
(3) Sliding friction (4) Dynamic friction
13. Two bodies having same mass 20 kg are moving
in opposite directions, one with a velocity of
10 m/s and the other with 5 m/s. If they collide
and move as one body, the velocity of the
combination is :-
(1) 2.5 m/s (2) 5 m/s
(3) 7.5 m/s (4) 15 m/s
14. If the mean free path of atoms is doubled, then
the pressure of gas will become :
(1) P
4(2)
P
2(3)
P
8(4) P
15. The earth's radius is R and acceleration due to
gravity at its surface is g. If a body of mass m is
sent to a height of R/4 from the earth's surface,
the potential energy increases by :-
(1) R
mg3
(2) R
mg4
(3) R
mg5
(4) R
3mg16
16. The mass and volume of a body are found to be
(5.000.05)kg and (1.00 0.05)m3 respectively.
Then the maximum possible percentage error in
its density is :-
(1) 6% (2) 3% (3) 10% (4) 5%
17. A body of mass 10 kg is acted upon by two
perpendicular forces, 6 N and 8 N. The resultant
acceleration of the body is
(1) 1 ms–2 at an angle of tan–13
4
w.r.t. 8 N force
(2) 0.2 ms–2 at an angle of tan–13
4
w.r.t. 8 N
force
(3) 1 ms–2 at an angle of tan–14
3
w.r.t. 8 N force
(4) 0.2 ms–2 at an angle of tan–14
3
w.r.t. 8 N
force
12. ?(1) (2) (3) (4)
13. 20 kg
10 m/s 5 m/s
:-
(1) 2.5 m/s (2) 5 m/s
(3) 7.5 m/s (4) 15 m/s
14.
(1) P
4(2)
P
2(3)
P
8(4) P
15. R g m R/4 :-
(1) R
mg3
(2) R
mg4
(3) R
mg5
(4) R
3mg16
16. (5.000.05)kg
(1.00 0.05)m3 (1) 6% (2) 3%
(3) 10% (4) 5%
17. 10 kg 6 N 8 N
?
(1) 8 N tan–13
4
1 ms–2
(2) 8 N tan–13
4
0.2 ms–2
(3) 8 N tan–14
3
1 ms–2
(4) 8 N tan–14
3
0.2 ms–2
Use stop, look and go method in reading the question
ALL INDIA OPEN TEST /NURTURE/Pre-Medical /NEET-UG
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18. Four solid spheres of diameter 2a and mass M are
placed with their centres on the four corners of
a square of side b. Then the moment of inertia of
the system about an axis along one of the sides
of the square is:
(1) 4
5Ma2 + 2Mb2 (2)
8
5Ma2 + 2Mb2
(3) 8
5Ma2 (4)
4
5Ma2 + 4Mb2
19. The diameter of rain-drop is 0.02 cm. If surface
tension of water be 72 × 10–3 newton per metre,
then the pressure difference of external and
internal surfaces of the drop will be :-
(1) 1.44 × 104 dyne – cm–2
(2) 1.44 × 104 newton – m–2
(3) 1.44 × 103 dyne – cm–2
(4) 1.44 × 105 newton – m–2
20. The escape velocity of a body from the earth is
u. What is the escape velocity from a planet whose
mass and radius are twice those of the earth ?
(1) 2u (2) u (3) 4u (4) 16u
21. The v-t graph of particle moving along a straight
line is shown. The rate of acceleration and
deceleration is constant and 5 m/s2. If avrage
velocity during motion is 20 m/s then what will
be maximum velocity of particls :-
t 20 time(sec)
v(m/s)
(1) 20 m/s (2) 25 m/s
(3) 30 m/s (4) 40 m/s
22. A simple pendulum is released from A as shown. If
m and l represent the mass of the bob and length of
the pendulum, the gain in kinetic energy till B is :
30º
A
B
(1) 2
mgl (2)
2
mgl (3) lmg
2
3 (4) lmg
3
2
18. 2a M
b
(1) 4
5Ma2 + 2Mb2 (2)
8
5Ma2 + 2Mb2
(3) 8
5Ma2 (4)
4
5Ma2 + 4Mb2
19. 0.02 cm
72 × 10–3 newton per metre
:-(1) 1.44 × 104 dyne – cm–2
(2) 1.44 × 104 newton – m–2
(3) 1.44 × 103 dyne – cm–2
(4) 1.44 × 105 newton – m–2
20. u ?
(1) 2u (2) u (3) 4u (4) 16u
21. v-t
5 m/s2
20 m/s
t 20 time(sec)
v(m/s)
(1) 20 m/s (2) 25 m/s
(3) 30 m/s (4) 40 m/s
22. A
m l,
B :
30º
A
B
(1) 2
mgl (2)
2
mgl (3) lmg
2
3 (4) lmg
3
2
ALL INDIA OPEN TEST /NURTURE/Pre-Medical /NEET-UG
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23. Two rods OA and OB of equal length and mass
are lying on XY-plane as shown in figure. Let Ix,
Iy and I
z be the moments of inertia of both the rods
about x, y and z-axis respectively. Then :-
A By
O45º45º
x
(1) Ix = I
y > I
z(2) I
x = I
y < I
z
(3) Ix > I
y > I
z(4) I
z > I
y > I
x
24. To break a wire of one metre length, minimum
40 kg wt. is required. Then the wire of the same
material of double radius and 6 m length will
require breaking weight :-
(1) 80 kg-wt (2) 240 kg-wt
(3) 200 kg-wt (4) 160 kg-wt
25. The amplitude of a wave disturbance propagating
in the positive Y-direction is given by :-
2
1
1y
x
at t = 0 and 2
1
1 1y
[ (x ) ]
at t = 2 sec.
Where, x and y are in m. If the shape of the wave
disturbance does not change during the
propagation, what is the velocity of the wave?
(1) 1 m/sec (2) 5.5 m/sec
(3) 0.5 m/sec (4) 2 m/sec
26. A body is falling from a height of 100 m. the time
taken for first 50 m is t1 and remaining 50 m is
t2 then find ratio of t1 and t2. :-
(1) 2 1 (2) 1
12
(3) 2 –1 (4) 1
1–2
27. A position dependent force
F = 7 – 2x + 3x2 newton acts on a small body of
mass 2 kg and displaces it from x = 0 to
x = 5 m. The work done in joule is :-
(1) 70 (2) 270 (3) 35 (4) 135
28. A uniform solid sphere of mass 200 gm rolls
without slipping on a plane surface so that its
centre moves at a speed of 2.00 cm/sec. Its KE
is :-
(1) 5.6 × 10–5 J (2) 5.6 × 10–4 J
(3) 5.6 × 10–3 J (4) 5.6 × 10–2 J
23. OA OB
XY Ix, I
y I
z , x, y z-
:-
A By
O45º45º
x
(1) Ix = Iy > Iz (2) Ix = Iy < Iz
(3) Ix > I
y > I
z(4) I
z > I
y > I
x
24. 40 kg 6 m :-(1) 80 kg-wt (2) 240 kg-wt
(3) 200 kg-wt (4) 160 kg-wt
25. y- :-
t = 0 2
1
1y
x
t = 2 sec 2
1
1 1y
[ (x ) ]
x y
?
(1) 1 m/sec (2) 5.5 m/sec
(3) 0.5 m/sec (4) 2 m/sec
26. 100 m 50 m
t1 50 m t2 t1 t2 :-
(1) 2 1 (2) 1
12
(3) 2 –1 (4) 1
1–2
27.
F=7–2x+3x2 newton , 2 kg
x = 0 x = 5 m joule :-(1) 70 (2) 270 (3) 35 (4) 135
28. 200 gm
2.00 cm/sec
:-
(1) 5.6 × 10–5 J (2) 5.6 × 10–4 J
(3) 5.6 × 10–3 J (4) 5.6 × 10–2 J
ALL INDIA OPEN TEST /NURTURE/Pre-Medical /NEET-UG
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29. Under a constant pressure head, the rate of flow
of liquid through a capillary tube is V. If the length
of the capillary is doubled and the diameter of the
bore is halved, the rate of flow would become :-
(1) V/4 (2) 16V (3) V/8 (4) V/32
30. Decibel is the unit of :-(1) intensity of light
(2) X-ray radiation capacity(3) sound loudness
(4) energy of radiation
31. Horizontal Range and maximum height for a
projectile are resepectively 12 m and 4 m. velocity
of projection is : -
(1) g3
2(2)
1 g
3 2(3)
g5
2(4)
1 g
5 2
32. A roller coaster is designed such that riders
experiences "weightlessness" as they go round the
top of a hill whose radius of curvature is 20 m.
The speed of the car at the top of the hill is
between. (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 16 m/s and 17 m/s
(2) 13 m/s and 14 m/s
(3) 14 m/s and 15 m/s
(4) 15 m/s and 16 m/s
33. A constant torque acting on a uniform circular
wheel changes its angular momentum from A0 to
4A0 in 4 seconds. The magnitude of this torque
is :-
(1) 3A0/4 (2) A
0(3) 4A
0(4) 12A
0
34. A sample of metal weighs 210 gm in air, 180 gm
in water and 120 gm in liquid. Then relative
density (RD) of :-
(1) Metal is 3 (2) Metal is 7
(3) Metal is 6 (4) Metal is 1
335. If you set up the seventh harmonic on a string fixed
at both ends, how many nodes and antinodes areset up in it ?
(1) 8, 7 (2) 7, 7 (3) 8, 9 (4) 9, 8
36. Rain is falling vertically downwards with a speed
of 4 km/hr. A man moves on a straight road with
3 km/hr speed. Apparent velocity of rain with
respect of man will be :-
(1) 7 km/hr (2) 5 km/hr
(3) 1 km/hr (4) 4 km/hr
29. V :-(1) V/4 (2) 16V
(3) V/8 (4) V/32
30. Decibel :-(1) (2) X- (3) (4)
31. 12 m
4 m :-
(1) g3
2(2)
1 g
3 2(3)
g5
2(4)
1 g
5 2
32. 20 m (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 16 m/s 17 m/s (2) 13 m/s 14 m/s (3) 14 m/s 15 m/s (4) 15 m/s 16 m/s
33.
A0 4A0 4 sec.
:-
(1) 3A0/4 (2) A0 (3) 4A0 (4) 12A0
34. 210 gm, 180 gm 120 gm :-(1) 3 (2) 7
(3) 6 (4) 1
3
35.
?
(1) 8, 7 (2) 7, 7 (3) 8, 9 (4) 9, 8
36. 4 km/hr
3 km/hr
:-
(1) 7 km/hr (2) 5 km/hr
(3) 1 km/hr (4) 4 km/hr
ALL INDIA OPEN TEST /NURTURE/Pre-Medical /NEET-UG
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7/31
37. A gramophone record is revolving with an angular
velocity . A coin is placed at a distance r from the
centre of the record. The static coefficient of friction
is µ. The coin will revolve with the record if :-
(1)
2
gr (2) 2r g
(3) r <
2
g(4) 2
gr
38. Four curves A, B, C and D are drawn as shown
for a given amount of gas. The curves which
represent adiabatic and isothermal change
respectively are :
A
BC
D
P
V
(1) C and D (2) D and C
(3) A and B (4) B and A
39. Water is flowing through a tube of non-uniform
cross-section. Ratio of the radius at entry and exit
end of the pipe is 3 : 2. Then the ratio of velocities
at entry and exit of liquid is :-
(1) 4 : 9 (2) 9 : 4 (3) 8 : 27 (4) 1 : 1
40. Two sources of sound placed close to each other,
are emitting progressive waves given byy1
= 4 sin 600t and y2 = 5sin 608t. An observer
located near these two sources of sound will hear:-(1) 8 beats per second with maximum and
minimum intensity ratio 81 : 1
(2) 4 beats per second with maximum and
minimum intensity ratio 81 : 1
(3) 4 beats per second with maximum andminimum intensity ratio 25 : 16
(4) 8 beats per second with maximum and
minimum intensity ratio 25 : 16
41. Displacement of a body is given by 4S = M +2Nt4
where M and N are constants. velocity at the end
of 1 second from start is :-
(1) 2N (2) M 2N
4
(3) 2(M + N) (4) N
37.
r
µ :-
(1)
2
gr (2) 2r g
(3) r <
2
g(4) 2
gr
38. A, B, C
D
A
BC
D
P
V
(1) C D (2) D C
(3) A B (4) B A39.
3 : 2 :-(1) 4 : 9 (2) 9 : 4 (3) 8 : 27 (4) 1 : 1
40. y
1 = 4 sin 600t y
2 = 5sin 608t
:-
(1) 8 81 : 1
(2) 4 81 : 1
(3) 4 25 : 16
(4) 8 25 : 16
41. 4S = M +2Nt4 M N 1 :-
(1) 2N (2) M 2N
4
(3) 2(M + N) (4) N
Key Filling
ALL INDIA OPEN TEST /NURTURE/Pre-Medical /NEET-UG
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42. L m = x x-
(1) 2L
3(2)
3L
2(3)
L
2(4)
4L
3
43. ABCA V-T P-V
V
T
B
A
C
(1)
P
VBA
C
(2)
P
VCA
B
(3)
P
VC
A B
(4)
P
VC
A
B
44.
T
T1
T2 T
3
Hollow Sand Mercury
T T1 T2 T3
(1) T = T1 = T
2 > T
3(2) T = T
1 = T
3 > T
(3) T > T3 > T
1 = T
2(4) T = T
1 = T
2 < T
3
45. 480 Hz 20 m/s 340 m/s (1) 480 Hz (2) 510 Hz(3) 540 Hz (4) 570 Hz
42. The mass per unit length of a non-uniform rod of
length L varies as m = x where is constant. The
centre of mass of the rod will be at if rod is placed
along +ve x-axis with one end at origin :-
(1) 2L
3(2)
3L
2(3)
L
2(4)
4L
3
43. Cyclic process ABCA is shown in V-T diagram.
Process on the P-V diagram is :
V
T
B
A
C
(1)
P
VBA
C
(2)
P
VCA
B
(3)
P
VC
A B
(4)
P
VC
A
B
44. The period of a simple pendulum, whose bob is
a hollow metallic sphere, is T. The period is T1
when the bob is filled with sand, T2 when it is filled
with mercury and T3 when it is half filled with
mercury. Which of the following is true ?
Hollow Sand Mercury
T T1 T2 T3
(1) T = T1 = T
2 > T
3(2) T = T
1 = T
3 > T
(3) T > T3 > T
1 = T
2(4) T = T
1 = T
2 < T
3
45. A car sounding its horn at 480 Hz moves towardsa high wall at a speed of 20 m/s. If the speed ofsound is 340 m/s, the frequency of the reflectedsound heard by the passenger sitting in the car willbe the nearest to :-(1) 480 Hz (2) 510 Hz(3) 540 Hz (4) 570 Hz
ALL INDIA OPEN TEST /NURTURE/Pre-Medical /NEET-UG
ALLEN
9/31
46. Correct structure of
2-chloro-3-ethylbut-2-enedial is :-
(1) HH
OCl
O
(2) HOH
OCl
O
(3) HH
OCl
O
(4)
HH
O
Cl O
47. HClPeroxide
product ; product is :-
(1) Cl (2) Cl
(3) Cl (4)
Cl
48. Increasing order of electron gain enthalpy is:
(1) N < O < Cl < Al
(2) O < N < Al < Cl
(3) N < Al < O < Cl
(4) Cl < N < O < Al
49. C60
contains :
(1) 20 pentagons and 12 hexagons
(2) 12 pentagons and 20 hexagons
(3) 30 pentagons and 30 hexagons
(4) 24 pentagons and 36 hexagons
50. For the reaction PCl5(g) PCl
3 (g) + Cl
2 (g)
The two reaction constants Kp and K
c are
related to each other by the expression :-
(1) p
c
Klog log RT 0
K (2) K
p (RT) = K
C
(3) Kp = KC (RT)–1 (4) None of the above
46. 2--3--2- :-
(1) HH
OCl
O
(2) HOH
OCl
O
(3) HH
OCl
O
(4)
HH
O
Cl O
47. HClPeroxide
; :-
(1) Cl (2) Cl
(3) Cl (4)
Cl
48. :(1) N < O < Cl < Al
(2) O < N < Al < Cl
(3) N < Al < O < Cl
(4) Cl < N < O < Al
49. C60
:
(1) 20 12
(2) 12 20
(3) 30 30
(4) 24 36
50. PCl5 :
PCl5(g) PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g)
Kp K
c
:-
(1) p
c
Klog log RT 0
K (2) Kp (RT) = KC
(3) Kp = K
C (RT)–1 (4)
Take it Easy and Make it Easy
ALL INDIA OPEN TEST /NURTURE/Pre-Medical /NEET-UG
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51. Number of sigma and pi bond respectively
present in :-
(1) 4, 23 (2) 22, 4
(3) 23, 4 (4) 24, 4
52.Br
alcoholic KOHP
NBSQ ; Q, is :-
(1) Br (2) Br
(3) Br (4) Br
53. Which one is linear but not having 180° bond
angle :-
(1) C2H2 (2) HCN
(3) IC (4) CS2
54. Which of the following carbides will give
propyne on hydrolysis :
(1) CaC2
(2) Be2C
(3) Al4C
3(4) Mg
2C
3
55. ‘A’ sample of [Cu(NH3)4]SO4 contains
2.4 × 1024 ammonia molecules. The moles of
[Cu(NH3)4]SO4 in given sample will be–
(1) 6 × 1023 (2) 4
(3) 3 (4) 1
56. How many alkene form by C5H10 (including
stereo isomers) :-
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 5 (4) 6
57.
O
NH NH / OH2
–
2
glycolcyclohexane
Reaction is called :-
(1) Clemmensen's Reduction
(2) Wolf - Kischner's Reduction
(3) Corey House Reaction
(4) Gattermann's Reaction
51. :-
(1) 4, 23 (2) 22, 4
(3) 23, 4 (4) 24, 4
52.Br KOH
PNBS
Q ; Q, :-
(1) Br (2) Br
(3) Br (4) Br
53. 180° :-(1) C2H2 (2) HCN
(3) IC (4) CS2
54.
:
(1) CaC2
(2) Be2C
(3) Al4C
3(4) Mg
2C
3
55. [Cu(NH3)4]SO4 2.4 × 1024 [Cu(NH3)4]SO4
(1) 6 × 1023 (2) 4
(3) 3 (4) 1
56. C5H10 (
) :-(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 5 (4) 6
57.
O
NH NH / OH2
–
2
:-
(1)
(2)
(3) -
(4)
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58. In which bond angle is maximum :-
(1) NH3 (2) NH4+
(3) PCl5
(4) SCl2
59. Tetrahalides of group-14 elements (except that
of carbon) act as :
(1) Reducing agent
(2) Lewis acid
(3) Lewis bases
(4) None of these
60. How many electrons are present in
2 × 10–3 mol of 18 28O ?
(1) 1.2 × 1021 (2) 9.6 × 1021
(3) 1.2 × 1022 (4) 1.9 × 1022
61. Which of the following compound is z but not
cis :-
(1) C = C
HH
CH3D(2) C = C
FH
HD
(3) C = C
FCl
ClF(4) C = C
FCl
ClBr
62.
OH
O
A
B
Red PHI
Electrolysis
NaOH
A and B are :-
(1) Homomer (2) Homologous
(3) Chain isomer (4) Position isomer
63. Which of following molecule '2' unpaired e–
with '2' value of bond order :-
(1) B2 (2) N2
(3) O2–2 (4) O2
64. In Cu (Atomic no. – 29) :–
(1) 13 electrons have spin in one direction and
16 electrons in other direction.
(2) 14 electrons have spin in one direction and
15 electrons in other direction.
(3) One electron can have spin only in
clockwise direction.
(4) None of above is correct.
58. :-(1) NH3 (2) NH4
+
(3) PCl5
(4) SCl2
59. -14 (1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
60. 2 × 10–3 18 28O
?(1) 1.2 × 1021 (2) 9.6 × 1021
(3) 1.2 × 1022 (4) 1.9 × 1022
61. z :-
(1) C = C
HH
CH3D(2) C = C
FH
HD
(3) C = C
FCl
ClF(4) C = C
FCl
ClBr
62.
OH
O
A
B
Red PHI
NaOH
A B :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
63. '2' e– '2' :-(1) B
2(2) N
2
(3) O2–2 (4) O
2
64. Cu ( – 29) :–(1) 13 16
(2) 14 15
(3)
(4)
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65. Number of mole of 1 m3 gas at NTP are :-
(1) 44.6 (2) 40.6
(3) 42.6 (4) 48.6
66. Maximum pka for :-
(1)
OHNO2
(2)
OH
NO2
(3)
OH
NO2
(4)
OH
67.
C CHKMnO /H4
+
ABr2
FeBr3
B
B is :-
(1)
COOH
Br
(2)
COOHBr
(3)
COOH
Br
(4)
C CH
Br
68. Which molecule or ion does not have same
number of lone pairs :-
(1) SF4
(2) PH3
(3) ClO3–1 (4) XeF2
69. The total value of magnetic quantum number
for n = 4 :-
(1) 9 (2) 16
(3) 12 (4) None of these
70. The enthalpy change for transition of liquid
water to steam is 3.73 KJ mol–1 at 373 K. Find
S in J/mol K :-
(1) 100 J/mol K (2) 10 J/mol K
(3) 1000 J/mol K (4) None
65. 1 m3 NTP :-(1) 44.6 (2) 40.6
(3) 42.6 (4) 48.6
66. pka :-
(1)
OHNO2
(2)
OH
NO2
(3)
OH
NO2
(4)
OH
67.
C CHKMnO /H4
+
ABr2
FeBr3
B
B :-
(1)
COOH
Br
(2)
COOHBr
(3)
COOH
Br
(4)
C CH
Br
68. :-(1) SF
4(2) PH
3
(3) ClO3–1 (4) XeF2
69. n = 4 (1) 9 (2) 16
(3) 12 (4)
70. 3.73 KJ mol–1 373 K S J/mol K :-
(1) 100 J/mol K (2) 10 J/mol K
(3) 1000 J/mol K (4)
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71. Aromatic compound is :-
(1) O
(2) O
(3) O
(4)
72. Major contributer of global warming is :-
(1) CO2 (2) CO
(3) CH4 (4) CFC
73. What is the hybridisation state of central atom
and shape in conjugate base of ammonium
ion:-
(1) sp3,trigonal planer (2) sp2,trigonal planer
(3) sp3, pyramidal (4) sp3d, T-shape
74. Choose the pair of species in which O.N. of
nitrogen is same :-
(1) NO2–, N
2O
3(2) NO
3–, NO
2
(3) NO, N2O
5(4) None
75. At 27°C, 1 mole of an ideal gas expand
in reversible and isothermally from 2 atm to 1
atm then H will be :-
(1) 1.73 KJ (2) Zero
(3) –1.73 KJ (4) 3.46 KJ
76. Which of the following nitrogen accept proton
most easily :-
N–H
NH2
c
b
a
N
(1) a (2) a and b equal
(3) b (4) c
77. K+, Cl–, Ca2+, and S2– ions are isoelectronic.