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Question Booklet Series :– ç'u iqfLrdk fljht %& A Q. Booklet No. :– ç- iqfLrdk la[;k %& 190132 Time Allowed : 2 Hrs. Total No. Questions : 100 vuqer le; % 2 ?kaVs PAPER CODE : MSETDRE–01 ç'uksa dh dqy la[;k : 100 Roll No. : Total No. of printed pages : 16 vuq Øekad % eq fær i` ’Bksa dh dq y la[;k : 16 Name of the Candidate (in capital letters) : ______________________________________________________________ vH;FkÊ dk uke % Candidate's Signature Invigilator's Signature vH;FkÊ ds gLrk{kj _______________________ d{k fujh{kd ds gLrk{kj _______________________ READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY BEFORE WRITING ANYTHING ON THIS BOOKLET bl iqfLrdk ij dqN Hkh fy[kus ls igys fuEufyf[kr funsZ'k /;kuiwoZd i<+sa 1. Before commencing to answer, check that the Question Booklet has 100 questions. Each Question Booklet will be in different series (combination of question booklet number and series). You must write correct Question Booklet Number and Question Booklet Series on your OMR Answer Sheet. Further check that there is no misprinting, overprinting and/or any other shortcoming in it. If there is any shortcoming in the question booklet, intimate the same to your room invigilator and take a fresh question booklet. No complaint in this regard shall be entertained at any later stage. IMPORTANT NOTE: The OMR Answer Sheet will be evaluated with a combination of question booklet series and question booklet number hence you must write correct question booklet series and question booklet number. Any mistake in filling any of them will lead to invalidation of your OMR Answer Sheet. Also in case of non filling of question booklet series and question booklet number the OMR Answer Sheet will not be evaluated and its sole responsibility lies on the candidate. viuk mÙkj fy[kuk çkjEHk djus ls igys viuh ç'u iqfLrdk dh Hkyh&Hkk¡fr tk¡p dj ysa] ns[k ysa fd blesa 100 ç'u gSaA çR;sd ç'u iqfLrdk dh fljht fHké gksxh ¼ç”u&iqfLrdk la[;k ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk fljht dk la;kstu½A vkidks OMR mÙkj if=dk ij lgh ç'u&iqfLrdk fljht ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk la[;k fy[kuk gSA iqu% ;g Hkh ij[k ysa fd blesa fçafVax laca/kh vFkok vU; fdLe dh dksbZ deh ugha gSA ;fn fdlh çdkj dh dksbZ deh gks rks i;Zos{kd dks lwfpr djsa vkSj ç”u&iqfLrdk cnydj ,d u;h iqfLrdk ysaA bl lanHkZ esa fdlh Hkh çdkj dh dksbZ f'kdk;r ij ckn esa dksbZ fopkj ugha fd;k tk,xkA egRoiw.kZ uksV% vk s-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk vH;FkÊ ds ç”u&iq fLrdk fljht ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk la[;k ds la ;kstu ls ew Y;k a fdr dh tk;s xhA vr% vkidk s vk s -,e- vkj- mÙkj if=dk ij lgh ç”u&iq fLrdk fljht ,oa ç”u&iq fLrdk la[;k fy[kuh pkfg,A buesa ls fdlh ,d esa Hkh xyrh gk sus ij vkidh vk s-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk fujLr gk s ldrh gSA vk s-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk esa ç”u&iqfLrdk la[;k ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk fljht ugh a Hkjus ij vH;FkÊ ds mÙkj if=dk dk ewY;k adu ugh a fd;k tk;s xk ftldh ftEes nkjh Lor% vH;FkÊ dh gk s xhA 2. There are four parts (A, B, C and D) in the question booklet and each part carry minimum qualifying marks. Therefore attempt all the four parts. iqu% ç”u iq fLrdk ds pkj Hkkx ¼A, B, C ,oa D½ gS a gj Hkkx dk s mÙkh.k Z djus ds U;wure vad fu/kk Zfjr gSa A blfy, lHkh Hkkxk sa dk s gy djus dk ç;kl djsa A 3. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for filling boxes on the OMR Answer Sheet. The circles on the OMR Answer Sheet are to be completely filled by Blue/Black Ball Point Pen. Choose the correct/best response and mark your response in the OMR Answer Sheet only as per the instructions given and NOT in the Question Booklet. vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk ij ckWDl dks Hkjus ds fy, uhys@dkys ckWy Iokb±V isu ls fy[ksaA vks-,e-vkj mÙkj if=dk ij xksys dks iw.kZ :i ls uhys@dkys ckWy Iokb±V isu ls HkjsaA tks Hkh mÙkj lgh@loZJs"B gS mldks OMR mÙkj i= esa fn;s funsZ'k ds vuqlkj fpfUgr dhft,A vius mÙkj ç'u iqfLrdk esa u yxk,A 4. Use of Calculators, Slide rules, Mobiles, calculator watches or any such devices and any other study/reference material is NOT allowed inside the examination hall. Do not bring these articles to the examination hall. dsYdqysVj] LykbM:y] eksckbZy] dsYdqysVj ?kfM+;k¡ ;k bl çdkj dh dksbZ Hkh ;qfä ,oa fdlh Hkh v/;;u@lanHkZ lkexzh vkfn dk ç;ksx ijh{kk d{k esa oftZr gSA 5. Rough Work is to be done in the blank space provided in the Question Booklet, not on the OMR Answer Sheet. No other paper will be allowed/provided for rough work. jQ+ dk;Z iq fLrdk es a fdlh Hkh [kkyh LFkku es a fd;k tkuk pkfg,] OMR mÙkj if=dk ij dks bZ Hkh jQ+ dk;Z u djs a A fdlh vU; dkxt+ ij bls djus dh vuq efr ugha gS A 6. MOST IMPORTANT:– On completion of exam & before leaving the examination hall carefully de-attach Original copy of the Answer sheet and handover to the room Invigilator and keep the carbon less copy with you. It is responsibility of the Candidate to handover ORIGINAL copy of OMR Answer Sheet to the room Invigilator. If candidate fails to do so and take home ORIGINAL copy, his/her candidature will be cancelled. lokZf/kd egRoiw.kZ%& ijh{kk ds iwjk gksus ij vkSj ijh{kk d{k NksM+us ls igys bl mÙkj&if=dk dh ewy çfr dks ,gfr;kr ds lkFk vyx djds d{k fujh{kd dks nsa vkSj dkcZuysl dkWih vius ikl j[ksxsaA vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk dh ewy çfr d{k fujh{kd dks nsus dh ftEesnkjh vH;FkÊ dh gS vxj oks ,slk ugha djrk vkSj ewy çfr vius lkFk ys tkrk gS rks mldh vH;fFkZrk jí dj nh tk;sxhA 7. One mark (1) will be awarded for each correct answer. There is no negative marking for wrong answer. Take care that you mark only one answer for each question. If more than one answer is given by you for any question, the same will not be evaluated. Cutting/overwriting the answers are not allowed. Further question paper is bilingual (Hindi/English). In case of any variation in translated Hindi version, English version will be taken as final for evaluation purposes. gj lgh mÙkj ds fy, ,d vad fn;k tk;sxkA xyr mÙkj ds fy, udkjkRed vadu ykxw ugha gSA gj ,d ç'u ds fy, dsoy ,d gh mÙkj bafxr djsaA ,d ls vf/kd mÙkj nsus ij ç'u dk dksbZ vad ugha fn;k tk,xkA mÙkj esa dksbZ Hkh dfVax ;k vksojjkbZfVax ekU; ugha gksxhA iq u% ç'u i= f}Hkk"kh; ¼fgUnh ,oa va xz s th½ es a gS A vuq okfnr fgUnh la Ldj.k es a fdlh Hkh fHkérk gks us ij ew Y;ka du ds fy, va xz s th la Ldj.k dks vfUre ekuk tk;s xkA 8. After completion of examination, you are allowed to take away your question paper and your copy of OMR Sheet (Candidate’s copy). ijh{kk lekfIr ds i”pkr~ vki viuh ç”u&iqfLrdk ,oa vks-,e-vkj- dh dkcZu dkWih ¼vH;FkÊ ds fy,½ ys tk ldrs gSaA
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Delhi post office answer key

Sep 18, 2015

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Delhi post office answer key re exam of post office
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  • Question Booklet Series : 'u iqfLrdk fljht %& A Q. Booklet No. : - iqfLrdk la[;k %& 190132

    Time Allowed : 2 Hrs. Total No. Questions : 100vuqer le; % 2 ?kaVs PAPER CODE : MSETDRE01 'uksa dh dqy la[;k : 100

    Roll No. : Total No. of printed pages : 16vuqekad % eqfr i`Bksa dh dqy la[;k : 16

    Name of the Candidate (in capital letters) : ______________________________________________________________ vH;Fk dk uke % Candidate's Signature Invigilator's Signature vH;Fk ds gLrk{kj _______________________ d{k fujh{kd ds gLrk{kj _______________________

    READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY BEFORE WRITING ANYTHING ON THIS BOOKLET

    bl iqfLrdk ij dqN Hkh fy[kus ls igys fuEufyf[kr funsZ'k /;kuiwoZd i

  • PARTA (GENERAL KNOWLEDGE)

    1. The preamble to our Constitution proclaims that We the people of India have established: (A) A Sovereign, Socialistic, Secular, Democratic, Republic (B) A Sovereign, Democratic, Republic (C) A Sovereign, Secular, Democratic, Republic (D) None of the above incorrect

    1. gekjh lafo/kku dh vkeq[k ;g o.kZu djrk gS fd ge Hkkjr ds ukxfjd ,d% (A) Hkqlkk lEi] lkekftd] /keZ fujis{k tkra= ds x.kra= gSa (B) ,d Hkqlkk lEi] tkrkaf=d] x.kra= gS (C) ,d Hkqlkk lEi] /keZ fujis{k] tkrkaf=d] x.kra= gS (D) mijks esa dksbZ Hkh lgh ugha gS

    2. No citizen shall, on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, residence or any of them, be ineligible for, or discriminated against in respect of any employment or office under the state. This right is guaranteed by the constitution of India under: (A) Article 14 (B) Article 16 (C) Article 19 (D) Article 21

    2. jkT; ds vUrZxr fdlh dk;kZy; ;k jkstxkj ds lEcU/k esa dsoy /keZ] tkfr] mitkfr] fyax] oak] tUe LFkku fuokl ;k buesa ls fdlh Hkh vk/kkj ij fdlh Hkh ukxfjd dks v;ksX; ugha fd;k tk,xk ;k mlds fo:) foHksnhdj.k ugha fd;k tk,xkA Hkkjr ds lafo/kku esa ;g vf/kdkj fdlds vUrZxr xkjUVhr gS% (A) vuqlwph 14 (B) vuqlwph 16 (C) vuqlwph 19 (D) vuqlwph 21

    3. The President of India shall hold office for a term of: (A) Five years from the date on which he is declared

    elected (B) Five years from the date on which he takes oath of his

    office (C) Five years from the date on which he enters upon his

    office (D) Five years from the date on which he addresses the

    Lok Sabha

    3. Hkkjr ds jkVifr ds dk;kZy; dk dk;Zdky gksxk% (A) muds fuokZfpr gksus dh ?kksk.kk frfFk ls ikp okZ (B) muds vius dk;kZy; ds fy, kiFk xzg.k djus dh frfFk ls ikp

    okZ (C) muds vius dk;kZy; ds dk;Z&Hkkj laHkkyus dh frfFk ls ikp okZ (D) muds yksd&lHkk ds lEcksf/kr djus dh frfFk ls ikp okZ

    4. Gole Dak Khana in Delhi was formerly known as: (A) Gol Kothri (B) Alexandra Place (C) Secundra Place (D) Jai Singh House

    4. fnYyh fLFkr xksy Mkd[kkuk dks igys fdl uke ls tkuk tkrk Fkk% (A) xksy dksBjh (B) ,ysDtsUMk Iysl (C) fldUk Iysl (D) t;flag gkml

    5. Delhi was made Union territory in: (A) 1950 (B) 1956 (C) 1948 (D) 1962

    5. fnYyh dks la?k kkflr {ks= dc cuk;k x;k%

    (A) 1950 (B) 1956 (C) 1948 (D) 1962

    6. The income from Debentures is called: (A) Interest (B) Dividend (C) Profit (D) None of these

    6. _.ki=ksa ls kIr vk; dks D;k dgk tkrk gS% (A) C;kt (B) YkkHkkak (C) YkkHk (D) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

    7. BIFR stands for: (A) Board for Infrastructural and Financial Restructuring (B) Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction (C) Board for Industry and Factory Rehabilitation (D) Building and Infrastructure Financial Restructuring

    7. ch-vkbZ-,Q-vkj- lanfHkZr gS% (A) cksMZ QkWj bUkLVDpjy ,.M QkbZusfUl;y jhLVDpfjax (B) cksMZ QkWj b.MfLV;y ,.M QkbZusfUl;y fjdUlVDku (C) cksMZ QkWj b.MLVh ,.M QSDVh fjgSfcfyVsku (D) fcfYaMx ,.M bUkLVDpj QkbZusfUl;y LVDpfjax

    8. Which principle states that when a body is partially or totally immersed in a fluid, it experiences an upward thrust equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by it: (A) Newtons (B) Pascals (C) Archimedes (D) Hookes

    8. dkSu&lk fl)kUr ;g of.kZr djrk gS fd tc ,d fi.M va'kr% ;k iw.kZr% rjy esa Mqck;h tkrh gS rks rjy }kjk foLFkkfir Hkkj ds cjkcj ,d ijh frcy vuqHko djrh gS% (A) U;wVu dk (B) ikLdy dk (C) vkfdZfefMt dk (D) gwDl dk

    9. The liquid drops or gas bubbles are always spherical due to: (A) Volume tension (B) Surface tension (C) Gravitational force (D) Magnetic force

    9. o dh cwns ;k xSl ds cqycqyksa ds xksykdkj gksus dk dkj.k% (A) vk;ru ruko (B) i`"B ruko (C) xq:Roh; cy (D) pqEcdh; cy

    MSETDRE01 [1 9 0 1 3 2 ] [A1]

  • 10. An aeroplane which flies at mach 2 speed is actually flying: (A) At the speed of light (B) 200 miles per hour (C) The speed of sound (D) At twice the speed of sound

    10. ,d gokbZ tgkt tks eSd 2 xfr ij mM+ jgk gS okLro esa fdl xfr ij mM+ jgk gS% (A) dkk dh xfr ij (B) 200 ehy fr ?kaVs dh xfr ij (C) /ofu dh xfr ij (D) /ofu dh xfr ds nqxqus ij

    11. The tide produced in an ocean when the pull on the Earth by the Sun and Moon is unidirectional is called: (A) High tide (B) Spring tide (C) Neap tide (D) Low tide

    11. tc lw;Z ,o pUek dk f[kpko i`Foh ij ,d fnkh; gks rks lkxj esa mRiUu gksus okyk Tokj HkkVk gksrk gS% (A) Tokj (B) c`gn Tokj HkkVk (C) y?kq Tokj HkkVk (D) HkkVk

    12. Match List I (Phenomena) with List II (dates): LIST I (Phenomena) LIST II (Dates) A. Spring Equinox 1. June 21 B. Autumn Equinox 2. September 23 C. Winter Solstice 3. December 22 D. Summer Solstice 4. March 21 (A) A2, B3, C4, D1 (B) A4, B2, C3, D1 (C) A2, B1, C4, D3 (D) A4, B1, C2, D3

    12. lwph&I lao`fr dks lwph&II fnukd ls lqesfyr djsa% lwph&I lao`fr lwph&II fnukd A. clUr fokqo 1. twu] 21 B. kjr~ fokqo 2. flrEcj] 23 C. khr fokqo 3. fnlEcj] 22 D. xzhe fokqo 4. ekpZ 21 (A) A2, B3, C4, D1 (B) A4, B2, C3, D1 (C) A2, B1, C4, D3 (D) A4, B1, C2, D3

    13. Gahambars, Jamshed Navroj, Kordad Sal are all festivals belonging to: (A) Jains (B) Muslims (C) Buddhists (D) Parsi

    13. xgEcjl] teksn uojkst] dksjnkn lky lHkh R;kSgkj lacfU/kr gSa% (A) tSu ls (B) eqfLye ls (C) ckS) ls (D) ikjlh ls

    14. Arakan Yoma is the extension of the Himalayas located in: (A) Myanmar (B) Nepal (C) Kashmir (D) Baluchistan

    14. vjkdsu ;ksek fgeky; dk foLrkj gS] tks fLFkr gS (A) E;kUekj esa (B) usiky esa (C) dehj esa (D) cywfpLrku esa

    15. Stepwell Rani-Ki-Vav was approved as a world heritage site by the unesco recently. It is located at: (A) Rajasthan (B) Gujarat (C) Madhya Pradesh (D) Maharastra

    15. LVsiosy jkuh&dh&oko vHkh gky gh esa ;wusLdks }kjk foo dh /kjksgj LFky ds :i esa eatwj fd;k x;kA ;g fLFkr gS% (A) jktLFkku (B) xqtjkr (C) e/; nsk (D) egkjkV

    16. To mark 800th anniversary of Magna Carta (1215), four surviving copies of the world most important documents of parliamentary democracy were recently brought together as a part of celebrations in: (A) Washington (B) Delhi (C) London (D) Kathmandu

    16. eSXuk dkVkZ 1215 dh 800oha okZxkB dks eukus ds fy;s lalnh; tkra= ds bfrgkl esa foo ds lcls egRoiw.kZ pkj thfor ys[kksa dks ,d lkFk ykuk vHkh gky esa mRlo dk ,d fgLlk cukA ;g dgk euk;k x;k% (A) okfkaxVu (B) fnYyh (C) yanu (D) dkBekUMw

    17. One of the pioneering robots, that went missing into space almost a decade ago, has been recently found on the surface of red planet. Name it: (A) Beagle 2 (B) Mars2 PropM. Rover (C) Mars Rover (D) Spirit (MERA)

    17. Fke iFknkZd jkscksV tks fd ,d nkd iwoZ vUrfj{k esa [kks x;k Fkk] vHkh gky gh esa yky xzg ds lrg ij ik;k x;kA bldk uke crk,a%

    (A) Beagle 2 (B) Mars2 PropM. Rover (C) Mars Rover (D) Spirit (MERA)

    MSETDRE01 [1 9 0 1 3 2 ] [A2]

  • 18. This is a ground penetrating radar and will provide centimeter scale resolution of the geologic structure of the subsurface. This is among the seven selected payloads that will be sent to Mars 2020 rover mission: (A) MEDA (B) RIMFAX (C) SHERLOC (D) MOXIE

    18. ;g ,d Hkw&Hksnh jMkj gS ,oa ;g mi&i`Bh; dh HkkSxksfyd lajpuk dk lsaVhehVj Ldsy fjtksywku nku djsxkA ;g lkr p;fur isyksM~l esa ls ,d gS tks eaxy 2020 jksoj feku ij Hkstk tk;sxk%

    (A) MEDA (B) RIMFAX (C) SHERLOC (D) MOXIE

    19. The right to freedom from illegal detention in police custody is secured through the writ of: (A) Habeas corpus (B) Mandamus (C) Quo Warranto (D) Certiorari

    19. iqfyl fgjklr esa voS/kkfud :i ls dSn O;f ds Lora=rk ds vf/kdkj dks fdl leknsk ;kfpdk }kjk lqfufpr tk ldrk gS% (A) gSfc;l dkiZl (B) eSUMel (C) DoksokjUVks (D) lfVZ;ksjkjh

    20. To cure swine flue victims the drug being used recently is: (A) ZMapp (B) Fluvir (C) (A) & (B) both (D) None of these

    20. LokbZu yw }kjk ihfM+r jksfx;ksa us vHkh gky gh esa fdl vkSkf/k dk mi;ksx fd;k%

    (A) ZMapp (B) Fluvir (C) (A) ,oa (B) nksuksa (D) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

    21. Which of the following was the theme of world environment day, 2014? (A) Green economy, does it include you? (B) Think, Eat, Save (C) Many species, one planet, one future (D) Small Islands and climate change

    21. foo i;kZoj.k fnol 2014 dk Fkhe D;k Fkk\ (A) gfjr vFkZO;oLFkk] D;k ;g vkidks kkfey djrk gS\ (B) lkspks] [kk;ks] cpkvks (C) fofHk tkfr;k] ,d xzg] ,d Hkfo; (D) y?kq }hi ,oa ekSle ifjorZu

    22. Which gas reacts with hydrocarbon to create smog? (A) Arsenic vapour (B) Carbon dioxide (C) Nitrogen dioxide (D) Sulphur dioxide

    22. /kwedqgk iSnk djus ds fy, gkbMksdkcZu ds lkFk dkSulh xSl vfHkf;k djrh gS\ (A) vklsZfud oki (B) dkcZu Mk;ksDlkbM (C) ukbVkstu Mk;ksDlkbM (D) lYQj Mk;ksDlkbM

    23. Who became the first Indian to win three medals in successive ISSF shooting world cup 2014? (A) Abhinav Bindra (B) Gagan Narang (C) Jitu Rai (D) Vijay Kumar

    23. 2014 esa vk;ksftr ISSF kwfVax foo di esa yxkrkj rhu esMy thrus okyk igyk Hkkjrh; f[kykM+h dkSu cuk\ (A) vfHkuo fcUk (B) xxu ukjax (C) ftrw jkW; (D) fot; dqekj

    24. Who bagged World Chess Championship title (2014) held in Olympic media centre, Sochi? (A) Fabiani Caruana (B) Vishwanathan Anand (C) Magnus Carlsen (D) Vladimir Kramnik

    24. lkskh] vksfYefid ehfM;k lsUVj esa vk;ksftr dh xbZ foo krjat pSfEi;ufki 2014 dh mikf/k fdlus thrh% (A) QSch;kuh d:vkuk (B) fooukFku vkuUn (C) eSXul dkyZlu (D) Oyknehj kefud

    25. Match the books with their respective author: BOOKS AUTHORSA. Anand Math 1. Vishnu Sharma B. The God of Small Things 2. Arundhati Roy C. Panchtantra 3. Atal Behari Vajpayee D. The Road Ahead 4. Bankim Chandra Chaterji E. Geet Gata Chal 5. Bill Gates (A) A1 B2 C4 D5 E3 (B) A1 B5 C4 D5 E3 (C) A4 B2 C1 D5 E3 (D) A4 B5 C1 D3 E2

    25. fdrkcks dks muls lEc) ys[kdksa ls lqesfyr djsa% fdrkc ys[kdA. vkuUn eB 1. fo.kq kekZ B. xkM vkWQ Leky fFkaXl 2. v:U/kfr jk; C. iapra= 3. vVy fcgkjh oktisbZ D. n jksM ,gsM 4. cafde pU pVthZ E. xhr xkrk py 5. fcy xsV~l

    (A) A1 B2 C4 D5 E3 (B) A1 B5 C4 D5 E3 (C) A4 B2 C1 D5 E3 (D) A4 B5 C1 D3 E2

    MSETDRE01 [1 9 0 1 3 2 ] [A3]

  • PARTB (MATHEMATICS)

    26. Which of the following is a true statement?

    (A) and 7

    22 are both rational

    (B) and 7

    22 are both irrationals

    (C) is rational and 7

    22 is irrational

    (D) is irrational and 7

    22 is rational

    26. fuEufyf[kr esa lR; dFku crk,a%

    (A) ,oa 7

    22 nksuksa ifjes; gSa

    (B) ,oa 7

    22 nksuksa vifjes; gSa

    (C) ifjes; gS ,oa 7

    22 vifjes; gS

    (D) vifjes; gS ,oa 7

    22 ifjes; gS

    27. Among the following numbers

    126 , 43 , 54 , 3 , the least one is:

    (A) 126 (B) 43 (C) 54 (D) 3

    27. fuEufyf[kr la[;kvksa esa ls U;wure la[;k dkSu&lh gS%

    126 , 43 , 54 , 3 (A) 126 (B) 43 (C) 54 (D) 3

    28. If the duty on an article is reduced by 40% of its present rate, by how much percent must the consumption increase in order that the revenue remains unaltered?

    (A) %3260 (B) %

    3264

    (C) %3266 (D) None of these

    28. ;fn ,d oLrq ij dj mlds orZeku nj ls 40 frkr de dj fn;k tkrk gS] rks fdrus frkr miHkksx c

  • 34. A water tank is hemispherical below and cylindrical at the top. If the radius is 12 m and capacity is 3312 m3, the height of the cylindrical portion in metres is: (A) 12 (B) 13 (C) 15 (D) None of these

    34. ,d ikuh dh Vadh uhps ls v/kZxksy rFkk khkZ ij csyukdkj gSA ;fn bldh f=T;k 12 ehVj gS rFkk {kerk 3312 m3 gS rks csyukdkj Hkkx dh pkbZ fdrus ehVj gksxh%

    (A) 12 (B) 13 (C) 15 (D) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

    35. 10 sheep and 5 goats were bought for ` 6000. If the average price of a sheep is ` 450, find the average price of goat: (A) ` 370 (B) ` 355 (C) ` 325 (D) ` 300

    35. 10 HksM+ vkSj 5 cdfj;k ` 6000 esa [kjhnh tkrh gSaA ;fn ,d HksM+ dk vkSlr ewY; ` 450 gS] rks ,d cdjh dk vkSlr ewY; crkvks%

    (A) ` 370 (B) ` 355 (C) ` 325 (D) ` 300

    36. If m:n = 2:3, What is the value of n m 6n 5 m 3 + :

    (A) 73 (B)

    35

    (C) 37 (D) None of these

    36. ;fn m:n = 2:3, rks n m 6n 5 m 3 + dk eku D;k gksxk%

    (A) 73 (B)

    35

    (C) 37 (D) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

    37. The difference between simple and compound interest compounded yearly at rate of 4% in a two year period is Rs. 10/-. The amount of investment is: (A) 4500 (B) 5750 (C) 6000 (D) 6250

    37. ljy ,oa po`f) C;kt tks 4% frokZ ij fefJr fd;k tkrk gS] esa nks lky dk vUrj :- 10 gS rks fuosk fdruk gksxk%

    (A) 4500 (B) 5750 (C) 6000 (D) 6250

    38. A tyre has two punctures. The first puncture alone would have made the tyre flat in 9 minutes & the second alone would have done it in 6 minutes. If air leaks out at a constant rate, how long does it take in minutes both the punctures together to make it flat.

    (A) 533 (B)

    213

    (C) 211 (D) None of these

    38. ,d Vk;j esa nks iaDpj gSaA igyk iaDpj vdsys Vk;j ls gok 9 feuV esa fudky nsrk gS rks nwljk vdsys bls 6 feuV esaaA ;fn gok dk fjlko lrr nj ij gks jgk gS rks nksuksa iDapjks ls ,d lkFk gok fudyus ij fdrus feuV esa Vk;j lery gksxk%

    (A) 533 (B)

    213

    (C) 211 (D) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

    39. If the length of a rectangle is increased by 20% and the width is decreased by 20%, the area of the rectangle: (A) Decreases by 20% (B) Decreases by 4% (C) Increases by 40% (D) Remains unchanged

    39. ;fn ,d vk;r dh yEckbZ 20% c

  • 43. ?0.50.090.12

    2500.483.6 =

    (A) 80 (B) 800 (C) 80000 (D) 8000

    43. ?0.50.090.12

    2500.483.6 =

    (A) 80 (B) 800 (C) 80000 (D) 8000

    44. 73 of

    912 of

    1942 = ?

    (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) None of these

    44.

    1942 dk

    912 dk

    73 = \

    (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

    DIRECTIONS: The questions are based on the following information.

    Out of the total 390 students studying in a college of Arts and Science, boys and girls are in the ratio of 7:6 respectively and the number of students studying Arts and Science are in the ratio of 3:7 respectively. The boys and girls studying Arts are in the ratio of 4:5 respectively.

    45. What is the ratio between the girls studying Arts and Science respectively? (A) 8:13 (B) 13:23 (C) 23:36 (D) None of these

    funsZk% fuEufyf[kr u fuEu lwpukvksa ij vk/kkfjr gSaA dyk ,oa foKku ds ,d dkWyst esa dqy 390 i

  • PARTC (GENERAL ENGLISH)

    51. Read the following sentences. In the following sentences, in which sentence adverbs modify the whole sentence rather than any particular word: (A) Rekha runs quickly. (B) Unfortunately no one was present there. (C) This is a very sweet mango. (D) Rekha reads quite clearly.

    52. Correct the following sentence. Distribute mangoes between the boys of the class. (A) Distribute mangoes amidst the boys (B) Distribute mangoes among the boys of the class. (C) Let the mangoes to distribute between the boys. (D) The boys of the class distributed manages.

    53. In the following question pick the correct spelt word. (A) Typhoid (B) Typhyiod (C) Typhyoid (D) Typhiod

    54. Fill in the blank with correct preposition. Rita drove . a red light.: (A) From (B) Through (C) In (D) Among

    55. Choose the most appropriate preposition and complete the sentences. He is on very familiar terms ......... his boss: (A) for (B) to (C) by (D) with

    56. Choose the most appropriate preposition and complete the sentences. We have lost faith ......... the governments promises: (A) on (B) over (C) in (D) with

    57. In the following sentence a word or phrase is underlined and given a number. Pick a choice of number where the error lies.

    1television The

    2discovered was

    3Baird John by

    4error no

    (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

    58. Pick the correct spelt word. (A) Diarhoea (B) Diarrheoa (C) Diarrhoea (D) Diaryhia

    59. Use appropriate compound conjunction to fill up the blank to make the sentence complete. You can borrow the book ........... you return it soon.

    (A) In as much that (B) as soon as (C) as though (D) provided that

    60. Pick the correct spelt word. (A) Numereology (B) Numerology (C) Numbereology (D) Numeriology

    61. Choose the exact meaning of the idioms/phrases from the given alternatives: Duck in a thunderstorm (A) Distressed (B) Peaceful (C) Entrapped (D) Timid

    62. The passive voice of "Laborers are making the road." is: (A) The road is being made by laborers. (B) The road is made by laborers. (C) The road has been made by laborers. (D) The road was being made by laborers.

    63. Which sentence is in passive voice? (A) I know him. (B) We have missed the train. (C) A prize was won by me. (D) I won a prize.

    MSETDRE01 [1 9 0 1 3 2 ] [A7]

  • 64. Identify the incorrect plural: (A) Swine (B) Sheep (C) Species (D) Aircrafts

    65. Change the sentence into indirect speech. Ram said to the boy, why will you not play with me? (A) Ram said the boy why he will not play with me? (B) Ram asked the boy why he would not play with him. (C) Ram told the boy to play with him. (D) Ram asked the boy why will hot play with me.

    66. Correct the following sentence. Either of the two boys have stolen my pen. (A) Two boys have stolen my pen. (B) Either of the two boys has stolen my pen. (C) Either of the two boys stole my pen (D) Either of the two boys will steal my pen.

    67. The indirect form of the sentence: Aftabh asked his wife, " Where is my book?" is: (A) Aftabh asked his wife where is my book. (B) Aftabh asked his wife where his book was. (C) Aftabh asked his wife where his book is. (D) Aftabh asked his wife where is his book.

    68. The indirect form of the sentence: Anita said, "I went to Australia last year" is: (A) Anita said that I went Australia last year. (B) Anita said that she went to Australia last year. (C) Anita said that she had gone to Australia a year before that year. (D) Anita said that I had gone to Australia last year.

    69. Mark the appropriate words to fill in the blanks. God helps those .. help themselves. (A) Who (B) Which (C) That (D) Whom

    70. A Group of flies is a .......: (A) Flock (B) Swarm (C) Gaggle (D) Nest

    71. For the following capitalized words, select from among the given alternatives, a word or a phrase nearly opposite in meaning.

    GUSTO (A) Indifference (B) High spirits (C) Lull (D) Lasting

    72. Select the word that is most similar in meaning to the word in Capital letters: NAIVE (A) Novice (B) Dishonest (C) Disciplined (D) Traditional

    73. Identify the correct sentence: (A) It is a three- years degree course. (B) Each student must bring their books. (C) I have ten dozens of shoes. (D) The collector and the District Magistrate is on leave.

    74. Identify the incorrect sentence: (A) The number of students is very small. (B) A number of books are missing. (C) Ram, as well as his ten friends, is going. (D) Many a man were drowned in the sea.

    75. Identify the correct tense which has been used in this sentence. By the end of this year he will have saved a lot of money. (A) Future continuous tense (B) Future perfect tense (C) Future perfect continuous tense (D) Simple future tense

    MSETDRE01 [1 9 0 1 3 2 ] [A8]

  • PARTD (REASONING)

    DIRECTIONS: (Question No. 76 & 77) In the following questions, each question is followed by two statements labeled I and II in which certain data is given. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Using the data given together with your everyday knowledge, choose.

    A. If statements I alone is sufficient but statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

    B. If statement II alone is sufficient but statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

    C. If both statement I and II together are sufficient to answer but neither statement alone is sufficient to answer the question.

    D. If I & II together are not sufficient to answer the question and additional information is required?

    76. Did congress receive more than 40% of the 30000 votes cast in an election? I. BJP received 45% of the votes II. Congress received exactly 11000 votes (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D

    funsZk% u la[;k 76 ,oa 77 fuEufyf[kr uksa esa R;sd u ds ckn nks dFku I vkSj II dqN vkdM+ksa lfgr fn, x, gSaA vkidksa ;g fu.kZ; djuk gS fd D;k dFkuksa esa fn, x, vkadM+s uksa ds mkj nsus ds fy, i;kZIr gSa\ fn, x, vkdM+ksa dk ;ksx djrs gq, vius jkstejkZ Kku dk ;ksx djrs gq, p;u djsaA

    A. ;fn dFku I dsoy i;kZIr gS ysfdu dFku II vdsys u dk mkj nsus ds fy, i;kZIr ugha gS

    B. ;fn dFku II vdsys i;kZIr gS ysfdu dFku I vdsys u dk mkj nsus ds fy, i;kZIr ugha gS

    C. ;fn nksuksa dFku I ,oa II ,d lkFk mkj nsus ds fy, i;kZIr gSa ysfdu dksbZ Hkh dFku vdsys mkj nsus ds fy, i;kZIr ugha gS

    D. ;fn I ,oa II ,d lkFk u dk mkj nsus ds fy, i;kZIr ugha gSa ,oa vfrfj vkdM+ksa dh t:jr gSA

    76. D;k dkxzsl us ,d pquko esa 30 gtkj Mkys x, erksa ds 40% ls vf/kd er kIr fd, I. ch-ts-ih- dks 45% er feys II. dkxzsl dks Bhd 11000 er feys (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D

    77. What was the combined average attendance per game at the games at National stadium for the month of September and October? I. The total attendance for the month of September was

    23100 and the total attendance for the month October was 25200

    II. There were 20 games played in September and 22 games played in October

    (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D

    77. flrEcj ,oa vDVwcj eghus esa uskuy LVsfV;e esa [ksys x, fr [ksy dk la;q vkSlr mifLFkfr D;k Fkh\ I. flrEcj ds eghus esa dqy mifLFkfr 23100 ,oa vDVwcj ds

    eghus esa dqy mifLFkfr 25200 Fkh II. flrEcj ds eghus esa 20 [ksy ,oa vDVwcj ds eghus esa 22 [ksy

    [ksys x,A (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D

    DIRECTIONS: Complete the Series in the following figures.

    funsZk% fuEufyf[kr vkfr dh Js.kh dks iw.kZ djsaA

    78. Question figure u vkfr Answer figure mkj vkfr

    ? 78. (A) (B) (C) (D)

    DIRECTIONS: Select the suitable alternative to satisfy the relationship in following question. funsZk% fuEufyf[kr u esa vkilh lEcU/k nkkZus okyk dkSu&lk lgh fodYi gSA

    79. Question figure u vkfr Answer figure mkj vkfr x

    x x x

    x x

    79. (A) (B) (C) (D)

    80. Pick the odd one out. (A) Water (B) Vapour (C) Steam (D) Fuel

    80. fuEufyf[kr esa ls vlaxr dks pqfu,A (A) ty (B) oki (C) Hkki (D) bZa/ku

    MSETDRE01 [1 9 0 1 3 2 ] [A9]

  • DIRECTIONS: (Questions No. 81 to 83) Two ants are climbing a slippery wall. At time=0, both are at the bottom of the wall. Ants A climbs at the rate of 3 inches a minute. Ant B climbs at the rate of 4 inches a minute. Due to the slippery wall, however, Ant A slips back 1 inch for every 2 inches climbed and Ant B 1.5 inches for every 2 inches. More over Ant A takes a rest of 1 minute after every 2 minutes and Ant B a rest of 1 minute after every 3 minutes. Assume that slipping occurs continuously when climbing.

    81. At what height do the two ants meet each other: (A) Do not meet (B) 3 inches (C) 5 inches (D) 12 inches

    funsZ'k% 'u la[;k 81 ls 83 nks phVh;k ,d fQlyu okyh fnokj ij p

  • INSTRUCTIONS: (Question No. 86 & 87) An argument is followed by two statements. Pick a choice as follows.

    A. If statement I strengthens the argument B. If statements II strengthens the argument C. If both statements I & II strengthen the argument D. If neither statement I nor II strengthen the argument

    86. People in the Northern Hemisphere are more prone to cancer than in the Southern Hemisphere:

    STATEMENTS: I. The population of Southern Hemisphere is less than

    the Northern. II. An Australian study has established that cancer rate is

    enhanced by specific pollutants which dominate the Northern Hemisphere compared to Southern.

    (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D

    funsZ'k% 'u la[;k 86 ,oa 87 ,d rdZ ds ckn nks dFku fn;s x;s gSa fuEukuqlkj fodYiksa dk p;u djsaA

    A. ;fn dFku I rdZ dks etcwr djrk gS B. ;fn dFku II rdZ dks etcwr djrk gS C. ;fn dFku I o II nksuksa rdks dks etcwr djrs gSa D. ;fn u rks dFku I vkSj u gh II rdZ dks etcwr djrsa gSa

    86. mkjh xksyk/kZ jgus okys yksxksa dks dSalj ls [krjk T;knk gksrk gS rqyuk esa nf{k.kh xksyk/kZ ds% dFku% I. nf{k.kh xksyk/kZ dh tula[;k mkjh xksyk/kZ ls de gS II. vkLVsfy;kbZ v/;;u ls irk pyk gS fd dSalj nj esa o`f)

    fof'k"V nw"k.k ls gksrk gS ftldk mkjh xksyk/kZ esa HkqRo gS rqyuk esa nf{k.kh xksyk/kZ ds

    (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D

    87. The development of a proper storage and canal system in India is likely to alleviate the problems caused by variability in Monsoon patterns: STATEMENTS: I. Records show agricultural production to be highly

    dependent on the Monsoons. II. Higher rainfall in catchment areas causes more

    flooding in the plains. (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D

    87. mfpr HkaMkj.k dk fodkl ,oa Hkkjrh; ugj .kkyh ekulwu iSVuZ esa fofHkrk ls mRi leL;k dks lewy u"V dj nsxh% dFku% I. ys[kksa ls nf'kZr gksrk gS fd f"k mRiknu cgqr gh T;knk

    ekulwu ij fuHkZj djrk gSA II. vkokg {ks= esa T;knk ckfj'k eSnkuh Hkkxksa esa T;knk ck

  • DIRECTION: Select the choice out of the given choices which gives the given words in the correct alphabetical order.

    91. Bald, Bead, Birth, Bomb: (A) Bald, Bead, Birth, Bomb (B) Bead, Bald, Bomb, Birth (C) Birth, Bomb, Bald, Bead (D) Bomb, Bald, Bead, Birth

    funsZk% fuEufyf[kr fn;s gq, kCnksa dks fn, x;s fodYiksa esa ls vaxzsth o.kZekyk ds vuqlkj lgh e esa vkus okys fodYi dk pquko djsa%

    91. Bald, Bead, Birth, Bomb%

    (A) Bald, Bead, Birth, Bomb (B) Bead, Bald, Bomb, Birth (C) Birth, Bomb, Bald, Bead (D) Bomb, Bald, Bead, Birth

    92. Parrots, Males, Mammals are best represented by:

    (A)

    (B)

    (C)

    (D)

    92. rksrk] uj] Lru/kkjh dks loZJsB frfuf/kRo djrk gS%

    (A)

    (B)

    (C)

    (D)

    DIRECTIONS: In the following question, four words have been given, out of which three are a like in some manner, while the fourth one is different.

    93. Choose out the odd one (A) Phi (B) Gamma (C) Peso (D) Beta

    funsZk% fuEufyf[kr u esa pkj kCn gSa ftuesa ls rhu dk fdlh u fdlh :i esa leku vFkZ gS tcfd pkSFkk vyx gSA

    93. foke dks pqusaA (A) QkbZ (B) xkek (C) islks (D) fcVk

    94. If OVER is coded as RZJX, and US as XW, then STEM is coded as (A) VUJX (B) XJID (C) VXJS (D) XVUW

    94. vxj OVER dks RZJX dksM djrs gSa rFkk US dk XW dksM gS] rc STEM dk dksM D;k gksxk%

    (A) VUJX (B) XJID (C) VXJS (D) XVUW

    95. If BUILDING is coded as CVJMEJOH and INSTITUTE is coded as JOTUJUVUF, what will be the codes for the following? LUCKNOW and PATNA (A) MVDLOPX and QBUOB (B) MUDLOPY and QBUOB (C) MVDPLOX and QAUOB (D) MVDLOPY and QBUOB

    95. ;fn BUILDING dk dksM CVJMEJOH rFkk INSTITUTE dk dksM JOTUJUVUF gS] rks fuEufyf[kr dk dksM D;k gksxk\ LUCKNOW rFkk PATNA (A) MVDLOPX rFkk QBUOB (B) MUDLOPY rFkk QBUOB (C) MVDPLOX rFkk QAUOB (D) MVDLOPY rFkk QBUOB

    96. When it is 10:00 am in Cologne (Germany), the time in Delhi (India) is 2:30 pm the same day. Rajiv caught a flight from Cologne to Delhi at 2:30 pm (according to the time of Cologne). At what time will he reach Delhi by the time of Delhi if the flying time of the flight was 4 hours? (A) 10:00 PM (B) 6:30 PM (C) 11:00 PM (D) 8:00 PM

    96. tc teZuh dksyksu esa 10 AM gksrk gS rc fnYyh Hkkjr esa mlh fnu 2:30 PM le; gksrk gSA jktho us dksyksu ls fnYyh ds fy, 2:30 PM ij dksyksu ds le; ds vuqlkj ,d ykbZV idM+hA fnYyh ds le; ds vuqlkj fnYyh og dc igqpsxk ;fn ykbZV dk mM+u le; 4 ?kaVs gks% (A) 10:00 PM (B) 6:30 PM (C) 11:00 PM (D) 8:00 PM

    MSETDRE01 [1 9 0 1 3 2 ] [A12]

  • 97. In a 20 pages book, pages 1 and 2 face each other, 3 and 4 face each other, 5 and 6 face each other. This pattern is repeated till the end. The product of 2 pages facing each other in this book cannot be: (A) 184 (B) 132 (C) 90 (D) 56

    97. ,d 20 i`B okyh fdrkc esa] i`B 1 ,oa 2, 3 ,oa 4, 5 ,oa 6 ,d nwljs ds lEeq[k gSaA ;g f;k vUr rd nqgjkbZ tkrh gSA lEeq[k okys nks i`Bksa dk xq.kuQy ugha gks ldrk%

    (A) 184 (B) 132 (C) 90 (D) 56

    DIRECTIONS: In the following figure, the circle stands for criminal background, the Hexagon stands for politician, the triangle stands for rural and rectangle stands for wealthy. Study the figure carefully and answer the question that follow.

    98. Non rural wealthy politician with criminal background are indicated by region: (A) 11 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 3

    funsZk% fuEufyf[kr js[kk fp= esa o`k&vkijkf/kd i`BHkwfe okyksa dks nfkZr djrk gS] kBdks.k&jktuhfrK dks nfkZr djrk gS] f=Hkqt&xzkeh.k dks rFkk vk;r&/kuoku dks nfkZr djrk gSA js[kkfp= dk /;kuiwoZd v/;;u djsa rFkk fuEufyf[kr u dk mkj nsaA

    98. xSj xzkeh.k /kuoku jktuhfrK tks vkijkf/kd i`BHkwfe ds gSa] dks dkSu lk {ks= nfkZr djrk gS%

    (A) 11 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 3

    99. Anu is the mother of Durga and sister of Bina. Bina has a daughter Chandra married to Fakir. Girdhari is the husband of Anu. How is Girdhari related to Durga: (A) Husband (B) Son (C) Father (D) Uncle

    99. vuq nqxkZ dh ek rFkk chuk dh cgu gSA chuk dh ,d iq=h pUk gS ftldk fookg Qdhj ls gqvk gSA fxj/kkjh vuq dk ifr gSA fxj/kkjh nqxkZ ls fdl dkj lEcfU/kr gS% (A) ifr (B) iq= (C) firk (D) pkpk

    DIRECTIONS: The given figure represents a multiplication operation, where each alphabet represents a different number.

    4 9 5 v z z 4 7 y x w z z

    +

    100. What is the value of z ? (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) None of these

    funsZ'k% nh gqbZ la[;k ,d xq.ku f;k dks n'kkZrh gSA tgka R;sd o.kZ ,d fHkUu la[;k dks nf'kZr djrk gSA

    4 9 5 v z z 4 7 y x w z z

    +

    100. z dk eku D;k gS\

    (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

    MSETDRE01 [1 9 0 1 3 2 ] [A13]