1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this page. 2. This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of questions. 3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet. (ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. (iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. 4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the correct response against each item. Example : where (C) is the correct response. 5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair means such as change of response by scratching or using white fluid, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. 9. You have to return the test question booklet and Original OMR Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed to carry duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination. 10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. 12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. 13. In case of any discrepancy in the English and Hindi versions, English version will be taken as final. Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75 Instructions for the Candidates ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖÙ£ÖμÖÖë Ûê ×»Ö‹ ×®Ö¤ì¿Ö 1. ‡ÃÖ ¯Öéš Ûê ‰ ¯Ö¸ ×®ÖμÖŸÖ Ã£ÖÖ®Ö ¯Ö¸ †¯Ö®ÖÖ ¸Öê»Ö ®Ö´²Ö¸ ×»Ö×ÜÖ‹ … 2. ‡ÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Ö¡Ö ´Öë ¯Ö“ÖÆ¢Ö¸ ²ÖÆã×¾ÖÛ »¯ÖßμÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö Æï … 3. ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖ ¯ÖÏÖ¸´³Ö ÆÖê®Öê ¯Ö¸, ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ßÖÛ Ö †Ö¯ÖÛ Öê ¤ê ¤ß •ÖÖμÖêÝÖß … ¯ÖÆ»Öê ¯ÖÖÑ“Ö ×´Ö®Ö™ †Ö¯ÖÛ Öê ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ßÖÛ Ö ÜÖÖê»Ö®Öê ŸÖ£ÖÖ ˆÃÖÛ ß ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ •ÖÖÑ“Ö Ûê ×»Ö‹ פ μÖê •ÖÖμÖëÝÖê, וÖÃÖÛ ß •ÖÖÑ“Ö †Ö¯ÖÛ Öê †¾Ö¿μÖ Û ¸®Öß Æî : (i) ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ßÖÛ Ö ÜÖÖê»Ö®Öê Ûê ×»Ö‹ ˆÃÖÛê Û ¾Ö¸ ¯Öê•Ö ¯Ö¸ »ÖÝÖß Û ÖÝÖ•Ö Û ß ÃÖß»Ö Û Öê ± Ö›Ì »Öë … ÜÖã»Öß Æã‡Ô μÖÖ ×²Ö®ÖÖ Ã™ßÛ ¸-ÃÖß»Ö Û ß ¯Öã×ßÖÛ Ö Ã¾ÖßÛ Ö¸ ®Ö Û ¸ë … (ii) Û ¾Ö¸ ¯Öéš ¯Ö¸ ”¯Öê ×®Ö¤ì¿ÖÖ®ÖãÃÖÖ¸ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ßÖÛ Ö Ûê ¯Öéš ŸÖ£ÖÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®ÖÖë Û ß ÃÖÓÜμÖÖ Û Öê †“”ß ŸÖ¸Æ “ÖîÛ Û ¸ »Öë ×Û μÖê ¯Öæ¸ê Æï … ¤Öê ÂÖ¯Öæ ÞÖÔ ¯Öã ×ßÖÛ Ö ×•Ö®Ö´Öë ¯Öé š/¯ÖÏ ¿®Ö Û ´Ö ÆÖë μÖÖ ¤ã²ÖÖ¸Ö †Ö ÝÖμÖê ÆÖë μÖÖ ÃÖß׸ μÖ»Ö ´Öë ®Ö ÆÖë †£ÖÖÔŸÖË ×Û ÃÖß ³Öß ¯ÖÏÛ Ö¸ Û ß ¡Öã×™¯ÖæÞÖÔ ¯Öã×ßÖÛ Ö Ã¾ÖßÛ Ö¸ ®Ö Û ¸ë ŸÖ£ÖÖ ˆÃÖß ÃÖ´Ö μ Ö ˆÃÖê »ÖÖî™ÖÛ ¸ ˆÃÖÛê ãÖÖ®Ö ¯Ö¸ ¤æÃÖ¸ß ÃÖÆß ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ßÖÛ Ö »Öê »Öë … ‡ÃÖÛê ×»Ö‹ †Ö¯ÖÛ Öê ¯ÖÖÑ“Ö ×´Ö®Ö™ פ μÖê •ÖÖμÖëÝÖê … ˆÃÖÛê ²ÖÖ¤ ®Ö ŸÖÖê †Ö¯ÖÛ ß ¯ÖÏ ¿®Ö-¯Öã ×ßÖÛ Ö ¾ÖÖ¯ÖÃÖ »Öß •ÖÖμÖê ÝÖß †Öî ¸ ®Ö Æß †Ö¯ÖÛ Öê †×ŸÖ׸ŒŸÖ ÃÖ´ÖμÖ ×¤μÖÖ •ÖÖμÖê ÝÖÖ … (iii) ‡ÃÖ •ÖÖÑ“Ö Ûê ²ÖÖ¤ OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛ Û ß ÛÎ ´Ö ÃÖÓÜμÖÖ ‡ÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ßÖÛ Ö ¯Ö¸ †Ó×Û ŸÖ Û ¸ ¤ë … 4. ¯ÖÏŸμÖêÛ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö Ûê ×»Ö‹ “ÖÖ¸ ˆ¢Ö¸ ×¾ÖÛ »¯Ö (A), (B), (C) ŸÖ£ÖÖ (D) פ μÖê ÝÖμÖê Æï … †Ö¯ÖÛ Öê ÃÖÆß ˆ¢Ö¸ Ûê ¾Öé¢Ö Û Öê ¯Öê®Ö ÃÖê ³Ö¸Û ¸ Û Ö»ÖÖ Û ¸®ÖÖ Æî •ÖîÃÖÖ ×Û ®Öß“Öê פÜÖÖμÖÖ ÝÖμÖÖ Æî … ˆ¤ÖƸÞÖ : •Ö²Ö×Û (C) ÃÖÆß ˆ¢Ö¸ Æî … 5. ¯ÖÏ¿®ÖÖë Ûê ˆ¢Ö¸ Ûê ¾Ö»Ö ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö ¯Öã×ßÖÛ Ö Ûê †®¤¸ פ μÖê ÝÖμÖê OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛ ¯Ö¸ Æß †Ó×Û ŸÖ Û ¸®Öê Æï … μÖפ †Ö¯Ö OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛ ¯Ö¸ פ μÖê ÝÖμÖê ¾Öé¢Ö Ûê †»ÖÖ¾ÖÖ ×Û ÃÖß †®μÖ Ã£ÖÖ®Ö ¯Ö¸ ˆ¢Ö¸ דÖÅ®ÖÖÓ×Û ŸÖ Û ¸ŸÖê Æï, ŸÖÖê ˆÃÖÛ Ö ´Öæ»μÖÖÓÛ ®Ö ®ÖÆà ÆÖêÝÖÖ … 6. †®¤¸ פ μÖê ÝÖμÖê ×®Ö¤ì¿ÖÖë Û Öê ¬μÖÖ®Ö¯Öæ¾ÖÔÛ ¯ÖœÌë … 7. Û ““ÖÖ Û Ö´Ö (Rough Work) ‡ÃÖ ¯Öã×ßÖÛ Ö Ûê †×®ŸÖ´Ö ¯Öéš ¯Ö¸ Û ¸ë … 8. μÖפ †Ö¯Ö OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛ ¯Ö¸ ×®ÖμÖŸÖ Ã£ÖÖ®Ö Ûê †»ÖÖ¾ÖÖ †¯Ö®ÖÖ ®ÖÖ´Ö, ¸Öê»Ö ®Ö´²Ö¸, ± Öê®Ö ®Ö´²Ö¸ μÖÖ Û Öê‡Ô ³Öß ‹êÃÖÖ ×“ÖÅ®Ö ×•ÖÃÖÃÖê †Ö¯ÖÛ ß ¯ÖÆ“ÖÖ®Ö ÆÖê ÃÖÛê , †Ó×Û ŸÖ Û ¸ŸÖê Æï †£Ö¾ÖÖ †³Ö¦ ³ÖÖÂÖÖ Û Ö ¯ÖÏ μÖÖêÝÖ Û ¸ŸÖê Æï, μÖÖ Û Öê‡Ô †®μÖ †®Öã×“ÖŸÖ ÃÖÖ¬Ö®Ö Û Ö ¯ÖÏ μÖÖêÝÖ Û ¸ŸÖê Æï, •ÖîÃÖê ×Û †Ó×Û ŸÖ ×Û μÖê ÝÖμÖê ˆ¢Ö¸ Û Öê ×´Ö™Ö®ÖÖ μÖÖ ÃÖ±ê ¤ ÃμÖÖÆß ÃÖê ²Ö¤»Ö®ÖÖ ŸÖÖê ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖ Ûê ×»ÖμÖê †μÖÖêÝμÖ ‘ÖÖê×ÂÖŸÖ ×Û μÖê •ÖÖ ÃÖÛ ŸÖê Æï … 9. †Ö¯ÖÛ Öê ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖ¯ŸÖ ÆÖê®Öê ¯Ö¸ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×ßÖÛ Ö ‹¾ÖÓ ´Öæ»Ö OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛ ×®Ö¸ßõÖÛ ´ÖÆÖê¤ μÖ Û Öê »ÖÖî™Ö®ÖÖ †Ö¾Ö¿μÖÛ Æî †Öî¸ ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖׯŸÖ Ûê ²ÖÖ¤ ˆÃÖê †¯Ö®Öê ÃÖÖ£Ö ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖ ³Ö¾Ö®Ö ÃÖê ²ÖÖƸ ®Ö »ÖêÛ ¸ •ÖÖμÖë … ÆÖ»ÖÖÓ×Û †Ö¯Ö ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖׯŸÖ ¯Ö¸ OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛ Û ß ›ã¯»ÖßÛê ™ ¯ÖÏ×ŸÖ †¯Ö®Öê ÃÖÖ£Ö »Öê •ÖÖ ÃÖÛ ŸÖê Æï … 10. Ûê ¾Ö»Ö ®Öß»Öê/Û Ö»Öê ²ÖÖ»Ö ¯¾ÖÖ‡Õ™ ¯Öê®Ö Û Ö Æß ‡ÃŸÖê´ÖÖ»Ö Û ¸ë … 11. ×Û ÃÖß ³Öß ¯ÖÏÛ Ö¸ Û Ö ÃÖÓÝÖÞÖÛ (Ûî »ÖÛã »Öꙸ) μÖÖ »ÖÖÝÖ ™ê²Ö»Ö †Öפ Û Ö ¯ÖÏ μÖÖêÝÖ ¾ÖÙ•ÖŸÖ Æî … 12. ÝÖ»ÖŸÖ ˆ¢Ö¸Öë Ûê ×»Ö‹ Û Öê‡Ô ®ÖÛ Ö¸ÖŸ´ÖÛ †ÓÛ ®ÖÆà Æï … 13. μÖפ †ÓÝÖÏê•Öß μÖÖ ØÆ¤ß ×¾Ö¾Ö¸ÞÖ ´Öë Û Öê‡Ô ×¾ÖÃÖÓÝÖ×ŸÖ ÆÖê, ŸÖÖê †ÓÝÖÏê•Öß ×¾Ö¾Ö¸ÞÖ †Ó×ŸÖ´Ö ´ÖÖ®ÖÖ •ÖÖ‹ÝÖÖ … [Maximum Marks : 150 Time : 2 1 / 2 hours] PAPER-III LAW (To be filled by the Candidate) Signature and Name of Invigilator OMR Sheet No. : ............................................... Roll No. (In words) 1. (Signature) __________________________ (Name) ____________________________ 2. (Signature) __________________________ (Name) ____________________________ Roll No.________________________________ 58 (In figures as per admission card) D 1 3 D-58-13 1 P.T.O.
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1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top ofthis page.
2. This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type ofquestions.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question bookletwill be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requestedto open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accepta booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an openbooklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questionsin the booklet with the information printed on thecover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questionsmissing or duplicate or not in serial order or anyother discrepancy should be got replaced immediatelyby a correct booklet from the invigilator within theperiod of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the QuestionBooklet will be replaced nor any extra time will begiven.
(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Numbershould be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below onthe correct response against each item.Example :where (C) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMRSheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at anyplace other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not beevaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the spaceallotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose youridentity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfairmeans such as change of response by scratching or usingwhite fluid, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return the test question booklet and OriginalOMR Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examinationcompulsorily and must not carry it with you outside theExamination Hall. You are, however, allowed to carry duplicatecopy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.13. In case of any discrepancy in the English and Hindi versions,
English version will be taken as final.
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75Instructions for the Candidates ¯Ö¸üßõÖÖÙ£ÖμÖÖë Ûêú ×»Ö‹ ×®Ö¤ìü¿Ö
3. The Supreme Court of India held in which of the following case that the views expressed by it in exercise of its advisory jurisdiction are binding on all courts within the territory of India ?
(A) In Re-Berubari case (B) In Re-Cauvery Water Disputes
Tribunal case (C) In Re-Kerala Education Bill (D) In Re-Special Courts Bill
4. In which one of the following case has the Supreme Court upheld the Constitutional validity of the Constitution (93rd Amendment) introducing Article 15(5) ?
(A) TMA Pai Foundation Vs. State of Karnataka
(B) Indra Sawhney Vs. Union of India
(C) M. Nagaraj Vs. Union of India (D) Ashok Kumar Thakur Vs.
Union of India
5. Match List ‘A’ with List ‘B’ and
select the correct answer using the codes given below :
List – ‘A’ List – ‘B’ a. Independence
of the Judiciary
i. Administrative adjudication
b. Executive Legislation
ii. Parliamentary form of Government
c. Quasi-Judicial function
iii. Appointment of Judges
d. Collective responsibility
iv. Ordinance
Codes : a b c d (A) ii i iv iii (B) iii iv i ii (C) ii iv i iii (D) iii i iv ii 6. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
and find correct answer using codes given below :
Assertion (A) : The Council of Ministers is the hub of the Parliamentary form of Government.
Reason (R) : The Government is formed from the majority party.
Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true but
(R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, (R) is false. (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true. 7. The jurisdiction of the Supreme
Court of India may be enlarged by (A) The President of India (B) The President of India in
consultation with the Prime Minister and Chief Justice of India
(C) The Parliament by resolution (D) The Parliament by law.
LAW Paper – III
Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. Allquestions are compulsory.
8. What are exceptions to the rule of natural justice ? Answer using codes given below :
i. Exclusion by statutory provisions.
ii. Exclusion by Constitutional provision.
iii. Exclusion in case of legislative act.
iv. Exclusion in public interest. Codes : (A) Only i is correct. (B) Only i and ii are correct. (C) Only i, ii and iii are correct. (D) All of above are correct.
9. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and find correct answer using codes given below :
Assertion (A) : In India the order passed in violation of the principles of natural justice is void.
Reason (R) : In India there is void in the area of principles of justice by nature.
Codes : (A) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
correct explanation of (A). (B) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
not correct explanation of (A). (C) (A) is true and (R) is false. (D) (A) is false and (R) is true.
10. In which of the following conditions, the abuse of discretionary power is inferred ?
i. Use for improper purpose ii. Mala fide iii. Relevant consideration iv. Leaving out irrelevant
consideration Answer using codes given below : Codes : (A) Only i is correct. (B) Only i and ii are correct. (C) Only i, ii and iii are correct. (D) All of above are correct.
11. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and find correct answer using codes given below :
Assertion (A) : Equality is antithetic to arbitrariness.
Reason (R) : Article 14 of the Indian Constitution prevents arbitrary discretion being vested in the executive.
Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
12. The writ of habeas corpus will be issued if
(A) Detention is legal. (B) Detention is prima facie legal. (C) Detention is prima facie illegal. (D) Detention is primarily illegal.
13. Reading Assertion (A) and Reason (R), select correct answer using codes given below :
Assertion (A) : Lokpal is the demand of time.
Reason (R) : Lokpal is a time saving institution.
Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and
(R) is correct explanation of (A). (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but
(R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
14. “Administrative Law is the law concerning the powers and procedures of administrative agencies, including especially the law governing judicial review of administrative action.” This definition of Administrative Law is given by :
(A) Ivor Jenning (B) Garner (C) K.C. Davis (D) Wade
15. In which of the following grounds, a writ of certiorari may be issued ?
(A) Error of jurisdiction (B) Error apparent on face of
record (C) Violation of natural justice (D) All of the above
i. ×¾Ö׬ÖÛú ¯ÖÏÖ¾Ö¬ÖÖ®ÖÖë «üÖ¸üÖ ¾Ö•ÖÔ®Ö ii. ÃÖÓ¾Öî¬ÖÖ×®ÖÛú ¯ÖÏÖ¾Ö¬ÖÖ®ÖÖë «üÖ¸üÖ ¾Ö•ÖÔ®Ö iii. ×¾Ö¬ÖÖµÖß ÛúÖµÖÔ «üÖ¸üÖ ¾Ö•ÖÔ®Ö iv. »ÖÖêÛú ×ÆüŸÖ ´Öë ¾Ö•ÖÔ®Ö Ûæú™ü : (A) ×ÃÖ±Ôú i ÃÖÆüß Æîü … (B) ×ÃÖ±Ôú i †Öî ü ii ÃÖÆüß Æïü … (C) ×ÃÖ±Ôú i, ii †Öî ü iii ÃÖÆüß Æïü … (D) ˆ¯Ö¸üÖêŒŸÖ ÃÖ³Öß ÃÖÆüß Æïü … 9. †×³ÖÛú£Ö®Ö (A) †Öî ü ÛúÖ¸üÞÖ (ŸÖÛÔú) (R) ÛúÖê
i. †®Öã×“ÖŸÖ ¯ÖϵÖÖê•Ö®Ö Ûêú ×»ÖµÖê ii. ¤ãü¸üÖ¿ÖµÖ iii. ÃÖãÃÖÓÝÖŸÖ ¯ÖÏןֱú»Ö iv. †ÃÖãÃÖÓÝÖŸÖ ¯ÖÏןֱú»Ö ÛúÖê ²ÖÖÆü¸ü ”ûÖê›ÌüüÛú¸ü ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖŸÖ Ûæú™üÖë Ûúß ´Ö¤ü¤ü ÃÖê ˆ¢Ö¸ü ¤üßוֵÖê : Ûæú™ü : (A) ×ÃÖ±Ôú i ÃÖÆüß Æîü … (B) ×ÃÖ±Ôú i †Öî ü ii ÃÖÆüß Æïü … (C) ×ÃÖ±Ôú i, ii †Öî ü iii ÃÖÆüß Æïü … (D) ˆ¯Ö¸üÖêŒŸÖ ÃÖ³Öß ÃÖÆüß Æïü …
Extortion is _______, when it is committed under fear of instant hurt.
(A) Theft (B) Attempt to murder (C) Robbery (D) Wrongful restraint 25. Fill in the blank with suitable
statement : Z dies in possession of gold ring, gold
chain and a gold wrist watch during the course of an accident. A, before anyone entitled to such possession, dishonestly misappropriates the same causing ______.
(A) An aggravated form of misappropriation as per Section 404 of IPC.
(B) A type of possession by some process as per Section 405 of IPC.
(C) No offence because the property in question was entrusted to A before the death of Z.
(D) No offence because the property in question was possessed by some casualty.
26. Fill in the blank with correct
proposition of law : The malicious injury to property as
per maxim Sic Utre tuo ut allenum non leadas (to use your own property so as not to injure your neighbour’s property as provided in______.
(A) Damage of property as per Section 427 IPC.
(B) Mischief as per Section 425 IPC.
(C) Mischief to cause wrongful restraint as per Section 440 IPC.
(D) Destruction of landmark as per Section 433 IPC.
27. Read Assertion I and Reason II and with the help of codes given below write the appropriate answer :
I. Assertion The distinctive feature between
preparation and attempt must be based on.
II. Reason Preparation consists in devising
means necessary for the commission of offence while attempt is the direct movement towords commission.
Codes : (A) Both I and II are true but II is
not correct explanation of I. (B) Both I and II are true while II is
the correct explanation of I. (C) I is true, but II is false. (D) II is true, but I is only a stage
of crime. 28. The accused caused bodily pain,
disease or infirmity. But it is cognizable, bailable or compoundable. What offence, if any, has been committed by the accused ?
(A) Voluntary causing grievous hurt as per Section 322 IPC.
(B) Voluntary causing serious hurt as per Section 325 IPC.
(C) Voluntary causing grievous hurt by dangerous weapon as per Section 324 IPC.
(D) Voluntary causing grievous hurt by dangerous weapon as per Section 326 IPC.
29. An individual’s act of abridgement of
another’s right to movement could be an offence of :
(A) wrongful confinement as per Section 340 IPC.
(B) an act of abridgement of right to movement was done in good faith and hence no offence.
(C) the movement route being diverted so assault results.
30. Match the statement that mens rea is a loose term of elastic significance with that of the meaning in sequential order.
(a) Foresight of the consequences of the act.
(b) Criminal intention of deepest dye.
(c) An act which is visible. (d) It depends upon knowledge and
belief. Matching probabilities : (A) It is the bare capacity to know
in the sequence of (a), (b), (c) and (d).
(B) It is essential ingredient of criminal offence in the sequence of (d), (c), (b) and (a).
(C) It is a presumption to fix criminal liability in the sequence of (c), (b), (a) and (d).
(D) Applicability of the principle becomes essential by the sequence of (b), (a), (d) and (c).
31. Read Assertion I and Reason II and
with the help of codes given below point out the correct explanation.
I. Assertion Generally a master is not
criminally liable merely because his servant has committed a negligent act.
II. Reason In ordinary course of
employment a master may be criminally liable against the negligent acts of the servant.
Codes : (A) Both I and II are true, but II is
not the correct explanation of I. (B) I is true and II is the genuine
reason of I. (C) II is true, but I is not absolutely
correct. (D) II is false, but I is only an
assertion. 32. On which date & place the Earth
Summit was held at ? (A) 6th June 1997 at Geneva. (B) 20th June 1997 at London. (C) 21st June 1992 at Rio. (D) 27th June 1992 at Rio.
33. “In case of violation of Article 21 by disturbing the environment, the court could award damages not only for the restoration of the ecological balance but also for the victim who have suffered due to that disturbance.”
In which case the Supreme Court of India has made above observations ?
(A) M.C. Mehta Vs. Union of India, AIR 1997 SC 734
(B) M.C. Mehta Vs. Kamal Nath, (1997) 1 SCC 388
(C) M.C. Mehta Vs. Kamal Nath AIR 2000 SC 1997
(D) M.C. Mehta Vs. Kamal Nath 2000 (2) SCALE 654
34. In which of the following case the constitutionality, legal validity, propriety and fairness of the settlement of the claims of the victims in a mass tort action relating to Bhopal Gas Leak Disaster has been challenged in Supreme Court of India ?
(A) Union Carbide Corp. Vs. Union of India, AIR 1990 SC 273
(B) M.C. Mehta Vs. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086
(C) Union Carbide Corp. Vs. Union of India, AIR 1992 SC 248
(D) Charanlal Sahu Vs. Union of India, AIR 1990 SC 1480
35. Under which Article of the Constitution Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 was enacted ?
42. Which of the Article of the Statute of International Court of Justice makes it clear that the decision of the court will have no binding force except between the parties and in respect of that particular case only ?
39. ÃÖæ“Öß - I ÛúÖê ÃÖæ“Öß - II Ûêú ÃÖÖ£Ö ÃÖã´Öê×»ÖŸÖ Ûúßו֋
†Öî¸ü ÃÖÆüß ˆ¢Ö¸ü “Öã×®ÖµÖê : ÃÖæ“Öß – I ÃÖæ“Öß – II
a. ÃÖ¤üõÖÖë ÛúÖ ×®Ö»Ö´²Ö®Ö i. ¬ÖÖ¸üÖ 5 b. ×®ÖÂÖê¬ÖÖ׬ÖÛúÖ¸ü ii. ¬ÖÖ¸üÖ 6 c. ´ÖÆüÖÃÖ×“Ö¾Ö Ûúß ×®ÖµÖã׌ŸÖ iii. ¬ÖÖ¸üÖ 27 d. ®µÖÖÃÖ ¾µÖ¾ÖãÖÖ Ûêú ˆ§êü¿µÖ iv. ¬ÖÖ¸üÖ 76 v. ¬ÖÖ¸üÖ 97
Ûæú™ü : a b c d (A) i ii iii iv (B) i iii iv v (C) i iii v iv (D) iii ii v i
44. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer :
List – I List – II a. The Covenant on
Civil and Political Rights
i. 16th Dec. 1966
b. The Declaration on Human Rights
ii. 1948
c. Convention on the Rights of Child
iii. 1990
d. American Convention on Human Rights
iv. 1969
Codes : a b c d (A) iv iii ii i (B) ii iii iv i (C) i ii iii iv (D) iv ii iii i 45. Assertion (A) : International law is
not a law. Reason (R) : It lacks determinate
superior political authority to enforce its rules.
Using the codes given below give the correct answer.
Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true. 46. The junior widow has adopted a child
without the consent of senior widow. Decide the adoption.
(A) Valid (B) Void (C) Voidable (D) None of the above
47. In which State, where a widow may adopt a child without an express authority from her husband, before the HA & M Act, 1956 ?
(A) Bihar and M.P. (B) U.P. and Haryana (C) Madras and Bombay (D) Orissa and Andhra Pradesh
48. In ancient Hindu Marriage, which one is not approved form of Marriage ?
(A) Brahma (B) Davia (C) Prajapatya (D) Asura
49. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of codes given below select the correct explanation.
Assertion (A) : The Muslim Women (Protection of Divorce Rights) Act, 1986 brought changes like limit the period of maintenance to Muslim divorcee till ‘iddat’ period and in case of no relatives the liability on Wakf Boards.
Reason (R) : The changes were brought under Muslim’s pressure.
Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is correct explanation of (A). (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not correct explanation of (A). (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false. (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
50. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of codes given below select the correct explanation.
Assertion (A) : The Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939 brought different grounds for dissolution of marriage and based on Maliki schools.
Reason (R) : The DMM Act, 1939 is brought on the opinion of Ulema (Ijma).
Codes : (A) (A) and (R) are true, (R) is
correct explanation of (A). (B) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
not correct explanation of (A). (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false. (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
D-58-13 15 Paper-III
44. ÃÖæ“Öß - I ÛúÖê ÃÖæ“Öß - II Ûêú ÃÖÖ£Ö ÃÖã´Öê×»ÖŸÖ Ûúßו֋ †Öî¸ü šüßÛú ˆ¢Ö¸ü ¤üßוֵÖê :
ÃÖæ“Öß – I ÃÖæ“Öß – II a. ¤ßü¾ÖÖ®Öß ŸÖ£ÖÖ ¸üÖ•Ö®ÖîןÖÛú
†×¬ÖÛúÖ¸ü ¯ÖÏÃÖÓ×¾Ö¤üÖ i. 16 פüÃÖ´²Ö¸ü
1966 b. ´ÖÖ®Ö¾Ö †×¬ÖÛúÖ¸üÖë Ûúß
‘ÖÖêÂÖÞÖÖ ii. 1948
c. ²Ö““ÖÖë Ûêú †×¬ÖÛúÖ¸üÖë ÛúÖ †×³ÖÃÖ´ÖµÖ
iii. 1990
d. ´ÖÖ®Ö¾Ö †×¬ÖÛúÖ¸üÖë ¯Ö¸ü †´Öê׸üÛúß †×³ÖÃÖ´ÖµÖ
iv. 1969
Ûæú™ü : a b c d (A) iv iii ii i (B) ii iii iv i (C) i ii iii iv (D) iv ii iii i 45. †×³ÖÛú£Ö®Ö (A) : †®ŸÖ¸üÖÔ™ÒüßµÖ ×¾Ö×¬Ö ×¾Ö×¬Ö ®ÖÆüß
51. A Muslim husband has failed to have ‘sexual intercourse’ continuously for four months with wife. It could be a form of divorce and is called
(A) Illa (B) Mubarrah (C) Zihar (D) Khula 52. Match List – I with List – II and
select correct answer from the codes : List – I List – II
a. Judicial separation
i. Section 9
b. Divorce ii. Section 10
c. Voidable Marriages
iii. Section 13
d. Restitution of Conjugal Rights
iv. Section 12
Codes : a b c d (A) i iii ii iv (B) ii iv iii i (C) i ii iv iii (D) ii iii iv i 53. Match List – I with List – II and
select correct answer from the codes : List – I List – II
a. Impotency of Husband
i. Divorce
b. Marriage within Sapinda Relationship
ii. Voidable Marriage
c. Pre-marriage Pregnancy
iii. Nullity of Marriage
d. Option of Puberty iv. Void Marriage
Codes : a b c d (A) iv iii i ii (B) iii iv ii i (C) i iii iv ii (D) ii iv i iii
54. The Human Rights has been classified into three categories, viz
(a) The Human Rights of first generation
(b) The Human Rights of Second generation and
(c) The Human Rights of third generation, by
(A) Louis B. Sohan (B) Theodoor C. Bowen (C) R. Dworkin (D) Bernard Mayo
55. “Everyone has the right to recognition everywhere as a person before the law”. This has been stated in which of the following Article of Universal Declaration of Human Rights ?
ÃÖæ“Öß – I ÃÖæ“Öß – II a. ®µÖÖ×µÖÛú ¯Öé£ÖŒÛú¸üÞÖ i. ¬ÖÖ¸üÖ 9 b. ×¾Ö¾ÖÖÆü ×¾Ö“”êû¤ü ii. ¬ÖÖ¸üÖ 10 c. ¿Ö段ÖÛú¸üÞÖßµÖ ×¾Ö¾ÖÖÆü iii. ¬ÖÖ¸üÖ 13 d. ¤üÖ´¯ÖŸµÖ †×¬ÖÛúÖ¸üÖë Ûúß
¯Öã®ÖãÖÖÔ¯Ö®ÖÖ iv. ¬ÖÖ¸üÖ 12
Ûæú™ü : a b c d (A) i iii ii iv (B) ii iv iii i (C) i ii iv iii (D) ii iii iv i 53. ÃÖæ“Öß - I ÛúÖêü ÃÖæ“Öß - II ÃÖê ÃÖã´Öê×»ÖŸÖ Ûúßו֋ ŸÖ£ÖÖ
58. ÃÖæ“Öß - I ÛúÖê ÃÖæ“Öß - II ÃÖê ÃÖã Öê×»ÖŸÖ ÛúßוֵÖê †Öî ü ÃÖÆüß ˆ¢Ö¸ü “Öã×®ÖµÖê :
ÃÖæ“Öß – I ÃÖæ“Öß – II a. ´ÖêÝ®ÖÖÛúÖ™üÖÔ i. 1628 b. ¯Öß™üß¿Ö®Ö †Öò±ú ¸üÖ‡Ô™ËüÃÖ ii. 1789 c. ‡ÓÝ»Öß¿Ö ×²Ö»Ö †Öò±ú ¸üÖ‡Ô™ËüÃÖ iii. 1215 d. µÖæ.‹®Ö. ×²Ö»Ö †Öò±ú ¸üÖ‡Ô™ËüÃÖ iv. 1689
Ûæú™ü : a b c d (A) iii i iv ii (B) i iii iv ii (C) iii ii iv i (D) iii i ii iv
66. In which of the following cases, the rule of absolute liability laid down by the Supreme Court of India was followed ?
(A) Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action Vs. Union of India, A.I.R. 1996 SC 1446
(B) Klaus Mittelbachert Vs. East India Hotels Ltd., A.I.R. 1997 Del.201
(C) Both (A) and (B) above. (D) None of the above. 67. Match List – I with List – II and
indicate the correct answer using the codes given below :
List – I List – II a. The Wagon
Mound case i. Remote but
proximate b. Re Polemis
and Furness Withy & Co. Ltd.
ii. The test of reasonable foresight
c. Scott Vs. Shepherd
iii. The test of directness
d. Fardon Vs. Harcourt Rivington
iv. Reasonable foreseeability
Codes : a b c d (A) i ii iii iv (B) ii iii i iv (C) i iv iii ii (D) ii i iv iii 68. Find right answer from following
statements : (A) Every partnership is based on
mutual agency. (B) Every agency is based on
mutual partnership. (C) Every agent is a partner. (D) Every partner is a sleeping
partner.
69. Which statements are correct, answer using codes given below :
i. Directors are trustees of company.
ii. Directors are mentors of company.
iii. Directors are agents of company.
iv. Director are agents of shareholders.
Codes : (A) i and ii are correct. (B) i and iii are correct. (C) i and iv are correct. (D) ii and iv are correct. 70. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
and with help of codes given below, point out the correct explanation :
Assertion (A) : The doctrine of indoor management seeks to protect the company against the outsider.
Reason (R) : The company has right to privacy.
Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is correct explanation of (A). (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but
(R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true. 71. Match items in table A with items in
table B, using codes given below : Table A Table B
a. Essentials of partnership
i. Section 41
b. Partnership at will ii. Section 4 c. Effect of non-
registration of firm iii. Section 7
d. Compulsory dissolution of firm
iv. Section 69
Codes : a b c d (A) i ii iv iii (B) ii iii iv i (C) iii iv i ii (D) i ii iii iv
ÃÖæ“Öß – I ÃÖæ“Öß – II a. ¤ü ¾ÖêÝÖ®Ö ´ÖÖˆÓ›ü ÛêúÃÖ i. ÃÖã¤æü¸ü »Öê×Ûú®Ö
»ÖÝÖ³ÖÝÖ b. ׸ü ¯ÖÖê×»Ö×´ÖÃÖ ‹Þ›ü
±ú¸ü®ÖêÃÖ ×¾Ö™üß ‹Þ›ü ÛÓú. ×»Ö.
ii. ˆ×“ÖŸÖ ¯Öæ¾ÖÖÔ®Öã´ÖÖ®Ö ÛúÖ ¯Ö¸üßõÖÞÖ
c. ÃÛúÖò™ü ²Ö®ÖÖ´Ö ¿Öê±ú›Ôü iii. ¯ÖÏŸµÖõÖŸÖÖ ÛúÖ ¯Ö¸üßõÖÞÖ
d. ±ú›üÖì®Ö ²Ö®ÖÖ´Ö Æü¸üÛúÖê™Ôü ׸üؾÖÝÖ™ü®Ö
iv. ˆ×“ÖŸÖ ¯Öæ¾ÖÔÛú»¯Ö®ÖÖ
Ûæú™ü : a b c d (A) i ii iii iv (B) ii iii i iv (C) i iv iii ii (D) ii i iv iii 68. ×®Ö´®Ö Ûú£Ö®ÖÖë ´Öë ÃÖê ÃÖÆüß ˆ¢Ö¸ü ¤üßוֵÖê … (A) Æü¸ü ³ÖÖÝÖߤüÖ¸üß ¯ÖÖ¸üïÖ׸üÛú †×³ÖÛú¸üÞÖ ¯Ö¸ü
a. ³ÖÖÝÖߤüÖ¸üß Ûêú ÃÖÖ¸ü³ÖæŸÖ i. ¬ÖÖ¸üÖ 41 b. ‡“”ûÖ ÃÖê ³ÖÖÝÖߤüÖ¸üß ii. ¬ÖÖ¸üÖ 4 c. ±ú´ÖÔ Ûêú ¯ÖÓ•ÖßÛú¸üÞÖ ®Ö
Ûú¸ü®Öê Ûêú ¯ÖϳÖÖ¾Ö iii. ¬ÖÖ¸üÖ 7
d. ±ú´ÖÔ ÛúÖ †×®Ö¾ÖÖµÖÔ ×¾ÖÜÖÓ›ü®Ö
iv. ¬ÖÖ¸üÖ 69
Ûæú™ü : a b c d (A) i ii iv iii (B) ii iii iv i (C) iii iv i ii (D) i ii iii iv
Paper-III 22 D-58-13
72. Find correct answer, using codes given below :
(i) Bulk shall correspond with sample, is an implied condition.
(ii) Buyer shall have a reasonable opportunity of comparing bulk with sample, is an implied condition.
(iii) Goods should be free from any defect rendering them unmerchantable, is an implied condition.
(iv) There is an implied condition that the buyer shall have and enjoy possession of the goods.
Codes :
(A) (i) only is correct.
(B) (i) and (ii) only are correct.
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only are correct.
(D) All of above are correct.
73. Choose correct statement from following :
(A) Right against the goods can be exercised only by a paid seller.
(B) Right against the goods can be exercised only by an unpaid seller.
(C) Right against the goods can be exercised only by a paid buyer.
(D) Right against the goods can be exercised only by an unpaid buyer.
74. Match items in Table A with items in Table B, using codes given below :
Table A Table B a. Prabhu Dayal Vs.
Jwala Bank, ILR 1938 All. 634
i. Section 100
b. Discharge from liability by cancellation
ii. Section 10
c. Payment in due course
iii. Forgery of signature
d. Protest iv. Section 82
Codes : a b c d (A) i iii ii iv (B) iii iv ii i (C) iv iii ii i (D) ii i iii iv 75. Find correct legal principle from
following statements : (A) While collecting a cheque for a
banker, the customer is under an obligation to present it promptly so as to avoid any loss due to change of circumstances.
(B) While collecting a cheque for a customer, the banker is under an obligation to present it properly so as to avoid any loss due to change of circumstances.
(C) While collecting a cheque for a customer, the banker is under no obligation to present it properly so as to avoid any loss due to change of circumstances.
(D) While collecting a cheque for a banker, the customer is under no obligation to present it promptly so as to avoid any loss due to change of circumstances.
c. µÖ£ÖÖÃÖ´ÖµÖ †¤üÖµÖÝÖß iii. ¤üßÖÜÖŸÖÖë Ûúß Ûæú™ü¸ü“Ö®ÖÖ
d. †³µÖÖ¯Ö×ŸÖ iv. ¬ÖÖ¸üÖ 82 Ûæú™ü : a b c d (A) i iii ii iv (B) iii iv ii i (C) iv iii ii i (D) ii i iii iv 75. ×®Ö´®Ö Ûú£Ö®ÖÖë ÃÖê ÃÖÆüß ×¾Ö׬ÖÛú ×ÃÖ üÖÓŸÖ ÛúÖê ²ÖŸÖÖ‡µÖê : (A) ²ÖïÛú¸ü Ûêú ×»ÖµÖê “ÖîÛú ‹Ûú×¡ÖŸÖ Ûú¸üŸÖê ÃÖ´ÖµÖ