COURSE COVERAGE SUMMARY AND QUESTION BANK FOR III B.TECH … ME II SEM Q.BANK … · · 2017-11-18QUESTION BANK FOR III B.TECH II SEMESTER ... Determine the shape functions for

DEPARTMENT OF MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

COURSE COVERAGE SUMMARY

AND

QUESTION BANK

FOR

III B.TECH II SEMESTER

(2016 – 17)

MALLA REDDY COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING & TECHNOLOGY (UGC AUTONOMOUS GOVT. OF INDIA)

(Affiliated to JNTU, Hyderabad, Approved by AICTE - Accredited by NBA & NAAC – ‘A’ Grade - ISO 9001:2008 Certified)

Maisammaguda, Dhulapally (Post Via Hakimpet), Secunderabad – 500100

INDEX

S.NO NAME OF THE SUBJECT

1 AUTOMOBILE ENGINEERING

2 FINITE ELEMENT METHODS

3 REFRIGERATION AND AIR CONDITIONING

4 DESIGN OF MACHINE MEMBERS-II

5 HEAT TRANSFER

6 INTELLECTUAL PROPERTY RIGHTS

MALLAREDDY COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING AND

TECHNOLOGY

MECHANICAL DEPARTMENT SUB: AE

MODEL PAPER 1

PART A (25 MARKS)

1. What is four wheel drive? (2M)

b. What are the main requirements of a charging system (3M)

c. What are the defects in simple carburetor? (2M)

d. What are the desirable properties of a tyre? (3M)

e. Differentiate between super charging and turbo charging. (2M)

f. Explain pulse generator with sketch? (3M)

g. What are the advantages of CNG? (2M)

h. Explain the working of catalytic converter? (3M)

i. What are the functions of a carburetor? (2M)

j. What are the requirements of a good spark plug? (3M)

PART B (50 MARKS)

2. a) Explain clearly Splash Lubrication system?

b) Explain different filters.

OR

3. a) Explain the working of fuel pump in CI engines.

b) How petrol engine can be done mechanically.

4. a) Explain pulse generator with sketch?

b) What is spark advance?

OR

5. a) What are the different defects in spark plug?

b) Explain the working of catalytic converter?

6. a) What are the advantages of L.P.G?

b) Explain common rail fuel injection system in Diesel engines.

OR

7. a) What are the requirements of a clutch?

b) Explain the principle of centrifugal clutch with neat sketch.

8. a) What are different types of carcass?

b) Describe the different types of tyres.

OR

9. Draw the layout of Air Brake system and explain.

10. a) What are the advantages and disadvantages of Torsion bars?

b) What is pressure modulation in ABS?

OR

11. Sketch and explain different types of leaf springs.


TECHNOLOGY


MODEL PAPER 2

PART A (25 MARKS)

1. How valves can be serviced? (2M)

b. What is meant by bleeding of brakes? (3M)

c. Explain solenoid switch with neat sketch. (2M)

d. Explain unheated lambda probe with neat sketch. (3M)

e. Explain pulse generator with sketch? (2M)

f. Explain the working of catalytic converter? (3M)

g. Explain the working principle of simple carburetor (2M)

h. Explain the working of a Horn cutout relay. (3M)

i. What are the advantages of power steering? (2M)

j. What is brake adjustment? When it is required? (3M)

PART B (50 MARKS)

2. a) What are the objects of lubrication?

b) Discuss briefly about Crescent gear pump, Rotor pump and Plunger pump?

OR

3. a) What are the functions of a carburetor?

b) Explain fuel filters in diesel engine.

4. a) What are the advantages of Air cooling system?

b) Explain the working of thermo-symphon cooling system?

OR

5. Explain pulse generator with sketch?

6. a) What is the necessity of expansion reservoir?

b) How hydrogen fuel is utilized as alternative fuel?

OR

7. a) What is the principle of differential?

8. a) What are the advantages and disadvantages of cone clutch over plate clutch?

b) Explain the working principle of torque converter with a neat sketch.

OR

9. a) What are the advantages of Rubber springs?

b) Draw the layout of air brake system.

10. a) What are the different adjustments in steering gear?

b) What are the advantages of power steering?

OR

11. a) Define steering Ratio and give its values.

b) Explain Rack and pinion steering gear with neat sketch


TECHNOLOGY


MODEL PAPER 3

PART A (25 MARKS)

1. What are the objects of lubrication? (2M)

b. Explain different oil filters. (3M)

c. What are the functions of carburettor? (2M)

d. Explain common rail fuel ignition system. (3M)

e. What are the advantages of air cooling system? (2M)

f. What are the defects in spark plug? (3M)

g. What are the main components in CNG kit? (2M)

h. Compare pollutants of solar system with conventional fuels (3M)

i. What are the requirements of clutch? (2M)

j. What is meant by toe in or toe out? (3M)

PART B (50 MARKS)

2. a) Draw the schematic diagram of electronic petrol injection system.

b) How air is cleaned in diesel engine fuel supply system?

OR

3. How AC mechanical pump pumps the fuel. Explain individual pump fuel

injection system.

4. a) How hydrogen fuel is utilized as an alternative fuel.

b) What are the main pollutants from the engine exhaust and mention its effects

on the living organisms?

OR

5. Explain the pulse generator with neat sketch.

b) What are the different anti-freeze solutions and their requirements?

6. a) Compare pollutants of solar system with conventional fuel.

b) Explain clearly how the proper design of combustion chamber helps in

reducing exhaust emission.

OR

7. a) How clutch can be operated electromagnetically?

b) Explain working of a constant mesh gear box with neat sketch.

8. a) Draw the layout of Air brake system.

b) What are the requirements of brake fluid?

c) Explain the purpose of master cylinder with a neat sketch in Hydraulic brakes.

OR

9. a) Describe the working of a power steering unit with a neat sketch.

b) Sketch and explain the construction and working of Ackermann steering

mechanism.

10.a) What are the objectives of employing suspension on an automobile?

b) Sketch and explain the construction and working of wishbone type

independent front suspension.

OR

11. a) What is brake adjustment? When it is required?

b) Explain the construction and working of rare wheel independent suspension.


TECHNOLOGY

MECHANICAL DEPARTMENT SUB: FEM

MODEL PAPER 1

PART A (25 MARKS)

1. a. What is meant by Engineering analysis and specify its Types (2M)

b. What is Hermite shape function (3M)

c. Write the equilibrium equations for 3D body (2M)

d. What is coordinate system. specify the types and explain (3M)

e. What is meant by axi-symmetric problems (2M)

f. Derive the shape functions for 2D truss element (3M)

g. What is the degree of freedom for the thermal problems (2M)

h. Distinguish between CST and LST (3M)

i. Write the dynamic equation of motion for the undamped free vibrations (2M)

j. Determine the Area of the triangle A(2,2),B(7,4) ,C(3,6) (3M)

PART B (10X5=50 MARKS)

2. a) Derive the equations of equilibrium in case of a three dimensional stress system.

b) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of FEM over

(i) Classical method

(ii) Finite difference method.

OR

3.a) Solve the differential eqationfor the physical problem expressed as d2y/dx

2+100=0when 0=x=10

with boundary condition as y(0)=0 and y(10)=0 using i) point collocation ii) sub-domain collocation iii) least square method iv) galarkin method b) Write the Strain displacement equations for three dimensional system

4. a) Determine the nodal displacement, Element stresses for axially loaded bar as shown in the fig. below

b) Derive the strain displacement matrices for triangular element of revolving body.

OR

5 a) For the beam shown in Figure below, determine the following: a) Slopes at nodes 2 and 3

b) Vertical deflection at the mid-point of the distributed load. Consider all the elements

have E=200GPa, I=5X106 mm

4

6. a) For the element shown in the figure, assemble Jacobian matrix and strain displacement matrix

b) Determine the shape functions for a 8 node quadratic quadrilateral Evaluation element(boundary

noded).

OR

7. a) Establish the shape functions for a 3 – noded triangular element

b) Find the deformed configuration, and the maximum stress and minimum stress locations for the

rectangular plate loaded as shown in the fig. Solve the problem using 2 triangular elements. Assume

thickness = 10cm; E = 70 Gpa, and υ = 0.33

8, The composite wall consists of three materials shown in figure. The inside wall temperature is at

2000C and the outside air temperature is 50

0C with a convection coefficient of 10 W/m

2 0C

.Determine

the temperature along the composite wall

9.a) Derive one dimensional steady state heat conduction equation.

b) An axisymmetric triangular element is subjected to the loading as shown in fig. the load is

distributed throughout the circumference and normal to the boundary. Derive all the necessary

equations and derive the nodal point loads.

10. a)Determine the strain displacement matrix for the TETRAHEDRAL element as shown in fig

b) Explain the concept of numerical integration and its utility in generating Isoperimetric finite

element matrices

OR

11. a) What are the necessary requirements for convergence and explain about h- and p

requirements

b) Derive the stiffness matrix for truss element in case of linear and quadratic shape functions At

200 C an axial load P = 300 x 10

3 is applied to the rod as shown in Fig. The temperature is then raised

to 600C. Assemble the element stiffness matrix and the element temperature force matrix (F).Again

determine the nodal displacements and element stresses. Also find element strains. Assume E1= 70 x

109 N/m

2, 1= 900 mm

2, α1 = 23 x 10

-6/

0C, E2 = 200 X 10

9 N/m

2 , A2 = 1200

mm2 ,α 2 = 11.7 x 10

-6 /

0C.


TECHNOLOGY


MODEL PAPER 2

PART A (25 MARKS)

1. a. What is FEM (2M)

b. Write the advantages of FEM (3M)

c. What is CST (2M)

d. Write the strain relations of three dimensional system (3M)

e. What is local coordinate System (2M)

f. Write the Eigen values and Eigen vectors for a stepped bar (3M)


h. Define principle of virtual work. Describe the FEM formulation for 1D bar element (3M)

i What is dynamic analysis (2M)

j. Discuss Mess generation(3M)

PART B (10X5=50 MARKS)

2.. a) Differentiate among Bar element, Truss element and Beam element indicating D.O.F and geometry characteristics. b) An axial load P =300X10

3N is applied at 20

0 C to the rod as shown in Figure below. The

temperature is the raised to 600 C a) Assemble the K and F matrices

b) Determine the nodal displacements and stresses 200 mm 300 mm

x

E1=70X109N/mm

2 E2=200X10

9N/mm

2

A1=900mm2 A2=1200mm

2

α1=23X10

-6 α2=11.7X10

-6

3. a) Discuss in detail about the concepts of FEM formulation How is that emerged as powerful

tool. Discuss in detail about applications of finite element method

b) Derive an equation for finding out the potential energy by Rayleigh –Ritz method Using

Rayleigh – Ritz method, find the displacement of the midpoint of the rod shown in Fig.

Assume E = 1,A=1,ρg=1 by using linear and quadratic shape function concept

4 a) Discuss in detail about Linear and Quadratic shape functions with examples b) Consider axial vibration of the Aluminum bar shown in Fig., (i) develop the global stiffness and

(ii) determine the nodal displacements and stresses using elimination approach and with help of linear and quadratic shape function concept. Assume Young’s Modulus E = 70Gpa

OR

5. a)Describe Rayleigh-Ritz method

b) Abeam is fixed at one end and supported by roller at the other end has 20KN load

applied at the center of the span of 10m.Calculate deflection and slope and also

construct shear fore and bending moment diagrams

6. a) State the properties and applications of CST

b)The nodal coordinates of the triangular element shown in figure at the interior point P.the x

coordinate is 3.3 and the shape function at node 1 is N1is 0.3.determine the shape functions at nodes 2

and 3 also find the 'y' coordinate of P

OR

7. a) Determine the stiffness and Jacobian matrix for the iso parametric quadrilateral element starting

from fundamentals.

b) Differentiate between axisymmetric boundary condition and polar symmetric

boundary condition.

c) Derive the load vector for the axi-symmetric triangular element with the variable surface load on

the surface.

8. a) derive one dimensional steady state heat conduction equation

b)An axi symmetric element subjected to loading as shown in figure .The load is distributed

througout the circumference and normal to the boundary. Derive all necessary equations and derive

nodal point loads

OR

9. Calculate the conductance matrix [K(e)] and load vector fF(e)g for the triangle

element shown in figure 8. The thermal conductivities are kx = ky = 4 W=cm�0C

and h = 0.3 W/cm2 0C. Thickness of the element is 1cm. All coordinates are given

in cms. Convection occurs on the side joining modes i and j.

10. For the stepped bar shown in figure develope the global stiffness matrix and mass matrices

and determine the natural frequencies and mode shapes Assume E=200GPa and mass density

is 7850 Kg/m3 L1=L2=0.3 m A1=350 mm

2and A2 =600 mm

2

OR

11. a)Derive the shape functions for the four noded tetrahedron element from the first principles

b)discuss the importance of semi automatic meshing and practical applications

MALLAREDDY COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING

AND TECHNOLOGY


MODEL PAPER 3

PART A (25 MARKS)

1. a. List the various weighted residual methods (2M)

b. Write the properties of shape function (3M)

c. What the advantages of natural coordinate system (2M)

d. Write analogies between structural, heat transfer and fluid mechanics (3M)

e. Name few FEA packages (2M)

f. Derive the mass matrix for a 1D linear bar element (3M)

g. What are the properties of stiffness matrix (2M)

h. Explain about plain stress and plain strain conditions (3M)

i. Write down the conduction matrix for a three noded triangular element (2M)

j. Distinguish between Error in solution and Residual (3M)

PART B (10X5=50)

2. a)Determint the nodal displacement ,stress and strain for the bar shown in fig

b) Using potential energy approach, describe FE formulation for plane truss Element

OR

3. a) Solve the differential equation for the physical problem expressed as d2y/dx

2+100=0when

0=x=10 with boundary condition as y(0)=0 and y(10)=0 using i) point collocation ii) sub-domain

collocation iii) least square method

iv) galarkin method.

b) Explain the concept of FEM briefly .outline the steps involved in FEM along with applications

4. a)For a beam and loading shown in fig., determine the slopes at 2 and 3 and the vertical deflection

at the midpoint of the distributed load

b) Establish the shape functions for a 3 – noded triangular element.

OR

5. Calculate the nodal displacement, stresses and support reactions for the truss shown in figure

6.a) Evaluate the element stiffness matrix for the triangular element shown under plane strain

condition. Assume the following values E=200 GPa, µ=0.25, t=1 mm

b) For the element shown in the figure, assemble Jacobian matrix and strain displacement matrix

OR

7. a) Derive the a)shape function and b) strain displacement matrices for triangular element of

revolving body

b) for the Isoparametric quadrilateral element shown in fig , determine the local co-ordinates of the

point P whose Cartesian co=ordinates as(6,4)

8 a) Determine the temperature at the nodal interfaces for the two layered wall shown in fig.the left

face is supplied with

heat flux of Q11

=5 W/cm2 and the right face is maintained at 20

0C

Qu=5w/c

m2

K1=0.2W/cm0C

K2=0.06W/cm0C

A=1cm2.

b) Derive the Strain displacement Matrix for 2D-Thin plate. Consider the temperature field with in the

triangular element is given by T= N1T1 + N2T2 + N3T3

OR

9. Determine the temperature distribution through the composite wall shown in figure, when

convection heat loss occurs on the left surface. Assume unit area Assume wall thickness t1 = 4cm, t2 =

2cm, k1 = 0.5w/cm0c, k2 = 0.05w/cm

0c

h= 0.1w/cm2 0

c and Tα= -50c

10. a) Determine the eigen values and the associated Eigen vectors of the matrix [A] given by

b) State the properties of Eigen Values.

OR

11.a) Explain difference between Lumped Mass and Consistent Mass

b) Determine the Natural frequency of the beam shown in the figure


AND TECHNOLOGY


MODEL PAPER 4

PART A (25 MARKS)

1. a. Give the limitations of FEM. (2M)

b. Briefly explain the role of shape function FEM analysis (3M)

c. Write a short note on numerical integration. (2M)

d. What do you understand by discritisation of the domain (3M)

e. What is Jocobian matrix (2M)

f. Determine the matrix relating strains and nodal displacements for an axisymmetric

triangular element. (3M)

g. What is difference between CST and LST (2M)

h. What are the ways by which a 3D problem can be reduced to a 2D problem (3M)

i. Name Few FEA packages (2M)

j. Derive the convection matrix for a 1D linear bar element (3M)

PART B (10X5=50)

2. a) Write down expressions for the element stiffness matrices and element body force vectors

b) Evaluate the stresses in each element Determine the reaction force at the support. consider

1in=1cm for SI UNITS

a

OR

3.a) Determine the nodal displacement, Element stresses f r axially loaded bar as shown in the fig.

below

b) Explain the elimination method and penalty method for imposing specified displacement

boundary conditions

4. a) Obtain the forces in the plane Truss shown in Figure below and determine the support reactions

also. Take E=200GPa and A= 2000mm2

b) Derive the Hermite shape functions for beam element.

OR

5.a) Analyze the beam shown in Figure method and determine the end reactions. Also determine the

below by finite element deflections at mid spans given E=2X105N/mm

2, and I=5X10

6 mm

4

b) What are the general features of a bar Element?

6. a) Formulate the finite element equations for Constant strain triangle shown in fig. Assume plane

stress E=200Gpa,ν=0.25,thickness=5mm,nodal co-ordinates. Pressure on 1-2 edge is 5N/mm2

X1=1 X2=5 X3=3

Y1=2 Y2=4 Y3=6

b) Write the Advantages of iso-parametric elements

OR

7.a) For the configuration shown in figure, determine the deflection at the point load application using

a one element model. T = 10 mm , E = 70 G Pa ,ν = .3

b) Derive the strain displacement matrix for triangular element.

8. a) The plane wall shown in fig. The thermal conductivity K = 25 /m0C and there is a uniform

generation of heat in the wall Q = 400 W /m3. Determine the temperature distribution at five nodes

(include two sides of the walls) in equal distances through the wall thickness

b) Derive Approximate the first two natural frequencies of a cantilever beam using one element model.

EI=Flexural rigidity

9. a) A metallic fin with thermal conductivity K=360W/m0c, 1mm thick and100mm long extends

from a plane wall whose temperature is 2350c. Determine the distribution and amount of heat

transferred from the fin to air at 200c with h= 9W/m

20c take width of the fin is 1000 mm.

Assume tip is insulted

b) Explain the concept of numerical integration and its utility in generating Isoperimetric finite

element matrices

10.a) Determine the strain displacement matrix for the TETRAHEDRAL element as shown in fig

.

b) Determine the approximate first two natural frequeneves of a simply supported beam using on a element. Flexural

Rigidity =EI; Density = Ƥ Cross-sectional area=A

OR

11.a) State the method used for obtaining natural frequencies and corresponding eigen vectors.

b) Evaluate natural frequencies for the CANTI LEVER beam shown in fig USING ONE ELEMENT

X

L


AND TECHNOLOGY


MODEL PAPER 5

PART A (25 MARKS)

1. a. What is the principle of FEM (2M)

b. Write the stress strain relations for 2D plane stress and pane strain conditions (3M)

c. Differentiate between truss and beam element based on degree of freedom. (2M)

d. What is Hermite shape function (3M)

e. Write the formula for the load vector of triangular element subjected to body force(2M)

f. What is the size of stiffness matrix for axisymmetric triangular element (3M)


h. Where do you apply (3M)

i. Name Few FEA packages (2M)

j. Explain the importance of lumped mass matrix (3M)

PART B 10X5=50

2. a)Why polynomial type of interpolation function is preferred over trigonometric functions? Explain

b)Draw the Pascal's triangle and Pascal's tetrahedron for understanding the interpolations functions.

Explain the salient features

OR

3. a)Explain the steps involved in obtaining an appropriate solution using AEM

b) Explain the equilibrium state of the system, when the system is subjected to different types of loads

and explain the stress and equilibrium relations

4.For a two dimensional structure as shown in figure. determine displacement of the nodes and normal

stresses developed in the members using FE. Use E = 39x 106 N/cm2 and the diameter of the cross-

section of 0.25 cm.

OR

5. A beam is fixed at one end and supported by a roller at the other end, has a 20 KN concentrated

load applied at the center of the span of 10 m. Calculate the deflection and slope and also construct

shear force and bending moment diagrams and take I=2500 cm4

6.a) Evaluate the axisymmetric stiffness matrix K of the triangular element shown in the figure

.Consider the coordinates of the nodes (2,1), (4,00, and (3,2).also assume E= 2.6 GPa and v=0.2

r3 3

r

r1 1

r2 2

b) Difference between CST and LST with respect to the triangular element.

OR

7.Derive the stiffness matrix for the four noded quadrilateral element in terms of natural coordinate

systems

8.consider a brick wall of thickness 0.3 m ,k=0.7 W/m/K. The inner surface is at 280C and the outer

surface is exposed to cold air at -150C.The heat transfer coefficient associated with the outside surface

is 40W/m2K.Determine the steady state temperature distribution within in the wall and also the heat

flux through the wall. Use two elements and obtain the solution

OR

9.Derive the conductivity matrix for two dimensional triangular element subjected to convection on

one face of the element

10. For the stepped bar shown in figure. Develop the global stiffness and mass matrices and also

determine the natural frequencies and mode shapes. Assume E=200 GPa and mass desity =7850

Kg/m3

L1=L2=0.3 m A1=350mm2

A2=600 mm2

L1 L2

OR

11.a)Derive the shape functions for the four noded tetrahedron element from the first principle

b)discuss the importance of semi automatic meshing and auto mesh along with the practical

applications


TECHNOLOGY

MECHANICAL DEPARTMENT SUB: R&AC

MODEL PAPER 1

Note: This question paper contain two parts A and B..Part A is compulsory which carries 25

marks. Answer all question in part A. part B consists of 5 units. Answer any one full question

from each unit. Each question carries 10 marks and may have a,b,c as sub questions.

PART A (25 MARKS)

1. a. What is the necessity and application of refrigeration systems (2M)

b. Define Unit of refrigeration and C.O.P. (3M)

c. Explain the principle of working of Bell Coleman cycle. (2M)

d. Describe the Open and Dense air refrigeration systems. (3M)

e. Write the Refrigeration needs of Air crafts. (2M)

f. Explain the term “Ton of refrigeration”. (3M)

g. Explain the working principle of simple Vapour compression refrigeration system(2M)

h. Describe the essential components of the refrigeration plant. (3M)

i. Represent refrigeration cycle on T-S and p-h charts for different conditions of

refrigerant at the entry into the compressor. (2M)

j. A food storage requires a refrigeration system of 12 tons capacity at an evaporator

temperature of -10 oC and condenser temperature 25 oC . The refrigerant NH3 is

subcooled by 5 oC before passing through throttle valve. The vapour leaving the

evaporator coil is 0.97 dry. Find the C.O.P. and power required to run the plant. Neglect

all losses. (3M)

PART B (50 MARKS)

2. When the temperature of the brine is -10oC, ice is manufactured at 0oC from water at 10 oC.

Find the kg of ice formed per 1 KWh using the Reversible Carnot cycle. Latent heat of ice is

335KJ/Kg.

(a) A cold storage is to be maintained at -5 oC while the surroundings are at 35 oC . The

heat leakage from the surroundings into the cold storage is estimated to be 29KW.

The actual C.O.P. of the refrigeration plant is one third of an ideal plant working

between the same temperatures. Find the power required to drive the plant?

(b) Refrigerator working on Bell-coleman cycle operates between pressure limits of 1.05

bar and 8.5 bar. Air is drawn from the cold chamber at 10 oC , compressed and, then

it is cooled to 30 oC before entering the expansion cylinder. The expansion and

compression follows the law PV1.3 = Constant. Determine the theoretical C.O.P of

the system.

OR

3. In an aero-plane simple air refrigeration is used. The main compressor delivers the air at 5

bar and 200 oC. The bled air taken from compressor is passed through a heat exchanger, cooled

with the help of ram air so that the temperature of air leaving the heat exchanger is 45 oC and

the pressure is 4.5 bar. The cooling turbine drives the exhaust fan which is used to force the

ram air through the heat exchanger. The air leaving the heat exchanger passes through the

cooling turbine and then supplied to cabin at 1 bar. The pressure loss between the cooling

turbine and cabin is 0.2 bar. If the rate of flow of air through the cooling turbine is 20kg/min,

determine the following:

(a) The temperature of the air leaving the expander,

(b) the power delivered to the ram air which is passed through the heat exchanger and

(c) The refrigeration load in tones when the temperature of the air leaving the cabin is

limited to 25oC.

4. A simple saturation cycle using F12 is designed for taking a load of 10 tons. The refrigerator

and ambient temperatures are 0 0C and 30 0C respectively. A minimum temperature

difference of 5 0C is required in evaporator and condenser for heat transfer. Find:

(a) mass flow rate through the system (b) Power required in kw. (c) Cylinder dimensions

assuming L/D = 1.2 for single cylinder, single acting compressor if it runs at 300

r.p.m. with volumetric efficiency = 0.9.

OR

5. A vapor compression refrigerator plant uses methyl chloride as refrigerant and operates

between pressure limits of 119Kpa and 567Kpa. The refrigerant vapour with dryness

fraction of 0.96 is charged into the compressor and at the end of the isentropic compression

it has a temperature of 328K. Saturated liquid enters the throttle valve. If the refrigerant

flow is 100 Kg/h. Determine i) theoretical COP ii) Power required to run the machine.

Properties of MethylChloride.

6. A steam jet refrigeration installation is to deliver chilled water at the rate of 2300 kg per

minute at 8OC from supply water at 18OC. Condenser saturation temperature is 38OC,

nozzle efficiency is 90%, entrainment efficiency is 68% and diffuser efficiency is 78%.Quality

of flashed vapour is 0.97.the steam consumption for the motive jet is 6500 kg/hr. Estimate

the pressure of the dry and saturated motive steam.

OR

7. In a steam jet refrigeration plant, steam enters the thermo compressor at 0.01 bar and with

dryness fraction of 0.09, make up water enters the flash chamber at 18OC. Determine i)

Quality of steam leaving the flash chamber. ii) COP of the plant based on heat input from

motive steam .Assume isentropic efficiency n of turbine =90%: Nozzle efficiency=90%:

Entrainment efficiency =65%: Thermo compressor efficiency= 65%

8. The following data refer to summer air conditioning of a restaurant: Inside design

conditions = 25OC DBT and 19 OC WBT, outside design conditions =36 OC DBT and 25OC WBT,

sensible heat load 1,30,000kJ/h, latent heat load =50000 kJ/h , the outside air is supplied at

the rate of 23 m3 /min directly into the room through ventilators and by infiltration. The

outside air to be conditioned is passed through a cooling coil which has an apparatus dew

point of 10OC and 58% of the total air is recirculated from the conditioned space and mixed

with conditioned air after the cooling coil. Find: a) Condition of air after the cooling coil

before mixing with recirculated air b) Condition of air entering the restaurant. c) Mass of

fresh air entering the cooling coil. d) By-pass factor of the cooling coil. e) Total refrigeration

load of the cooling coil.

OR

9. A class room is to be air-conditioned for the following given summer conditions. The

data collected is given as follows: Size of class –room: 18 X 12 X 6m, Outdoor conditions:

42OC DBT and 52% RH., required comfort condition: 18OC DBT and 58% RH., Seating

capacity: 45, sensible heat in the room excluding infiltrated load: 40000 k J / hr, sensible

heat load from other sources: 8000 kJ / hr, lighting load: 12 tubes of 80 Watts,

infiltrated air: 27 m3/ min. If 35% of air is taken from outside and remaining is re-

circulated then find the following: (a) Capacity of the cooling coil in tones of

refrigeration and its bypass factor (b) Capacity of the blower in m3 / min. Assume DPT of

the coil is 6OC .

10. The following data refers for a space to be air conditioned: Inside design conditions =

23OC DBT,48%RH, outdoor air conditions=45OC DBT.28OCWBT.room sensible heat gain

=18kW,room latent heat gain =6kW,by-pass factor of the cooling coil =0.12, the returns

air from the space is mixed with the outside air before entering the cooling coil in the

ratio of 5:1 by mass . Determine: a) Apparatus dew point. b) Condition of air entering

and leaving the cooling coil. c) Dehumidified air quantity d) Fresh air mass flow and

volume flow rate e) Total refrigeration load on the air- conditioning plant.

OR

11. A vapour compression refrigerator uses methyl chloride (R-40) and operates between pressure limits of 177.4 kPa . At entry to the compressor, the methyl chloride is dry saturated and after compression has a temperature of 102 oC .The compressor has a bore and stroke of 75mm and runs at 8 rev/s with a volumetric efficiency of 80%. The temperature of the liquid refrigerant as it leaves the condenser is 35 oC and its specific heat capacity is 1.624 kJ/kg. K. The specific heat capacity of the superheated vapour may be assumed to be constant. Determine: (a) refrigerator C O P (b) Mass flow rate of refrigerant and (c) Cooling water required by the condenser if its temperature rise is limited to 12 oC.Specific heat capacity of water = 4.187 kJ/kg.K. The relevant properties of methyl chloride are as follows:


TECHNOLOGY


MODEL PAPER 2



from each unit. Each question carries 10 marks and may have a,b,c as sub questions. PART A (25 MARKS)

1. a. Write about Air Conditioning systems. (2M)

b. Classify the Air-conditioning equipment (3M)

c. Write about cooling, heating humidification and dehumidification (2M)

d. Explain the working principle of filters, grills and registers. (3M)

e. Explain the working principle of fans and blowers (2M)

f. Explain the working principle of Heat Pump. (3M)

g. Write about various heat sources and different heat pump circuits. (2M)

h. Explain various types of temperature sensitive mechanisms used with thermostat.

(3M)

i. Describe the working of sealed bellow type thermostat with the help of a neat sketch.

(2M)

j. Write about the requirements of human comfort (3M)

PART B (50 MARKS)

2. The sensible heat load factor (SHF) of an air – conditioned room is 0.67. The condition of the air leaving the air- conditioned room is 27OC DBT and 52% RH the maximum permissible temperature difference between the inlet air and out-let air is 11OC. If the quantity of air flow at the inlet of the room is 180m3/mm. Then find the sensible heat load and latent heat load of the air conditioned room.

OR

3. (a) Explain how does the body attempt to compensate for a warm environment approaching body temperature? (b) Draw and explain the comfort chart and zone of comfort for year-round air- conditioning. 4. (a) With the help of a schematic diagram, explain the functioning of thermostatic expansion valve. (b) Compare the performance of reciprocating and centrifugal compressors. [8+8]

OR

5. Draw a neat diagram of constant volume induction system of air conditioning and explain its working. List out its merits over other systems 6. (a) What is the difference between wet bulb temperature and thermodynamic wet bulb temperature? (b) Twelve grams of moisture per kg of dry air is removed from atmospheric air when it is passed through an air-conditioning system and its temperature becomes 270C. The atmospheric conditions are 440C DBT and 64 % R .H. Find the following: i. Relative humidity. ii. Wet-bulb temperature. iii. Dew-point temperature. Take air pressure as 1.03 bar. [6+10]

OR

7. (a) What is sub-cooling and super heating? Explain with the help of diagram, why is super heating considered to be good in certain cases? (b) A F-12 refrigeration machine works between the pressures of 9.9 and 3.3 bars. The condition of the vapour leaving the compressor is 92% dry and there is under cooling in the condenser. Determine the theoretical COP of the machine. 8. (a) Discuss the advantages of vapour absorption refrigeration system over vapour

compression refrigeration system.

(b) What modifications are necessary in a simple absorption refrigeration system in order to

improve the performance of the system? [8+8]

OR

9. The motive steam to a ash water plant is supplied at 6.5 bar dry and saturated, make up water is at 280C and condenser pressure is 3.5 cm Hg absolute. The ash chamber water is at 80C. Assuming nozzle efficiency 84%, entrainment efficiency 64% and diffuser efficiency 79%, quality of steam and vapour mixture at inlet to diffuser as 0.88, Determine (a) Steam required per hr. per ton of refrigeration. (b) Steam required per kg of ashed vapour.

10. The data refer to a reduced ambient refrigeration system are: ambient pressure =0.8 bar,

pressure of ram air = 1.1 bar, temperature of ram air = 200C, pressure at the end of main

compression = 3.3 bar, efficiency of main compressor = 80%,heat exchanger effectiveness =

80%, pressure at the exit of the auxiliary turbine =0.8 bar, efficiency of auxiliary turbine = 85%,

temperature of air leaving the cabin= 250C, pressure in the cabin = 1.013 bar, flow rate of air

through cabin = 60kg/min. Find

(a) The capacity of cooling system required. (b) Power needed to operate the system. (c) COP of the system. [16] OR

11. (a) Which type of air cleaner would be selected for removing very small dirt particles and smoke from the air? Explain its working principle. (b) Explain the advantages and disadvantages of viscous filters over dry filters. [7+8]


TECHNOLOGY


MODEL PAPER 3




PART A (25 MARKS)

1. a. Describe the concept of effective temperature- Comfort chart –Comfort Air

conditioning (2M)

b. Explain the requirements of Industrial air conditioning (3M)

c. Write about various Air conditioning Loads (2M)

d. Explain the process of heating and humidification. (3M)

e. What is meant by ADP of a coil and how is it different from dew point of air? (2M)

f. Why ventilation is required? Explain why different ventilation standards for different

purposes are recommended. (3M)

g. What are the important considerations in the design of air conditioning system? (2M)

h. Write a short note on by-pass factor for cooling coils. (3M)

i. Describe the Steam Jet Refrigeration System – Working Principle and Basic

Components (2M)

j. Explain the working Principle and operation of thermoelectric refrigerator. (3M)

PART B (50 MARKS)

2. (a) Define the following terms of refrigeration i. Refrigerating effect ii. Ton of refrigeration iii. COP iv. Refrigerator and heat pump. (b) A refrigerator works on the Carnot cycle between the temperatures -70C and 27 0C. It makes 500 kg of ice per hour at -50 C from water at 140C. Find power required to drive the compressor and COP of the cycle. Take specific heat of ice as 2.4 kJ / kg 0C and latent heat 334.4 kJ/kg. [7+8] OR

3. (a) What is the situation under which the Steam Jet Refrigeration system is recommended? What are its limitations? Can it be used for obtaining sub- zero temperatures? (b) Explain the various components of Steam Jet Refrigeration system and clearly discuss the function of each component. [6+9]

4. (a) What are non azeotropic and azeotropic mixtures? How do such mixtures improve upon the adverse properties of some refrigerants? (b) What is cross charged thermostatic expansion valve, and a thermostatic expansion valve with external pressure equalizer? [7+8] OR

5. A four cylinder, single acting F12 compressor works between -10 0C and + 30 0C. The vapour leaves the evaporator dry and saturated. Assume: Diameter of the compressor as 15 cm, Stroke of the compressor as 15 cm, RPM of the compressor as 970, volumetric efficiency of the compressor as 75%, Mechanical efficiency of the compressor as 95%, Motor efficiency as 98%. Find (a) Capacity of the plant (b) Power of the motor (c) Quantity of refrigerant flow per minute. [15]

6. (a) What is a sling psychrometer? Make a neat sketch and explain its use. (b) A sling psychrometer reads 440C dry bulb temperature and 300C wet bulb temperature. Calculate the following: i. Specific humidity ii. Relative humidity iii. Vapour density in air iv. Dew point temperature v. Enthalpy of mixture per kg of dry air.

OR

7. The air in a room is to be maintained at 19 0C and 54 % R.H. by air supplied at a temperature of 14 0C. The design out-door conditions are as follows: Sensible heat gain: 20000 kJ/hr, Latent heat gain: 4000 kJ/hr, Out-door conditions: 300C DBT and 42% R.H. The ratio of recirculated air to fresh air is fixed at 2.8 : 1 by weight .The plant consists of direct expansion cooling coil and after-heater and a constant speed fan. Calculate: (a) The quantity of air supplied per minute in cubic metres (b) The load on refrigerating plant in tons of refrigeration assuming the bypass factor of the cooling coil 0.15 (c) The load on after - heater in kW. [15]

8. (a) Discuss the advantages of vapour absorption refrigeration system over vapour compression refrigeration system. (b) What are the different refrigerant - absorbent working pairs and what is the effect of evaporator temperature on performance of absorption systems. [7+8] OR

9. The capacity of the refrigerator (working on reversed Carnot cycle) is 280 tonnes when operating between – 10°C and 25°C. Determine: (i) Quantity of ice produced within 24 hours when water is supplied at 20°C. (ii) Minimum power (in kW) required.

10. A cold storage plant is required to store 20 tonnes of fish. The temperature of the fish when supplied = 25°C; storage temperature of fish required = – 8°C; specific heat of fish above freezing point = 2.93 kJ/kg-°C; specific heat of fish below freezing point = 1.25 kJ/kg- °C; freezing point of fish = – 3°C. Latent heat of fish = 232 kJ/kg. If the cooling is achieved within 8 hours; find out: (i) Capacity of the refrigerating plant. (ii) Carnot cycle C.O.P. between this temperature ranges. (iii) If the actual C.O.P. is 1/ 3 rd of the Carnot C.O.P. find out the power required to run the plant. OR

11. A refrigerating machine of 6 tonnes capacity working on Bell-Coleman cycle has an upper limit of pressure of 5.2 bar. The pressure and temperature at the start of the compression are 1.0 bar and 16°C respectively. The compressed air cooled at constant pressure to a temperature of 41°C enters the expansion cylinder. Assuming both expansion and compression processes to be adiabatic with γ = 1.4, calculate: (i) Co-efficient of performance. (ii) Quantity of air in circulation per minute. (iii) Piston displacement of compressor and expander. (iv) Bore of compressor and expansion cylinders. The unit runs at 240 r.p.m. and is double acting. Stroke length = 200 mm. (v) Power required to drive the unit for air take γ = 1.4 and cp = 1.003 kJ/kg K.


TECHNOLOGY


MODEL PAPER 4

Note: This question paper contain two parts A and B..Part A is compulsory which carries 25 marks. Answer all question in part A. part B consists of 5 units. Answer any one full question from each unit. Each question carries 10 marks and may have a,b,c as sub questions. PART A (25 MARKS)

1. a. Explain the working Principle and operation of Vortex tube or Hilsch tube (2M)

b. Derive the expression for finding out quality of steam required per ton of

refrigeration. (3M)

c. Explain the working principle of Vapor Absorption System (2M)

d. Write how to calculate max COP (3M)

e. Describe the working of NH3 – water system (2M)

f. Describe the working of Li Br –water (Two shell & Four shell) System. (3M)

g. Describe the principle of operation of Three Fluid absorption system, salient features.

(2M)

h. Write and explain the important components of refrigeration system (3M)

i. Write the working principle of various types of evaporators, (2M)

j. 1.5KW per ton refrigeration is required in a Carnot refrigerator to maintain a

temperature of. 150C Calculate the COP of refrigerator, temperature at which heat is

50oC. Calculate the COP of refrigerator, temperature at which heat is rejected, amount

of heat rejected and COP if the cycle is used as a heat pump. (3M)

PART B (50 MARKS)

2. (a) A refrigeration system works between the temp limits of 37 degree celsius and -13 degree

celsius. Find the amount of ice that will be produced per Kwh at 260k from water available at 27

degree celsius. Take cp of ice and water as cpi=2.09kj/kg-k and cpw=4.197kj/kg-k and

hs=335kj/kg.

(b) With the neat sketch explain the working of different types of condensers.

(c) Explain the working of any one type of cooling towers.

OR

3. Explain with the neat sketch the working of vapour compression refrigeration system.

With the neat sketch explain the working of vapour absorption refrigeration system.

4. (a) Give the various application of refrigeration system.

(b) List out the affects caused by using various refrigerants to the environment.

(c) Explain the working of slow freezing and quick freezing refrigeration system.

(d) List out some of the absoluble properties of refrigerants.

OR

5. (a) The values obtained from a sling psychrometer are tlb=30 degree celsius and twb=20

degree celsius. The barometric reading is 740mm of Hg. Calculate

(i) dew point temp and relative humidity. (ii) Degree of saturation (iii) specific humidity

(iv) specific volume (v) specific enthalpy.

(b) Define the term psychrometer an psychrometry.

6. (a) Define conduction, convection and radiation modes of heat transfer.

(b) A 15 ton refrigeration system working on the simple air refrigeration cycle takes

0.6kg/sec of air from the main compressor. From the given values obtained the cop and the

power needed and the amount of flud to be evaporated per hour if the enthalpy charge is

260kJ/kg. PI=1.05 bar P2=5.25 bar P cabin=1.02bar T1=288k 10mp=0.8, cooling turbine

efficiency=o.76. air 1cares the cabin at 30 degree celsius, heat exchanger effectiveness=0.75.

OR

7. (a) Explain the working of any one type of cooling tower.

(b) With the neat sketch explain the working of different types of condensers.

8. Explain with sketch the working of Electrolux refrigeration system. (a) Give the various application of refrigeration system. (b) List out the effects caused by the using various refrigerants to the environment OR

9. (a) List out some of the desirable properties of refrigerants.

(b) Explain the working of slow freezing and quick freezing refrigeration system.

10. (a) The values obtained from a sling psychrometer are tdb=30 degree celsius and tub=20

degree celsius. The barometric readings is 740 mm of Hg. Calculate (i) dew point temp and

relative humidity (ii)degree of saturation (iii) specific humidity (iv) specific volume (v)specific

enthalpy.

(b) Explain the various psychrometric process in detail with the psychrometric chart.

OR

11. (a) State the working of air blowers with the neat sketch.

(b) Explain the working of centrifugal dust collector with the sketch.

(c) Explain the working of centralised air conditioning system with the neat sketch.


TECHNOLOGY


MODEL PAPER 5




PART A (25 MARKS)

1. a. Write the types of refrigerants (2M)

b. What are the required properties of refrigerants (3M)

c. Describe the causes of Ozone Depletion and global Warming. (2M) d. Write the effects of sub cooling and super heating. (3M) e. A stream of air has the dry bulb temperature =28OC and moisture =0.016kg/kg of the dry Determine i) relative humidity: ii) dew point and iii) specific enthalpy of the moist air stream, if the barometer reads 760 mmHg. (2M) f. The air conditioning system of a room is required to deliver air at 290K and having 60% relative humidity , determine i) Specific humidity ii) dew point temperature at moist air, given the barometer pressure = 1.01326 bar. (3M) g. The temperature and relative humidity of air at a place are 33OC and 68% respectively. Find i) dew point temperature ii) humidity ratio iii) specific volume of the moist air Assume the pressure as 1.013 bar the universal gas constant as 8.3143 kJ/kgmole.k (2M) h. An air stream at a flow rate of 1 kg/s and a DBT of 30oC mixes adiabatically with another air stream flowing with a mass flow rate of 2 kg/s and at a DBT of 15oC. Assuming no condensation to take place, the temperature of the mixture is approximately equal to. (3M) i. A heat quantity is absorbed at 300k and rejecting it at 330k in a Carnot refrigeration Cycle. Calculate COP of the cycle, work required per second in KJ if the cycle is absorbing 1500KJ/Min at 300K. (2M) j. Write the working principle of various types of and expansion devices (3M)

PART B (50 MARKS)

2. A refrigeration machine is required to produce i.e., at 0°C from water at 20°C. The machine has a condenser temperature of 298 K while the evaporator temperature is 268 K. The relative efficiency of the machine is 50% and 6 kg of Freon-12 refrigerant is circulated through the system per minute. The refrigerant enters the compressor with a dryness fraction of 0.6. Specific heat of water is 4.187 kJ/kg K and the latent heat of ice is 335 kJ/kg. Calculate the amount of ice produced on 24 hours. The table of properties of Freon-12 is given below:

OR

3. What are the advantages of using an expansion valve instead of an expander in a vapour compression refrigeration cycle? (ii) Give a comparison between centrifugal and reciprocating compressors. (iii) An ice-making machine operates on ideal vapour compression refrigeration cycle using refrigerant R-12. The refrigerant enters the compressor as dry saturated vapour at – 15°C and leaves the condenser as saturated liquid at 30°C. Water enters the machine at 15°C and leaves as ice at – 5°C. For an ice production rate of 2400 kg in a day, determine the power required to run the unit. Find also the C.O.P. of the machine. Use refrigerant table only to solve the problem. Take the latent heat of fusion for water as 335 kJ/kg.

4. Food storage locker requires a refrigeration capacity of 50 kW. It works between a condenser temperature of 35°C and an evaporator temperature of – 10°C. The refrigerant is ammonia. It is sub-cooled by 5°C before entering the expansion valve by the dry saturated vapour leaving the evaporator. Assuming a single cylinder, single-acting compressor operating at 1000 r.p.m. with stroke equal to 1.2 times the bore, Determine: (i) The power required, and (ii) The cylinder dimensions. Properties of ammonia are:

OR

5. (a) Define the following: (i) Refrigeration (ii) Refrigerating system (iii) Refrigerated system. (b) Enumerate different ways of producing refrigeration.

6. (a) What is main characteristic feature of an air refrigeration system ? (b) Differentiate clearly between open and closed air refrigeration systems.

OR

7. (a) Explain briefly an air refrigerator working on a reversed Carnot cycle. Derive expression for its C.O.P. (b) Derive an expression for C.O.P. for an air refrigeration system working on reversed Brayton

cycle.

8. Show the vapour compression cycle on ‘Temperature-Entropy’ (T-s) diagram for the following cases: (i) When the vapour is dry and saturated at the end of compression. (ii) When the vapour is superheated after compression.

(iii) When the vapour is wet after compression.

OR

9. (a) What is the difference between ‘Wet compression’ and ‘Dry compression’ ? (b) Write a short note on ‘Pressure Enthalpy (p-h) chart’.

(c)Show the simple vapour compression cycle on a p-h chart

10. An air refrigeration system operating on Bell Coleman cycle takes in air from cold room at 268 K and compresses it from 1.0 bar to 5.5 bar. The index of compression being 1.25, the compressed air is cooled to 300 K. The ambient temperature is 20°C. Air expands in an expander where the index of expansion is 1.35. Calculate: (i) C.O.P. of the system (ii) Quantity of air circulated per minute for production of 1500 kg of ice per day at 0°C from water at 20°C. (iii) Capacity of the plant in terms of kJ/s. Take cp = 4.18 kJ/kg K for water, cp = 1.005 kJ/kg K for air Latent heat of ice = 335 kJ/kg.

OR

11. An ammonia vapour-compression refrigerator operates between an evaporator pressure of 2.077 bar and a condenser pressure of 12.37 bar. The following cycles are to be compared; in each case there is no under cooling in the condenser, and isentropic compression may be assumed: (i) The vapour has a dryness fraction of 0.9 at entry to the compressor. (ii) The vapour is dry saturated at entry to the compressor. (iii) The vapour has 5 K of superheat at entry to the compressor. In each case calculate the C.O.P.(ref.) and the refrigerating effect per kg. What would be the C.O.P. (ref.) of a reversed Carnot cycle operating between the same saturation temperatures?

MALLA REDDY COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING AND TECHNOLOGY

III B.TECH II SEMISTER MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

DESIGN OF MACHINE MEMBERS-II MODEL QUESTION PAPER -1

Note: This question paper contain two parts A and B.

Part A is compulsory which carries 25 marks. Answer all question in part A. part B consists of 5

units. Answer any one full question from each unit. Each question carries 10 marks and may have

a,b,c as sub questions.

PART A (25 MarkS)

1. a) Define static load carrying capacity of ball bearing. [2]

b) State any two advantages and dis advantages of deep grooving ball bearing. [3]

c) What are the basic functions of piston rings. [2]

d) Under what forces the big end bolt and caps are designed. [3]

e) What is the poiygon action in roller chain? [2]

f) What is the effect of centrifugal tension on power transmitted by a belt drive? [3]

g) What is the dynamic load ? what are its causes? [2]

h) What is the velocity factor for bevel gears ? [3]

i) What is self locking of power screw [2]

j) What is collar friction ? [3]

PART-B (50 Marks)

2. Design a bearing and journal to support a load of 4500N at 600 rev/min using a hardened steel journal

and a bronze backed Babbitt bearing . The bearing is lubricated by oil rings. Take room temperature as

210C and oil temperature as 80

0C.

(OR)

3. A ball bearing operates on the following work cycle.

Element No Radial load(N) Speed(R.P.M) Element time(%)

1 3000 720 30

2 7000 1440 40

3 5000 900 30

4. Design a cast iron piston for a single acting four stroke engine for the following specifications:

Cylinder bore =100mm, Stroke=120mm, Maximum gas pressure =5N/mm2,Brake mean effective

pressure =0.65N/mm2,Fuel consumption=0.227kg/KW/hr,speed=2200 rev/min,Assume suitable data.

(OR)

5. The following data refer to a four stroke cycle, single cylinder diesel engine suction pressure = 0.095

MPa , Cylinder diameter =200 mm, stroke =200 mm, Ratio of compression =15,Engine

speed=7450rpm, Equivalent mass of reciprocating parts 2 N/sq.mm of piston area ,Ratio of

connecting rod length to crank length is 4.Design Nickel steel connecting rod of I section choosing the

suitable values for the permissible stresses for the material.

6. In a horizontal belt drive for a centrifugal blower, the blower is belt driven at 600 r.p.m by a 15 KW,

1750 r.p.m electric motor. The centre distance is twice the diameter of the large pulley, The density of

the belt material = 1500 kg/m3; maximum allowable stress =4 MPa:μ1=0.5( motor pulley); μ2=0.4

(blower pulley ); peripheral velocity of the belt =20 m/s.Determine the following:

a) pulley diameter; b) Belt length c) Crosssectional area of the belt;d)( Minimum initial tention for

operation without slip;and e) Resultant force on the plane of the blower with an initial tention 50 %

greater than yhe minimum value.

(OR)

7. Select a wire rope for a vertical mine hoist to lift a load of 20 KN from a depth of 500 meters: A rope

speed of 3 m/s is to be attained in 10 seconds.

8. A compressor running at 300 rev/min is driven by a 15KW, 1200 rev/min motor through a

14.5 0 full depth spur gears. The centre distance is 0.375 m. the motor piston is to be of C-30

forged steel hardened and tempered , and the driven gear is to be cast steel. Assuming medium

shock condition;

a) Determine the module , the face width , and the number of teeth on each gear.

b) check the gears for dynamic load and wear

c) Design the drive completely. (OR)

9. A pair of helical gears is to transmit 18KW. The teeth are 200 stub in diametric plane and have a helix

angle of 350. The pinion runs at 8000rpm and has 6mm pitch diameter. The gear has 320mm pitch

diameter. If the gears are made of cast steel having allowable static strength of 150Mpa.Determine a

suitable module and face width from static strength considerations. 10. A power screw having double start square threads of 35mm nominal diameter and 5mm pitch is acted

upon by an axial load of 15KN. The outer and inner diameters of screw collar are 50mm and 20 mm

respectively. The coefficient of threaded friction and collar friction may assume as 0.25 and 0.15

respectively. The screw rotates at 12rpm. Assuming uniform wear condition at the collar and

allowable threaded bearing pressure of 5.8N/mm2, Find The torque required to rotate the screw.

Stress in the screw. (OR) 11.A machine vice, as shown in figure , has single start, square threads with 22 mm normal diameter and

5mm pitch . The outer and inner diameters of the friction collar are 55mm and 45mm respectively.

The coefficient of friction for thread and collar are 0.15 and 0.17 respectively. The machinist can

comfortably exert a force of 125N on the handle at a mean radius of 150mm. Assuming uniform wear

for the collar, calculate : (a) The clamping force developed between the jaws.(b) The overall efficiency

of the clamp.








PART A (25 MarkS)

1. a) Specify the types of lubricant with examples. [2]

b) Define the following terms (a) viscosity (b) viscosity index [3]

c) What is slenderness ratio? Explain its significance in the design of connecting rod. [2]

d) Briefly explain the importance of various end conditions of column. [3]

e) What factors should be considered during the selection of belt drive? [2]

f) Why are thin wide flat belts preferred than thick narrow belts? [3]

g) Why tight side of the belt should be at the bottom side of the pulley? [2]

h) Define the following terms (a) backlass (b)gear ratio [3]

i) Why dedendum value is more than addendum value? [2]

j) State the law of gearing. [3]

PART-B (50 Marks)

2. Design a journal bearing for centrifugal pump for the following data

load on the journal = 12KN

diameter of the journal = 75mm

speed = 1400rpm

atmospheric temperature = 250C

operating temperature of oil = 700C

(OR)

3. A ball bearing subjected to a radial load of 3000N is expected to have a satisfactory life of

10000hr at 720rpm with a reliability of 95%.calculate the dynamic load carrying capacity of the

bearing so that it can be selected from a manufacturers catalogue based on 90% reliability. If

there are four such bearings each with a reliability of 95% in a system, what is the reliability of

complete system?

4. Design a cast-iron cylinder for an I.C engine whose bore diameter is 80mm and the maximum

combustion pressure is 5.5MPa.

(OR)

5. Design a center crank for a single acting 175mm bore x 175mm stroke air compressor working at

360rpm. The maximum pressure on the cylinder is 0.7N/mm2. Select suitable material and factor

of safety. section choosing the suitable values for the permissible stresses for the material.

6. The following data is given for an open type v-belt drive ; diameter of driving pulley = 200mm ,

Diameter of driven pulley = 600mm , groove angle for shaves = 340 , mass of belt = 0.5Kg /m ,

maximum permissible tension in belt = 500N , co-efficient of friction = 0.2 , contact angle for

smaller pulley = 1570 speed of smaller pulley = 1440rpm , power to be transmitted = 10K.W. how

many v-belts should be used assuming each belt takes its proportional part of the load?

(OR)

7. Design a flat belt drive to transmit 20KW at 730rpm to a rolling machine with speed ratio of 3.

The center distance is nearly 3.5m. The diameter of rolling machine pulley is 1.2 m.

8. A pair of 200 full depth spur-gears are required to transmit 22.5KW. the speed of the pinion is

3000rpm and gear ratio of the drive is 10. The pinion is made of steel with a Brinell number of

250 and the gear is made of ordinary cast iron. The number of teeth of the pinion should be

between 15 and 24. The diameter of the pinion should be approximately 75mm. design the spur-

gear drive. (OR)

9. Design a worm-gear speed reducer for transmitting 6KW T 960rpm of the worm gear with a

transmission ration or 15. Allowable variation of ratio is + 3%. Load is almost constant. Rating is

continuous. Reducer is used to operate a transporter in a furnace is to work for 2 shifts/day, 310

days/yr and 2 yrs.

.

10. A vertical screw with single start square threads of 60mm mean diameter and 12 pitch is raised

against a load of 15KN by means of a hand wheel, the boss of which is threaded to act as nut.

The axial load is taken up by a thrust collar which supports the wheel boss and has a mean

diameter of 80mm. The coefficient of friction is 0.15 for the screw and 0.18 for the collar. If the

tangential force applied by each hand to the wheel is 120N, Find suitable diameter of the hand

wheel.

(OR) 11. The lead screw of a lathe has Acme threads of 40mm outside diameter and 7mm pitch. The

screw must exert an axial pressure of 1600N in order to drive the tool carriage. The thrust is

carried on a collar 110mm outside diameter and 55mm inside diameter and the lead screw

rotates at 50rpm Determine.

i) The power required to drive the screw; and

ii) The efficiency of the lead screw ,Assume a coefficient of friction of 0.2 for the screw

and 0.23 for the collar








PART A (25 MarkS)

1. a) Define petroff’s equation. [2]

b) What is L10 life? [3]

c) Define the following terms (a) diametral clearance (b) diametral clearance ratio. [2]

k) What is the use of ribs in pistons? [3]

l) Define co-efficient of fluctuation of energy. [2]

m) What is B 4430 Lp designation of v-belt? [3]

n) Define the following terms (a) tip circle (B) root circle (c) pitch circle (d) base circle[2]

o) Write short notes on the following (a) spiral bevel gears (b) miter gears [3]

p) In the design of power screws, on what factors does the thread bearing pressure depend?

Explain [2]

q) What do you understand by overhauling of screw? [3]

PART-B (50 Marks)

2. A full journal bearing of 50mm diameter & 100mm long has a bearing pressure of 1.4N/mm2.

The speed of the journal is 900rpm & the ratio of journal diameter to the diametral clearance is

1000. The bearings is lubricated with oil whose absolute viscosity at the operating temperature of

750c may be taken as 0.11kg/m-s. The room temperature 350c. find the amount of artificial

cooling required.

(OR)

3. Design a self-aligning ball bearings for a radial load of 7000 N and a thrust load of 2100 N. the

desired of the bearing is 160 millions of revolutions at 300r.p.m. Assume uniform and steady

load.

4. Design a plain carbon steel centre crankshaft for a single acting four stroke single cylinder engine

for the following data: Bore = 400 mm, Stroke = 600 mm; Engine speed =200 r.p.m; Mean

effective pressure = 0.5 N/mm2; Maximum combustion pressure =2.5 N/mm2; Weight of

flywheel used as a pulley = 50kN; Total belt pull = 6.5kN. When the crank has turned through

350 from the top dead centre, the pressure on the piston is 1N/mm2 and the torque on the crank is

maximum. The ratio of the connecting rod length to the crank radius is 5. Assume any other data

required for the design.

(OR)

5. The following particulars refer to a 4 stroke diesel engine given: Piston diameter =

150mm ,Stroke length = 180mm, Length of the connecting rod= 4 times of length

of crank Rated rpm of the engine =1500 ,Compression ratio = 6:1,Mass of

reciprocating parts per cylinder = 2.25kg Speed = 1200rpm, Maximum explosion

pressure = 5Mpa Factor of safety=6 ,Yield strength in compression 350Mpa.

Determine i) Cross section of I-section connecting rod assuming standard

proportions. Ii) Sizes of gudgeon pin and crank pin considering bearing pressures of

15mpa and 10 MPa respectively. Size of crank pin end bolts if the allowable stress

not to exceed 40MPa.

6. A roller chain operating under steady load conditions transmits 4kW from a shaft rotating at

600rev/min to one operating at 750rev/min.

i) Determine the chain required using at least 15 teeth in sprockets

ii) Determine the sprocket pitch diameters.

iii) Determine the shortest advisable centre distance.

iv) Determine the number of links of chain required. (OR)

7. An overhung pulley transmits 35kW at 240rpm. The belt drive is vertical & the angle of wrap

may be taken as 1800. The distance of the pulley centre line from the nearest bearing is 350rpm. μ

=0.25.The section of the arm may be taken as elliptical, the major axis being twice the minor axis.

The following stress may be taken for design purpose: Shaft & Key: Tension & Compression-

80MPa; Shear-50MPa Belt: Tension-2.5MPa ,Pulley rim: Tension-4.5MPa Pulley arms: Tension-

15MPa Determine:i) Diameter of the pulley ii)Diameter of the shaft

8. The following particulars of a single reduction spur gear are given, Gearratio=10:1;

Distance between centers =660mm approximately; pinion transmits 500kw at 1800rpmInvolutes

teeth of standard proportions (addendum=1m) with pressure angle of 22.50; Permissible normal

pressure between teeth =175N per mm of width. Find

i) The nearest standard module if no interference is to occur.

ii) The number of teeth on wheel;

iii) The necessary width of pinion

iv) The load on the bearings of the wheels due to power transmitted. (OR)

9. A pair of cast iron bevel gears connects two shafts at right angle. Pitch diameter of pinion and gear are 80mm & 120mm respectively. Tooth profile is 141/20 static strength of both the gears in 56Mpa. Power transmitted is 2.5Kw. at 1200rpm. Determine module of the gear from strength point of view. Check design for wear..

10. The lead screw of a lathe has Acme threads of 45mm outside diameter and 6mm pitch. The screw must exert an axial pressure of 1800N in order to drive the tool carriage. The thrust is carried on a collar 110mm outside diameter and 55mm inside diameter and the lead screw rotates at 30rpm Determine.

i)The power required to drive the screw; and

ii) The efficiency of the lead screw. Assume a coefficient of friction of 0.2 for the screw

and 0.23 for the collar (OR)

11. A power screw having double start square thread of 32mm nominal dia and 5mm pitch is acted

upon by an axial load of 12KN. The inner and outer diameter of screw collar surfaces is 20mm

and 50mm respectively. Coefficient of thread friction and collar friction may be assumed as 0.15

and 0.2 respectively screw rotates at 28rpm. Assume uniform condition permissible thread

bearing pressure is 6 Mpa. Permissible shear stress across threads of nut and screw is 32 Mpa.

Determine torque required to rotate the screw and stress induced in the screw?








PART A (25 MarkS)

1. a) Explain wedge film and squeeze film journal bearings [2]

b) List the important physical characteristics of a good bearing material [3]

c) Define Dynamic equivalent load rating in rolling contact bearings [2]

r) Under what force, the big and end bolts and caps are designed? [3]

s) Writ a shot notes on whipping stress in connecting rod. [2]

t) What are simplex, duplex and triplex chains? [3]

u) Why the face of a pulley is crowned? [2]

v) Explain the following terms used in helical gears

(a) Helix angle (b) Normal pitch (c) Axial pitch [3]

i) Derive equation for formative number of teeth in bevel gears? [2]

w) What is self locking property of threads and where it is necessary? [3]

PART-B (50 Marks)

2. A steam turbine shaft 200mm diameter turns at 1800 rpm and is supported in a journal

bearing on which the total load is 90KN ,Room temp is 30oC, The bearing temp is 60oC

,Allowable bearing pressure is 1.5MPa .Determine the length of the bearing and amount of

heat to be removed by the lubricant per minute. Viscosity of oil at 60oC is 0.021 N/ms

(OR) 3. A 306 radial ball bearing with inner ring rotation as 8s work cycle as follows Radial force

3KN

Axial load 2KN Speed 1200rpm Under steady load conditions the basic dynamic load capacity of

the bearing is 24.25KN. Determine the expected average life of this bearing. Take X=0.56 and

Y=1.43

4. Design a side or overhung crankshaft for a 250x300mm gas engine. The weight of the

flywheel is 30KN and the explosion temperature is 2.1N/mm2. The gas pressure at the

maximum torque is 0.9 N/mm 2, when the crank angle is 350 from I.D.C. the connecting rod

is 4.5 times the crank radius. (OR)

5. A Connecting rod is required to be designed for a high speed, four stroke I.C. engine. The

following data are available.

Diameter of piston = 88mm; Mass of reciprocating parts=1.6kg; Length of connecting rod (centre

to centre) =300 mm; Stroke = 125 mm; R.P.M=2200 (when developing 50kW); Possible over

speed=3000r.p.m; Compression ratio= 6.8:1 (approximately); Probable maximum explosion

pressure (assumed shortly after dead centre, say at about 30) = 3.5N/mm2.

6. An overhung pulley transmits 35kW at 240rpm. The belt drive is vertical & the angle of

wrap may be taken as 1800. The distance of the pulley centre line from the nearest bearing is 350rpm. μ =0.25.

The section of the arm may be taken as elliptical, the major axis being twice the minor axis. The

following stress may be taken for design purpose: Shaft & Key: Tension & Compression-80MPa;

Shear-50MPa Belt: Tension-2.5MPa,Pulley rim: Tension-4.5MPa Pulley arms: Tension-15MPa

Determine: i) Diameter of the pulley ii) Diameter of the shaft

(OR)

7. Design a belt drive pulley for transmitting 10kW at 180 rpm. The velocity of the belt is not

to exceed 10m/s, and the maximum tension is not to exceed 15N/mm width. The tension on

the slack is one half of that on the tight side. Determine: a) Width of the pulley b) Diameter of the pulley 8. A pair of helical gears is to transmit 15KW. The teeth are 200 stub in diametric plane and

have a helix angle of 450. The pinion runs at 10,000rpm and has 8mm pitch diameter. The gear has 320mm pitch diameter. If the gears are made of cast steel having allowable static strength of 100Mpa.Determine a suitable module and face width from static strength considerations.

(OR)

9. Two shafts inclined at 600 are connected by the pair of bevel gears to transmit 9KW at 900 rpm of 24 teeth cast steel pinion gear is made of high grade cast iron and is to rotate at 300 rpm teeth are 14.50 involute form. Find module of gear teeth.

10. The mean diameter of the square threaded screw having pitch of 10mm is 50mm. A load of

20KN is lifted through a distance of 170mm. Find the work done in lifting the load and the

efficiency of the screw, when

a) The load rotates with the screw and

b) The load rests on the loose head which does not rotate with the screw.

c) The external and internal diameter of the bearing surface of the loose head 60mm and 10mm

respectively. The coefficient of friction for the bearing surface may be taken as 0.08.

(OR) 11. The cutter of a broaching machine is pulled by square threaded screw of 55mm external

diameter and 10mm pitch. The operating nut takes the axial load of 400N on a flat surface of

60mm and 90mm internal and external diameters respectively. If the coefficient of friction is

0.15 for all contact surfaces on the nut, determine the power required to rotate the operating

nut when the cutting speed is 6m/min. Also find the efficiency of the screw.








PART A (25 MarkS)

1. a) Explain Bearing modulus for journal bearings. [2]

b) Define rating life [3]

c) Explain the various stresses induced in the connecting rod [2]

x) At what angle of the crank the twisting moment is maximum in the crank shaft? [3]

y) Discuss the uses and construction of wire ropes. How is wire rope ends fastened? [2]

z) Derive the relation for the ratio of driving tensions of a V-belt. [3]

aa) Derive Lewis equation for beam strength of gear tooth on spur gears [2]

bb) Explain axial pitch lead angle pressure angle and pitch diameter of worm with the help of a

sketch [3]

cc) Show that the efficiency of self locking screws is less than 50%. [2]

dd) In the design of power screws, on what factors does the thread bearing pressure depend?

Explain [3]

PART-B (50 Marks)

2. A full journal bearing of 50mm diameter & 100mm long has a bearing pressure of 1.4N/mm2.

The speed of the journal is 900rpm & the ratio of journal diameter to the diametral clearance is

1000. The bearings is lubricated with oil whose absolute viscosity at the operating temperature of

750c may be taken as 0.11kg/m-s. The room temperature 350c. find the amount of artificial

cooling required.

(OR) 3. A 150mm diameter shaft supporting a load of 10KN has a speed of 1500rpm.The shaft run in

whose bearing length is 1.5 times the shaft diameter. If the diametric clearance of bearing is

0.15mm and the absolute viscosity of the oil at the operating temperature is 0.011 Kg/m-s. Find

the power wasted in friction.

4. Design a connecting rod for an I.C. engine running at 1800 r.p.m and developing a maximum

pressure of 3.15 N/mm2. The diameter of the piston is 100 mm; mass of the reciprocating parts

per cylinder 2.25kg; length of connecting rod 380 mm; stroke of piston 190 mm and compression

ratio 6:1. Take a factor of safety of 6 for the design. Take length to diameter ratio for big end

bearing as 1.3 and small end bearing as 2 and the corresponding bearing pressures as 10N/mm2

and 15 N/mm2. The density of material of the rod may be taken as 8000kg/m3 and the allowable

stress in the bolts as 60 N/mm2 and in cap as 80 N/mm2. The rod is to be of I-section for which

you can choose your own proportions.. Use Rankine formula for which the numerator constant

may be taken as 320 N/mm2 and the denominator 1/7500.

(OR)

5. Design high speed petrol engine connecting rod, given: Piston diameter = 100mm

Stroke length = 138mm

Length of the connecting rod=310mm Rated rpm of the engine =1500 Compression ratio = 4:1

Weight of reciprocating parts per cylinder = 1.8kg Speed = 2500

Maximum explosion pressure = 2.45Mpa Bearing pressure for big end = 7MPa Bearing pressure

for small end = 14MPa

Connecting rod should be of I-section and be made of forged steel, the proportions being depth

h=5t, width =4t, where is the flange and web thickness. Determine Dimensions of the crank pin

& piston pin ,Size of the bolts for securing the big end cap.

6. Select a suitable v-belt and design the drive for a wet grinder. Power is available from a 0.5K.W

motor running at 750rpm. Drum speed is to be about 100rpm. Drive is to be compact.

(OR)

7. Design a belt drive pulley for transmitting 10kW at 180 rpm. The velocity of the belt is not to

exceed 10m/s, and the maximum tension is not to exceed 15N/mm width. The tension on the

slack is one half of that on the tight side. Determine: c) Width of the pulley d) Diameter of the pulley

8. A spur-gear drive is used o drive a cam-shaft by the crank-shaft with speed reduction of 2 in a

5KW engine. The center distance is to be not more than 160mm. design the drive for 1200hrs.

crank-shaft speed is 1500rpm.

(OR)

9. Design a worm-gear reducer to transmit 10 hp. From the input shaft running at 1800rpm. To the

output shaft which is to run at 100 rpm. Calculate the efficiency of the drive.

10. The following data refers to a screw jack; load to be raised 20KN nominal diameter of the screw

is 40mm pitch of the screw is 6mm coefficient of friction between screw and nut is 0.15.

Assuming load rotating with the screw, determine torque required to raise and lower the load

and efficiency of screw jack

(OR) 11. A vertical two start square threaded screw of a 100mm mean diameter and 20mm pitch supports

a vertical load of 18 KN. The axial thrust on the screw is taken by a collar bearing of 250mm

outside diameter. Find the force required at the end of a lever which is 400mm long in order to

lift and lower the load. The coefficient of friction for the vertical screw and nut is 0.15 and that

for collar bearing is 0.20.


TECHNOLOGY

MECHANICAL DEPARTMENT SUB: HT

PART A (25 MARKS)

1. a. How does the science of heat transfer differ from the science of thermodynamics?

b. What is the driving force for (a) heat transfer, (b) electric current flow, and (c) fluid flow?

c. What is heat generation in a solid? Give examples ?

d. What is a thermal symmetry boundary condition?

e. What is the physical significance of the Nusselt number? How is it defined ?

f. What is turbulent thermal conductivity? What is it caused by ?

g. What is the difference between evaporation and boiling?

h. What is condensation? How does it occur?

j.Classify heat exchangers according to flow type and explain the characteristics of each type?

j.What are the common causes of fouling in a heat exchanger? How does fouling affect

Heattransfer and pressure drop?

PART – B 50 MARKS

2. a. Derive general conduction equation in Cartesian coordinates?

b. An insulated pipe of 50 mm outside diameter (€=0.8)is laid in a room at 30 0C.If the surface

temperatures is 250 0 C and the convective heat transfer coefficient is 10 W/m2K. Calculate the heat

loss per unit length of pipe.

OR

3. If the combustion chamber wall is made up of Firebrick (k=0.145 W/mK, € =0.85)and is 1.45

cm thickness, Compute the overall heat transfer coefficient for the following data.

Gas temperature 800 C Wall temperature on gas side =798 0C Film conductance on gas side 40 /m2K Film conductance on coolant side 10 W/m2K Radiation shape factor between wall and gas =1 4. a. Derive one dimensional steady state conduction equation in case of slab ? b. A Hollow heat cylinder with r1=30 mm and r2=50 mm , k=15W/mK is heated on the inner surface at a rate of 10 5 W/m2 and dissipates heat by conduction from the outer surface to a fluid at 100 0Cwith h=400 W/m2K.Find the temperature inside and outside surfaces of the cylinder and also find rate of heat transfer through the wall.

OR 5. a.Derive the conduction in one - dimensional case of a cylinder ? b. A water pipe is to be buried in soil at a sufficient depth from the surface depth from to surface to prevent freezing in winter. When the soil is at a uniform temperature of 1000C the surface is subjected to a uniform temperature of -1500C continuously for 50 days. What minimum burial depth is needed to prevent the freezing of pipe? Assume that ∞=0.2x10-6 m2/s for the soil and that the pipe surface temperature should not fall below 0 0C. 6. a. Differentiate between Newtonian and Non Newtonian fluids. Give examples ?

b. It was found during a test in which water flowed with a velocity of 2.44 m/s through a tube (2.54 cm inner diameter and 6.08m long), that the head lost due to friction was 1.22m of water. Estimate the surface heat transfer coefficient based on Reynolds analogy. Take ρ=998kg/m3 and cp=4.187 kJ/kgK

OR 7. a. A 2.2-cm-outer-diameter pipe is to cross a river at a 30-m-wide section whilebeing completely

immersed in water The average flow velocity of water is 4 m/s and the water temperature is 15_C. Determine the drag force exerted on the pipe by the river.

b. Derive the energy equation ? 8. a. Explain drop-wise and film wise condensation ? b. A Vertical plate 300mm wide and 1.2m high is maintained at 7000C and is exposed to saturated steam at 1 atm. pressure. Calculate the heat transfer coefficient and the total mass of steam condensed per hour. What would be the heat coefficient if the plate is inclined at 3000C to the vertical?

OR

9. Two black discs 1m in diameter are placed directly opposite to each other at a distances

0.5m.The discs are maintained at 1000K and 500K respectively. Calculate the heat flow

between the discs (a) when no other surfaces are present and (b)when the discs are connected

by a cylindrical refractory no- flux surface ?

10. In an oil cooler, oil enters at 16000C. If the water entering at 3500C flows Parallel to oil, the exit

temperatures of oil and water are 9000C and 7000C respectively. Determine the exit

temperatures of oil and water if the two fluids in opposite directions. Assuming that the flow

rates of the two fluids and U0 remain unaltered. What would be the minimum

temperatures to which oil could be cooled in parallel flow and counter flow operations?

OR

11. a.Derive LMTD for parallel flow heat exchangers ?

b. Derive expression for effectiveness of counter flow heat exchanger ?


TECHNOLOGY


PART A (25 MARKS)

1. a. What is heat flux? How is it related to the heat transfer rate?

b. How does heat conduction differ from convection ?

c. How does transient heat transfer differ from steady heat transfer? How does one-

dimensional heat transfer differ from two-dimensional heat transfer? d. Define Biot number ? e. How does turbulent flow differ from laminar flow? For which flow is the heat transfer

coefficient higher ? f. How does the Rayleigh number differ from the Grashof number ? g. What is the difference between sub-cooled and saturated boiling? h. What are the summation rule and the superposition rule for view factors ? j.What is a regenerative heat exchanger? j.What are the common approximations made in the analysis of heat exchangers?

PART – B 50 MARKS

2. a. Derive conduction equation in spherical coordinate systems ? b. A steam pipe of (€=0.9)of 0.4 m diameter has a surface temperature of 500 0C.and is

located in a large room at 25 0 C where h =25 W/m.2KFind (i) Combined heat transfer

coefficient (ii)The rate of heat loss per unit length OR

3. a. Sheets of brass and steel each 1 cm thickness are in contact. The outersurface of brass

is at 100 0C. And that of steel is at 0 0 C. and K d/Ks = 2 Determine Interface temperature of

sheets ?

b. What are the different forms of heat transfer?

4. a. Explain the concept of lumped analysis ?

b. Three 10cm dia rods A,B and C protrude from a steam bath at 100 0C to a length of

25cm into an atmosphere at 200C. The temperature at the other end are Ta=26.760C,

Tb=320 C and Tc=36.93 0C. Find the thermal conductivities of the rod A, B and C, if h=23/mK

in each case. OR

5. a.Define Biot number and Fourier number ?

b. A steel cylinder 0.35m diameter and 0.70m long at 2000C is heated in an oven

maintained at 10500C. Determine the temperatures at the centre and surface of their

cylinder after an hour are to be determined. Take k =34.9W/mK,c=0.7kJ/kg K,

rho=7800kg/m3 and h=232.5W/m2K.Takeassumptions:1.Heat conduction in the

short cylinder has thermal symmetry about the centerline. 2. The thermal properties of

the cylinder &the heat transfer coefficient are constant. 6. a. What do you mean by Von Karman‘s integral method. and derive drag force and heat

transfer coefficient for flow over a flat plate ?

b. Give the steps to find heat transfer in natural convection? What do you mean by

hydrodynamic entry length? OR

7. Water flows through a 20mm ID at a rate of 0.01kg/s entering at 1000C.The tube is wrapped

from outside by an electric element that produces a uniform flux of 156kW/m2. If the exit

temperature of water is 4000C,

estimate (a)the Reynolds number,(b)the heat transfer coefficient, (c)the length of the pipe

needed, (d)the inner tube surface temperature at exit, e)the friction factor, (f)the pressure drop

in the tube, and (g)the pumping power required if the pump efficiency is 60%. Neglect entrance

effects. Properties of the water at 250C are: ρ =997kg/m3 cp=4180J/kgK, m=910x10-

6Ns/m2 and k=0.608W/mK.

8. a. Explain what do you mean by absorptivity ,reflectivity and transmissivity ?

b. A black body emits radiation at 2000K. Calculate (i) the monochromatic

emmissive power at 1 µ.m wavelength,(ii) wavelength at which the emission is

maintained and (iii)the maximum emmissive power?

OR

9. a. Water in a tank is to be boiled at sea level by a 1-cm-diameter nickel plated steel

heating element equipped with electrical resistance wiresinside, in. Determine the

maximum heat flux that can be attained in the nucleate boiling regime and the

surface temperature of the heater surface in that case.

b. Why the condenser tubes are horizontal ?

10. Derive LMTD for parallel flow heat exchangers?

OR

11. Define effectiveness and Ntu of heat exchangers? What are shell and tube heat exchangers?


TECHNOLOGY


PART A (25 MARKS) 1. a. Define thermal conductivity and explain its significance in heat transfer ?

b. How are heat, internal energy, and thermal energy related to each other?

c. When is lumped system analysis it applicable?

d. What is lumped system analysis?

e. What are the advantages of non dimensionalizing the convection equations?

f. What is drag? What causes it? Why do we usually try to minimize it?

g. What is the difference between film and dropwise condensation ?

h. What is a graybody?

j.Can the logarithmic mean temperature difference Tlm of a heat exchanger be a negative

quantity? Explain ?

j.What are the common approximations made in the analysis of heat exchangers?

PART – B 50 MARKS

2. a. Discuss basic laws of 3 modes of heat transfer?

b. The convective heat transfer coefficient h=2.512(Δ T)0.25 W/m2 K.A hot plate of A=0.2 m2 at

590 C losses heat to a room temperature 20 0C.Find the fraction of heat lost by natural

convection when heat is transferred from the plate steadily at the rate of 100 W.

OR

3. The roof of an electrically heated home is 6 m long, 8 m wide, and 0.25 m thick, and is made

of a flat layer of concrete whose thermal conductivity is k _ 0.8 W/m · °C . The temperatures

of the inner and the outer surfaces of the roof one night are measured to be 15°C and 4°C,

Respectively, for a period of 10 hours. Determine (a) the rate of heat loss through the roof that

night and (b) the cost of that heat loss to the home owner if the cost of electricity is $0.08/kWh.

4. a. What is critical thickness of insulation explain ?

b. A tube 2 cm. O.D maintained at uniform temperature f Ti is c ve ed with insulation (k=0.20

W/mK) to reduce heat loss to the ambient air T∞ with ha=15W/m2K.Findi) the critical

thickness rc of insulation (ii)the ratio of heat loss from the tube with insulation to that with

atinsulation, (a) if the thickness of insulation is equal to ra.

OR

5. A solid sphere of radius 0.5 m has an interval heat generation rate of 2x106 W/m3.If the thermal

conductivity of material is 40 W/m.K and the convective heat transfer coefficient at the

surface of sphere is 100 W/m2K.Calculate the temperatures at the outer surface and at the

center. Take ambient temperature as 300 C.

6. a. What is boundary layer thickness what do you mean by laminar and turbulent boundary

layers b.What is critical Reynolds number for flow over flat plate ?

OR

7. Explain the conditions for which Dittus-Boelter equation can be used to determine heat transfer

coefficient? What is Rayleigh number ?

8. Differentiate between different types of condensers ?

OR

9. Write correlations for condensation heat transfer? Explain film boiling explain ?

10. Classify heat exchangers? Explain any two? What are the applications of heat exchangers ?

OR

11. What do you mean by fouling factors causes of fouling? Derive LMTD for counter flow heat

exchangers ?


TECHNOLOGY


PART A (25 MARKS)

1. a. What is heat flux? How is it related to the heat transfer rate? b. How are heat, internal energy, and thermal energy related to each other?

c. Define Biot number ?

d. When is lumped system analysis it applicable?

e. How does the Rayleigh number differ from the Grashof number ?

f. What are the advantages of non dimensionalizing the convection equations?

g. What are the summation rule and the superposition rule for view factors ?

h. What is the difference between film and dropwise condensation ?

j.What are the common approximations made in the analysis of heat exchangers?

j.Can the logarithmic mean temperature difference Tlm of a heat exchanger be a negative

quantity? Explain ?

PART – B 50 MARKS

2. a. An insulated pipe of 50 mm outside diameter (€=0.8)is laid in a room at 30 0C.If the surface

temperatures is 250 0 C and the convective heat transfer coefficient is 10 W/m2K. Calculate the

heat loss per unit length of pipe.

b. Derive conduction equation in spherical coordinate systems ?

OR

3. a. What are the different forms of heat transfer?

b. Derive general conduction equation in Cartesian coordinates?

4. A Hollow heat cylinder with r1=30 mm and r2=50 mm , k=15W/mK is heated on the inner surface at a rate of 10 5 W/m2 and dissipates heat by conduction from the outer surface to a fluid at 100 0Cwith h=400 W/m2K.Find the temperature inside and outside surfaces of the cylinder and also find rate of heat transfer through the wall.

OR

5 a. Three 10cm dia rods A,B and C protrude from a steam bath at 1000 C to a length of

25cm into an atmosphere at 200C. The temperature at the other end are Ta=26.760C,

Tb=320 C and Tc=36.93 C. Find the thermal conductivities of the rod A, B and C, if

h=23/mK in each case.

b. A water pipe is to be buried in soil at a sufficient depth from the surface depth from to surface to prevent freezing in winter. When the soil is at a uniform temperature of 1000C the surface is subjected to a uniform temperature of -150C continuously for 50 days. What minimum burial depth is needed to prevent the freezing of pipe? Assume that ∞=0.2x10-6 m2/s for the soil and that the pipe surface temperature should not fall below 0 0C.

6. a. Differentiate between Newtonian and Non Newtonian fluids. Give examples? b. It was found during a test in which water flowed with a velocity of 2.44 m/s through a tube (2.54 cm inner diameter and 6.08m long), that the head lost due to friction was 1.22m of

water. Estimate the surface heat transfer coefficient based on Reynolds analogy. Take ρ=998kg/m3 and cp=4.187 kJ/kgK

OR 7. a. What do you mean by Von Karman‘s integral method. and derive drag force and heat transfer coefficient for flow over a flat plate ? b. Give the steps to find heat transfer in natural convection? What do you mean by

hydrodynamic entry length? 8. A Vertical plate 300mm wide and 1.2m high is maintained at 700C and is exposed to saturated steam at 1 atm. pressure. Calculate the heat transfer coefficient and the total mass of steam condensed per hour. What would be the heat coefficient if the plate is inclined at 3000C to the vertical?

OR 9. Water in a tank is to be boiled at sea level by a 1-cm-diameter nickel plated steel

heating element equipped with electrical resistance wiresinside, in. Determine the maximum heat flux that can be attained in the nucleate boiling regime and the surface temperature of the heater surface in that case. 10. Define effectiveness and Ntu of heat exchangers? What are shell and tube heat exchangers?

OR

11. Derive LMTD for parallel flow heat exchangers?


TECHNOLOGY


PART A (25 MARKS)

1. a.How does the science of heat transfer differ from the science of thermodynamics?

b. What is heat flux? How is it related to the heat transfer rate? c. How does transient heat transfer differ from steady heat transfer? How does one-

dimensional heat transfer differ from two-dimensional heat transfer? d. When is lumped system analysis it applicable? e. What is turbulent thermal conductivity? What is it caused by ? f. How does turbulent flow differ from laminar flow? For which flow is the heat

transfer coefficient higher ? g. What is the difference between evaporation and boiling? h. What is a graybody? j.What are the common causes of fouling in a heat exchanger? How does fouling

affect Heattransfer and pressure drop? j.What is a regenerative heat exchanger?

PART – B 50 MARKS

2. Derive general conduction equation in Cartesian coordinates?

OR 3. Discuss basic laws of 3 modes of heat transfer?

4. Explain the concept of lumped analysis ?

OR 5. A water pipe is to be buried in soil at a sufficient depth from the surface depth from to

surface to prevent freezing in winter. When the soil is at a uniform temperature of

1000C the surface is subjected to a uniform temperature of -1500C continuously for

50 days. What minimum burial depth is needed to prevent the freezing of pipe?

Assume that ∞=0.2x10-6 m2/s for the soil and that the pipe surface temperature should

not fall below 0 0C.

6. Explainthe conditions for which Dittus-Boelter equation can be used to determine heat

transfer coefficient? What is Rayleigh number ?

OR 7. Water flows through a 20mm ID at a rate of 0.01kg/s entering at 1000C.The tube is

wrapped from outside by an electric element that produces a uniform flux of

156kW/m2. If the exit temperature of water is 4000C, estimate (a)the Reynolds

number,(b)the heat transfer coefficient, (c)the length of the pipe needed, (d)the inner

tube surface temperature at exit, e)the friction factor, (f)the pressure drop in the tube,

and (g)the pumping power required if the pump efficiency is 60%. Neglectentrance

effects. Properties of the water at 250C are: ρ =997kg/m3 cp=4180J/kgK, m=910x10-

6Ns/m2 and k=0.608W/mK.

8. Two black discs 1m in diameter are placed directly opposite to each other at a

distances 0.5m.The discs are maintained at 1000K and 500K respectively.

Calculate the heat flow between the discs (a) when no other surfaces are present and

(b)when the discs are connected by a cylindrical refractory no- flux surface ?

OR 9. Write correlations for condensation heat transfer? Explain film boiling explain ?

10. Derive LMTD for parallel flow heat exchangers? Derive expression for effectiveness of

counter flow heat exchanger ?

OR 11. Define effectiveness and Ntu of heat exchangers? What are shell and tube heat

exchangers?

B.Tech III Year II Semester , Model Paper - I , November -2016

Intellectual Property Rights

Time : 3 Hours Max.Marks : 75

Note : This question paper contains two parts A and B.

Part A is compulsory which carries 25 marks. Answer all questions in Part A.

Part B consists of 5 Units . Answer any one full question from each unit.

Each question carries 10 marks and may have a,b,c as sub questions .

Part -A (25 Marks )

1a) Define Intellectual property . [2]

b) Discuss about trade marks and service marks. [3]

c) Difference between a trade name and business name . [2]

d) What is the purpose of trade marks ? [3]

e) Define the right of reproduction. [2]

f) Discuss the issues of copy right ownwership. [3]

g) Define trade mark secret litigation. [2]

h) Discuss in about false advertising. [3]

i) Define trade mark law. [2]

j) Discuss in brief about intellectual property audits. [3]

Part -B (50 Marks)

2. Explain the roles and responsibilities of US Patent and trademark office(USPTO) [10]

OR

3. Discuss the importance of intellectual property rights. [10]

4 List and explain about various trade marks in detail. [10]

OR

5 explain the procedure involved in filling and documenting an application by USPTO. [10]

6 Discuss the common rights law under the 1976 copy right law. [10]

OR

7. Explain the procedure for searching a patent. [10]

8.Discuss the legalties involved protectin against unfair competition. [10]

OR

9. Explain the procedure to f determine trade secret status . [10

10.Explain in detail about the international development in trade secers law. [10]

OR

11. What are the new developments patent law ?. Explain. [10]

B.Tech III Year II Semester , Model Paper - II , November -2016







Part -A (25 Marks)

1 a) Explain the protection timeperiod for designpatents? [2]

b) Classify the types of marks. [3]

c) What is trade mark ?. Give an example. [2]

d) What are the agencies of IPRs ?. [3]

e) Define the law of copyrights? [2]

f) Describe about copyrights? [3]

g) Write the procedure to be followed forprotectionforsubmission? [2]

h) What is Right of Publicity? [3]

i) Write about International patent protection? [2]

j). Explain the patent law treaty? [3]

Part -B (50 Marks)

2. Explain the types of intellectual property rights with illustrations. [10]

OR

3 Explain the procedure to select and evaluate trademarks with a case study. [10]

4 Discuss the norms and standards laid down by the World Trade Organization in

respect of TRIPs related to ‘Law of Copyright’. [10]

OR

5 Section-3 of the amended Patent Act, 2000 takes note of the dangers of patenting.

Explain the dangers. What areas are excluded from the purview of Patent Law?

[10]

6 Explain the significance of trade secrets in the industrial economy of India. [10]

OR

7. Explain the role of I.P.R. in protection against unfair competition. [10]

8 . Write short notes on

a) New developments in trade mark law [5]

b) False advertising [5]

OR

9. Explain the trading norms and functions of W.T.O. towards I.P.R. [10]

10. Discuss NewDevelopments in PatentLaw? [10]

OR

11. Explain about intellectualpropertyaudit? [10]

B.Tech III Year II Semester , Model Paper - III, November -2016







Part -A (25 Marks)

1a) Explain briefly about four important intellectual property rights. [2]

b) List out the term or protection of various IP rights. [3]

c) List out the term or protection of various IP rights. [2]

d) Explain the function of a trademark. [3]

e) What are the rights of a patent holder? [2]

f) Explain the role of the controller of patents and trademarks. [3]

g) What is trade secret? [2]

h) What forms of IPRs are covered under the TRIPs Agreement? [3]

i) What is ‘patent addition’ under the Patents Act? [2]

j) Write about information technology Act-2000. [3]

Part -B (50 Marks)

2. List out various regulatory authorities under the IP laws in India. [10]

OR

3. Write about the confidentiality agreement between Employer and Employee. [10]

4. Explain the Advertising function of trademark? [10]

OR

5. Discuss the Foundation of patent law? [10]

6 . Write how the the Fundamental of Copyrightslaws weref ormulated [10]

OR

7 Explain the trading norms and functions of W.T.O. towards I.P.R. [10]

8. Determine the affect for misappropriations of trade secrets? [10]

OR

9. Write five physical protections in trade secret protectionprogram? [10] .

10 Write the duties of IP audit? [10 ]

OR

11. Explain the importance of Privacy policy of intermediaries like you tube and [10]

face book.

B.Tech III Year II Semester , Model Paper - IV, November -2016







Part -A (25 Marks)

1a) ExplainParisConvention? [2]

b) Define Trade Secrets? [3]

c) Define good will? [2]

d) Define the law of copyrights? [3]

e) Describe about copyrights? [2]

f) Discuss about the protection for submission? [3]

g) Define trade secret protection programs? [2]

h) Discuss unfair competition? [3]

i) When did Parisconvention established and for what? [2]

j) Write the advantages about trade secrets law? [3]

Part -B (50 Marks)

2.Explain the procedure for registration of trade marks. What are the effects of registration

of trade mark ? [10]

OR

3 Discuss in brief the provisions of Madrid Agreement and its importance. [10]

4. Explain the Principa land Supplemental Registers? [10]

OR

5 Discuss the offences and penalties under the Trade Marks Act, 1999. [10]

6. Explain the rights and obligations of patentee. [10]

OR

7. Discuss the law relating to revocation and surrender of patents. [10]

8. Explain the salient features of Indian Copyright Act, 1957. [10]

OR

9. Discuss the various subject matters covered under Copyright Act. [10]

10. Discuss right of publicity? Explain? [10]

OR

11. Write about new developments in IPRs. [10]

B.Tech III Year II Semester , Model Paper - V, November -2016







Part -A (25 Marks)

1a) What are the works in which copyright exist? [2]

b) What is cyber crime? [3]

c) What is a trademark? [2]

d) Explain briefly about TRIPS Agreement. [3]

e) Explain the concept of ‘ever greening of patents’. [2]

f) How the copyright in a work is licensed? [3]

g) Explain the offence of hacking. [2]

f) What is employer–employee non-disclosure and non-competitive agreement. [3]

g) What is breach of trade secret? [2]

h) Whether mathematical methods be patented? [3]

i) What is Geographical Indication? [2]

j) Give an account of the development of IP law in India. [3]

Part -B (50 Marks)

2. What are the exceptions to the copyright infringement? [10]

OR

3. Write an essay on moral rights of an author under the copyright Act. [10]

4. What is ‘patent addition’ under the Patents Act? [10]

OR

5. What are the components of a complete specification under the Patents Act? [10]

6. What is the procedure for registration of a trademark? [10]

OR

7. When a trademark owner’s right to his trademark is said to be infringed? [10]

8. Write about the confidentiality agreement between Employer and Employee. [10]

OR

9. Explain the spring board doctrine under the unfair competition law. [10]

10. What is data theft and internet hours theft? [10]

OR

11. Explain the trade secret. What are the rights of a owner of trade secrets? [10]

COURSE COVERAGE SUMMARY AND QUESTION BANK FOR III B.TECH … ME II SEM Q.BANK … · · 2017-11-18QUESTION BANK FOR III B.TECH II SEMESTER ... Determine the shape functions for

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