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Dr.G.R.Damodaran College of Science(Autonomous, affiliated to
the Bharathiar University, recognized by the UGC)Re-
accredited at the 'A' Grade Level by the NAAC and ISO 9001:2008
CertifiedCRISL rated 'A' (TN) for MBA and MIB Programmes
III B.COM (AM) [2012-2015]Semester V
Core: COST AND MANAGEMENT ACCOUNTING 513BMultiple Choice
Questions.
1. Basic objectives of cost accounting is__________. A. tax
compliance. B. financial audit. C. cost ascertainment. D. profit
analysis. ANSWER: C
2. Direct cost incurred can be identified with ________. A. each
department. B. each unit of output. C. each month. D. each
executive. ANSWER: B
3. Overhead cost is the total of ____________. A. all indirect
costs. B. all direct costs. C. indirect and direct costs. D. all
specific costs. ANSWER: A
4. Imputed cost is a__________. A. notional cost. B. real cost.
C. normal cost. D. variable cost. ANSWER: A
5. Operating costing is suitable for ___________. A. job order
business. B. contractors. C. sugar industries. D. service
industries. ANSWER: D
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6. Process costing is suitable for _________. A. hospitals. B.
oil reefing firms. C. transport firms. D. brick laying firms.
ANSWER: B
7. Cost classification can be done in __________. A. two ways.
B. three ways. C. four ways. D. several ways. ANSWER: D
8. Costing refers to the techniques and processes of __________
. A. ascertainment of costs. B. allocation of costs. C. apportion
of costs. D. distribution of costs. ANSWER: A
9. Cost accounting was developed because of the ________. A.
limitations of the financial accounting. B. limitations of the
management accounting. C. limitations of the human resource
accounting. D. limitations of the double entry accounting. ANSWER:
A
10. Multiple costing is a technique of using two or more costing
methods for ascertainment of cost by. A. the same firm. B. the
several firms. C. the same industry. D. the several industries.
ANSWER: A
11. Wages paid to a labour who was engaged in production
activities can be termed as. A. direct cost. B. indirect cost. C.
sunk cost. D. imputed cost. ANSWER: A
12. The cost which is to be incurred even when a business unit
is closed is a. A. imputed cost. B. historical cost. C. sunk cost.
D. shutdown cost.
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ANSWER: D
13. Classification of cost is useful . A. to find gross profit.
B. to find net profit. C. to identify costs. D. to identify
efficiency. ANSWER: C
14. Elements of costs are. A. three types. B. four types. C.
five types. D. seven types. ANSWER: A
15. Direct expenses are also called ________ . A. major
expenses. B. chargeable expenses. C. overhead expenses. D. sundry
expenses. ANSWER: B
16. Indirect material used in production is classified as. A.
office overhead. B. selling overhead. C. distribution overhead. D.
production overhead. ANSWER: D
17. Warehouse rent is a part of _________. A. prime cost. B.
factory cost. C. distribution cost. D. production cost. ANSWER:
C
18. Indirect material scrap is adjusted along with ________. A.
prime cost. B. factory cost. C. labour cost. D. cost of goods sold.
ANSWER: B
19. Which one of the following is not considered for preparation
of cost sheet_______. A. Factory cost. B. Goodwill written off. C.
Labour cost.
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D. Selling cost. ANSWER: B
20. Sale of defectives is reduced from _________. a. prime cost.
A. prime cost. B. works cost. C. cost of production. D. cost of
sales. ANSWER: C
21. Tender is an. A. estimation of profit. B. estimation of
cost. C. estimation of selling price. D. estimation of units.
ANSWER: C
22. Cost of sales plus profit is __________. A. selling price.
B. value of finished product. C. value of goods produced. D. value
of stocks. ANSWER: A
23. Prime cost includes. A. direct materials, direct wages and
indirect expenses . B. indirect materials and indirect labour and
indirect expenses. C. direct materials, direct wages and direct
expenses. D. direct materials, indirect wages and indirect
expenses. ANSWER: C
24. Total of all direct costs is termed as _______. A. prime
cost. B. works cost. C. cost of sales. D. cost of production.
ANSWER: A
25. Depreciation of plant and machinery is a part of
___________. A. factory overhead. B. selling overhead. C.
distribution overhead. D. administration overhead. ANSWER: A
26. Audit fess is a part of. A. works on cost. B. selling
overhead.
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C. distribution overhead. D. administration overhead. Answer: D
ANSWER: D
27. Counting house salary is part of _____. A. factory overhead.
B. selling overhead. C. distribution overhead. D. administration
overhead. ANSWER: D
28. Factory overhead can be charged on the basis of__________.
A. material cost. B. labour cost. C. prime cost. D. direct
expenses. ANSWER: A
29. Office and administrative expenses can be charged on the
basis of______. A. material cost. B. labour cost. C. prime cost. D.
factory cost. ANSWER: C
30. Selling and distribution expenses can be charged on the
basis of__________. A. material cost. B. labour cost. C. prime
cost. D. factory cost. ANSWER: C
31. One of the most important tools in cost planning is _______.
A. direct cost. B. budget. C. cost sheet. D. marginal costing.
ANSWER: C
32. The purpose of financial accounting is to provide
information for_____ . A. fixing prices. B. controlling cost. C.
locating factors leading to wastages and losses. D. assessing the
profitability and financial position of the firm. ANSWER: D
33. An example of variable cost is __________. A. property
tax.
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B. interest on capital. C. direct material cost. D. depreciation
of machinery. ANSWER: C
34. Cost accounting concepts include all the following exempt
________. A. planning. B. controlling. C. profit sharing. D.
product costing. ANSWER: C
35. Toy manufacturing industry should use ___________. A. unit
costing. B. process costing. C. batch costing. D. multiple costing.
ANSWER: C
36. Job costing used in ____ . A. paper mills. B. chemical
works. C. printing works. D. textile mill. ANSWER: C
37. When premises are owned, a charge for rent is _________. A.
production cost. B. imputed cost. C. marginal cost. D. cost of
sales. ANSWER: B
38. A document which provides for the detailed cost centre and
cost unit is ______. A. tender. B. cost sheet. C. . invoice. D.
profit statement. ANSWER: B
39. Cost unit of a sugar industry can be _______. A. per litre.
B. per tonne. C. per acre. D. per metre. ANSWER: B
40. The ascertainment of costs after they have been incurred is
known as _____.
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A. marginal costing. B. historical costing. C. sunk cost. D.
notional cost. ANSWER: B
41. Direct material is a _________. A. fixed cost. B. variable
cost. C. semi variable cost. D. semi fixed cost. ANSWER: A
42. Direct material is a ______. A. manufacturing cost. B.
administrative cost. C. selling cost. D. distribution cost. ANSWER:
A
43. The most important element of cost in manufacturing
industries is __________. A. material. B. labour. C. direct costs.
D. indirect costs. ANSWER: C
44. Which of the following is considered to be the normal loss
of material __________. A. Loss due to accident. B. Pilferage. C.
Loss due to breaking the bulk. D. Loss due to careless handling of
materials. ANSWER: A
45. According to which method of pricing issues is close to
current economic values___. A. Last In First Out. B. First In First
Out. C. Highest In First Out. D. weighted average price. ANSWER:
B
46. Continuous stock taking is a part of __________. A. annual
stock taking. B. perpetual inventory. C. ABC analysis. D. VED
analysis. ANSWER: B
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47. Which of the following methods of stock control aims at
concentrating efforts on selected items ofmaterial______. A.
Perpetual inventory system. B. Material turnover ratio. C. Level
setting. D. ABC analysis. ANSWER: D
48. In which of the following methods issues of materials are
priced at a predetermined rate ________. A. Inflated price method.
B. Standard price method. C. Replacement price method. D. Specific
price method. ANSWER: B
49. In which of the following methods issues of materials are
priced at the price prevailing at the time ofissue___________. A.
Inflated price method. B. Standard price method. C. Replacement
price method. D. Specific price method. ANSWER: C
50. In base stock method of pricing the material issues, the
term base stock represents the quantity of stockbeing issued
__________. A. stock in balance. B. minimum stock. C. maximum
stock. D. re-order level ANSWER: B
51. The ratios which reflect managerial efficiency in handling
the assets is ________. A. turnover ratios. B. profitability
ratios. C. short term solvency ratio. D. long term solvency ratio.
ANSWER: A
52. The ratios which reveal the final result of the managerial
policies and performance is _____________. A. turnover ratios. B.
profitability ratios. C. short term solvency ratio. D. long term
solvency ratio. ANSWER: B
53. Return on investment is a _____________. A. turnover ratios.
B. short term solvency ratio.
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C. profitability ratios. D. long term solvency ratio. ANSWER:
C
54. Net profit ratio is a ___________. A. turnover ratio. B.
long term solvency ratio. C. short term solvency ratio. D.
profitability ratio. ANSWER: D
55. Stock turnover ratio is a __________. A. turnover ratio. B.
profitability ratio. C. short term solvency ratio. D. long term
solvency ratio. ANSWER: A
56. Current ratio is a _________. A. short-term solvency ratio.
B. long-term solvency ratio. C. profitability ratio. D. turnover
ratio. ANSWER: A
57. Proprietary ratio is a ___________. A. short-term solvency
ratio. B. long-term solvency ratio. C. profitability ratio. D.
turnover ratio. ANSWER: B
58. Fixed assets ratio is a __________. A. short-term solvency
ratio. B. long-term solvency ratio. C. profitability ratio. D.
turnover ratio. ANSWER: B
59. Fixed assets turnover ratio is a ______. A. short-term
solvency ratio. B. long-term solvency ratio. C. profitability
ratio. D. turnover ratio. ANSWER: D
60. The ratio which measures the profit in relation to capital
employed is known as_______. A. return on investment.
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B. gross profit ratio. C. operating ratio. D. operating profit
ratio. ANSWER: A
61. The ratio which determines the profitability from the
shareholders point of view is____. A. return on investment. B.
gross profit ratio. C. return on shareholders funds. D. operating
profit ratio. ANSWER: C
62. Return on equity is also called ___________. A. return on
investment. B. gross profit ratio. C. return on shareholders funds.
D. return on net worth. ANSWER: D
63. Preliminary expenses is an example of ___________. A. fixed
assets. B. current assets. C. fictitious assets. D. current
liabilities. ANSWER: C
64. Prepaid expenses is an example of _______. A. fixed assets.
B. current assets. C. fictitious assets. D. current liabilities.
ANSWER: B
65. The ratio which is calculated to measure the productivity of
total assets is_________. A. return on equity. B. return on share
holders funds. C. return on total assets. D. ANSWER: C
66. The ratio which shows the proportion of profits retained in
the business out of the current years profitsis _________. A.
retained earnings ratio. B. pay out ratio. C. earnings per share.
D. price earnings ratio. ANSWER: A
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67. The ratio which indicates earnings per share reflected by
the market price is ______. A. retained earnings ratio. B. pay out
ratio. C. earnings per share. D. price earnings ratio. ANSWER:
D
68. The ratio establishes the relationship between profit before
interest and tax and fixed interest charges is________.
A. interest cover ratio. B. fixed dividend cover ratio. C. debt
service coverage ratio. D. dividend yield ratio. ANSWER: A
69. The ratio shows the preference dividend as a proportion of
profit available for shareholders is__________ .
A. interest cover ratio. B. fixed dividend cover ratio. C. debt
service coverage ratio. D. dividend yield ratio. ANSWER: B
70. The dividend is related to the market value of shares in
_________. A. interest cover ratio. B. fixed dividend cover ratio.
C. debt service coverage ratio. D. dividend yield ratio. ANSWER:
D
71. Turnover ratio is also known as ______________. A. activity
ratios. B. solvency ratios. C. liquidity ratios. D. profitability
ratios. ANSWER: A
72. Inventory or stock turnover ratio is also called __________.
A. stock velocity ratio. B. debtors velocity ratio. C. creditors
velocity ratio. D. working capital turnover ratio. ANSWER: A
73. Which ratio is calculated to ascertain the efficiency of
inventory management in terms of capitalinvestment __________. A.
stock velocity ratio. B. debtors velocity ratio.
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C. creditors velocity ratio. D. working capital turnover ratio.
ANSWER: A
74. The ratio which measures the relationship between the cost
of goods sold and the amount of averageinventory is __________. A.
stock turnover ratio. B. debtors velocity ratio. C. creditors
velocity ratio. D. working capital turnover ratio. ANSWER: A
75. Sales-Gross Profit = _________. A. net profit. B. cost of
production. C. administrative expenses. D. cost of goods sold.
ANSWER: D
76. Opening stock + purchases + direct expenses-closing stock =
__________. A. net profit. B. cost of production. C. administrative
expenses. D. cost of goods sold. ANSWER: D
77. Which ratio measures the number of times the receivables are
rotated in a year in terms of sales_________.
A. stock turnover ratio. B. debtors turnover ratio. C. creditors
velocity ratio. D. working capital turnover ratio. ANSWER: B
78. Debtors turnover ratio is also called _______. A. stock
turnover ratio. B. debtors velocity ratio. C. creditors velocity
ratio. D. working capital turnover ratio ANSWER: B
79. Creditors turnover ratio is also called ________________. A.
stock turnover ratio. B. debtors velocity ratio. C. accounts
payables ratio. D. working capital turnover ratio. ANSWER: C
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80. The indicates the number of times the payables rotate in a
year is______. A. stock turnover ratio. B. stock turnover ratio. C.
creditors velocity ratio. D. working capital turnover ratio.
ANSWER: C
81. Current assets-current liabilities = ___________. A. fixed
capital. B. working capital. C. opening capital. D. closing
capital. ANSWER: B
82. The ratio of current assets to current liabilities is called
__________. A. liquid ratio. B. acid test ratio. C. current ratio.
D. cash position ratio. ANSWER: C
83. Internationally accepted current ratio is ___________. A.
1:1. B. 2:1. C. 3:1. D. 4:1. ANSWER: B
84. Liquid ratio is also called __________. A. super quick
ratio. B. acid test ratio. C. current ratio. D. cash position
ratio. ANSWER: B
85. Current assets- (stock + prepaid expenses = _____________.
A. current assets. B. fixed assets. C. liquid assets. D. fictitious
assets. ANSWER: C
86. An ideal liquid ratio is _____________. A. 0.25 : 1. B. 0.50
: 1. C. 0.75 : 1. D. 1 : 1. ANSWER: D
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87. An ideal cash position ratio is ___________ . A. 0.25 : 1.
B. 0.50 : 1. C. 0.75 : 1. D. 1 : 1. ANSWER: C
88. An ideal debt equity ratio is ____________. A. 1. B. 2. C.
3. D. 4. ANSWER: A
89. The ratio establishes the relationship between fixed assets
and long-terms funds is ______. A. current ratio. B. fixed assets
ratio. C. fixed assets turnover ratio. D. debt equity ratio.
ANSWER: B
90. The ratio compares the shareholders funds and total tangible
assets is ___________. A. capital gearing ratio. B. fixed assets
turnover ratio. C. proprietary ratio. D. debt equity ratio. ANSWER:
C
91. The ratio expresses the relationship between the proprietors
funds and the total tangible assets is___________.
A. capital gearing ratio. B. fixed assets turnover ratio. C.
proprietary ratio. D. debt equity ratio. ANSWER: C
92. The ratio establishes relationship between fixed interest
and dividend bearing funds and equityshareholders funds is
__________. A. capital gearing ratio. B. fixed assets turnover
ratio. C. proprietary ratio. D. debt equity ratio. ANSWER: A
93. Capital gearing ratio is also known as ____. A. leverage
ratio. B. fixed assets turnover ratio.
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C. proprietary ratio. D. debt equity ratio. ANSWER: A
94. A low capital gearing ratio indicates___________. A. under
capitalization. B. over capitalization . C. borrowed capital. D.
long term funds. ANSWER: B
95. A high capital gearing ratio indicates _____________. A.
under capitalization. B. over capitalization . C. borrowed capital.
D. long term funds. ANSWER: A
96. Shareholders funds + Long-term loans = __________ . A.
current assets. B. current liabilities. C. fixed assets. D. capital
employed. ANSWER: D
97. Low turnover of stock ratio indicates _________. A. solvency
position. B. monopoly situation. C. overinvestment in inventory. D.
liquidity position. ANSWER: C
98. Net capital employed is equal to _______. A. total assets
minus total liabilities. B. fixed assets plus net-working capital.
C. total assets minus long-term liabilities. D. total assets.
ANSWER: B
99. Return on investments is a ________. A. profit and loss
account ratio. B. balance sheet ratio. C. combined ratio. D.
turnover ratio. ANSWER: C
100. Ratio of net profit before interest and tax to sales is
__________. A. solvency ratio.
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B. capital gearing. C. turnover ratio. D. operating profit
ratio. ANSWER: D
101. Funds flow statement is based on the _________. A. working
capital concept of funds. B. cash concept of funds. C. fixed assets
concept of funds. D. long term funds. ANSWER: A
102. All those assets which are converted into cash in the
normal course of business within one year areknown as __________.
A. fixed assets. B. current assets. C. fictitious assets. D.
wasting assets. ANSWER: B
103. All those liabilities which are payable in cash in the
normal course of business within a period of oneyear are called
___________. A. long term liabilities. B. overdraft. C. short term
loans. D. current liabilities. ANSWER: D
104. Any transaction between a current account and another
current account does not Affect _________. A. profit. B. funds. C.
working capital. D. capital. ANSWER: B
105. Any transaction between a non current account and another
non current account does not affect. A. profit. B. funds. C.
working capital. D. capital. ANSWER: B
106. Principle for preparation of working capital statement
-Increase in current asset________. A. increases working capital.
B. decreases working capital. C. decrease fixed capital. D.
increase fixed capital. ANSWER: A
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107. Principle for preparation of working capital statement -
Decrease in current asset ______ . A. increases working capital. B.
decreases working capital. C. decrease fixed capital. D. increase
fixed capital. ANSWER: B
108. Principle for preparation of working capital statement
-Increase in current liability __________. A. increases working
capital. B. decreases working capital. C. decrease fixed capital.
D. increase fixed capital. ANSWER: B
109. Principle for preparation of working capital statement
-Decrease in current Liability ____________. A. increases working
capital. B. decreases working capital. C. decrease fixed capital.
D. increase fixed capital. ANSWER: A
110. Depreciation on fixed assets is __________. A. non
operating income B. operating expense. C. operating income. D. non
operating expense. ANSWER: D
111. Provision for Income tax is ________ . A. non operating
income. B. operating expense. C. operating income. D. appropriation
of profits. ANSWER: D
112. Profit on sale of fixed assets is _______. A. non trading
income. B. operating income. C. non trading gains. D. long term
gain. ANSWER: A
113. Purchase of machinery, debit the __________. A. purchases
account. B. machinery account. C. cash account. D. bank
account.
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ANSWER: B
114. Purchase of goods, debit the __________. A. purchases
account. B. machinery account. C. cash account. D. bank account.
ANSWER: A
115. Purchased furniture returned to supplier, credit the
________. A. supplier account. B. cash account. C. purchase returns
account. D. furniture account. ANSWER: D
116. Goods returned to the supplier, credit the _______. A.
supplier account. B. cash account. C. purchase returns account. D.
furniture account. ANSWER: C
117. Goods withdrawn by the proprietor for personal use, debit
the __________. A. proprietors account. B. drawings account. C.
goods account. D. purchases account. ANSWER: B
118. Trial balance is a __________. A. statement. B. account. C.
ledger. D. journal. ANSWER: A
119. Balance sheet is a ________. A. account. B. ledger. C.
journal. D. statement. ANSWER: D
120. In balance sheet gross profit will be added with
__________. A. reserves. B. capital. C. current liabilities.
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D. current assets. ANSWER: B
121. In P & L account, expenses will be __________. A.
debited. B. credited. C. deducted. D. added. ANSWER: A
122. In P & L account, incomes will be ____________. A.
debited. B. credited. C. deducted. D. added. ANSWER: B
123. The basic function of accounting is to ___________. A.
attain non-economic goals. B. record economic data. C. classify and
record business transactions. D. prepare profit and loss. ANSWER:
C
124. Financial accounting record only _____________. A. standard
figures. B. estimated figures. C. actual figures. D. approximate
figures. ANSWER: C
125. The branch of accounting which primarily deals with
processing and presenting accounting data forinternal use in a
concern is ____________. A. inflation accounting. B. cost
accounting. C. financial accounting. D. management accounting.
ANSWER: D
126. The term management accountancy was first used in
__________. A. 1950. B. 1939. C. 1910. D. 1947. ANSWER: B
127. Management accounting is also known as ________. A. price
level accounting.
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B. historical cost accounting. C. financial accounting. D.
decision accounting. ANSWER: D
128. The prime function of management accounting is to _______.
A. assist tax authorities. B. assist the management in performing
its functions effectively. C. interpret the financial data. D.
record business transactions. ANSWER: B
129. Management accounting provides valuable services to
management in performing ____. A. coordinating functions. B.
controlling functions. C. planning functions. D. all managerial
functions. ANSWER: D
130. Management accounting is an offshoot of _____. A. financial
accounting. B. cost accounting. C. cost accounting and inflation
accounting. D. cost accounting and financial accounting. ANSWER:
D
131. Management accounting analyses accounting data with the
help of ______. A. auditors. B. statutory forms. C. tools and
techniques. D. formula. ANSWER: C
132. Management accounting is suitable for _______. A. large
industries and trading concerns. B. co-operative societies. C.
small businesses. D. non-profit organizations. ANSWER: A
133. Management accounting and cost accounting functions are
_________. A. neutral in effect. B. complementary in nature. C.
contradictory in nature. D. does not relate to each other. ANSWER:
B
134. Management accounting use _____________.
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A. quantitative data only. B. qualitative data only. C.
descriptive data only. D. both qualitative and qualitative data.
ANSWER: D
135. In making managerial decisions, relevant information is
______. A. future cost that differ between alternatives. B. future
costs that do not differ between alternatives. C. past costs that
differ between alternatives. D. past costs that do not differ
between alternatives. ANSWER: A
136. The role of historical data from the accounting system in
making managerial decisions is ________. A. to assist in making
productions that inputs to a decision model. B. to serve directly
as inputs in decision models. C. to assist in making predictions
about other information needed for making decisions. D. to assist
in making productions that inputs to a management. ANSWER: A
137. The tracing or reassigning of costs to one or more cost
objectives is referred to as ______. A. cost allocation B.
historical costing C. step up costing D. cost apportionment ANSWER:
A
138. The three main categories of manufacturing costs are
_______________ A. direct materials, direct labor and factory
overheads. B. direct labor, indirect labor and overtime premiums.
C. raw materials, work in progress and finished goods D. raw
materials, direct labor and finished goods. ANSWER: A
139. According to economic theory, costs play a role in price
determination when ______. A. the company operates in an industry
characterized as having imperfect competition. B. a company is
selling commodities such as wheat and rice. C. perfect competition
exists. D. a company is selling commodities such as yarn and
cotton. ANSWER: A
140. When a multi product plant is being operated at capacity,
the products which should be emphasizedare those that provide
_________. A. the highest contribution margin per unit of the
limited resource. B. the highest contribution margin per unit of
product. C. the highest contribution margin per sales dollar. D.
the highest contribution margin ratio. ANSWER: A
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141. In cash flow statement, closing balance of cash balance is
posted in which side of the statement_____.
A. sources of cash. B. application of cash. C. sources of funds.
D. application of funds. ANSWER: B
142. In cash flow statement, closing balances of bank balance is
posted in which side of the statement__________.
A. sources of cash. B. application of cash. C. sources of funds.
D. application of funds. ANSWER: B
143. In cash flow statement, issue of shares is posted in
______. A. sources of cash. B. application of cash. C. sources of
funds. D. application of funds. ANSWER: A
144. In cash flow statement, issue of debentures is posted in
______. A. application of cash. B. sources of funds. C. application
of funds. D. sources of cash. ANSWER: B
145. In cash flow statement, sale of fixed assets is posted in
____. A. sources of cash. B. application of cash. C. sources of
funds. D. application of funds. ANSWER: A
146. In cash flow statement, sale of investments is posted in
___________ . A. sources of cash. B. application of cash. C.
sources of funds. D. application of funds. ANSWER: A
147. In cash flow statement, redemption of debentures is posted
in ___________. A. sources of cash. B. application of cash.
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C. sources of funds. D. application of funds. ANSWER: D
148. In cash flow statement, redemption of preference shares is
posted in __________. A. sources of cash. B. application of cash.
C. sources of funds. D. application of funds. ANSWER: B
149. In cash flow statement, loans repaid is posted in
___________. A. sources of funds. B. application of funds. C.
application of cash. D. sources of cash. ANSWER: C
150. In cash flow statement, tax paid is posted in _________. A.
sources of funds. B. application of funds. C. application of cash.
D. sources of cash. ANSWER: C
151. Production cost under marginal costing includes
_____________. A. prime cost only . B. prime cost and fixed
overhead . C. prime cost and variable overhead. D. prime cost,
variable overhead and fixed overhead. ANSWER: C
152. One of the primary differences between marginal costing and
absorption costing regarding thetreatment of __________. A. prime
cost . B. fixed overheads. C. variable overheads D. direct
materials. ANSWER: B
153. Absorption costing differs from marginal costing is the
___________. A. fact that standard costs can be used with
absorption costing but not with marginal costing . B. amount of
costs assigned to individual units of products . C. kind of
activities for which each can be used . D. amount of fixed costs
that will be incurred. ANSWER: B
154. Contribution margin is also known as __________.
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A. marginal income . B. gross profit. C. net profit. D. net
loss. ANSWER: A
155. Period costs are _______. A. overhead costs . B. prime
cost. C. variable cost. D. fixed costs. ANSWER: D
156. Contribution margin is equal to __________. A. fixed cost -
loss. B. profit + variable cost. C. fixed cost- profit. D. sales-
profit. ANSWER: A
157. Profit volume Ratio is an indicator of __________. A. the
rate at which goods are sold . B. the volume of sales . C. the
volume of profit. D. the rate of profit. ANSWER: D
158. Margin of Safety is the difference between _______. A.
planned sales and planned profit . B. actual sales and break-even
sales. C. planned sales and actual sales . D. planned sales and
planned expenses. ANSWER: B
159. An increase in variable costs ___________. A. increases p/v
ratio . B. increases the profit. C. reduces contribution . D.
increase margin of safety. ANSWER: C
160. An increase in selling price _________. A. increases the
break-even point. B. decreases the break-even point. C. does not
affect the break-even point. D. optimize the break even point.
ANSWER: B
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161. A large Margin of Safety indicates ________. A. over
production. B. over capitalization . C. the soundness of the
business. D. under capitalization. ANSWER: C
162. Angie of incidence is _________. A. the angle between the
sales line and the total cost line. B. the angle between the sales
line and the y-axis. C. the angle between the sales line and the
x-axis. D. the angle between the sales line and the total profit
line. ANSWER: A
163. CVP analysis is most important for the determination of
______. A. sales revenue necessary to equal fixed costs. B.
relationship between revenues and costs at various levels of
operations. C. variable revenues necessary to equal fixed costs .
D. volume of operations necessary to Break-even. ANSWER: A
164. The conventional Break-even analysis does not assume that
___________. A. selling price per unit will remain fixed. B. total
fixed costs remain the same. C. variable cost per unit will vary .
D. productivity per worker will remain unchanged. ANSWER: B
165. 1f fixed costs decrease while variable cost per unit
remains constant, the new B.E.P in relation to theold B.E.P will be
_______. A. lower. B. higher. C. unchanged. D. indeterminate.
ANSWER: B
166. If fixed costs decrease while the variable cost per unit
remains constant, the new contribution marginin relation to the old
contribution margin will be ________. A. lower. B. unchanged . C.
higher. D. indeterminate. ANSWER: B
167. Selling price per unit Rs. 10; Variable cost Rs. 8 per
unit; Fixed cost Rs. 20,000; Break-evenproduction in units
__________. A. 10,000. B. 16,300.
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C. 2,000. D. 2,500. ANSWER: A
168. Sales Rs. 25,000; Variable cost Rs. 8,000; Fixed cost Rs.
5,000; Break-even sales in value _________. A. Rs. 7,936. B. Rs.
7,353. C. Rs. 8,333. D. Rs. 9,090. ANSWER: B
169. Fixed cost Rs. 80,000; Variable cost Rs. 2 per unit;
Selling price_Rs. 10 per unit; turnover required fora profit target
of Rs. 60,000 _____. A. Rs. 1,75,000. B. Rs. 1,17,400. C. Rs.
1.57,000. D. Rs. 1,86,667. ANSWER: A
170. Sales Rs. 25,000; Variable cost Rs. 15,000; Fixed cost Rs
.4,000; P/V Ratio is _______. A. 40%. B. 80% . C. 15% . D. 30%.
ANSWER: A
171. Sales Rs. 50,000; Variable cost Rs. 30,000; Net profit Rs.
6,000; fixed cost is ______ . A. Rs. 10,000. B. Rs. l4,000 . C. Rs.
12,000. D. Rs. 8,000. ANSWER: B
172. Actual sales Rs .4,00,000; Break-even sales Rs. 2,50,000;
Margin of Safety in percentage is________.
A. 33.33%. B. 66.67% . C. 37.5% . D. 76.33%. ANSWER: C
173. P/V Ratio 50%; Variable cost of the produce Rs. 25; Selling
price is ______ . A. Rs. 50 . B. Rs. 40. C. Rs. 30 . D. Rs. 55.
ANSWER: A
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174. Fixed cost Rs. 2,00,000; Sales Rs. 8,00,000; P/V Ratio 30%;
the amount of' profit is _____________. A. Rs. 50,000. B. Rs.
40,000 . C. Rs. 35,000 . D. Rs. 45,000 ANSWER: B
175. Profit Volume Ratio is 25% and Margin of Safety is Rs;
3,00,000, the amount of profit is _____. A. Rs. 1,00,000. B. Rs.
80,000. C. Rs. 75,000. D. Rs. 60,000. ANSWER: C
176. Total sales Rs. 20,00,000; Fixed expenses Rs. 4,00,000; P/V
Ratio 40%; Break-even capacity inpercentage is _____. A. 40% . B.
60% . C. 50% . D. 45%. ANSWER: C
177. Break - even point occurs at 40% of` total capacity, margin
of safety will be _______. A. 40% . B. 60% . C. 80% . D. 85%
ANSWER: B
178. If the P/V Ratio of a product is 30% and selling price is
Rs. 25 per unit, the marginal cost of theproduct would be
__________. A. Rs.18.75 . B. Rs.16 . C. Rs. 15 . D. Rs.20 . ANSWER:
A
179. Absorption costing is also known as ____________ . A.
historical costing. B. real costing. C. marginal costing. D. real
costing . ANSWER: A
180. Under marginal costing stock are valued at __________. A.
fixed cost. B. semi-variable cost. C. variable cost.
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D. market price. ANSWER: C
181. Absorption costing lays emphasis on __________. A.
production. B. sales. C. marketing . D. advertising . ANSWER: A
182. Marginal costing lays emphasis on _________. A. production.
B. sales. C. marketing . D. advertising . ANSWER: B
183. Selling price - marginal cost = ________. A. fixed cost. B.
semi-variable cost. C. contribution. D. break-even point. ANSWER:
C
184. Total sales - total variable cost _______. A. fixed cost.
B. semi-variable cost. C. contribution. D. break-even point.
ANSWER: C
185. Fixed cost + profit = ________. A. fixed cost. B.
semi-variable cost. C. margin of safety. D. contribution. ANSWER:
D
186. A high P/V ratio indicates __________. A. high
profitability. B. low profitability. C. high loss. D. break even.
ANSWER: A
187. A low P/V ratio indicates _____________. A. high
profitability. B. low profitability.
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C. high loss. D. break even. ANSWER: B
188. Fixed cost / P/V ratio = __________. A. break even point.
B. margin of safety. C. contribution. D. variable cost. ANSWER:
A
189. Profit / P/V ratio = __________. A. break even point. B.
margin of safety C. contribution. D. variable cost. ANSWER: B
190. Sales x P/V ratio- fixed cost = _______ . A. break even
point. B. margin of safety. C. profit/ loss. D. variable cost.
ANSWER: C
191. Office rent is an example of _______. A. fixed cost. B.
variable cost. C. semi-variable cost. D. direct cost. ANSWER: A
192. Raw material is an example of __________. A. fixed cost. B.
variable cost. C. semi-variable cost. D. direct cost. ANSWER: B
193. Depreciation is an example of _______________. A. fixed
cost. B. variable cost. C. semi-variable cost. D. direct cost.
ANSWER: A
194. Marginal costing is a technique of _______________. A. cost
reduction.
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B. cost control. C. budgeting. D. standard costing. ANSWER:
B
195. The costs which increase or decrease in proportion to the
output and sales are known As ______. A. fixed cost. B. variable
cost. C. semi-variable cost. D. total cost. ANSWER: B
196. Break even point is also called _____________. A. no
profit, no loss point. B. profit zone. C. loss zone. D. profit and
loss zone. ANSWER: A
197. Break even chart is a graphical representation of _______.
A. absorption costing. B. marginal costing. C. full costing. D.
contract costing. ANSWER: B
198. Key-factor in marginal costing is also called _________. A.
non cost factor. B. cost factor. C. sales factor. D. limiting
factor. ANSWER: D
199. Contribution - fixed cost = ___________. A. sales . B.
variable cost. C. profit. D. fixed cost. ANSWER: C
200. Break even sales x P/V ratio = ___________. A. variable
cost. B. fixed cost. C. semi-variable cost. D. contribution.
ANSWER: B
201. The budget is a ______________.
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A. a post-mortem analysis . B. a substitute of management . C.
an aid to management . D. calculation . ANSWER: C
202. One of the most important tools of cost planning is
_________. A. budget. B. direct cost. C. unit cost. D. cost sheet.
ANSWER: A
203. Sales budget is a _________. A. Functional budget. B.
Expenditure budget. C. Master budget . D. Flexible budget. ANSWER:
A
204. The budget which usually takes the form of budgeted profit
and loss account and balance sheet isknown as ___________. A.
Flexible budget . B. Master budget. C. Cash budget . D. Purchase
budget. ANSWER: B
205. Which of the following is usually a long-term budget
_______. A. Fixed budget. B. Cash budget. C. Sales budget. D.
Capital expenditure budget. ANSWER: D
206. The fixed-variable cost classification has `a special
significance in the preparation of ________. A. Capital budget. B.
Cash budget. C. Master budget . D. Flexible budget . ANSWER: D
207. The budget, which is prepared first of all is.________. A.
Master budget. B. Cash budget. C. Budget for key factor. D.
Flexible budget. ANSWER: C
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208. Preparing budget figures for different levels of activity
within a range under flexible budgeting is_______.
A. Formula method. B. Multi-activity method. C. Budget cost
allowance method. D. Proportionate method. ANSWER: B
209. What type of budget is designed to take into account
forecast change in costs, prices, etc ________. A. Master budget.
B. Rolling budget. C. Flexible budget . D. Functional budget.
ANSWER: B
210. Operation budgets normally cover a period of _____. A. one
to ten years. B. one to two years. C. one to five years. D. one
year or less. ANSWER: D
211. The entire process of preparing the budgets is known as
_______. A. Planning. B. Organizing. C. Budgeting. D. Controlling.
ANSWER: C
212. Budgetary control starts with ________________. A.
Planning. B. Organizing. C. Budgeting. D. Controlling. ANSWER:
C
213. Budgetary control ends with ____________. A. Planning. B.
Organizing. C. Budgeting. D. Control. ANSWER: D
214. Budget designed to remain constant irrespective of the
level of activity attained is called _________. A. Fixed budget. B.
Flexible budget. C. Sales budget.
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D. Production budget. ANSWER: A
215. Long-term budgets are prepared for _______________. A. 1
year. B. 1-3 years. C. 1-5 years. D. 5-10 years. ANSWER: D
216. The budget which shows the budgeted quantity of output to
be produced during a specific period is__________.
A. Fixed budget. B. Flexible budget. C. Sales budget. D.
Production budget ANSWER: D
217. Material consumption budget is prepared on the basis of
______________. A. Production budget. B. Sales budget. C. Fixed
budget. D. Flexible budget. ANSWER: A
218. . Material budget consists of two parts, one is the
consumption budget and another Is ________. A. Material purchase
budget. B. Material sales budget. C. Material production budget. D.
Material budget. ANSWER: A
219. Materials purchase budget is prepared on the basis
of_________ . A. Material sales budget. B. Material consumption
budget. C. Material production budget. D. Material budget. ANSWER:
B
220. Labour budget is a part of ____________. A. Fixed budget.
B. Sales budget. C. Production budget. D. Flexible budget. ANSWER:
C
221. Labour budget is prepared by ________________. A. Personnel
department.
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B. Sales department. C. Purchase department. D. Accounts
department. ANSWER: A
222. Budget of indirect costs in the form of indirect wages,
indirect material and indirect expenses in thefactory is _________
. A. Production overhead budget. B. Administration overhead budget.
C. Selling and distribution overhead budget. D. Master budget.
ANSWER: A
223. The budget prepared to estimate the expenditure to be
incurred for planning, organizing, direction andcontrol function of
the management is _________. A. Production overhead budget. B.
Administration overhead budget. C. Selling and distribution
overhead budget. D. Master budget. ANSWER: B
224. The budget prepared to estimate expenditure to be incurred
to sell the product and its distribution is____________.
A. Production overhead budget. B. Administration overhead
budget. C. Selling and distribution overhead budget. D. Master
budget. ANSWER: C
225. The budget prepared to estimate the research and
development expenditure to be incurred during aspecific period is
_____________. A. Production overhead budget. B. Administration
overhead budget. C. Selling and distribution overhead budget. D.
Research and development budget. ANSWER: D
226. The budget prepared to estimate the expenditure on fixed
assets is known as _____. A. Capital expenditure budget. B.
Production overhead budget. C. Administration overhead budget. D.
Selling and distribution overhead budget. ANSWER: A
227. The budget prepared for replacement of assets, expansion of
production facilities, adoption of newtechnologies etc. is _______.
A. Capital expenditure budget. B. Production overhead budget.
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C. Administration overhead budget. D. Selling and distribution
overhead budget. ANSWER: A
228. A fixed budget is prepared for only _________. A. One level
of activity. B. Range of activity. C. Two level of activity. D.
Three level of activity. ANSWER: A
229. A flexible budget is prepared for a _____________. A. One
level of activity. B. Range of activity. C. Two level of activity.
D. Three level of activity. ANSWER: B
230. The budget starts without any base is _______________. A.
Master budget. B. Flexible budget. C. Zero base budgeting. D. Fixed
budget. ANSWER: C
231. The budget which reviews a programme or project from
scratch is ____. A. Master budget. B. Flexible budget. C. Zero base
budgeting. D. Fixed budget. ANSWER: C
232. The budget said as resource planning and redeployment
process is _______ . A. Zero base budgeting. B. Master budget. C.
Flexible budget. D. Fixed budget. ANSWER: A
233. Expected sales + desired closing stock - estimated opening
stock= ________ A. Expected production. B. Expected sales. C.
Expected purchase. D. Expected loss. ANSWER: A
234. In production budget closing stock is added with
___________. A. expense.
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B. sales. C. purchase. D. material. ANSWER: B
235. In production budget opening stock is deducted
with_____________. A. expense. B. sales. C. purchase. D. material.
ANSWER: B
236. Material consumed is Rs. 5,00,000 Opening stock of raw
material is Rs. 50,000 and Closing stock ofraw material is Rs.
25,000. What is the cost of raw material purchased _________. A.
Rs. 4,50,000. B. Rs. 4,75,000. C. Rs. 5,25,000. D. Rs. 5, 50,000.
ANSWER: B
237. If selling price is Rs. 25,000 and profit is Rs. 5,000 then
what is the percentage of profit oncast_______. A. 20%. B. 25%. C.
33.33%. D. 35% ANSWER: B
238. Material control involves ________. A. consumption of
material. B. issue of material. C. purchase of material. D.
purchase, storage and issue of material. ANSWER: D
239. Material requisition is meant for _________. A. purchase of
material. B. supply of material from stores. C. sale of material.
D. storage of material. ANSWER: B
240. Stock control through stock levels and EOQ is called
________. A. demand and supply method. B. perpetual inventory
system. C. control by important and exception D. automatic order
method. ANSWER: B
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241. ABC analysis is _____________. A. At Best Control. B.
Always Better Control. C. Average better Control. D. All best
control. ANSWER: B
242. JIT inventory system is _____________. A. Just In Time. B.
Just Inventory Time. C. Job In Time. D. Job Inventory Time. ANSWER:
A
243. Perpetual inventory system involves _________. A. bincard
and stores ledger. B. bill of material and material requisition. C.
purchase requisition and purchase order. D. inward and outward
invoices. ANSWER: A
244. FIFO is____________. A. Fast Investment in Future Order. B.
First In First Out. C. Fast In Fast Out D. Fast Issue Of Fast
Order. ANSWER: D
245. LIFO method of pricing of materials is more suitable when
______. A. material prices are rising. B. material prices are
falling. C. material prices are constant. D. material prices are
fluctuating. ANSWER: A
246. Average method of pricing the material issues is useful
when_______. A. material prices are rising. B. material prices are
falling. C. material prices are constant. D. material prices are
fluctuating. ANSWER: D
247. Scrap is _________. A. residue of material. B. wastage of
material. C. surplus material. D. abnormal loss of material.
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ANSWER: A
248. Material is issued by store keeper against. A. material
requisition. B. material order. C. goods received note. D. purchase
requisition. ANSWER: A
249. EOQ stands for______________. A. Economic Order Quantity.
B. Essential Order Quantity. C. Economic Output Quantity. D.
Essential Output Quantity. ANSWER: A
250. The document which is prepared after receiving and
inspecting material_____. A. material record note. B. goods
received note. C. bill of material. D. inventory record. ANSWER:
B
Staff Name Kumaresan A .
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