Comp

• 1. A CMM 1 B CMM 2 C CMM 0 D All of Above A Equvivance partitioning B Fault injection C Code Coverage D None of above A LOC B Test Metric C Product Metric D Process Metric A Perfomance Testing B White Box Testing C Black Box Testing D Alpha Testing A 2 is a valid reason; 1,3,4 & are not B 1,2 are valid reasons;3 & 4 & are 1 Phase defination is covered in 2 Which is a black box testing method? 5 1) Testing fault 2) Software fault 3) Design fault 4) Documentation Fault 3 A Metrics used to measure the charestric of documentation and code is called 4 A Non Functional Testing is called SUJJECT CODE: 1/19 PGCET A 2 is a valid reason; 1,3,4 & are not B 1,2 are valid reasons;3 & 4 & are not C 1,2,3 are valid reasons; 4 is not D All of them are valid reasons for failure A Component testing should be performed by development B Component testing is also know as isolation or module testing C Component testing should have completion criteria planned D Component testing does not involve regression testing A Management report B Interim Test report C Project status report D Final test report A Is unlikely to be completed on scheduleB Is likely to be fault-free C Is unlikely to cause a failure D Is likely to be liked by the users A At most 0.81 B Equal to 0.9 C Greater than 0.9 D At least 1/0.81 6 Which of the following statements about component testing is not true? 9 In unit testing of a module, it is found that for a set of test data, at the maximum 90% of the code alone were tested with the probability of success 0.9. The reliability of module is ? 7 Function/Test matrix is a type of 8 A reliable system will be one that: SUJJECT CODE: 1/19 PGCET

2. A 50% B 60% C 30% D 70% A A white box testing technique appropriate for component testin B A black box testing technique than can only be used during system testing C A black box testing technique appropriate to all levels of testing D A black box testing technique used only by developers A Proxy B Driver C Stub D None of the above Equivalence partitioning is: A program P calls two subprograms P1 and P2. P1 can fail 50% times and P2 can fail 40% times. The program P can fail ? To test a function, the programmer has to write a ______, which calls the function and passes it test data. 10 11 12 A company needs to develop a strategy for software product development for which it has a choice of two programming languages L1 and L2. The number of 13 SUJJECT CODE: 2/19 PGCET A 4000 B 5000 C 4333 D 4667 A 234.25 B 933.45 C 142.50. D 230.25 A Capture test cases B Capture requirements 15 Use Case is used for 14 A company needs to develop digital signal processing software for one of its newest inventions. The software is expected to have 40000 lines of code. The company needs to determine the effort in person-months needed to develop which it has a choice of two programming languages L1 and L2. The number of lines of code (LOC) developed using L2 is estimated to be twice the LOC developed with L1. the product will have to be maintained for five years. Various parameters for the company are given in the table below. Parameter Language L1 Language L2 Man years needed for development LOC / 10000 LOC / 10000 Development Cost per year Rs. 10,00,000 Rs. 7,50,000 Maintenance time 5 years 5 years Cost of maintenance per year Rs. 1,00,000 Rs. 50,000 Total cost of the project includes cost of development and maintenance. What is the LOC for L1 for which the cost of the project using L1 is equal to the cost of the project using L2? SUJJECT CODE: 2/19 PGCET 3. C Capture design specification D all of the above. A Static testing B State Transition Testing C Dynamic Testing D none of the above. A ability of system to run without failure B ability of system to support users C The poit at which system break down D all of the above. A Testing tool B Test Methedology C Test Metric D all of the above. A estimating testing effort B perfoming LCSAJ testing C Defect calculation D None of above Code review is for16 17 Stress testing measures 19 Metric based technique is for 18 QTP is SUJJECT CODE: 3/19 PGCET C Defect calculation D None of above A No B Yes C May be yes D None of the above. A Unit Testing B Integration Testing C System Testing D None of the above. A By repetating test case, remove errorsB correct errors C update errors D None of the above. A Prototype Method B Agile Method C Waterfall Method D all of the above. A SpiralModel B Waterfall model C V- Model D all of the above. 20 Is it possible to have a software product with "Zero defect"? 23 Face to face Communication is in 22 Pesting Paradox in testing testcase is 21 A Testing which detect the defects in fully functional software is 25 Test Planning includes 24 W - model is updation of SUJJECT CODE: 3/19 PGCET 4. A Test Strategies B Test methods C Test Bed Creation D all of the above. A QTP B Silktest C Selenium D all of the above. A Load Runner B BugZilla C Qtp D all of the above. A alpha testing B Hardening testing C System Testing D all of the above. A Integration testing B Alpha Testing C stress testing D Unit testing 26 Example of Testing Tool 29 Data independence means 28 To Detect cracks and Holes in the networks by 27 Non functional testing tool SUJJECT CODE: 4/19 PGCET C stress testing D Unit testing A Common Testing System B Commercial off the shelf C Code and Test system D None of above A Autocad B Flash C Mcafee D all of the above. A Understanding of testing tools B understanding of functional domain C Expertise team lcontromonitoring an D all of the above. A Reliablility B Reusablility C Portability D all of the above. A Black Box Testing B White Box Testing 32 Required Skill of Test Manager 31 COTS example is 30 COTS is 34 Which testing devides input domain into class for testcase? 33 COTS is for SUJJECT CODE: 4/19 PGCET 5. C Equvivance Testing D Boundry Value Analysis A Inspection B WalkThrough C Technical D all of the above. A Inspection B WalkThrough C Technical D all of the above. A Recorder B Author C Moderator D Reviewer A Analysis phase B Design Phase C Code Phase D Testing Phase 35 Types of review 38 SRS is an artifact of 37 The person who records the procedding of review meeting is 36 Group Activity can be seen in 39 Nonfunctional requirement is SUJJECT CODE: 5/19 PGCET A Reliability B usability C maintainability D All of above A Varification B Testing C Validation D all of the above. A Less iteration B Error detection at later stage C Not applied to real time system D All of above A Waterfall model B Spiral Model C Prototype Model D all of the above. A User Get Idea about system B Low cost C Fast Development D All of above 41 Disadvtage of prototype model is 40 Evaluting Software during various phases of SDLC is called 39 Nonfunctional requirement is 44 Important aspect of coding is 43 advtage of prototype model is 42 Risk Analysis phase is in SUJJECT CODE: 5/19 PGCET 6. A productivity B efficiency C reliability D all of the above. A Architectural design B data design C Interface design D All of above A IBM B Microsoft C Motorola D Intel A Abstraction B Information Hiding C refinement D 90-120 days A n B n*(n-1)/2 C nlog(n) D n*(n+1)/2 47 Which of the following is in design stage 46 RAD model was proposed by 45 Data structure of application is in 48 If n number of programmers are in team , then number of paths is SUJJECT CODE: 6/19 PGCET C nlog(n) D n*(n+1)/2 A 10% B 20% C 5% D 0 A Data Element B Behaviour element C Class based element D Scenario based element A cardinality B modality C directionality D Both (A) and (B) A Flow base element B Class base element C Scenario base element D Data elements in the database can be modified by changing the data dic A Well defined process B Data element Hiarchy C Specification design D Obeservable mode of behaviou 50 Which of these is not element in object oriented analysis model 49 if 99% code is written in C and 1% code is written in assembly lenguage then increse in execution time compare to 1% code written in assembly language is 53 Behaviour modeling is for 52 UML diagram is useful in representing 51 Relationship shown in data model is for SUJJECT CODE: 6/19 PGCET 7. A transorm data element B Show relationship between data C Reaction to external event D all of the above. A 45% B 100% C 90% D 50% A 30% B 70% C 10% D 20% A Method B Tools C Manufacturing D Process 56 A program P has p1 and p2 sub programs. Probability of p1 fails is 50% and p2 fails is 40%. What about the probability os P fails 55 In unit testing of a module, the maximum 90% of the code alone were tested with the probability of success 0.5. The reliability of module is ? 54 State diagram is for 58 Five generic software frame work activities are 57 Which of this is not software engineering layers SUJJECT CODE: 7/19 PGCET A analysis , Design, Code, maintenance,test B communication,planning,modellin g,construction,deployment C communication,risk management, design,code,test D Analysis,planning,design,code,test A iterative in nature B not produce throw away C accommodate changes easily D all of above A complex project B small project C develop core module D all of above A Test bed B Traceablity Matrix C Test Metric D All of above A Retesting B Regresssion testing C Adhoc Testing D perfomance testing 59 Evolutionary model is 58 Five generic software frame work activities are 62 Executing the same test case by giving the number of inputs on same build called as 61 The approach/document used to make sure all the requirements are covered when writing test cases 60 Incremental model approach in software development is useful in SUJJECT CODE: 7/19 PGCET 8. A Sometimes B Many Times C Always D None A Testing and validation B Reverse engineering C Identification of faults D Development A Input B Output C Storage D Processing A Inheritance B Aggregation C Object D Class A Input B Output 65 The first item defined for a new system is its 64 Top down approach is used for 63 Assertions are conditions which are true at the point of execution 67 The first item defined for a new system is its 66 The feature of the object oriented paradigm which helps code reuse is SUJJECT CODE: 8/19 PGCET A Input B Output C Storage D Processing A TRUE B FALSE C D A Are delivered on time and under budget B Have complete documentation C Are thoroughly tested before delivery to the customer D Have measurable specification for process outputs A Analysis, design, testing B Definition, development, support C What, how, where D Programming, debugging, maintenance A Dependence matrix B SRS C Cause-effect graph D Chart 68 To test competing product in to the market comparision testing is done 71 Coupling and cohesion can be represented using a 70 What are the three generic phases of software engineering? 69 A key concept of quality control is that all work products SUJJECT CODE: 8/19 PGCET 9. A Scope, constraints, market B Business and marketing concerns C Technology, finance, time, resources D Technical prowess of the developers A Input B Output C Storage D Processing A Inheritance B Aggregation C Object D Class A Level 1 B Level 2 C Level 3 D Level 4 74 The feature of the object oriented paradigm which helps code reuse is 73 The first item defined for a new system is its 72 Software feasibility is based on which of the following . 76 75 The process is at least documented in CMM SUJJECT CODE: 9/19 PGCET A P and R B Q and R C P and S D Q and S A the data records of the file are organized not in the same order as the data entries of the index B the data records of the file are organized in the same order as the data entries of the index. C it is on a set of fields that form a candidate key D it is on a set of fields that include the primary key 77 An index is clustered, if 76 Which of the following statements are TRUE about an SQL query? P : An SQL query can contain a HAVING clause even if it does not have a GROUP BY clause Q: An SQL query can contain a HAVING clause only if it has a GROUP BY clause R : All attributes used in the GROUP BY clause must appear in the SELECT clause S : Not all attributes used in the GROUP BY clause need to appear in the SELECT clause 78 Function point metric of a software also depends on the SUJJECT CODE: 9/19 PGCET 10. A Number of function needed B Number of final users of the software C Number of external inputs and outputs D all of above A Stamp coupling B Content coupling C Control coupling D Data coupling A Software functions B Process activities C Information domain values D Project schedule A Inheritance B abstraction 80 FP-based estimation techniques require problem decomposition based on 79 The worst type of coupling is 81 Cohesion is closely bound to SUJJECT CODE: 10/19 PGCET C coupling D None of above A Control coupling B Content coupling C message coupling D None of above A Cyclomatic complexity B Function count C LOC D Program length A Software design B Testing C Software requirement specification D Both (A) and (B A ISO 9000 B ISO 9003 C ISO9002 D ISO 9001 A Customer Myths B Management Myths 83 Which is not a size metric? 82 Which coupling is high ? 86 Many causes of the software crisis can be traced to mythology based on 85 The ISO quality assurance standard that applies to software engineering is 84 IEEE 830-1993 is a IEEE recommended standard for SUJJECT CODE: 10/19 PGCET 11. C Practitioner Myths D all of above A RAD B Prototype C SpiralModel D None of above A content coupling B stamp coupling C messsage coupling D control coupling A Spiral Model B Prototype Model C Water Fall Model D all of above A step-wise refinement B modularity C flow charting D loop invariants 89 For a data entry project for office staff who have never used computers before (user interface and user-friendliness are extremely important), one will use 88 Data structure coupling is also know as 87 What is an incremental software process model that emphasize an extremely short development cycle? 90 Top-down design does not require SUJJECT CODE: 11/19 PGCET C flow charting D loop invariants A Cyclomatic number B Hamiltonian circuit C Eulerian cycle D None of the above A Stress testing B Unit testing C Beta testing D Mutation testing A user requirement B number of errors present C quality of the design D software engineers experience A Error correction B Establishing scope C Adaptation D Enhancement A Adaptive maintenance B Perfective maintenance C Corrective maintenance D None of above 92 One of the fault base testing techniques is 91 Which of the following graph theoretic concept will be useful in software testing? 95 Emergency fixes known as patches are result of 94 Which one of these are not software maintenance activity 93 Reliability of software is directly dependent on SUJJECT CODE: 11/19 PGCET 12. A Adaptive maintenance B Corrective maintenance C Perfective maintenance D Preventative maintenance A Size measurement B Design recovery C Cost measurement D All of the above A Analysis Modelling B Requirement Gathering C Formulation D User Interface Prototyping A Highly Coheshive B Comprehenshive C Loosly coupled D All of above 98 Which of the following is not one of the WebApp requirements analysis tasks? 97 Reverse engineering is the process which deals with 96 Changes made to an information system to add the desired but not necessarily the required features is called 99 As use-cases are organised to functional packages.Each functional Package must be SUJJECT CODE: 12/19 PGCET C Loosly coupled D All of above A Content B maintainability C links D Nevigation A Forms B cookies C browser D links A Reusable B Organized C Repeatable D Ad hoc A user requirement B number of errors present C quality of the design D software engineers experience A Yes B No C Can't Say D May be yes 101 Which of the following is not the WebApp Interface Mechanism? 100 Which of the following is not one of the dimensions of quality used to assess a WebApp 104 Graph based testing is only applied to object oriented system? 103 Reliability of software is directly dependent on 102 Which of these terms is a level name in the Capability Maturity Model? SUJJECT CODE: 12/19 PGCET 13. A OO software B Application Software C System Software D None of above A SRS B input C output D Software Metric A Analysis Effort method B Function Point Analysis C COCOMO D All of Above A 200 man-hours B 300 LOC C 30 FP D None of above Methods for estimation in software engineering include: if a software engineer has built a small web-based calculator application, we can say that the project effort is 106 ____ a measure of some property of a piece of software or its specifications 108 107 105 Use case provide useful input for design of black-box test for SUJJECT CODE: 13/19 PGCET C 30 FP D None of above A 200 man-hours B 300 LOC C 40 person-month D None of above A version control B naming convention (programming) C software archival agreements D all of above A the project's progress B Project's scheudle C Project's planning D None of above A ISO 9000 B ISO 9001 110 Software Configuration Management include 109 if a software engineer has built a small web-based calculator application, we can say that the software size is 112 Risk management is associated with 111 The purpose of project monitoring and control is to keep the team and management up to date on SUJJECT CODE: 13/19 PGCET 14. C ISO 31000 D None of above A Riskevent/Probability of occurance B Risk event x Probability of Occurrence C Constant (3.0) D None of above A Risk mitigation B Risk monitoring C Risk reduction D None of above A Risk mitigation B Risk monitoring C Risk reduction D Risk retention 113 Composite Risk Index value = 116 115 Self Insurance falls under 114 sprinklers are designed to put out a fire to reduce the risk of loss by fire is called SUJJECT CODE: 14/19 PGCET A we can always design test data to execute the controlled statement B the problem of designing test data to execute the controlled statement is undecidable C the problem of designing test data to execute the controlled statement is intractable D none of the above A an infinite number of test cases B 2^ 48 test cases C 2^164 test cases D None of above A error in code as negative values remain negative B The code finds absolute value of y C error in code as positive values remain negative D None of above 116 In an if statement 117 Jacob has written a program to complete the roots of the quadratic equation ax2+bx+c=0. Assuming a 16 bit computer to exhaustively test his program for all integer values for a, b and c he requires 118 Consider the code below begin If (y Ea + Eb B E (a + b) < Ea +Eb C E (a + b) > =Ea + Eb D None of the above A 01:10 B 01:02 C 01:05 D 01:20 A 01:03:05 B `1:10:100 C 01:03:10 D 01:02:05 A Ea < Eb B Ea > Eb 128 Variation in debugging : coding ability has been reported to be 129 Form the detailed design speciication. If the coding is done in C++ : C : assembler the resulting code sizes will be on the average. 130 Consider two modules A and B, both utility programs in the same organization developed by the same team of programmers, where a and b are the sizes, respetively. The cost to develop each module is Ca and Cb. The efforts are Ea and Eb. if Ca > Cb then SUJJECT CODE: 16/19 PGCET 17. C Ea = Eb D both (A) and (C) A Data abstraction B modularity C concurrency D data hiding A content,common,control,stamp B common,content,control,stamp C stamp,control,content,common D None of above A feasibility B Testing C Design D Maintenance 132 The rating of coupling of modules for strongest (least desirable) to weakest (most desirable) are 131 Informational cohesion is a realization of 133 The largest %cost of software life cycle is in SUJJECT CODE: 17/19 PGCET C Design D Maintenance A Process B Method C Architectue D None of above A error in the program B cycle in the program C independent logical path D statement in the program A error in the program B cycle in the program C independent logical path D statement in the program 135 Cyclomatic complexity metric provide information regarding number of 134 Which is not a component of Object Oriented s/w Engineering? 137 Which of the following is not the characteristic of software ? 136 Cyclomatic complexity metric provide information regarding number of SUJJECT CODE: 17/19 PGCET 18. A Software does not wear out B Software is flexible C Software is not manufactured D Software is always correct A B Productivity C Reliability D Size A Functionality B Productivity C quality D Efficiency A Rupee B Person C Person - Months D Month 138 Which of the following is not a product matrix ? 141 Match the following 140 Efforts is measured in terms of ? 139 Which of the following is not a process metric ? SUJJECT CODE: 18/19 PGCET A 1-A , 2-C , 3-D, 4-B B 1-B , 2-C , 3-D, 4-A C 1-C , 2-A , 3-B, 4-D D 1-C , 2-A , 3-D, 4-B A 10 programmers B 8 programmers C 13 programmers D 100/13 programmers A 10 B 13 C 5 D 8 144 If the entire program is written in FORTRAN, the percentage increase in the execution time, compared to writing the entire program in FORTRAN and rewriting the 1% in assembly language is ? 143 If 99% of the program is written in FORTRAN and the remaining 1% in assembly language, the percentage increase in the programming time compared to writing the entire program in FORTRAN and rewriting the 1% in assembly language is ? 142 To completely write the program in FORTRAN and rewrite the 1% code in assembly language, if the project needs 13 days, the team consists of ? SUJJECT CODE: 18/19 PGCET 19. A 9 B 8 C D 0.9 A Robustness B Recovery from error C Security D None of above A 100 B 48 C 40 D 36 A uncover problem araes before they " go critical " B track potential risks C assess the status of an ongoing project D All of above 147 Project indicator enables a software project manager to ? 146 Given a source code with 10 operators includes 6 unique operators, and 6 operand including 2 unique operands. The program volume is ? 145 Stress testing measures 148 Once object oriented programming has been accomplished, unit testing is SUJJECT CODE: 19/19 PGCET A Partition teting B Random testing C Fault based testing D All of above A Technical B Management C Both A and B D None of above A Provide batch totals B Provide for a check digit C Provide hash totals D all of above 150 To avoid errors in transcription and transposition, during data entry the system analyst should ? 149 In risk analysis of spiral model, which of the following risk includes ? 148 Once object oriented programming has been accomplished, unit testing is applied for each class. Class tests includes ? SUJJECT CODE: 19/19 PGCET 20. 1 What is the grammar for generating strings like a=b=c? A rightleer=right|leer lettera|b|..|z B rightleer=leer lettera|b|..|z C rightleer=leer|leer lettera|b|..|z D rightright=leer|leer lettera|b|..|z 2 Out of the following grammars, which one is right associative grammar? A stringstring+string|0|1|2|3 B stmtif (expr) stmt else stmt C rightleer=right|leer lettera|b|..|z D listlist+digit|digit digit0|1|2|3 A synthesized B inherited C syntax D parsed A scanning B parsing C stack D analysis A left-to-right B top-down C right-to-left D Bottom-up A Linear,Hierarchical,Semantic B linear,portable,bottom-up C Linear,nonlinear,synthesis D linear,nonlinear,top-down A lexical analysis B semantic analysis C syntax analysis D synthesis A syntax tree B semantic tree C directed acyclic graph D graph A macro preprocessor B rational preprocessors C language extensions D File inclusion 6 In compiler, analysis consists of which three phases? 9 Who allows a user to define shorthands for longer constructs? 7 Hierarchical analysis is also called ___________ 8 __________ is the compressed representation of the parse tree. 3 An attribute is said to be ____ if its value at a parse tree node is determined from attribute values at the children of the node. 4 __________is the process of determining if a string of tokens can be generated by a grammar. 5 __________ can handle large class of grammars and translation schemes. SUJJECT CODE: 1/16 PGCET 21. A hypothetical machine code B relocatable machine code C pass code D register transfer code A backtracking B forwarding C backpatching D looping A parsing rule B syntax directed definition C operator precedence D semantic actions A token B context free grammar C lexeme D regular expression A semantic analyzer B lexical analyzer C code generator D parser A parsing,semantic analysis B regular expression,context free grammar C scanning,lexical analysis D code generator,code optimization A enhanced writability B enhanced portability C enhanced readability D enhanced security A lexeme B identifier C pattern D symbol A fi (a==f(x)) B a=(b C a=b c D all of the above 16 The advantage of separating analysis phase into lexical analysis and parsing is ______________ 17 const pi=3.1416, pi in lexical analysis is called _______ 18 Which error will not be identified by lexical analyzer? 13 ___________ is used to describe patterns 14 Which part of the compiler strip out comments from the source programme? 15 Lexical analyzers are divided into cascade of which two phases? 10 The output of the second pass of assembler is called what? 11 The technique of merging intermediate and target code generation into one pass is called __________. 12 In a translation scheme, ______ are embedded within the right sides of the production. SUJJECT CODE: 2/16 PGCET 22. A ahmedabad B med C bad D abad A gjrt B jar C gja D rag A gjrt B rjg C jug D rgu A balanced constructs B nested constructs C repeating strings D all of the above A misspelling an identifier B operator applied to incompatible operand C arithmetic expression with unbalanced parantheses D infinitely recursive calls A phrase level B panic mode C error production D global correction A canonical derivation B left derivation C derived derivation D constant derivation A rightmost derivation B leftmost derivation C top down derivation D bottom-up derivation A context free B context sensitive C ambiguous D regular 20 Which is the substring of string gujarat? 19 Which is the prefix of the string ahmedabad? 23 Out of the following , which one is the syntactic error? 24 synchronizing token is used in which type of error recovery? 21 Which is the subsequence of the string gujarat? 22 What can not be described by regular expressions? 27 A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is said to be 28 A left recursive grammar can cause a recursive descent parser with backtracking to go into ____________ 25 Rightmost derivations are sometimes called _________ 26 E-(E+E)-(id+E)(-id+id) , this is the example of SUJJECT CODE: 3/16 PGCET 23. A infinite loop B panic mode C recovery mode D execution mode A input buffer,stack,parsing table,output stream B input string, stack, transition diagram, output stream C input buffer,stack,regular definition,output stream D input buffer,stack, error recovery, output stream A nonterminal B terminal C synchronizing token D casesensitive character A both B and C B hard to read C difficult to use for translation process D none of the above A handle B right sentential form C left sentential form D handle pruning A handle B viable suffixes C viable prefixes D suffixes A number of symbols of lookahead B number of iterations C number of symbols on stack D number of sets A left most derivative B left-to-right scanning C left recursion D left factoring A right-to-left scanning B right side of the production C right most derivation in reverse D right recursion 31 Left recursion elimination and left factoring make the resulting grammar ______________ 32 A rightmost derivation in reverse can be obtained by what? 29 Which four components are there in table driven predictive parser? 30 FOLLOW function can be used as what during panic mode recovery? 35 In LR(k) parsing, "L" refers to _________ 36 In LR(k) parsing, "R" refers to 33 The set of prefixes of right sentential forms that can apper on stack of a shift reduce parser are called ______________ 34 In LR(k) - k refers to ___________ SUJJECT CODE: 4/16 PGCET 24. A synthesized B Nonterminal C terminal D inherited A dependency graph B directed graph C parse tree D syntax tree A run time allocation B static allocation C heap allocation D stack allocation A pointer reference B dangling reference C null reference D deallocated reference A top down parser B bottom up parser C predictive parser D recursive descent parser A SLR parsing table B Canonical LR parsing table C LALR parsing table D None of the above A Keeping track of variable declaration B Checking for the correct use of L values and R values C both A and B D None of these A syntax tree B post fix notation C three address code D all of these A shorter and slower B shorter and faster C longer and slower D longer and faster 39 Which storage allocation strategy manages the run time storage? 40 When there is a reference to storage that has been deallocated, the reference is called ___________________ 37 Which attribute value at a node in a parse tree is defined in terms of attributes at the parent and/or siblings of that node? 38 The directed graph that depicts interdependencies among the inherited and synthesized attributes at the nodes in the parse tree is called ____ 43 Inherited attribute is a natural choice in 44 An intermediate code form is 41 Shift reduce parsers are 42 YACC builds up 45 Instructions involving register operands are usually _______ and ______ than those involving operands in memory. SUJJECT CODE: 5/16 PGCET 25. A lexeme,pattern B pattern,lexeme C pattern,token D token,lexeme A predictive parser B recursive descent parser C Both a and b D Canonical LR parsing A LR(1) B LALR(1) C LL(1) D operator precedence A LL B LR C both a and b D neither a nor b A Expansion,control stacks B copying, control stacks C Activation,control stacks D None of these A Run time,compile time B link time,compile time C compile time,run time D link time,link time A starvation,dangling references B memory leaks,dangling references C starvation,memory leaks D starvation,heap allocation A Runtime B Peephole C Algorithmic D logical A Dead code B Hibernating code C static code D dynamic code 47 Non backtracking top-down parsers are also called ___________ 48 All SLR(1) grammars are also ________________. 46 A ____ is a rule that describes that set and a _____ is a sequence of characters matching the patterns 51 Static binding is performed at ____ while dynamic binding is performed at _____ 52 _____ and _____ are disadvantages of manual deallocation. 49 S-attributeddefinition can be implemented using ________ parsers. 50 The execution of a procedure body is called ___ of the procedure maintained on _____. 55 What will be the precedence relation id __ + __id 53 Eliminating redundant load is an example of ____ optimization. 54 Instructions that compute a value that is never used is called ____. SUJJECT CODE: 6/16 PGCET 26. A >,< B C >,= D B = 1, A < B = 0, A < B = 1 B A > B = 0, A < B = 1, A = B = 0 C A > B = 1, A < B = 0, A = B = 0 D A > B = 0, A < B = 1, A = B = 1 A 4-input, 8-bit B 4-input, 16-bit C 2-input, 8-bit D 2-input, 4-bit A 48.625 B 59.487 C 48.487 D 59.625 A D6C1 B DC61 C D6C5 D none A (90)10 B (132)8 C (5A)16 D All above 92 If we multiply ' 723 ' and ' 34 ' by representing them in floating point notation i.e. by first, 93 Which one is true: 100 The sum of octal numbers (25)8 + (52)8 +(33)8 is : 97 Two 2-input, 4-bit multiplexers 74X157 can be connected to implement a ____multiplexer. 98 What will be the decimal equivalent of 111011.10 99 What will be the hexadecimal equivalent of decimal number 54977 94 3.3 v CMOS series is characterized by __________ and _________as compared to the 5 v CMOS 95 The minterm expansion for F(A,B,C) = (A + B + C)(A + B' + C')(A' + B + C')(A' + B' + C) is 96 The binary numbers A = 1100 and B = 1001 are applied to the inputs of a comparator. What are SUJJECT CODE: 7/7 PGCET 158. A There is an interrupt B There is a control signal C There is an execution D There is a fetch A Bus transfer B cycle stealing C Bus grant D bit stealing A Content addressable memory B Virtual memory C Main memory D Secondary memory A lower power dissipation B greater speed C smaller chip size D fewer masks for fabrication A The address of the current instruction B Data which is to be processed C The address of the next instruction to be executed D Counter value that is used in the program A Semiconductor memory B Memory register C Magnetic memory D None of the above A ALU B Storage unit C Control Unit D None of the above A Magnetic tape B PROM C Floppy disk D None of the above A Floppy disk B Magnetic tape C Hard disk D None of the above A Bus B line C media D none of these A memory, IO, DAM B ALU CPU Memory C Memory CPU IO D CU ALU Registers A Special Register B C Register C B Register D Accumulator A All Language Programming B Assembly Language Programming C Accumulator Language Programming D All Low Programming A Resgister Transfer Language B Register Transistor Language C Register Translation Language D Register Transformation Language A ROM is read / write memory B PC points to the last instruction that was executed C Stack works on the principle of LIFO D All instructions affect the flag 1 Transfer between registers takes place when 6 CD-ROM is a Program counter contains 9 Information retrieval is faster from 3 An associative memory is also called 2 Which technique allows DMA controller to transfer one data word at a time. 5 4 Advantage of CMOS technology over a MOS is 11 12 The main three component of a digital computer system are Which register is responsible for computation in any computer system ? 10 The communication line between the CPU, memory and peripherals is called a 7 Actual execution of instructions in a computer takes place in 8 Which of the following is used as a primary storage device 15 ALP stands for 14 RTL stands for Which of the following statement is true ? 13 159. A Accumulator B Stack Pointer C Program Counter D All of the above A is easier to implement using hard-wired control logic B has fewer instructions C has more registers D has fewer addressing modes A the length of MAR B the available secondary storage C the available main memory D all of above A Direct B indirect C base index D Immediate A Direct B Random C Sequential D None of the above A CPU B DMA C CAD D None of these A Magnetic disk B Soft disk C Floppy disk D Optical disk A Universal asynchronization receiver/transmitter B Universal asynchronous receiver/transmitter C United asynchronous receiver/transmitter D Universal automatic receiver/transmitter A Programmed I/O B DMA C Handshaking D Strobe A Direct memory accumulator controller B Direct memory access controller C Direct memory access content D Direct main access controller A DCP B IOP C Both a & b D None A Primary B RAM C Cache D None of these A Pop B CALL C MOV D PUSH A Uni-directional B Bi-directional 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 Which is used for this and known as high speed buffer exist with almost each process? ___ decrements SP (the stack pointer) by two and then transfers a word from the source operand to Data bus is The total size of address space in a virtual memory system is limited by Which of the following requires value of data with the instruction The access method used for magnetic tape is_________ Which is an important data transfer technique ? Which disk read the data by reflecting pulses of laser beams on the surface ? UART stands for ______operations are the results of I/O operations that are written in the computer program DMAC stands for Which may be classified as a processor with the direct memory access capability that communicates The main difference(s) between a ClSC and a RISC processor is/are that a RISC processor typically Which of the following are registers ?16 160. C Non-directional D None of the given A is Not Important. B is Important C is bidirectional D is unidirectional A immediate B direct C register D micro A 0-address B Binary C 1-address D 2-address A Memory register instruction B Memory regular instruction C Memory reference instruction D Most register instruction A Execution cycle B Register cycle C Fetch cycle D Interrupt cycle A Reduced Instruction Set Computer B Register Instruction Set Computer C Register Interrupt Set Computer D Reduced Interrupt Set Computer A ALP B Machine language C OPCODE D Higher language A Prefix notation B Postfix notation C Outfix notation D Infix notation A Stack B Queue C Register D Accumulator A Instruction B Microoperation C Pseudoinstruction D Minioperation A reserved ROM address space B reserved RAM address space C reserved IO address space D none of the above A -128 to +128 B -128 to +127 C -127 to +128 D -127 to +127 A 2 processors B 3 processors C 4 processors D none of the above A 2 operands B 1 operands C 3 operands D none of the above A Overflow B Zero result C Negative result D none of the above 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 Which of the following architecture is not suitable for realizing SIMD ? The language which is understandable by the computer system is known as Which of the following is not a valid expression notation ? Expressions can be evaluated with the help of which data structure ? Which is considered as the most basic operation in a computer system ? Stack is nothing but a set of If negative numbers are stored in 2's complement system, the range of numbers that can be stored To achieve parallelism one needs a minimum of Any instruction should have at least Which of the following is not typically found in the status register ? Control bus________ Which of the following is an invalid addressing mode ? Which is the invalid instruction type ? MRI stands for When an interrupt occurs, following will take place RISC stands for 161. A Vector Processor B Array processor C Von Neumann D All of the above A SYPS B BIPS C BAUD D FLOPS A of their higher transfer rate B the cost to store a bit is less C consume less power D the cost to store a bit is high A Implied mode instruction B Indirect mode instruction C Based index addressing mode instruction D Immediate mode instruction A Pointers B Arrays C Records D Recursive procedures with local variable A 1 B 2 C 0 D Offset value A Same B Different C Optimum D Medium A Isolated I/O B Memory-mapped I/O C Both a & b D None of these A Synchronous B Asynchronous C Clock dependent D Decoder independent A Interrupt-initiated I/O B DMA C IOP D DCP A An IRQ Conflict B An IRQ Crash C An IRQ Collision D An IRQ Blockage A Counter register B Flag register C Base register D Desination register A AX register B The concatenation of DX and AX C The concatenation of ES and AX D The concatenation of DS and BX A AL or AX B BL or BX C CL or CX D DL or DX A 1 argument B 2 argument C 3 arguments D No arguments 57 58 59 60 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 46 47 ______processor has to check continuously till device becomes ready for transferring the data When two devices in the system want to use the same IRQ line then what will happen? CX register mostly use a When the operand of DIV instruction is of 16-bits then implied dividend will be stored in______ The source register in OUT is To transfer control back the RET instruction take In assembly the CX register is used normally as a ______________register Which of the following units can be used to measure the speed of a computer ? Bubble memory is preffered over floppy disks because All register reference instruction that use accumulator are A certain processor supports only the immediate and the direct addressing modes. Which of the when PUSH is executed , the stack pointer register is decremented by The operating mode of I/O devices is_______ for different device There are 2 ways in which addressing can be done in memory and I/O device If CPU and I/O interface share a common bus than transfer of data b/w 2 units is said to be 162. A source B pointer C index D counter A AX B BX C CX D DX A 2 GB B 4 GB C 6 GB D 8 GB A CALL instruction B POP instruction C Jump instruction D RET instruction A Literal B Variable C Label D Starting point A Immediate B Indirect C Direct D Register A Base Register Indirect B Indirect C Indexed Register Indirect D Immediate A Base Register Indirect B Indirect C Direct D Illegal A 32 K B 16 K C 8 K D 24 K A Zero B Sign C Overflow D Positive A Fakeinstructions B Extrainstruction C Noninstruction D Pseudoinstructions A IZS B ISZ C ICR D CIR A Lable B Opcode C Comment D Data A RAM B Cache C ROM D Register A RLC B RAL C RRC D RAR A INTR B TRAP C RST 7.5 D RST 5.5 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 61 62 63 64 65 Following cannot be part of an instruction The fastest memory available on earth is The instruction used to shift right the accumulator content by one bit through the carry flag bit is The only interrupt that is edge triggered is When the subprogram finishes, the ____________________ retrieves the return address from the In total: dw 0 Opcode total is a ___________ In mov ax, 5 is _____________ Addressing Mode In mov [SI], AX is _____________ Addressing Mode In mov ax, [bx - Si] is ___________ Addressing Mode A computer with 32 bit data bus uses 4 K X 8 static RAM memory chips. The smallest memory this PSW does not have following flag Instructions which are not meant for execution are known as Increment operation is incorporated with which instruction ? When a 16 bit number is divided by an 8 bit number, the dividend will be in A 32bit address register can access upto ............................of memory 163. A TRAP B RST 7.5 C INTR D RST 6.5 A railway reservation B weather forecasting C matrix multiplication D all of above A railway reservation B parallel processing C matrix multiplication D all of above A Low cost B Parallel operation C High operating speed D All of the above A Direct B Register C Register Indirect D Immediate A Absolute B Immediate C Indirect D Indexed A Divide logical error B Divide overflow error C Divide syntax error D An illegal instruction A accumulator,accumulator B data bus,accumulator C accumulator, Address Bus D accumulator,memory A Pointer, Segment, or Base Register B Pointer, Index, or Base Register C General Registers D Instruction Pointer A 1 pass B 2 pass C 3 pass D 4 pass A 1 pass B 2 pass C 3 pass D 4 pass A Vector Processing B Parallel Execution C Pipelining D Parallel Processing A CIL B ICL C ISZ D SIZ A Prefix notation B Infix notation C Postfix notation D Outfix notation A Memory Compaction B Memory interleaving C Reducing the size of memory D Inreasing the size of memory 89 90 91 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 76 77 78 79 The speed imbalance between memory access and CPU operation can be reduced by In a vector interrupt the The addressing mode used in the instruction ADD X, Y is When a very large number is divided by very small number so that the quotient is larger than the There is a central register in every processor called the _______ and The word size of a processor is ___________does not hold data but holds the address of data Memory references are processed in which pass of the assembler ? Address symbol table is built in which pass of the assembleer ? FetchDecode.Execute phases are overlapped to spped up the overall execution Content of a register is shifted in circular manner for following instruction Which notation is considered to be the best for execution of an instruction ? Which is the non-maskale interrupt ? A typical application of MIMD is SIMD can be used for The advantage of single bus over multibus is the The addressing mode used in the instruction PUSH B is 164. A branch address is assigned to a fixed location in memory B interrupting source supplies the branch information to the processor through interrrupt vector C branch address is obtained from register in the processor D none of the above A CLR A B ORA A C SUB A D MOV A, 00h A Instructions taking multiple cycles B Highly pipelined C Instructions interpreted by microprogramme D None of above A is faster than a hard wired control unit B facilitated easy implementation of new instructions C is useful when very small programs to be run D useally referes to the control unit of a microprocessor A PUSH PSW B PUSH A C PUSH SP D POP PSW A SISD B SIMD C MIMD D MISD A overflow error B underflow errror C 0 D 5.28E + 11 A Direct mode B Indirect mode C Relative mode D Indexed mode A 47 ms B 50 ms C 60 ms D 62 ms A n B n-1 C n+1 D independent of 'n' 98 99 100 92 93 94 95 96 97 The seek time of a disk is 30 ms. It rotates at the rate of 30 rotations per second. Each track has a The number of instructions needed to add 'n' numbers and store the result in memory using only Which of the following instruction may be used to clear the content of accumulator ? Which of the following is the typical characteristic of RISC machine ? A microprogramed control unit Which of the following instruction may be used to save the accumulator value onto the stack ? Von Neumann architecture is A computer uses 8 digit mantissaand 2 digit exponent. If a=0.052 and b=28E + 11 then b+a-b will The most relevant addressing mode to write position independent code is