Class XIII (Spartan Batch) Chemical Arithmetics, Redox ...

Class XIII (Spartan Batch)Chemical Arithmetics, Redox Reaction

2GCI DTS (Diamond Test Series Part-I) for NEET - 2021 | 08/06/2021

1. What will be mass of glucose in which 600 molecules are

present -

(1) 2.7 × 10–12 gm

(2) 1.8 × 10–12 gm

(3) 1.8 × 10–19 gm

(4) 4 × 10–16 gm

2. In X ml H2O 4.8 × 1025 no. of electrons are present then

value of X will be -

(1) 94 ml

(2) 144 ml

(3) 270 ml

(4) 320 ml

3. In 100 litre sample of air find out total number of molecules

of N2 at 27oC temp and 1 atm of pressure considering 78%

Nitrogen in atmosphere -

(1) 0.78 NA

(2) 9.68 NA

(3) 1.2 NA

(4) 3.17 NA

4. 50 kg of N2(g) and 10 kg of H

2(g) are mixed to produce

NH3(g) calculate the mass of NH

3(g) formed.

(1) 28 kg

(2) 14 kg

(3) 56 kg

(4) 70 kg

5. Which of the following is the wrong statement -

(1) Average atomic mass of an element depends upon the

abundance of its isotopes

(2) The quantitative study of the reactant required is called

stoichiometry

(3) The atomic mass of an element is expressed relative to

C12 isotope of carbon which has an exact value of 12u

(4) An empirical formula represents the exact number of

different types of atoms present in a molecule of a

compound

1. 600

(1) 2.7 × 10–12 gm

(2) 1.8 × 10–12 gm

(3) 1.8 × 10–19 gm

(4) 4 × 10–16 gm

2. X ml H2O 4.8 × 1025 X

(1) 94 ml

(2) 144 ml

(3) 270 ml

(4) 320 ml

3. 100 litre 27oC 1 atm N2

78%

(1) 0.78 NA

(2) 9.68 NA

(3) 1.2 NA

(4) 3.17 NA

4. 50 kg N2(g) 10 kg H

2(g) NH

3(g)

NH3(g)

(1) 28 kg

(2) 14 kg

(3) 56 kg

(4) 70 kg

5.

(1)

(2)

(3) C12

(4)

https://www.print-driver.com/?demolabel-en



6. The number of Hydrogen atoms present in 25.6 gm of

sucrose, which has a molar mass of 342 is -

(1) 9.9 × 1020

(2) 9.9 × 1016

(3) 9.9 × 1023

(4) 9.9 × 1014

7. A compound contains 7 carbon atoms, 2 oxygen atoms

and 3.32 × 10–23 g of other elements. The molecular mass

of compound is - (NA = 6 × 1023) -

(1) 116

(2) 122

(3) 126

(4) 136

8. Out of 1.0 g dioxygen, 1.0 g atomic oxygen and 1.0 g ozone,

the maximum number of oxygen atoms are contained in -

(1) 1.0 g of atomic oxygen

(2) 1.0 g of ozone

(3) 1.0 g of oxygen gas

(4) All contain the same number of atoms

9. Number of gas molecules present in 1 ml of gas at 0oC and

1 atm is -

(1) 2.7 × 1019

(2) 6 × 1023

(3) 2.7 × 1022

(4) 1.3 × 1028

10. How many mole of methane are reauired to produce 22

gm CO2(g) after combustion -

(1) 0.2 moles

(2) 0.8 moles

(3) 1.5 moles

(4) 0.5 moles

11. On Heating K SO xH O2 4 2 losses its 34% weight then find

out molecular formula of this Crystalline salt -

(1) K SO H O2 4 22

(2) K SO O2 4 27H

(3) K SO H O2 4 29

(4) K SO H O2 4 25

6. 342 25.6 gm

(1) 9.9 × 1020

(2) 9.9 × 1016

(3) 9.9 × 1023

(4) 9.9 × 1014

7. 7 2 3.32 × 10–23 g

(NA = 6 × 1023) -

(1) 116

(2) 122

(3) 126

(4) 136

8. 1.0 g , 1.0 g 1.0 g

(1) 1.0 g

(2) 1.0 g

(3) 1.0 g

(4)

9. 0oC 1 atm 1 ml

(1) 2.7 × 1019

(2) 6 × 1023

(3) 2.7 × 1022

(4) 1.3 × 1028

10. 22 gm CO2(g)

(1) 0.2 moles

(2) 0.8 moles

(3) 1.5 moles

(4) 0.5 moles

11. K SO xH O2 4 2 34%

(1) K SO H O2 4 22

(2) K SO O2 4 27H

(3) K SO H O2 4 29

(4) K SO H O2 4 25




12. The percentage of oxygen in a compound is 8%. Its

minimum molecular mass will be -

(1) 100

(2) 400

(3) 200

(4) 32

13. A sample of Phosphorus that weighs 12.4 gm exerts a

pressure 8 atm in a 0.821 litre closed vessel at 527oC. The

molecular formula of the phosphorus vapour is -

(1) P2

(2) P6

(3) P8

(4) P4

14. A mixture consists substance X and substance Y and total

mass of the mixture is 3.72 g. The total number of moles is

0.06. If mass of one mole of Y is 48 g and there is 0.02 mole

of X in the mixture, What is the mass of one mole of X ?

(1) 90 g

(2) 75 g

(3) 45 g

(4) 180 g

15. An unknown gas X has rate of diffusion measured to be

0.88 times of that of PH3 at same condition. The molar

mass of gas is -

(1) 28

(2) 20

(3) 36

(4) 44

16. An amount of 0.3 Mole of SrCl2 is mixed with 0.2 mole of

K3PO

4. The maximum mole of KCl which may form is -

(1) 0.6

(2) 0.5

(3) 0.3

(4) 0.1

12. 8%

(1) 100

(2) 400

(3) 200

(4) 32

13. 12.4 gm 527oC

8 atm 0.821 litre

(1) P2

(2) P6

(3) P8

(4) P4

14. 3.72 g X Y 0.06

Y 48 g 0.02

X X

(1) 90 g

(2) 75 g

(3) 45 g

(4) 180 g

15. X PH3

0.88

(1) 28

(2) 20

(3) 36

(4) 44

16. 0.3 SrCl2 0.2 K

3PO

4

KCl

(1) 0.6

(2) 0.5

(3) 0.3

(4) 0.1




17. A compound contains 4.07% hydrogen, 24.27% carbon and

71.65% chlorine. Its molar mass is 98.96 gm then its

molecular formula will be -

(1) C2H

4Cl

(2) C4H

2Cl

2

(3) C2H

6Cl

2

(4) C2H

4Cl

2

18. When 0.5 gm substance is heated in victor Mayer's method

then 60 ml air is displaced at 1160 torr pressure and 27oC

temp. Find out the molecular weight of the substance

(Aqueous tension of water = 20 torr at 27oC)

(1) 105 gm

(2) 56 gm

(3) 137 gm

(4) 241 gm

19. Which of the following group will behave as oxidising as

well as reducing agent -

(1) MnO2, K

2Cr

2O

7, HNO

2

(2) MnO4 , K

2CrO

4, H

2SO

4

(3) MnO2, Cr

2O

3, H

2SO

3

(4) None of these

20.1

8 moles of Cr

2O

3 release 1.5 × 1023 number of electrons

then probable product will be -

(1) CrO42

(2) CrO2

(3) Cr O2 72

(4) Both (1) & (3)

21. xCS2 + yCl

2 CCl

4 + z S

2Cl

2

In Balance reaction (x + y + z) will be -

(1) 5

(2) 4

(3) 8

(4) 2

17. 4.07% , 24.27% 71.65%

98.96 gm

(1) C2H

4Cl

(2) C4H

2Cl

2

(3) C2H

6Cl

2

(4) C2H

4Cl

2

18. 0.5 gm

1160 torr 27oC 60 ml

( = 27oC 20 torr)

(1) 105 gm

(2) 56 gm

(3) 137 gm

(4) 241 gm

19.

(1) MnO2, K

2Cr

2O

7, HNO

2

(2) MnO4 , K

2CrO

4, H

2SO

4

(3) MnO2, Cr

2O

3, H

2SO

3

(4)

20. Cr2O

3 1

8 1.5 × 1023

(1) CrO42

(2) CrO2

(3) Cr O2 72

(4) (1) (3)

21. xCS2 + yCl

2 CCl

4 + z S

2Cl

2

(x + y + z)

(1) 5

(2) 4

(3) 8

(4) 2




22. Hydrazine reacts with KIO3 in presence of HCl as

N2H

4 + IO3

+ 2H+ + Cl– ICl + N2 + 3H

2O

The equivalent mass of N2H

4 and KIO

3 respectively are

(At.wt of I = 127)

(1) 8 & 53.5

(2) 16 & 53.5

(3) 8 & 35.6

(4) 8 & 87

23. The value of n in the reaction -

Cr O2 72 + 14H+ + ne– 2Cr3 + 7H

2O

(1) 4

(2) 6

(3) 2

(4) 3

24. Which ordering of compounds is according to the decreasing

order of the oxidation state of Nitrogen -

(1) HNO3, NO, NH

4Cl, N

2

(2) HNO3, NO, N

2, NH

4Cl

(3) HNO3, NH

4Cl, NO, N

2

(4) NO, HNO3, NH

4Cl, N

2

25. The oxidation Number of oxygen in KO3, Na

2O

2 is -

(1) 3, 2

(2) –0.33, 1

(3) –1, –0.33

(4) –0.33, –1

26. The Equivalent weight of the salt KHC O H C O O2 4 2 2 4 24H

when it act as reducing agent is -

(1) Mol wt.

4

(2) Mol wt.

3

(3) Mol wt.

2

(4) Mol wt.

1

22. HCl KIO3

N2H

4 + IO3

+ 2H+ + Cl– ICl + N2 + 3H

2O

N2H

4 KIO

3

(I = 127)

(1) 8 & 53.5

(2) 16 & 53.5

(3) 8 & 35.6

(4) 8 & 87

23. n

Cr O2 72 + 14H+ + ne– 2Cr3 + 7H

2O

(1) 4

(2) 6

(3) 2

(4) 3

24.

(1) HNO3, NO, NH

4Cl, N

2

(2) HNO3, NO, N

2, NH

4Cl

(3) HNO3, NH

4Cl, NO, N

2

(4) NO, HNO3, NH

4Cl, N

2

25. KO3

Na2O

2

(1) 3, 2

(2) –0.33, 1

(3) –1, –0.33

(4) –0.33, –1

26. KHC O H C O O2 4 2 2 4 24H

(1) Mol wt.

4

(2) Mol wt.

3

(3) Mol wt.

2

(4) Mol wt.

1




27. Following reaction describes the resting of iron

4Fe + 3O2 4Fe+3 + 6O–2

Which one of the following statement is incorrect -

(1) Fe+3 is an oxidising agent

(2) Metallic iron is a reducing agent

(3) Metallic iron is reduced to Fe+3

(4) This is the example of Redox

28. When KMnO4 acts as Oxidising agent and ultimately form

MnO42 , MnO

2, Mn

2O

3 and Mn+2 then number of electrons

transferred in each case respectively -

(1) 4, 3, 1, 5

(2) 1, 5, 3, 7

(3) 1, 3, 4, 5

(4) 3, 5, 7, 1

29. Law of multiple proportion is not applicable for the oxides

of -

(1) Carbon

(2) Iron

(3) Nitrogen

(4) Aluminum

30. A compound contains element X and Y is 1 : 2 mass ratio.

If atomic masses of X and Y are in 2 : 1 ratio, the empirical

formula of compound should be -

(1) XY2

(2) X2Y

(3) XY4

(4) X4Y

31. How many singificant figures are present in 3.80 × 103 -

(1) 1

(2) 2

(3) 3

(4) 4

27.

4Fe + 3O2 4Fe+3 + 6O–2

(1) Fe+3

(2)

(3) Fe+3

(4)

28. KMnO4

MnO42 , MnO

2, Mn

2O

3 Mn+2

(1) 4, 3, 1, 5

(2) 1, 5, 3, 7

(3) 1, 3, 4, 5

(4) 3, 5, 7, 1

29.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30. X Y 1 : 2

X Y 2 : 1

(1) XY2

(2) X2Y

(3) XY4

(4) X4Y

31. 3.80 × 103

(1) 1

(2) 2

(3) 3

(4) 4




32. When 500 ml CO2 gas in passed through red hot carbon

the volume becomes 700 ml. The volume of CO2 converted

into CO is -

(1) 200 ml

(2) 300 ml

(3) 350 ml

(4) 500 ml

33. Oxidation state of N in aniline and nitrobenzene are

respectively -

(1) –3, +3

(2) –1, +5

(3) –3, +3

(4) –3, +1

34. The decomposition of KClO3 -

KClO3 KCl +

3

2 O

2

is an example of -

(1) Intermolecular Redox change

(2) Intramolecular Redox change

(3) Disproportionation

(4) All of these

35. In the proces - NO2 NH

3, the number of OH– ions and

the side in which they should be added in balancing, are -

(1) 7, right

(2) 7, left

(3) 4, left

(4) 5, right

36. The equiralent weight of NaHC2O

4 in reaction with HCl is -

(1) 112

(2) 56

(3) 224

(4) 8

32. 500 ml CO2

700 ml CO2 CO

(1) 200 ml

(2) 300 ml

(3) 350 ml

(4) 500 ml

33. N

(1) –3, +3

(2) –1, +5

(3) –3, +3

(4) –3, +1

34. KClO3

-

KClO3 KCl +

3

2 O

2

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35. - NO2 NH

3 OH–

-

(1) 7,

(2) 7,

(3) 4,

(4) 5,

36. NaHC2O

4 HCl NaHC

2O

4

(1) 112

(2) 56

(3) 224

(4) 8




37. Which of the following ion can not act as an oxidizing agent -

(1) MnO4

(2) CrO42

(3) I–

(4) Fe3+

38. Which of the following reaction is redox?

(1) Mg3N

2 + 6H

2O 3Mg(OH)

2 + 2NH

3

(2) CaC2 + 2H

2O Ca(OH)

2 + C

2H

2

(3) CaOCl2 + H

2O Ca(OH)

2 + Cl

2

(4) PCl5 + 4H

2O H

3PO

4 + 5HCl

39. Ratio of moles of Fe(II) oxidised by equal volume of

equimolar KMnO4 and K

2Cr

2O

7 solution in acidic medium

will be -

(1) 1 : 2

(2) 5 : 6

(3) 5 : 3

(4) 1 : 1

40. True value for a result is 2.00 g. Three students A, B and C

takes reading of this measurement and their data are given

below.

Which of the following is correct -

(1) Measurement of A is precise as well as accurate

(2) Measurement of B is precise but not accurate

(3) Measurement of C is precise as well as accurate

(4) Measurement of C is neither precise nor accurate

41. In the following unblanced redoxe reaction :

Cu3P + Cr O2 7

2 Cu2+ + H3PO

4 + Cr3+

equivalent weight of Cr3+ is -

(1) M

3(2)

M

6

(3) M

7(4)

M

8

37.

(1) MnO4

(2) CrO42

(3) I–

(4) Fe3+

38.

(1) Mg3N

2 + 6H

2O 3Mg(OH)

2 + 2NH

3

(2) CaC2 + 2H

2O Ca(OH)

2 + C

2H

2

(3) CaOCl2 + H

2O Ca(OH)

2 + Cl

2

(4) PCl5 + 4H

2O H

3PO

4 + 5HCl

39. KMnO4 K

2Cr

2O

7

Fe(II)

(1) 1 : 2

(2) 5 : 6

(3) 5 : 3

(4) 1 : 1

40. 2.00 g A, B C

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) C

41. Cr3+

Cu3P + Cr O2 7

2 Cu2+ + H3PO

4 + Cr3+

(1) M

3(2)

M

6

(3) M

7(4)

M

8




42. Match the following prefixes with their multiples -

Prefixes Multiples

(a) micro (i) 106

(b) deca (ii) 109

(c) mega (iii) 10–6

(d) giga (iv) 10–15

(e) femto (v) 10

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

(2) (iii) (v) (i) (ii) (iv)

(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (v)

(4) (i) (v) (iii) (iv) (ii)

43. The number of moles of KMnO4 that will be needed to react

completely with one mole of ferrous oxalate in acidic

medium -

(1) 4/5

(2) 3/5

(3) 2/5

(4) 1

44. Represent the given calculation in proper significant figures

(12.11 + 18.0 + 1.012)

(1) 31.122

(2) 31.12

(3) 31.1

(4) 31

45. Which of the following is correctly match–

Compound Oxidation number

(a) AlF3

(P) +2.5

(b) P4O

10(Q) +7

(c) HClO4

(R) +5

(d) S4O

62– (S) +3

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) P Q R S

(2) S R Q P

(3) S R P Q

(4) P Q S R

42.

Prefixes Multiples

(a) micro (i) 106

(b) deca (ii) 109

(c) mega (iii) 10–6

(d) giga (iv) 10–15

(e) femto (v) 10

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

(2) (iii) (v) (i) (ii) (iv)

(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (v)

(4) (i) (v) (iii) (iv) (ii)

43.

KMnO4

(1) 4/5

(2) 3/5

(3) 2/5

(4) 1

44.

(12.11 + 18.0 + 1.012)

(1) 31.122

(2) 31.12

(3) 31.1

(4) 31

45.

(a) AlF3

(P) +2.5

(b) P4O

10(Q) +7

(c) HClO4

(R) +5

(d) S4O

62– (S) +3

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) P Q R S

(2) S R Q P

(3) S R P Q

(4) P Q S R


Class XIII (Spartan Batch)Plant Kingdom


46. Which of the following have independent gametophyte -

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(1) (A) and (B) (2) (B) and (C)

(3) (C) and (D) (4) (A) and (D)

47. The sex organs of algae are generally -

(1) Unicellular and jacketed

(2) Unicellular and non-jacketed

(3) Multicellular and jacketed

(4) Multicellular and non-jacketed

48. Algin and carageenin are obtained respectivley from -

(1) Red algae and brown algae

(2) Red algae and green algae

(3) Brown algae and red algae

(4) Brown algae and green algae

49. Pigments present in red algae are -

(1) Chl-a, d and fucoxanthin

(2) Chl-a and chl-c only

(3) Chl-a, chl-d and r-phycoerythrin

(4) Chl-a, chl-c and fucoxanthin

46.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(1) (A) (B) (2) (B) (C)

(3) (C) (D) (4) (A) (D)

47.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

48.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

49.

(1) a, d

(2) a -c

(3) a, d r-

(4) a, -c




50. Life cycle of bryophytes is -

(1) Haplontic

(2) Diplontic

(3) Haplo-diplontic

(4) Diplo-haplontic

51. The sporophyte made up of foot, seta and capsule in -

(1) Riccia (2) Anthoceros

(3) Funaria (4) Chara

52. Select incorrect statement with respect to rhodophyceae-

(1) The stored food is floridean oil

(2) They reproduce sexually by non-motile gametes

(3) Sexual reproduction is oogamous type

(4) Plant body may be divided in to branches

53. Of the given list how many of them do not belongs to

pheophycese –

Ectocarpus, Dictyota, Gelidium, Fucus, Chara, Laminaria,

Garcilaria, Sargassum, Polysiphonia

(1) 3 (2) 4

(3) 5 (4) 6

54. Incorrect for pteridophyta is -

(1) Have multicellular, well differentiated sporopyte

(2) Have independent gametophyte

(3) Selaginella and pteris are heterosporous

(4) Ferns are macrophyllous

55. In following which is not related with conifers -

(1) Needle like leaves to reduce the surface area

(2) Thick cuticle to reduce water loss

(3) Sunken stomata to reduce water loss

(4) Fruit contains seed

56. Colour of brown algae mainly due to -

(1) Phycoerythrin (2) Phycocyanin

(3) Fucoxanthin (4) Chlorophyll-C

57. Green algae usually have cell wall -

(1) Rigid

(2) Inner layer made of cellulose

(3) Outer layer made of pectose

(4) All of the above

50.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

51.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

52.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

53.

(1) 3 (2) 4

(3) 5 (4) 6

54.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

55.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

56. –

(1) (2)

(3) (4) -C

57.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)




58. Select correct statement for the given life cycle -

(1) It is a diplontic life cycle which is exhibited by all algae

of chlorophyceae

(2) It is a haplontic life cycle which is exhibited by all the

members of pheophyceae

(3) It is a haplontic life cycle which is exhibited by sexualy

reproducing fungi and many algae

(4) It is a haplo-diplontic life cycle exhibited by first

embryothytes

59. Vegetative reproduction in moss is by fragmentation and

budding in the -

(1) Primary protonema (2) Leaf stage

(3) Secondary protonema (4) Both (1) and (2)

60. Triploid endosperm present in angiosperm while haploid

endosperm present in -

(1) Algae (2) Bryophytes

(3) Dicotylendons (4) Gymnosperms

61. Read the statement about bryophytes and arrange them in

sequential order -

(A) Zygote produce multicellular body called sporophyte

(B) Antherozoid released into water

(C) Antherozoid fuse with egg to produce zygote

(D) Antherozoid come in contact with archaegonia

(1) C D A B (2) B D A C

(3) C D B A (4) B D C A

58.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

59.

(1) (2)

(3) (4) (1) (2)

60.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

61.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(1) C D A B (2) B D A C

(3) C D B A (4) B D C A




62. Read the statement about angiosperm and choose the

correct sequence of events -

(A) Pollen grain germinate on stigma

(B) One of male gamete fuse with egg cell to form zygote

(C) Other male gamete fuse with diploid secondary nucleus

to produce PEN

(D) Pollen tube grow through tissue of stigma, style and

reach the ovule

(E) Zygote develop into embryo

(1) A B C D E (2) A D B C E

(3) A B C E D (4) B A C D E

63. For given diagram which is incorrect –

(1) It shows haplontic life cycle

(2) It shows oogamous type sexual reproduction

(3) It bears archegonia as female sex organ

(4) All are correct

64. Kelps belong to -

(1) Green algae (2) Red algae

(3) Brown algae (4) BGA

65. Pectin and polysulphated esters present in cell wall of -

(1) Red algae (2) Brown algae

(3) Green algae (4) Both (1) and (2)

66. Cell wall is made up of inner layer of cellulose and an outer

layer of pectose in -

(1) Ectocarpus (2) Sargassum

(3) Chara (4) Gracilaria

67. In cycas or gymnosperm pollination takes place by -

(1) Water/Hydrophily (2) Wind/Anemophily

(3) Insects/Entomophily (4) Animals/Zoophily

62.

(A)

(B)

(C)

PEN

(D)

(E)

(1) A B C D E (2) A D B C E

(3) A B C E D (4) B A C D E

63. –

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

64.

(1) (2)

(3) (4) BGA

65.

(1) (2)

(3) (4) (1) (2)

66.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

67.

(1) / (2) /

(3) / (4) /




68. Antheridial branch arise __A__ than archaegonial branch

in __B__ while antheridium located __C__ than oogoniumn

in __D__ -

A B C D

(1) above marchantia below chara

(2) sphagnum below chara above

(3) above sphagnum below chara

(4) marchantia above chara below

69. Complex post fertilization dvelopment is seen in which

algae-

(1) Green

(2) Brown

(3) Yellow green algae

(4) Red algae

70. Pyrenoids are made up of -

(1) Core of strach surrounded by sheath of protein

(2) Core of protein surrounded by fatty sheath

(3) Proteinaceous centre and starchy sheath

(4) Core of nucleic acid surrounded by protein

71. Some of characters/structure are given below. How many

of them are found in both bryophyta and pteridophyta -

(A) Archaegonium

(B) Protonema

(C) Embryo

(D) Ovule

(E) Vascular tissue

(F) Antheridium

(1) 2 (2) 3

(3) 4 (4) 5

72. Unbranched stem is character of which gymnosperm -

(1) Pinus

(2) Cycas

(3) Cedrus

(4) Lycopodium

68. __B__ __A__

__D__ __C__

A B C D

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

69.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

70.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

71.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

(F)

(1) 2 (2) 3

(3) 4 (4) 5

72.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)




73. Read the following statements regarding bryophytes and -

(A) All cells of sporophyte undergo reduction division to

produce haploid spares

(B) They play an important role in plant succession on barren

rocks

(C) They prevent soil erosion

(D) Sex organs are multicellular.

How many of the above statements is/are not correct -

(1) 2 (2) 3

(3) 1 (4) 4

74. Identify the following figure :

How many labelled parts belong to dependent stage of life

cycle of this plant ?

(1) Four

(2) Three

(3) Two

(4) One

75. Which of the following feature(s) is/are exclusive in

angiosperm -

(A) Seed

(B) Double fertilization

(C) Female gametophyte

(D) Presence of flowers

(E) Formation of endosperm

(F) Presence of campanoin cells.

Select the right one -

(1) A, B, C, E

(2) B, C, D, E

(3) B, D, F

(4) A, B, C, D

73.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(1) 2 (2) 3

(3) 1 (4) 4

74.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

75.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

(F)

(1) A, B, C, E

(2) B, C, D, E

(3) B, D, F

(4) A, B, C, D




76. Which of the following statement is not correct -

(1) In gymnosperms the sporophyte and the gametophyte

do not have an independent free living existence

(2) The leaves of gymnosperms are well adapted to with

stand extermes of temperature humidity and wind

(3) Gymnosperms shows the characterstics like the xeric

habitat plants

(4) The multicellular female gametophyte of gymnosperm

is retained within megasporangium

77. Read the following paragraph and fill in the blanks with

appropriate words :

In pteridophytes the main plant body is __A__ which bears

sporangia that are subtended by leaf-like appendages called

__B__. The sporangia produce spores by __C__ and after

germination of spores, they give rise to photosynthetic

gametophytes called __D__.

Choose the correct option -

A B C D

(1) sporophyte sporangia Meiosis protonema

(2) gametophyte sporophyll mitosis sporophyte

(3) sporophyte sporophyll meiosis prothallus

(4) gametophyte sporophyll mitosis protonema

78. Read the following statements regarding gymnosperm -

(A) The main plant body is sporphyte and heterosporous in

nature

(B) Roots of some gymnosperm have algal association

(C) The multicellular female gametophte bears two or more

archegonia

(D) The male and female cones may be born on the same

tree or on different trees.

Select the right answer -

(1) Statement A, C and D are correct and B is incorrect

(2) Statement A, B and D are correct and C is incorrect

(3) Statement A and D are correct and B and C are incorrect

(4) All statements are correct

76.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

77.

__A__

__B__

__C__

__D__

A B C D

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

78.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(1) A, C D B

(2) A, B D C

(3) A D B C

(4)




79. Asexual reproduction in most brown algae is by zoospores,

these zoospores are -

(1) Biflagellate ; Pear shaped ; Unequal flagella

(2) Triflagellate ; Pear shaped ; Equal flagella

(3) Triflagellate ; Pear shaped ; Unequal flagella

(4) Biflagellate ; Pear shaped ; Equal flagella

80. Which of the following statement is correct -

(1) In mosses asexual reproduction takes place by gemmae

(2) The sporophyte of bryophytes is a free living generation

(3) Protonema is green, filamentous stage in mosses

(4) The liverworts have an elaboratc mechanism of spore

dispersal

81. Which is not an example of mass plant -

(1) Funaria

(2) Polytrichum

(3) Sphagnum

(4) Colletotrichum

82. The megaspore mother cell in gymnosperm is differentiated

from -

(1) Integument (2) Embryosac

(3) Nucellus (4) Endosperm

83. How many statement are correrct in mosses

(i) Secondary protonema contain reproductive part

(ii) In mosses leafy stage is dipoid but secondary protonema

is haploid

(iii) In pteridophyte selaginella and salvinia are homsporous

(iv) Adiantum and onion both contain Arehaegoina

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) 4

84. How many related with pteridophytes -

(i) Gemmae

(ii) Anthridia and archegonia are female and male

reproductive part resepectively

(iii) Male and female cone

(iv) Prothallial cells are diploid cells

(1) 0 (2) 1

(3) 2 (4) 3

79.

(1) ; ;

(2) ; ;

(3) ; ;

(4) ; ;

80.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

81.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

82.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

83.

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) 4

84.

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(1) 0 (2) 1

(3) 2 (4) 3




85. Which is similarity in chlorella and spirullina -

(1) Both are unicellular

(2) Both are rich in protein

(3) Both are used as a food supplement

(4) All the above

86. Most reduced gametophyte generation is found in -

(1) Bryophyta (2) Pteridophyta

(3) Gymnosperm (4) Angiosperm

87. Which is the odd one among four with respect to ploidy in

bryophyta -

(1) Spore (2) Sporophyte

(3) Archegonium (4) Antheridium

88. Number of species is minimum in which plant group -

(1) Gymnosperm (2) Angiosperms

(3) Pteridophytes (4) Bryophytes

89. Which group of plant have embryo but not vascular tissue-

(1) Cyanophyta (2) Tracheophyta

(3) Bryophyta (4) Chlorophyta

90. In following life cycle pattern of Angiosperm select the

correct ploidy of missing letter A, B, C and D.

(1) n, 2n, n, n

(2) 2n, n, n, n

(3) 2n, 2n, n, n

(4) n, n, 2n, 2n

85.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

86.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

87.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

88.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

89.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

90. A,

B, C D

(1) n, 2n, n, n

(2) 2n, n, n, n

(3) 2n, 2n, n, n

(4) n, n, 2n, 2n


Class XIII (Spartan Batch) Chemical Arithmetics, Redox ...

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