Class: MZ2-A NEET MODEL Date: 21-06-20 Time: 3hrs WTN-03 ... · 06. Given n is positive 1) Lies in 1st quadrant 2) Lies in 2nd quadrant th3) Does not lies in 4 quadrant 4) All of

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Class: MZ2-A NEET MODEL Date: 21-06-20

Time: 3hrs WTN-03 Max. Marks: 720

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

➢ Section I- Physics (1 to 45)

➢ Section II- Chemistry (46 to 90)

➢ Section III- Biology (Botany & Zoology) (91 to 180) Total Number of

Questions: 180.

➢ The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions.

Each question carries 4marks. For each correct response, the candidate

will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be

deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.

➢ The answers to these questions should be answered in single OMR sheet

only.

-:Note:-

Physics : 01 to 45

Chemistry : 46 to 90

Botany : 91 to 135

Zoology : 136 to 180

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http://www.narayanagroup.com/

MZ2-A_NEET_WTN-03_Exam.Dt.21-06-20

Narayana CO Schools

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01. Find the ratio in which y – axis divides the line segment joining (2,1)

and (-1,4)

1) 1:2 2) 2:1 3) 4:1 4) 1:4

02. Find the distance of point (3,4,5) from z – axis

1) 3 2) 4 3) 5 4) 5

03. Angle between straight lines represented by 1 1y m x c= + and

2 2y m x c= + is

1) 1 1 2

1 2

tan1

m m

m m − +=

− 2) 1 1 2

1 2

tan1

m m

m m − −=

+

3) 1 1 2

1 2

tan1

m m

m m − +=

+ 4) 1 2

1

tanm

m − =

04. Find the equation of the line passing through (0,1) and (1,0).

1) 1 0x y− − = 2) 2 0x y− − =

3) 2 0x y+ − = 4) 1 0x y+ − =

05. Angle subtended by the complete circumference on the centre

1) Radian 2) 2 Radian

3) 4 Radian 4) n Radian

06. Given sinθ is positive

1) θLies in 1st quadrant 2) θLies in 2nd quadrant

3) θDoes not lies in 4th quadrant 4) All of these

07. Simplify 3π

sin + θ2

1) sinθ 2) - sinθ 3) - cosθ 4) cosθ

08. Consider the following statements

a) 2

cos3

is negative

b)

5cot

3

is negative

c) 15

sec8

is positive

1) b,c are incorrect 2) a,b,c are true

3) a,c are true 4) c is incorrect


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09. Find the value of 0sin120 =_____________

1) 3

2 2)

1

2 3) 1 4) 0

10. ( )sin A B− =

1) sin .cos cos .sinA B A B+ 2) sin .sin cos .cosA B A B+

3) sin .cos cos .sinA B A B− 4) sin .sin cos .cosA B A B−

11. The value of ( )0 0sin 360 45+ =_______

1) 1

2 2) 1 3)

1

2 4) 0

12. 120Tan =

1) 3 2) 1

3 3)

1

3− 4) 3−

13. If A, B are supplementary angles then 2 2cos sinA B+

1) 0 2) 1

2 3) 2 4) 1

14. ( )2 2cosec 1 tan− =

1) 1− 2) 0 3) 2 4) 1

15. If cosec 1n = + , then cos =

1) 1

2

n

n

+

− 2)

1

1

n

n

+

− 3)

1

n

n − 4)

1

n

n +

16. The value of ( )0sin 30− is____

1) 1 2) 1

2 3)

1

2− 4)

1

3

17. sin60 .cos30 cos60 sin30 + is equal to

1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 1

18. sin cos

3sin 2 4cos 23 4

= + =

1) 5 2) 4 3) 3 4) 1


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19. What is the slope of the line 3 2 4x y− =

1) 3

2 2)

3

2− 3)

2

3− 4)

4

3

20. ( )3

2

0

_________ax bx c dx− − =

1) − −9

9 32

ba c 2)

99 3

2

ba c+ +

3) + −9

9 32

ba c 4)

99 3

2

ab c+ +

21. sin20 .cos40 cos20.sin40 + =

1) 3

2 2)

3

2 3)

3

2 4) 1

22. If the distance between the points ( )5, 2− ( )1,a is 5, then the value

of a is (in units)

1) 5 2) 2 3) 4 4) 1

23. The nearest point from the origin is

1) ( )2, 3− 2) ( )5,0 3) ( )0, 5− 4) ( )1,3

24. If cosec , cotx a y b= = then

1) 2 2 2 2x y a b+ = + 2)

2 2

2 21

x y

a b+ =

3)

2 2

2 21

x y

a b− = 4)

2 2 2 2x y a b− = −

25. If 22cos 1A− is equal to____

1)cos2A 2) sin2A 3) tan2A 4) cot2A


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26. If 23 2y x x= + then dy

dx is

1) 6 2x + 2) 6x 3) 3 2x + 4) 26 2x +

27. If ( )( )3 2 2 1y x x= + − then dy

dx is

1) ( ) ( )3 2 2 3x x+ − 2) 12 1x +

3) 12 1x − 4) 6 2x +

28. If 2siny x= then dy

dx is

1) cos2x 2) 2cos x

3) sin2x− 4) sin2x

29. The value of 0sin 90 equal to

1) 1 2) 3) 0 4) None

30. If 23 5y t t= − then dy

dt

at 1t = is

1) 2 2) 4 3) 1 4) 0

31. If 2 1

y xx

= − then integral of y w.r.t. x is

1)

3

log3

e

xx c− + 2)

3 2

3 2

x xc− +

3)

2

log2

e

xx c− + 4)

3

log3

e

xx c+ +

32.

2

2

cos . __________x dx−

=

1) 1 2) 2 3) 0 4) 1−


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33. _________

b

a

x dx =

1) ( )2 2 constantb a− + 2) ( )2 2

4

b a−

3) ( )2 21

2b a− 4) None

34. ( )3

2

0

__________ax bx c dx+ − =

1) 9

9 32

ba c+ − 2)

99 3

2

ba c+ +

3) 9

9 32

ba c− − 4)

99 3

2

ab c+ +

35. 21

_________2

dx

dx

=

1) 2x 2) 1

x 3) x 4) None

36. 9 __________x dx =

1) 10

10

xc+ 2)

9

9

xc+ 3)

11

11

xc+ 4) None

37. sin . ________ax dx =

1) cosax

ca

− + 2) sinax

ca

+

3) cosax

ca

+ 4) sinax

ca

− +

38. . _________xe dx =

1) e + constant 2) xe + constant

3)

1

1

xe

x

+

+ + constant 4) constant


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39. Solve the integral 2

0sin xdx

.

1) 2) 2

3) 2 4) 0

40. If 4 3,x at y bt= = , then find dy

dx at t=1sec.

1) 3

4

b

a 2)

4

3

b

a 3)

4

3

a

b 4) 0

41. If 2cosy x= then find dy

dx

1) sin x− 2) sin 2x 3) sin2x− 4) sin x

42. Evaluate 21 .2y ydy+ .

1) ( )3/2

221

3y C+ + 2) ( )

3/221 y C+ +

3) ( )5/2

221

5y C+ + 4) ( )

5/221 y C+ +

43. Find the area bounded by siny x= with x-axis from x=0 to x =

1) 0 2) 1unit 3) 2units 4) 3units

44. The velocity v of a particle is given by the equation 2 36 6v t t= − .

(where t is time). The velocity can attain

1) Maximum value 2) Minimum value

3) Both maxima & minima 4) No maxima & no minima

45. If sin

cos

xy

x x=

+, then find

dy

dx at x=0.

1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3


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46. Electron is a particle having a

1) negative charge of one unit and zero mass

2) positive charge of one unit and zero mass

3) negative charge of one unit and a mass of about 319.1 10 kg−

4) negative charge of one unit and a mass of about 271.67 10 kg−

47. The value of e/m for an electron is

1) 81.78 10 /c g 2) 241.6724 10 /c g−

3) 0.005486 /c g 4) 1.00866 /c g

48. A and Z can be

1) negative 2) fractional

3) zero 4) whole number

49. The number of protons, electrons and neutrons in 80

35 Br are

respectively

1) 35, 35,80 2) 35, 35, 45

3) 80, 80,35 4) 45, 45, 35

50. The nucleus of tritium consists of

1) 1 proton + 1 neutron 2) 1 proton + 3 neutrons

3) 1 proton + zero neutrons 4) 1 proton + 2 neutrons

51. Sodium ion is isoelectronic with the atom

1) 2Mg + 2) 3Al + 3) Ne 4) 3N −

52. An atom differs from its ion is

1) Nuclear charge 2) Mass number

3) Number of electrons 4) Number of neutrons

53. In 14C isotope, the number of neutrons would be

1) 6 2) 14 3) 8 4) 10


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54. When alpha particles are sent through a thin metal foil, most of

them go straight through the foil because

1) Alpha particles are much heavier than electrons

2) Alpha particles are positively charged

3) Most part of the atom is empty

4) Alpha particles move with high velocity

55. Which of the following properties of a wave is independent of the

other?

1) Wave number 2) Wave length

3) Frequency 4) Amplitude

56. Which of the following radiation has highest wave number?

1) Microwaves 2) X -rays

3) IR-rays 4) Radio waves

57. Kinetic energy of photoelectrons is independent of the __________of

incident radiation

1) Wave length 2) Wave number

3) Frequency 4) Intensity

58. The energy of a photon is 123 10 .ergs− What is its wavelength in nm?

( )27 10 16.62 10 .sec, 3 10 .h erg c cm s− −= =

1) 662 2) 1324 3) 66.2 4) 6.62

59. The frequency associated with photon of radiation having a

wavelength of 06000A is

1) 145 10 Hz 2) 105 10 Hz

3) 142 10 Hz 4) 155 10 Hz

60. Bohr’s theory is applicable to

1) 2Li+ 2) Li+

3) He+ 4) Both (1) and (3)


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61. Bohr’s theory is not applicable to

1) H 2) He+ 3) 3Be + 4) H +

62. Energy of an electron in thn Bohr orbit is given as

1) 2 2

2 24

n h

mZe−

2)

2 2 4

2 2

2 Z me

n h

− 3)

22 Ze

nh

− 4)

2 2

2 2 42

n h

Z me−

63. The energy of the electron when it is at an infinite distance from the

nucleus is

1) Infinity 2) Zero

3) Minimum 4) Can not be predicted

64. According to Bohr’s theory, when ever the electron drops from a

higher energy level to a lower energy level, the frequency of radiation

emitted is related to the energy change as

1) h

mv = 2)

2

nhmvr =

3) E

h

= 4)

h

E =

65. Radius of 3rd Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom

1) 06.529A 2) 02.116A 3) 04.761A 4) 08.464A

66. Velocity of the electron in the 1st Bohr orbit of H-atom is

1) 82.18 10 / seccm 2) 82.18 10 / secm

3) 162.18 10 / seccm 4) 836559 10 / seccm

67. If the energy of H-atom in the ground sate is ,E− the velocity of

photo-electron emitted when a photon having energy pE strikes a

stationary 2Li + ion in ground state, is given by

1) ( )2 pE E

vm

−= 2)

( )2 9pE Ev

m

+=

3) ( )2 9pE E

vm

−= 4)

( )2 3pE Ev

m

−=


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68. The increasing order of e/m values for electron, proton, neutron

and alpha particle is

1) , , ,e p n 2) , , ,n p e

3) , , ,n p e 4) , , ,n p e

69. The constancy of e/m ratio for electron shows that

1) Electron’s mass is 1

1837th of the mass of proton

2) Electrons are universal particles of all matter

3) Electrons are produced in discharge tubes only

4) All of these

70. The e/m of proton is

1) 81.78 10 /c g 2) 49.57 10 /c g

3) 419.14 10 /c g 4) 40.478 10 /c g

71. The charge of an electron is 191.6 10 .coulomb− What will be the value

of charge on Na+ ion

1) 191.6 10 C− 2) 193.2 10 C−

3) 192.4 10 C− 4) 1911 1.6 10 C−

72. Maximum sum of the number of neutrons and protons in an isotope

of hydrogen

1) 6 2) 5 3) 4 4) 3

73. The incorrect statement regarding cathode rays is

1) They travel in straight line

2) They depend on the nature of the gas

3) They are deflected by magnetic as well as electric fields

4) They produce mechanical effects

74. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

1) Particle nature of radiations can be experimentally

demonstrated by Compton effect

2) Wave nature of electrons can be experimentally demonstrated

by diffraction experiment

3) The value of Plank’s constant, h is 346.62 10 .Js−

4) Intensity of light is directly proportional to its frequency


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75. Rutherford’s alpha ray scatting experiment showed for the first time

that the atom has

1) Nucleus 2) Proton

3) Electron 4) Neutron

76. In electromagnetic radiation, which of the following has greatest

wavelength than visible light?

1) U.V – rays 2) I.R – rays

3) Gamma rays 4) X- rays

77. Which of the following is not an electromagnetic radiation?

1) Gamma rays 2) Alpha rays

3) Radio waves 4) X-rays

78. The equation corresponding to the wave number of spectral lines in

Pfund series is

1) 2 2

1 1

4 5R

−

2) 2 2

1 1

3 4R

−

3) 2 2

1 1

2 3R

−

4) 2 2

1 1

5 6R

−

79. The value of Rydberg constant is

1) 1109677 cm− 2) 1 1109700 cm s− −

3) 110968 cm− 4) 10970 m

80. A spectral line of hydrogen with 04938A = belongs to the series

1) Lyman 2) Balmer 3) Paschen 4) Pfund

81. Among the first lines of Lyman, Balmar, Paschen and Bracket series

in Hydrogen atomic spectra which has higher energy?

1) Lyman 2) Balmer

3) Paschen 4) Bracket


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82. Supposing the electron is present in the 4th energy level of H-atom.

When the electron returns to ground state the possible transitions

would be

1) 4 1→ 2) 4 2, 2 1→ →

3) 4 3,3 2,2 1→ → → 4) All the above

83. The de-Broglie’s equation treats an electron to be

1) a particle 2) a wave

3) ray 4) both (1) and (2)

84. Wavelength of the wave associated with a moving electron

1) Decreases with increase in speed of electron

2) Increases with increase in speed Of electron

3) Remains same irrespective of speed of electron

4) is zero

85. Bohr's postulate that 2

nhmvr =

is proved mathematically by

1) Thomsons atomic model

2) de Broglie wave nature of the electron

3) photoelectric effect

4) Compton effect

86. Which of the following statements regarding spectral series is

correct?

1) The lines in the Balmer series correspond to the electronic

transition from higher energy level to 1n = energy level.

2) Paschen series appears in the infra-red-region

3) The lines of Lyman series appear in the visible region

4) Transition from higher energy levels to 4th energy level

produces Pfund series which fall in the infrared region.


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87. In a series in the line spectrum of hydrogen, the wavelength of

radiation is 06,563 .A The name of the series and the orbits in which

electron transition takes place are

1) Balmer series, 3rd to 2nd orbit

2) Lyman series, 2nd to 1st orbit

3) Pfund series, 6th to 5th orbit

4) Paschen series, 4th to 3rd orbit

88. Which of the following transitions will have minimum wavelength?

1) 4 1n n→ 2) 2 1n n→

3) 4 2n n→ 4) 3 1n n→

89. A particle X moving with a certain velocity has a debroglie wave

length of 01 .A If particle Y has mass of 25% that of X and velocity

75% that of X, debroglies wave length of Y will be

1) 03A 2) 05.33A

3) 06.88A 4) 048A

90. The radius of the atom is of the order of

1) 1010 cm− 2) 1310 cm−

3) 1510 cm− 4) 810 cm−


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91. ___________is the science of life forms and living processes

1) Geiology 2) Biology

3) Seralogy 4) Virology

92. The scientific term for biological classification categories is the

1) Species 2) Phylum

3) Taxon 4) Domain

93. Linnaeus is credited with

1) Binomial nomenclature 2) Theory of biogenesis

3) Discovery of microscope 4) Discovery of blood circulation

94. Which of the following is not a result of cell division?

1) Growth 2) Repair

3) Metabolism 4) Reproduction

95. Which f the following is incorrect for reproduction?

1) Unicellular organisms reproduce by cell division

2) Reproduction is a characteristic of all living organisms

3) In unicellular organisms, reproduction and growth are linked

together

4) Non-living objects are incapable of reproducing

96. The correct sequence of taxonomic study of a newly discovered

organism is

1) First classification than identification, nomenclature and

characterization

2) First identification then classifying organism and than

characterization and nomenclature

3) First nomenclature then characterization, identification and

classification

4) First characterisation then identification and nomenclature

then classification


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97. Which of the following criteria is/are essential and form the basis

of modern taxonomic studies?

1) Ecological information of organisms 2) Development process

3) External and internal structure 4) All of these

98. Biological names are _______ in ___________ and written in _________

1)Always, latin, italics 2) Generally, Latin, italics

3) Always, italics, latin 4) Generally, italics, Spanish

99. According to Binomial nomenclature two words used for naming a

plant or animal are

1) Genus and species 2) Family and genus

3) Class and family 4) Species and family

100. Which type of reproduction occurs in lower organisms of yeast and

hydra?

1) regeneration 2) budding

3) fragmentation 4) binary fission

101. Scientific names to the plants are given based on the principles

provided by

1) ICZN 2) BSI 3) IUB 4) ICBN

102. Who is regarded “The Darwin of the 20th century?

1) Ernst Mayr 2) Melvin calvin

3) John ray 4) Gaspard Bouhin

103. Match the following

Column-I Column-II

A) NBRI I) Indian Botanical Garden

B) ICBN II) International code of zoological Nomenclature

C) ICZN III) National Botanical Research Institute

D) IBG IV) International code for Botanical Nomenclature

1) , , ,A II B IV C I D III− − − − 2) , , ,A III B IV C II D I− − − −

3) , , ,A III B IV C I D II− − − − 4) , , ,A IV B I C II D III− − − −


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104. Human beings were, since long, not only interested in knowing

more about different kinds of organisms and their diversities, but

also the relationships among them. This branch of study was

referred to as _________________

1) Taxonomic species 2) Genetic make up

3) Systematics 4) Morphological aggregates

105. Which of the following organisms reproduce easily by

fragmentations

I) Fungi II) Filamentous algae

III) Protonema of Mosses IV) Hydra

1) I,II and IV 2) I, II and III

3) II,III and IV 4) I,II,III and IV

106. In Binomial nomenclature

1) Both in genus and species the first letter is capital

2) Both genus and species are printed in italics

3) Genus is written in small letters

4) Genus is written after the species

107. Plants differ from animals in having

1) Definite lifespan

2) Localized growth

3) Indefinite growth

4) Localized growth and indefinite growth

108. Which of the following organisms do not reproduce?

1) Mules 2) Sterile worker bees

3) Infertile human copules 4) All of these

109. Increase in mass and increase in number of individuals are twin

characterises of

1) Homeostasis 2) Paedogenesis

3) Growth 4) Asexual reproduction


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110. Who is regarded as the triple crown of Biology?

1) Calvin 2) Ernst Mayr

3) Robert Brown 4) G.J Mendel

111. Which of the following organisms exhibits metabolism?

I) Plants II) Animals

III) Fungi IV) Microbes

1) I,II,III only 2) II,III, IV only

3) I,II,III,IV 4) I,III,IV only

112. Which one of the following is Linnaeus Publication?

1) Systema Naturae 2) Genera plantaram

3) Species of Angiosperms 4) The flora of British Indica

113. The number of species that are known and described range between

__________

1) 1.8 – 2.0 million 2) 1.7 – 1.8 million

3) 1.5 – 1.7 million 4) 2.0 – 2.8 million

114. The Indian Botanical Garden and the National Botanical Research

Institute are located respectively at

1) Pune and Howrah 2) Darjeeling and Lucknow

3) Shimla and Dehradun 4) Howrah and Lucknow

115. Felidae does not have

1) Dogs 2) Cats

3) Tiger 4) Leopard

116. Polymoniales includes

1) Liliaceae only 2) Convolvulaceae

3) Solanaceae 4) Both (3) and (4)

117. The label of herbarium sheet does not carry information on

1) date of collection 2) name of collector

3) local names 4) hight of the plant


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118. Which of the following combination is correct for wheat?

1) Genus – Triticum, Family–Poaceae, order – poales,

class – dicotyledonae

2) Genus – Triticum, Family–Poaceae, order – sapindales,

class – monocotyledonae

3) Genus – Triticum, Family–Poaceae, order – poales,

class – Monocotyledonae

4) Genus – Triticum, Family–Anacardiaceae, order – poales,

class – Monocotyledonae

119. What do A, B and C represent in the given scientific name

respectively?

C → Mangifera, B → indica, A → Linn

1) Generic name, Specific name and author’s name

2) Specific name, genetic name and author’s name

3) Author’s name, Specific name and generic name

4) Generic name, author’s name and specific name

120. Fill in the blanks A and B.

Kingdom →Phylum →A →Order →B

1) A – Genus, B – Species 2) A – Family, B – Class

3) A – Class, B – Family 4) A –Species, B – Division

121. Three different genera solanum, petunia and Datura are placed in

the family

1) Poaceae 2) Solanaceae

3) Anacardiaceae 4) Hominidae

122. A place used for storing, preservation and exhibition and both

plants and animals is known as

1) Herbaria 2) Botanical garden

3) Museum 4) Zoos


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123. National Botanical Research Institute consists of

1) Dried and preserved plant specimens only

2) Collection of preserved plant and animal specimens

3) Flora, manuals and monographs only

4) Collection of living plants for reference

124. Given organisms belongs to how many genera?

Wheat, Brinjal, Potato, Lion, Dog, Tiger

1) Three 2) Two 3) Four 4) Five

125. Match the following

Column-I Column-II

A) Man I) Musca domestica

B) Mango II) Triticum aestivum

C) House fly III) Homo sapiens

D) Wheat IV) Mangifera indica

1) , , ,A III B IV C I D II− − − − 2) , , ,A II B IV C III D I− − − −

3) , , ,A II B IV C III D I− − − − 4) , , ,A IV B I C II D III− − − −

126. Which one of the following contain information on any one taxon?

1) lead 2) key

3) manuals 4) monographs

127. Each statement of a key is called

1) Lead 2) Couplet

3) Manual 4) Monograph

128. Plant specimens that are dried pressed and preserved on sheets are

found in

1) Floras 2) Museum

3) Botanical garden 4) Herbarium

129. Museums have

1) plants and animals specimens preserved in solution

2) stuffed and preserved birds and mammals

3) skeletons of animals

4) all of these


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130. A taxonomic aid called key is

1) Useful in classification of plants and animals

2) Based on similarities and dissimilarities

3) Common for identification of taxonomic categories ie family

4) An index of a flora of a particular area

131. Plant families like Convolvulaceae, Solanaceae are included in the

order ___________x__________ mainly based on the ____y_____.

Identify x and y in this below respectively.

1) polymoniales, floral characters

2) polymoniales, vegetative characters

3) poales, floral characters

4) poales, vegetative characters

132. _____________are useful in providing information for identification

of names of species found in area

1) Museum 2) Monographs

3) Manuals 4) Flora

133. Herbarium and Museums contain_____________ specimens whereas

in Botanical gardens and zoo’s posses ______________specimens

respectively

1) Living and Living 2) Dead and Dead

3) Living and Dead 4) Dead and Living

134. Which one of the following contains actual account of habitat and

distribution of plants of a given area.

1) Flora 2) Manuals

3) Monograph 4) Catalogous

135. ______________ have colletions of preserved plant and animals

specimens for study and reference.

1) Key 2) Museum

3) Flora 4) Manuals


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136. In case of poriferans, the spongocoel is lined with flagellated cells

called

1) Ostia 2) Oscula

3) Choanocytes 4) Mesenchymal Cells

137. Planaria possess high capacity of

1) Metamorphosis 2) Regeneration

3) Alternation of generation 4) Bioluminscence

138. Hookworm is the common name of

1) Wuchereria 2) Ancylostoma

3) Taenia 4) Fasciola

139. Which one of the following kinds of animals are triploblastic?

1) Flat worms 2) Sponges

3) Ctenophores 4) Corals

140. Which one of the following groups of animals is bilaterally

symmetrical and triploblastic?

1) Coelenterates 2) Aschelminthes

3) Ctenophores 4) Sponges

141. Metagenesis refers to

1) The presence of similar morphic forms

2) Alternation of generation between asexual and sexual phases of

an organism

3) Occurrence of a drastic change in form during post embryonic

development

4) The presence of a segmented body and parthenogenetic mode

of reproduction

142. Which statement is incorrect about comb jelly?

1) They are diploblastic

2) They have tissue level organisation

3) They have comb plates

4) They show asexual and sexual reproduction


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143. In comb jellies how many rows of ciliated comb plates are present?

1) 5 2) 6 3) 8 4) 7

144. Reproduction in Ctenoplana takes place by

1) Budding 2) Sexual reproduction

3) Binary fission 4) Multiple fission

145. Which of the following group of animals are aquatic, mostly marine,

sessile or free – swimming, radially symmetrical diploblastic

animals?

1) Aschelminthes 2) Coelenterata

3) Porifera 4) Platyhelminthes

146. Bioluminescence is found in

1) Platyhelminthes 2) Porifera

3) Coelenterates 4) Ctenophora

147. Which of the following organism is correctly matched with its

common name?

1) Physalia-Portuguese man of war

2) Adamsia – sea pen

3) Gorgania – Sea anemone

4) Pennatula – sea fan

148. Which of the following is mostly endoparasites, hooks and suckers

are present in the parasitic forms and it absorb nutrients from the

host directly through their body surface?

1) Coelenterates 2) Porifera

3) Platyhelminthes 4) Ctenophora

149. Water enters into spongocoel through

1) Osculum 2) Choanocytes

3) Ostia 4) Madreporite

150. Skeleton in sponges includes

1) Spicules 2) Spongin fibres

3) Bones 4) Both (1) & (2)


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151. Digestion in sponges is

1) Binary fission 2) Intracellular

3) Outside the body 4) Intercellular

152. Digestion in coelenterates is

1) Intracellular 2) Extracellular

3) Both (1) & (2) 4) Outside the body

153. Ctenophores are commonly called

1) jelly fishes 2) sea biscuits

3) comb jellies 4) sea lions

154. Water circulation in sponges does not help in

1) Locomotion 2) food gathering

3) Respiration 4) removal of waste

155. Water transport system is seen in

1) Sycon 2) Gorgonia

3) Pennatula 4) Adamsia

156. The only phylum bearing pseudocoelom is

1) Coelenterata 2) Porifera

3) Aschelminthes 4) Platyhelminthes

157. Ascaris has all of the following features, except

1) Complete digestive system 2) Pseudocoelomate

3) External fertilisation 4) Parasitic life

158. In which of the following cnidarians skeleton is composed of

calcium carbonate?

1) Aurelia 2) Corals

3) Obelia 4) Physalia

159. Which animals shows radial symmetry?

1) Coelenterates 2) Ctenophores

3) Both (1) and (2) 4) Sponges


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160. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of cnidarians?

1) They exhibit tissue level of organisation

2) They are purely terrestrial in nature

3) They may be sessile or free-swimming

4) They are diploblastic animals

161. The ciliated comb plates in Pleurobrachia are meant for

1) Reproduction 2) Digestion

3) Protection 4) Locomotion

162. What type of fertilization is there in sponges?

1) External fertilization 2) Internal fertilization

3) Isogamy 4) Homosexual

163. Which specialised cells are present for excretion in the phylum

Platyhelminthes?

1) Collar cells 2) Cnidoblasts

3) Flame cells 4) Nematocytes

164. True coelom appeared first in the course of evolution in

1) Aschelminthes 2) Platyhelminthes

3) Porifera 4) Annelida

165. Identify the Coelom

1) Acoelom 2) Pseudo coelom

3) Coelomate 4) Spongocoel


Narayana CO Schools

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166. Identify the Coelom

1) Acoelomate 2) Pseudo coelom

3) Coelomate 4) Spongocoel

167. Any plane that passes through the centre does not divide the

organism into equal halves is known as

1) Radial symmetry 2) Bilateral symmetry

3) Pentaradial symmetry 4) Asymmetrical

168. Mesoderm is present as scattered pouches in between the ectoderm

and endoderm in

1) Annelids 2) Echinoderms

3) Molluscs 4) Aschelminthes

169. Which of the following is a diploblastic, radially symmetrical

animal?

1) Hydra 2) Earthworm

3) Roundworm 4) Liver fluke

170. What kind of symmetry occurs in Sea Anemone?

1) Bilateral 2) Radial

3) Asymmetry 4) Cylindrical

171. A true coelom is lined on all sides by

1) Ectoderm 2) Mesoderm

3) Endoderm 4) Ectoderm and endoderm

172. Animals like annelids, arthropods, etc., where the body can be

divided into identical left and right halves in only one place, exhibit

________ symmetry

1) Bilateral 2) Radial

3) Biradial 4) Asymmetry


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173. The digestive system which has only a single opening to the outside

of the body that serves as both mouth and anus is known as

1) Complete 2) Incomplete

3) Finished 4) Furnished

174. A complete digestive system is the one which has _____ and _______

1) Mouth 2) Anus

3) Both (1) and (2) 4) single pore

175. One example of phylum having a single opening to the outside that

serves both as mouth as well as anus is

1) Platyhelminthes 2) Nematoda

3) Mollusca 4) Arthropoda

176. Which of the following statements is not true?

1) All members of the kingdom Animalia are multicellular

2) Nature of coelom is used as one of the basis of animal

classification

3) There is no need of classification now as over a million species

of animals have been described till now

4) The arrangement of cells in the body is one of the classifying

feature of the animals

177. The only incorrectly matched pair in respect of Phylum and their

Level of organisation

1) Porifera – Cellular level

2) Cnidaria – Tissue level

3) Annelida – Organ level only

4) Mollusca – Organ system level


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178. In closed circulatory system

1) The cells and tissues are directly bathed in the blood pumped

out by heart

2) Arteries and veins are lacking

3) The capillaries are largest blood vessels and closed at their ends

4) Blood circulates through a series of vessels of varying diameters

179. Mesoglea is

1) A germinal layer present between ectoderm and endoderm

2) An undifferentiated layer present between ectoderm and

endoderm

3) Another name of mesoderm

4) A spongy layer of skin

180. Which one of the following statements about certain given animals

is correct?

1) Flat worms (Platyhelminthes) are coelomates

2) Round worms (Aschelminthes) are coelomates

3) Molluscs are coelomates

4) Insects are pseudocoelomates

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Class: MZ2-A NEET MODEL Date: 21-06-20 Time: 3hrs WTN-03 ... · 06. Given n is positive 1) Lies in 1st quadrant 2) Lies in 2nd quadrant th3) Does not lies in 4 quadrant 4) All of

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