Cis Question Bank

Cloud Computing Questions1. What is a key benefit of virtualization technology?

a. Capacity planning

b. Flexible metering

c. Policy compliance

d. Rapid elasticity

2. Which tool helps to create Cloud services?

a. Service management tool

b. Service creation tool

c. Service monitoring tool

d. Service planning tool

3. Which technique enables making physical resources appear as logical resources?

a. Grid Computing

b. Utility computing

c. Virtualization

d. Self provisioning

4. Which is an essential characteristic of the Cloud?

a. Resource utilization

b. Resource pooling

c. Resource planning

d. Resource reservation

5. Which is a key step in building a Cloud Infrastructure?

a. Centralize services and resources

b. Automate resource classification

c. Automate service provisioning

d. Customize services and resources

6. Which is a benefit of RAID?

a. Ensures data integrity in a RAID set

b. Prevents disk failure in a RAID set

c. Improves storage system performance

d. Simplifies distribution of parity across mirrored disks

7. Which statement is true about FC SAN?

a. Provides higher scalability as compared to DAS

b. Has limited ability to share resources

c. Enables object level access to data

d. Supports a maximum of 256 nodes

8. Which key requirement of a data center refers to the ability of IT to support new business initiatives dynamically?

a. Manageability

b. Availability

c. Capacity

d. Flexibility

9. Which are the key parameters that determine the performance and availability of a RAID set?

a. Number of drives in a RAID set and RAID level

b. Number of drives in a RAID set and the capacity of each drive

c. Number of RAID controllers and type of RAID implementation

d. Number of drives in a RAID set and Type of RAID implementation

10. Which key requirement of a data center is violated when an authorized storage administrator is not able to remotely login to a server in the data center?

a. Scalability

b. Flexibility

c. Security

d. Availability

11. What is stored in virtual machine log file?

a. Information of virtual machines activities

b. Virtual machines RAM contents

c. Virtual machine BIOS information

d. Information of virtual machines configuration

12. Which parameter determines the maximum amount of resource that a virtual machine can consume?

a. Share

b. Limit

c. Reservation

d. Priority

13. Which technology enables a physical CPU to appear as two or more logical CPUs?

a. Hyper-threading

b. Multi-core

c. Load balancing

d. Ballooning

14. Which optimization technique is used to detect identical pages in the memory?

a. Transparent page sharing

b. Memory ballooning

c. Memory swapping

d. Cache flushing

15. Which is the primary function of hypervisor?

a. Allows multiple operating systems to run concurrently on a physical machine

b. Allows multiple operating systems to run concurrently on a virtual machine

c. Allows multiple file systems to run concurrently on a virtual machine

d. Allows authorization to virtual machine resources to users

16. Which method enables a virtual machine to directly access a LUN on a storage array?

a. File system locking

b. Virtual machine clustering

c. Raw device mapping

d. Virtual storage mapping

17. What are the three major building blocks for automated storage tiering?

a. RAID type, storage type, policies

b. Storage type, storage group, policies

c. Storage group, RAID group, storage type

d. Storage group, RAID group, group policy

18. What is used to create secondary cache in cache tiering mechanism?

a. DRAM

b. FC drive

c. Solid state drive

d. SATA drive

19. When is thin LUN preferred over traditional LUN?

a. Performance is predominant

b. Security is more important

c. Storage space efficiency is paramount

d. High availability is predominant

20. What defines the minimum amount of physical storage allocated at a time to a thin LUN from a thin Pool?

a. Thin LUN extent

b. Thin LUN capacity

c. Thin LUN factor

d. Thin LUN set size

21. Which is a benefit of network virtualization?

a. Enhanced storm control

b. Increased resource acquisition

c. Improved manageability

d. Better policy control

22. Which network parameter sets maximum data transfer rate across a virtual machine port group without queuing or dropping frames?

a. Burst size

b. Peak bandwidth

c. Share

d. Limit

23. As an organization leverages more resources from Cloud service providers, which expense of the organization would be expected to grow larger?

a. Power and energy

b. Management

c. Infrastructure

d. Operational

24. Which technique allows traffic from multiple VLANs to traverse over a single network connection?

a. NIC Teaming

b. Multipathing

c. Port group

d. Trunking

25. What is enabled by using NIC teaming?

a. Balance traffic across physical servers

b. Allocate bandwidth to traffic based on priority

c. Failover to another available physical NIC in the event of a physical NIC failure

d. Transfer data to a LUN on a FC storage system using multiple network links

26. What best describes the "metered service" characteristic of Cloud computing?

a. Consumers are billed based on resource usage.

b. Services are provisioned based on their deman

c. Metering services are created when required from the resource pools.

d. Metering services can scale up and down based on resource usage.

27. Which correctly describes N_Port ID Virtualization technology?

a. Single physical FC HBA port functions as multiple virtual N_ports

b. Single physical FC HBA port functions as multiple virtual E_ports

c. Single virtual FC HBA port functions as multiple physical N_ports

d. Single virtual FC HBA port functions as multiple physical E_ports

28. What correctly describes application virtualization?

a. Encapsulates operating system resources and the application

b. Increases application and CPU utilization

c. Provides interoperability between different application versions

d. Breaks dependencies between application interface and processing logic

29. What is true about application encapsulation?

a. Requires a locally installed agent on the client machine

b. Requires a built-in agent at the remote server

c. Does not rely on software installation or underlying OS

d. Requires a locally installed agent on the client machine and a builtin agent

30. What is true about application streaming?

a. Requires no agent at client machine

b. Requires a locally installed agent on the client machine and a builtin agent on the application

c. Requires a locally installed agent on the client machine

d. All the data is delivered to the client after application starts

31. When is a connection broker a mandatory component of Virtual Desktop Infrastructure architecture?

a. Desktop VMs are assigned from VM pool

b. High-end graphic applications are used

c. Additional security is required

d. Dedicated desktop VM is assigned to each user

32. In which Cloud deployment model would an organization see operational expenditures grow in proportion to capital expenditures?

a. On-premise Private Cloud

b. External Private Cloud

c. Public Cloud

d. Hybrid Cloud

33. What is the Cloud service model offered by EMC Mozy?

a. Software-as-a-Service

b. Platform-as-a-Service

c. Infrastructure-as-a-Service

d. Virtualization-as-a-Service

34. What is true about virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI)?

a. Involves hosting desktop which runs as hypervisor on the server

b. Requires hypervisor based VDI agent support

c. Each desktop has its own OS and applications in a VM on server

d. Each desktop has its own OS and applications installed on client machine

35. What is an advantage of image based backup approach?

a. Single pass information collection

b. Reduced RPO

c. Eliminate site failures

d. Reduced VM failures

36. Which is true about virtual machine (VM) fault tolerance mechanism?

a. Both primary and secondary VMs share same virtual disks

b. Both primary and secondary VMs have separate virtual disks

c. Only primary VM can access the shared virtual disk

d. Only secondary VM can access the shared virtual disk

37. What occurs to the guest OS configuration when a virtual machine is reverted from its snapshot?

a. Guest OS configurations are reverted to the point-in-time of snapshot creation

b. Current guest OS configurations are preserved

c. Reference VM Settings are used to configure guest OS

d. Settings are lost and need manual configuration

38. What is the Cloud service model offered by Cloud Foundry?

a. Software-as-a-Service

b. Platform-as-a-Service

c. Infrastructure-as-a-Service

d. Virtualization-as-a-Service

39. What correctly describes the state of virtual disks of a virtual machine after an array-to-array migration is performed?

a. Virtual disks are maintained at both source and target arrays

b. Virtual disks are only maintained at the source array

c. Virtual disks are deleted from the source array after they are copied to the target array

d. Virtual disks are deleted from both source and target arrays

40. Which is used as a master copy to create and provision a new virtual machine (VM)?

a. VM template

b. VM snapshot

c. VM clone

d. VM backup

41. Which resource may be hired in infrastructure-as-a-service model?

a. Operating system

b. Storage space

c. Middleware

d. Database

42. What is the Cloud service model offered by EMC Syncplicity?

a. Software-as-a-Service

b. Platform-as-a-Service

c. Infrastructure-as-a-Service

d. Virtualization-as-a-Service

43. Which is an example of platform-as-a-service?

a. EMC Atmos online

b. Salesforce.com

c. Google App Engine

d. EMC Mozy

44. Which is an example of infrastructure-as-a-service offering?

a. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud

b. Google App Engine

c. Salesforce.com

d. EMC Mozy

45. Which is an example of software-as-a-service offering?

a. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud

b. Google App Engine

c. Microsoft Azure

d. EMC Mozy

46. Which is the Cloud deployment model that will be a suitable choice for a group of organizations with shared concerns?

a. Private Cloud

b. Hybrid Cloud

c. Public Cloud

d. Community Cloud

47. Which is a component of virtual infrastructure in Cloud?

a. Management software

b. Storage array

c. Network identity pool

d. Service catalog

48. Which option best describes resource bundling in Cloud service creation procedure?

a. Bundling application, platform software, and migration tools

b. Integrating virtual machine, virtual network, and virtual volume

c. Bundling graded compute, network, and application services

d. Integrating graded compute, network, and storage pools

49. Which is a key activity in problem management?

a. Rectifying error to return Cloud services as quickly as possible

b. Analyzing incident history to identify impending service failures

c. Checking veracity of problem records in CMDB

d. Transferring problem history to incident management

50. Which Cloud service management process is responsible for optimizing utilization of IT resources?

a. Service asset and configuration management

b. Financial management

c. Compliance management

d. Capacity management

51. Which functionality is offered by unified management software in the Cloud?

a. Provides consolidated view of existing physical and virtual infrastructure across data centers

b. Create VMs and allocate them CPU, memory, and storage capacity

c. Create zone sets and include nodes into zones

d. Create virtual machines and allocate them specified resources

52. Which security mechanism provides an effective control for data confidentiality and integrity?

a. Copy and move restrictions

b. Authorization

c. Trusted computing base

d. Encryption

53. What is the primary goal of a security audit?

a. Evaluate effectiveness of security enforcement

b. Evaluate effectiveness of data confidentiality

c. Evaluate effectiveness of data integrity

d. Evaluate effectiveness of data availability

54. Which security goal is achieved by data shredding technique?

a. Preventing data loss

b. Preventing data manipulation

c. Ensuring data confidentiality

d. Enabling data encryption

55. Which GRC process determines scope of adoption of Cloud services?

a. Anti-virus protection measures in Cloud

b. Business Continuity

c. Risk Assessment

d. Disaster management

56. How is intrusion detection implemented under software-as-a-service model?

a. Implemented by the Cloud Consumer

b. Implemented by the Cloud Service Provider

c. Implemented by the Cloud Service Provider and Consumer together

d. Implemented by a 3rd party provider

57. Which Cloud model is best suited for small and medium businesses?

a. Public

b. Private

c. Hybrid

d. Community

58. Which Cloud adoption phase enables consumer to explore the geographic location to store their data?

a. Assessment

b. Proof of concept

c. Migration

d. Optimization

59. Which Cloud migration strategy is recommended for tightly coupled applications?

a. Hybrid

b. Forklift

c. Private

d. Public

60. Which application is perceived as a good candidate for migrating to the public Cloud?

a. Proprietary and mission-critical application

b. Non-proprietary and non-mission critical application

c. Mission critical and I/O intensive application

d. Mission critical and security sensitive application

61. What factor could lead to Cloud vendor lock-in for consumers?

a. Lack of open standards in Cloud operations

b. Lack of security compliance

c. Mission critical nature of the applications

d. Performance sensitivity of the business operations

62. What is the process of grouping several smaller physical drives and presenting them to the host as one logical drive?

a. Partitioning

b. LUN creation

c. LUN masking

d. Concatenation

63. A company plans to hosts a video streaming application and you are asked to recommend a RAID level that can be used for this application.

Which RAID level should you recommend?

a. 1

b. 3

c. 5

d. 6

64. Which data access pattern has the most significant impact on performance due to slow seek times?

a. Random, large reads

b. Random, small writes

c. Sequential, large writes

d. Sequential, small reads

65. What is the stripe width for a six disk RAID 6 LUN?

a. 3

b. 4

c. 5

d. 6

66. Which storage array mechanism prevents two hosts from accessing the same LUN?

a. Virtual provisioning

b. Partitioning

c. Zoning

d. LUN masking

67. Which statement applies to NAS?

a. General purpose server for block and content addressed data

b. General purpose server for block and file level access

c. Specialized server for block and content addressed data

d. Specialized server for the file level data access

68. What is a benefit of VLAN?

a. Eliminates collisions within the collision domain

b. Provides higher network bandwidth

c. Enhances security by restricting user access

d. Enables transmission of broadcast traffic from one VLAN to another

69. Which best describes business continuity?

a. Operating the infrastructure in a degraded mode after a failure occurs

b. Securing the storage infrastructure from internal and external attacks

c. Recovering the systems, data, and infrastructure after a disaster that adversely affects business operations

d. Preparing for, responding to, and recovering from an application outage that adversely affects business operations

70. Which Cloud service model includes the complete stack provided as a service, including all the layers of the service model?

a. Software-as-a-Service

b. Infrastructure-as-a-Service

c. IT-as-a-Service

d. Platform-as-a-Service

71. In which compute virtualization technique is the guest operating system kernel modified to eliminate the need for binary translation?

a. Paravirtualization

b. Software assisted virtualization

c. Hardware assisted virtualization

d. Full virtualization

72. A storage administrator wants to know about the current and historic utilization of storage in their data center. Which report will provide this information?

a. Routine report

b. Performance report

c. Chargeback report

d. Capacity planning report

73. A Cloud service provider is considering offering both a SaaS and a PaaS service to their customers. Would their security concerns about virtualization differ if they were to choose only one of these services, and why?

a. Yes; PaaS implementations require an API for authenticating users with external identity systems; SaaS implementations do not

b. Yes; SaaS implementations require an API to encrypt data at rest; PaaS implementations do not

c. No; SaaS and PaaS implementations both require that the customer is responsible for data security

d. No; SaaS and PaaS implementations both require the same attention to virtualization security

74. What is a primary goal of incident management?

a. Identifying the root cause of recurring incidents that exhibit common symptoms

b. Restoring Cloud services to consumers as quickly as possible

c. Analyzing incident history and identifying impending service failures

d. Reporting incidents to the Cloud service provider

75. What are the two key expenses involved in running a business from the Cloud?

a. Migration and operational costs

b. Infrastructure and management costs

c. Backup and service deployment costs

d. Management and compliance costs

76. Which mechanism enables a virtual machine to directly access LUNs in a storage system?

a. Virtual Machine File System

b. Thin provisioning

c. Raw Device Mapping

d. Block-level virtualization

77. Which is used to statically identify a hardware port device in an FC SAN?

a. MAC

b. Channel

c. WWN

d. IP

78. Which is a benefit of automatic site failover capability in a data center environment?

a. Elimination of site failures

b. Reduced Recovery Point Objective

c. Elimination of Virtual Machine File System failures

d. Reduced Recovery Time Objective

79. What is a key performance consideration for migrating operations to the Cloud?

a. Resource utilization matrix

b. Availability of different storage performance tiers

c. Latency of the network between consumer and service provider

d. Availability of target based de-duplication capability

80. Which statement is true about a Trunk link in a VLAN environment?

a. It transfers untagged Ethernet frames from different VLANs

b. It is a single network connection that carries multiple VLAN traffic

c. It is a dedicated link for transferring traffic belonging to a single VLAN

d. It is a link between two virtual switches that carries tagged Ethernet frames

81. Which is a characteristic of channel technology?

a. Loose coupling

b. Long distance transmission

c. Dynamic connection establishment

d. Low protocol overhead

82. Which is a best practice for selecting drives for a thin pool?

a. Drive speed should be 15000 rpm or higher

b. Drives should run at the same RPM

c. The pool should be created from mix of FC, SATA, and Flash drives

d. Drives should be supplied by the same vendor83. Which statement about Cache tiering is true?

a. It increases the performance of the primary cache

b. It enables the use of solid state drives as secondary cache

c. It enables the movement of data at the sub-LUN level

d. It increases the size of the primary cache84. What is a limitation when using a backup agent on a hypervisor for backing up virtual machine data?a. Backing up a LUN that is directly attached to a virtual machine using Raw Device Mapping is very slow

b. Backing up data residing on a Virtual Machine File System is very slow

c. It is not possible to back up a LUN that is directly attached to a virtual machine using Raw Device Mapping

d. It is not possible to back up data residing on a Virtual Machine File System85. What enables a LUN that has more capacity than is physically allocated to be presented to a compute system?a. Global namespace mapping

b. Raw Device Mapping

c. Virtual provisioning

d. Automated storage tiering86. What are the three building blocks of automated storage tiering?a. Storage type, storage group, storage pool

b. Storage type, storage group, policy

c. Storage pool, policy, storage group

d. Storage pool, policy, storage type87. Which attack could enable an attacker to install a rogue hypervisor that can take control of the underlying server resources?a. Side channel attack

b. Hyperjacking

c. VM theft

d. VM escape88. Which statement is true about User State virtualization?a. Operating system refreshes and migrations become easier to deploy

b. Templates are used to create User States

c. Common User States are used for all the desktops

d. User States are preserved as temporary files89. Which Cloud service management process maintains information about used and available capacity of configuration items in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)?a. Capacity Management

b. Service Asset and Configuration Management

c. Service Catalog Management

d. Availability Management90. Which parameters need to be configured to control the resources consumed by virtual machines?a. Share, Limit, and Reservation

b. Threshold, Priority, and Share

c. Reservation, Threshold, and Priority

d. Limit, Reservation, and Threshold91. An organization needs to migrate all of their applications at the same time. Which migration strategy should the organization use?a. Forklift

b. Hybrid

c. Proprietary strategy

d. Vendor-specified92. Which backup solution provides support only for source-based deduplication?a. EMC Avamar

b. EMC Data Domain

c. EMC Networker

d. EMC SourceOne93. Which RAID type uses a dedicated parity disk? RAID 1

RAID 3

RAID 5

RAID 694. Which issues are addressed by RAID technologies? Performance and data backup

Loss of data due to disk drive hardware failure and performance

Data corruption and backup

Loss of data due to disk drive hardware failures and data corruption95. Which is a feature of EMC PowerPath/VE?

Traffic Shaping

Dynamic Load Balancing

Storm Control

Integrated Traffic Steering96. Which is responsible for creating Cloud services?

User access management

Virtual infrastructure management

Unified management

Cloud deployment97. Which FC port type would only be used to connect an FC switch to another switch?

F_port

E_port

G_port

N_port98. What is a reason for monitoring data center elements?

To ensure that the IT support staff performs efficiently

To ensure that no data is lost if there is a disaster or service disruption

To eliminate threats to storage infrastructure security

To determine that the components are available and functioning properly

99. Which product provides a desktop virtualization solution?

a. VMware View

b. VMware ThinApp

c. VMware Workstation

d. VMware Server100. How does a domain name server balance client traffic across a cluster of servers?

a. By translating the domain name to the IP address of higher throughput servers

b. By mapping the domain name to the IP address of a load balancing device

c. By sending client traffic to each server that uses a driver to filter client traffic

d. By mapping the domain name to the IP address of servers in round-robin fashion101. An administrator has configured the following Share values for different types of traffic at the distributed virtual switch:

Virtual machine traffic: 3000

IP storage traffic: 1000

Virtual machine migration traffic: 2000

Management traffic: 1000

The available network bandwidth is 10 Gb/s, and the listed traffic types contend for the bandwidth. How much bandwidth will be allocated to the virtual machine traffic?

a. 2.8 Gb/s

b. 10.0 Gb/s

c. 4.2 Gb/s

d. 1.4 Gb/s102. What is the correct sequence of steps for performing a hot conversion from a physical machine to a virtual machine (VM)?

a. The converter server creates a VM on the destination machine

b. The agent clones the physical disk of the source machine to the virtual disk of the destination VM

c. The agent synchronizes the data and installs the required drivers to allow the OS to boot from the VM and personalize the VM

d. The converter server installs the agent on the source physical machine103. Which block storage over IP protocol requires a pair of bridges that uses IP as the transport protocol?

a. iSCSI

b. FCoE

c. FCIP

d. iFCP104. What is a key advantage of pointer-based virtual replication compared to pointer-based full volume replication?

a. The replica can be used even when the source device has failed

b. The source device is not required for the restore operation

c. The replica device requires less space

d. The replica is immediately accessible

105. Which is a benefit of data striping in RAID?

a. Efficient allocation of sequential reads and writes

b. Independent disks allow multiple reads and writes to take place simultaneously

c. Improved security by creating multiple identical copies of data

d. Efficient allocation of random reads and writes106. Which statement is true about user access management software?

a. It informs the user about incident and problem status

b. It enables creating and publishing a service catalog

c. It enables the user to configure pools and virtual resources

d. It provides a consolidated view of existing virtual resources107. Which functionality is enabled by N_Port ID Virtualization (NPIV)?

a. A virtual N_port can access the FC Raw Device Mapping LUN assigned to a physical HBA

b. A virtual N_port can act as multiple physical HBA ports

c. A physical NIC port can operate as multiple virtual N_ports

d. A physical FC HBA port can operate as multiple virtual N_ports108. What needs to be assessed by an organization before migrating business operations to the Cloud?

a. Financial strength of the service provider

b. Value added services provided by the service provider

c. Required Quality of Service (QoS) level

d. Capacity of the service providers physical infrastructure109. An administrator is concerned about Denial of Service attacks on their virtual machines (VMs). What should be your recommendation to reduce the impact of this type of attack?

a. Harden all VMs

b. Limit the resource consumption of a VM

c. Perform regular hypervisor updates

d. Deploy role-based access control on the VMs110. Which Cloud deployment model provides the highest level of security and control?

a. External Private Cloud

b. Hybrid Cloud

c. Public Cloud

d. On-premise Private Cloud

111. Which product provides a dashboard showing Vblock infrastructure configuration and resource utilization?

a. VMware vCloud Director

b. Cisco Nexus 1000V

c. VMware vCenter Chargeback

d. EMC Ionix Unified Infrastructure Manager112. An organization performs full backup of its data every week. They are experiencing long backup windows and huge network bandwidth consumption during the backup process. What should the organization do?

a. Use source-based deduplication

b. Use target-based deduplication

c. Change the backup software

d. Use backup to tape113. Which is a benefit of the Public Cloud?

a. Reduced OPEX (Operational Expenditure)

b. Simplification of regulatory compliance

c. Self-service resource requests

d. Transparent Provider-to-Provider migrations114. Which data center management activity helps ensure business continuity by eliminating single points of failure?

a. Availability management

b. Security management

c. Capacity management

d. Performance management115. An organization is deploying desktop virtualization using the Virtual Desktop Infrastructure technique. Which cost component increases for the organization?

a. Compute infrastructure

b. Desktop hardware

c. Application deployment

d. IT management116. If an organization leverages more resources from Cloud service providers, which expense would be expected to grow larger?

a. Management costs

b. Operational expenditures

c. Infrastructure costs

d. Capital expenditures117. Consider the following steps:

Harden the VM image to create a known security baseline

Remove unneeded devices and functions

Utilize up-to-date VM patches and security updates

Configure access permissions for a select group of administrators

Which of the steps are specific to making VM templates more resistant to attack?

a. 1 and 3

b. 1 and 4

c. 2 and 4

d. 3 and 4118. What is the basis for determining the size of the virtual machine swap file?

a. The sum of the virtual machine memory limit and the reserved memory

b. The physical machine memory size only

c. The difference between the physical machine memory size and the virtual machine memory limit

d. The difference between the virtual machine memory limit and the reserved memory119. What does the Recovery Point Objective (RPO) define?

a. Period of time needed to detect a fault and determine its cause

b. Period of time by which systems and applications must be recovered after an outage

c. Amount of data loss that a business can endure after an outage

d. Number of applications that are mission critical for a business to restore after an outage120. Which is a consideration for a Cloud user who is drafting a Cloud Service Termination Agreement?

a. Cost of transferring the ownership of infrastructure back to the client

b. Service performance levels

c. Data migration plan

d. Time required for the server provider to restart operations121. During which phase of the Cloud migration process should it be verified that an application behaves as expected in the Cloud?

a. Proof of Concept

b. Assessment

c. Automation

d. Optimization122. Which statement about virtual machine (VM) fault tolerance is true?

a. It does not use the VM file system for protection

b. It provides faster backup of VM disk files

c. VM cloning occurs between dissimilar hardware

d. The secondary VM is in constant synchronization with the primary VM123. Which mechanism provides protection against NIC failure?

a. NIC trunking

b. VLAN tagging

c. NIC teaming

d. Port grouping124. What enables the storage of virtual machine files on a NAS device?

a. Virtual machine monitor

b. Virtual Machine File System

c. Network File System

d. Guest operating system125. You are asked to create three VLANs on a newly installed physical Ethernet switch. Which operations should you perform to configure the VLANs?

a. Add three VLAN IDs to the hypervisors VLAN ID pool, then assign each VLAN ID to one or more switch ports

b. Configure a trunk port on the switch, then assign three VLAN IDs to the trunk port

c. Activate VLAN trunking and tagging on the switch, then define three VLAN IDs on the switch

d. Define three VLAN IDs on the switch, then assign each VLAN ID to one or more switch ports126. What is a limitation of a server-based Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?

a. It monitors network traffic for multiple hosts

b. It runs on the same system with malicious software

c. It cannot access logs written by privileged processes

d. It cannot observe encrypted traffic127. Which Governance, Risk and Compliance process needs to be performed by a client to determine the scope of adoption of Cloud services?

a. Compliance penalty assessment

b. Regulatory compensation assessment

c. Enlisting anti-virus protection measures

d. Risk assessment128. Which process categorizes resource pools based on their performance and capacity?

a. Resource Cataloging

b. Resource Distribution

c. Resource Grading

d. Resource Bundling129. In which Cloud deployment model would an organization see operational expenditures grow in proportion to capital expenditures?

a. On-premise Private Cloud

b. External Private Cloud

c. Public Cloud

d. Hybrid Cloud

130. As an organization leverages more resources from Cloud service providers, which expense of the organization would be expected to grow larger?

a. Power and energy

b. Management c. Infrastructure d. Operational

131. What best describes the "metered service" characteristic of Cloud computing?

a. Consumers are billed based on resource usage.

b. Services are provisioned based on their deman

c. Metering services are created when required from the resource pools.

d. Metering services can scale up and down based on resource usage.

132. Which Cloud service model allows the user to run any operating system and application?

a. Platform-as-a-Service

b. Infrastructure-as-a-Service

c. Software-as-a-Service

d. IT-as-a-Service

133. Which Cloud service model is most appropriate for application development?

a. Infrastructure-as-a-Service

b. Platform-as-a-Service

c. Software-as-a-Service d. IT-as-a-Service

134. An organization runs a proprietary operating system for its custom applications. System performance has been declining at an increasing rate. They would like to leverage a Cloud solution to address their problem.

Which Cloud service model would be appropriate for them?

a. Infrastructure-as-a-Service

b. Platform-as-a-Service c. Software-as-a-Service d. IT-as-a-Service

135. Which problem is addressed by RAID technologies?

a. Data corruption

b. Data backup

c. Data loss

d. Data security

136. Which is a benefit of server clustering?

a. High CPU utilization

b. High availability

c. High memory utilization

d. High security

137. Which RAID type uses parity to protect against data loss?

a. RAID 3

b. RAID 0

c. RAID 1

d. Nested

138. Which RAID types use no parity in protecting against data loss?

a. RAID 1 and Nested

b. RAID 0 and RAID 6

c. RAID 3 and RAID 5

d. RAID 5 and Nested

139. Which component retrieves data from disk in an Intelligent Storage System?

a. Front-end

b. Cache

c. LUN

d. Back-end

140. Which component of a compute system performs the creation and control of logical storage?a. Volume Manager

b. Operating System c. DBMSd. Application

141. Which is used to logically group FC ports?

a. Zone

b. VLAN c. Mask d. ISL

142. Which parameter uniquely identifies a switch in a SAN environment?

a. Area ID

b. Port ID

c. Domain ID

d. WWN

143. Which protocol is most commonly used for compute-to-compute communication?

a. TCP/IP

b. FC

c. FCIP

d. iSCSI

144. Which term is used to describe the virtual space in which all nodes communicate with each other in a SAN environment?

a. Fabric

b. Fibre Channel

c. Loop

d. Trunking

145. What is a benefit of an Object based storage system?

a. It uses multiple object IDs for high security

b. It provides fast replication

c. It ensures data integrity

d. It enables fast backup

146. Which are components of FCoE?

a. Converged Network Adapter and Fibre Channel Forwarder

b. Bridging and E_port

c. E_port and Zoning

d. TCP/IP and Fibre Channel

147. A compute resource is accessing data from storage over a network at the block level. Which statement is true about the associated file system?

a. It is managed by the compute resource.

b. It is managed by the storage.

c. It is part of the network.

d. It is managed by the application.

148. Which enables distributed FC SAN islands to interconnect over a WAN?

a. FCoEb. CEE c. ISCSI d. FCIP

149. Which FC port type is located on the compute system's HBA?

a. N_port

b. E_port

c. F_port

d. G_port

150. Which port type should be designated to allow an FC switch port to automatically determine its functionality during initialization?

a. G_port

b. N_portc. F_portd. E_port

151. What does the Recovery Time Objective (RTO) define?

a. Amount of data loss that a business can endure between an outage and recovery

b. Period of time by which systems and applications must be recovered after an outage

c. Number of applications that are mission critical for a business to recover after an outage

d. Period of time needed to detect a fault and determine its cause prior to recovery

152. An administrator wants to perform replication between heterogeneous storage arrays over a WAN. Which technology should you recommend to the administrator?

a. SAN-based replication

b. Three site replication

c. Array-based replication

d. Silvering

153. What is a key advantage of pointer-based, full volume replication in Copy on First Access (COFA)mode compared to Full Volume mirroring?

a. The replica device size is smaller than the original.

b. The source device is not required for restore.

c. The replica is immediately accessible.

d. The replica only holds pointers to the source data.

154. Which data center management activity ensures business continuity by eliminating single points of failure?

a. Availability management

b. Capacity management

c. Performance management

d. Security management

155. Which is a key benefit of implementing an ILM strategy?

a. Lower total cost of ownership

b. Lower recovery time

c. High performance

d. High security

156. Which metric can be used for monitoring performance bottlenecks?

a. Number of replication task failures

b. Number of I/Os to the disk

c. Number of login failures

d. Number of used and free ports on a switch157. A storage administrator receives an alert message that a new LUN has been create Based on severity, how should this alert be classified?

a. Warning

b. Fatal

c. Information

d. Normal

158. A storage administrator receives an alert message that a disk has faile Based on severity, how should this alert be classified?

a. Fatal

b. Warning

c. Information

d. Normal

159. Which is a benefit provided by Hyper-threading in a virtualized server environment?

a. Improved CPU utilization

b. Logical CPU load balancing

c. Improved memory utilization

d. Improved virtual machine security

160. Transparent page sharing is employed in a compute system. What occurs if a write to a shared page is attempted?

a. Data is overwritten on the page.

b. A shared copy of the page is create

c. The shared page size is extende

d. A private copy of the page is create

161. What is the key function of the balloon driver in the memory ballooning technique?

a. To demand memory from guest OS and later relinquish it under the control of the hypervisor b. To demand memory from the hypervisor and later relinquish it under the control of the virtual machine

c. To extend memory using a swap file under the control of the hypervisor

d. To extend memory using a swap file under the control of the virtual machine

162. What happens to a swap file if the associated virtual machine is powered off?

a. The swap file is delete

b. The content of the swap file is preserve

c. The swap file is emptie

d. The swap file remains open for use by the hypervisor.

163. What is required to convert a physical machine to a virtual machine when using cold mode?

a. Converter switch

b. Converter Boot CD

c. Converter server

d. Converter agent

164. What is the correct sequence of steps for performing cold conversion from a physical machine to a virtual machine (VM)?

a. The converter application creates a new VM on the destination physical machine.

b. The converter application copies volumes from the source machine to the destination machine.

c. Boot the source machine from the converter boot CD and use converter software to defineconversion parameters.d. The converter application installs the required drivers to allow the OS to boot from the VM and personalizes the VM.

165. How does a virtual machine appear to a hypervisor?

a. As a discrete set of files b. As a physical machine c. As a remote server

d. As a file system

166. Which type of hypervisor is recommended if the organizations primary concern is performance of virtual machines?

a. Bare-metal

b. Hosted

c. Built-in

d. Encapsulated

167. Which statement is true about a virtual machine (VM) swap file?

a. It stores the state of the VM BIOS.

b. It exists only when the VM is running.

c. It stores configuration information of VMs.

d. It is used for troubleshooting VMs.

168. Which component provides the ability to power off the virtual machine?

a. Virtual Machine Console

b. Virtual Machine Monitor

c. Virtual Machine Controller

d. Virtual Machine BIOS

169. What is a function of Virtual Machine Monitor?

a. Binary translation

b. File system management

c. Virtual machine troubleshooting

d. Process scheduling

170. Which component optimally assigns physical CPU resources to virtual machines?

a. Guest OS kernel

b. CPU load balancer

c. Hypervisor scheduler

d. Virtual machine controller

171. An administrator decides to power on a virtual machine (VM) that has less memory available in a resource pool than the configured reservation parameter.What would be the expected outcome?

a. The VM will fail to power on.

b. The VM will crash after boot up.

c. The VM will power on in safe mode.

d. The VM will power on normally but perform poorly.

172. Which statement about automated storage tiering is true?

a. Data movement is performed non-disruptively. b. Total size of the required storage is reduce c. It provides automated storage provisioning.d. It is performed only within a storage array.

173. Which network component performs physical-to-virtual volume mapping?

a. Logical Volume Manager

b. Virtualization appliance

c. Virtual Machine File System

d. Virtual machine

174. What are the three deployment models offered by EMC VPLEX?

a. Local, metro, and geo

b. Local, remote, and multi-site

c. Local, remote, and geo

d. Local, metro, and wide

175. Which statement about virtual machines is true?

a. They are not aware of the underlying storage technology useb. They are not aware of the size of the virtual disk.

c. They are aware of the underlying storage technology use

d. They are aware of the type of storage media use

176. In file-level storage virtualization, what maps the logical path of a file to the physical path name?

a. Virtual Machine File System

b. Raw Device Mapping

c. Global namespace

d. File system extent

177. Which technique ensures that the used capacity of the disk drives in a thin pool is uniform after a new drive is added?

a. Rebalancing b. Reordering c. Leveling

d. Resizing

178. Which network component is used to connect a virtual machine to a virtual switch?

a. Virtual NIC b. Virtual HBA c. Physical NIC d. Uplink port

179. Which event occurs when network broadcast traffic reaches the Storm Control threshold, assuming Storm Control is enabled at the switch?

a. Switch port bandwidth is extended, based on the pre-configured peak bandwidth.

b. The switch port forwards broadcast traffic partially, maintaining the traffic rate below the threshold level.

c. The switch port blocks broadcast traffic and drops subsequent broadcast frames over the next time interval.

d. Switch port bandwidth is extended, based on the pre-configured share value.

180. What is enabled by using NIC teaming?

a. Failover to another available physical NIC in the event of a physical NIC failure

b. Balancing of traffic across both active and standby NIC team members

c. Allocation of bandwidth to broadcast, multicast, and unicast traffic, based on priority

d. Transfer of data to a LUN on a FC storage system using multiple network links

181. An administrator has configured the following traffic shaping parameters for a distributed virtual switch:

Average bandwidth: 1 Kb/s Peak bandwidth: 4 Kb/s Burst size: 3 Kb

What happens if a 6 Kb/s burst of data arrives at the switch port?

a. Some of the frames of the burst will be queued or dropped by the switch. b. The burst will remain for 0.5 seconds without queuing or dropping frames. c. The burst will remain for 1.5 seconds without queuing or dropping frames. d. All the frames of the burst will be dropped182. Which is a component of Cisco Nexus 1000V?

a. Virtual Switch Node

b. Virtual Supervisor Module

c. Virtual Internet Module

d. Virtual Service Node

183. Under which condition of communicating nodes does routing occur across virtual networks?

a. When they are on different virtual networks, but belong to the same physical network b. When they are on the same virtual network, but belong to different physical networks c. When they are on the same virtual network and physical network

d. When they are located on different geographic locations, but belong to the same virtual network

184. Which is a function of a virtual switch?

a. Directs network traffic to and from virtual machines

b. Maintains MAC address table to perform OSI layer 3 operations

c. Shares bandwidth of a physical NIC with other virtual switches

d. Enables configuring load balancing policies across virtual HBA ports

185. What is a purpose of uplink ports on a virtual switch?

a. To provide connectivity between a virtual switch and virtual NICs

b. To enable inter-switch links (ISLs) between virtual switches in a physical server

c. To enable the hypervisor kernel to access FC storage

d. To provide connectivity between a virtual switch and physical NICs

186. Which statement best defines the term "virtual machine port group"?

a. It is a mechanism for applying uniform network policy settings to a group of virtual machine ports.

b. It is a method for transferring virtual machine traffic through a single network connection. c. It is a method for enabling communication between virtual machines, regardless of their location.

d. It is a mechanism for assigning a VSAN ID to a group of virtual machine ports.

187. What is a principal benefit of deploying a distributed virtual switch?

a. It maintains consistent network policies when virtual machines migrate across physical servers.

b. It aggregates both physical and virtual switches distributed across virtualized data centers.

c. It enables physical NICs to use MAC addresses for transmission of frames.

d. It eliminates the requirement of individually configuring policies to hypervisor kernel ports.

188. Which statement is true about physical NICs on a physical server running hypervisor?

a. They offload iSCSI processing from the hypervisor.

b. They are not assigned IP addresses.

c. They are used as links between virtual machines.

d. They encapsulate SCSI data into Ethernet frames.

189. What are the three key components of Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI)?

a. Endpoint device, VM hosting server, and Connection broker

b. VM hosting server, VM management server, and Endpoint device

c. VDI console, VM management server, and Connection broker

d. VM management server, VDI console, and VM execution server

190. What is a role of Connection Broker in desktop virtualization?

a. Connects end point device to the assigned virtual machine

b. Establishes connection between end point devices

c. Connects virtual machines to virtual machine hosting server

d. Establishes connection between two virtual machine hosting servers

191. Which technology enables desktop virtualization?a. Operating system virtualization

b. User state virtualization c. File system virtualization d. Memory virtualization

192. What is a benefit of Application Virtualization?

a. It simplifies application deployment/retirement.

b. It increases application and CPU utilization.

c. It enables communication among different applications.

d. It breaks dependencies between the application interface and processing logi

193. An applications data has been corrupte Associated files must be restored from the last virtual machine backup.Which restoration approach would be most efficient?

a. Using an agent running on the storage array

b. Using an agent running on the hypervisor

c. Using an agent running on the virtual machine

d. Using storage array-based restoration

194. Which method is used to create a linked clone of a virtual machine (VM)?

a. Using a snapshot of the source VM

b. Using a template of the source VM

c. Sharing the network identity with the source VM

d. Making a separate copy of the source VM virtual disk

195. Which tool can be used for live migration of virtual machine disk files between two EMC CLARiiONarrays?

a. VMware Storage vMotion

b. VMware HA

c. VMware vMotion

d. VMware FT

196. Which functionality is provided by a Virtual Machine File System when virtual machines are running on clustered servers?

a. Pool of running virtual machines to be shared among hypervisors b. Pool of virtual disks to be shared among running virtual machines c. Automated locking of virtual machine files

d. Virtual machine namespace resolution

197. Which virtual machine technique provides zero downtime in case of a virtual machine failure?

a. Fault tolerance

b. Clone

c. Snapshot

d. Backup

198. Which statement about virtual machine (VM) fault tolerance is true?

a. The secondary VM is in constant synchronization with the primary VM.

b. VM cloning occurs between dissimilar hardware.

c. It provides faster backup of VM disk files.

d. It does not use the VM file system for protection.

199. A multipathing option is enabled on a hypervisor. What is required for successful failover to occur?

a. Virtual machine configuration files must include multipathing settings.

b. The Virtual Machine File System must support multipathing.

c. All the HBA ports must share the same network path to the storage.

d. HBA ports must be set up with multiple storage controllers.

200. An organization requires backup of virtual CPU configurations for each of its virtual machines. In a compute based backup approach, where should the backup agent be installed?

a. On the hypervisor

b. On each virtual machine

c. No backup agent is required

d. On the Virtual Machine File System

201. Which provides a consolidated view of existing physical and virtual infrastructure resources across virtualized data centers?

a. Unified management software

b. Cloud integration management software

c. User access management software

d. Cloud resource management software

202. Which service management process maintains information about the attributes of Cloud infrastructure resources?

a. Service Catalog Management

b. Capacity Management

c. Service Asset and Configuration Management

d. Infrastructure Management

203. Which Cloud service management process ensures that configuration best practices are followed when creating Cloud services?

a. Service Asset and Configuration Management

b. Compliance Management

c. Capacity Management

d. Performance Management

204. Which tool enables consumers to deploy their applications and platform software to the Cloud?

a. Migration tool

b. Shredding tool

c. Configuration tool

d. Service Creation tool

205. Which Cloud service management process is used to perform trend analysis of resource consumption and to plan future resource requirements?

a. Capacity Management

b. Service Asset and Configuration Management

c. Resource Planning Management

d. Availability Management

206. Which statement describes the resource distribution process performed by unified management software?

a. Create attributes of all Cloud services from different bundles

b. Create service instances and allocate resources from bundles to service instances

c. Integrate a graded compute pool with graded storage and network pool

d. Categorize pools based on performance and capacity

207. Which statement describes the Resource Grading process?

a. Integrating a graded compute pool with a graded network pool and a graded storage pool

b. Grading attributes of all Cloud services to be created from different bundles

c. Categorizing resource pools based on their capabilities

d. Allocating graded resources from bundles to service instances

208. Which operation is performed by user access management software?

a. Monitor allocation and usage of resources associated with Cloud service instances

b. Manage bundling of application and platform software

c. Manage multiple grade levels for each type of user resource pool

d. Enable users to create virtual infrastructure from physical infrastructure

209. Which product provides a solution for Cloud user access management?

a. VMware vCloud Director

b. VMware Service Manager

c. EMC Ionix Unified Infrastructure Manager

d. EMC Ionix Cloud Manager

210. Which security mechanism(s) defines the boundary between security critical and non-critical parts of an information system?

a. Trusted Computing Base

b. Encryption

c. Authentication, Authorization, and Auditing

d. Defense-in-Depth

211. How does the VMware vShield Endpoint product streamline and accelerate anti-virus and anti- malware deployment?

a. All anti-virus and anti-malware mitigation is performed in a single place.

b. Engines and signature files can be deployed to a common share available to all clients.

c. Running detection software against client disk partitions finds infections earlier.

d. The engines and signature files are only updated within the special security virtual machine.

212. Which security measures should be adopted to prevent virtual machine (VM) theft?

a. VM copy and move restrictions

b. VM reservation

c. Mutual client isolation

d. Sandboxing of the guest OS

213. Which product provides a solution for one-time password based authentication?

a. RSA SecurID

b. RSA Archer eGRC

c. RSA Envision

d. RSA BSAFE

214. Which product provides a solution for multi-factor authentication?

a. RSA Archer eGRC

b. RSA envision c. RSA SecurIDd. RSA BSAFE

215. Which security aspect ensures that unauthorized changes to data are prevented?

a. Integrity

b. Confidentiality

c. Authenticity

d. Availability216. Which measure should an administrator adopt to mitigate multitenancy-based security concerns in a Cloud environment?

a. Mutual client isolation

b. Virtual machine reservation

c. Sandboxing

d. Virtual firewall

217. Which measure should be adopted to mitigate the challenge of "velocity of attack" in the Cloud?

a. Sandboxing

b. Virtual firewall

c. Client based security protection

d. Defense-in-depth

218. What is a major reason for auditing?

a. To ensure that only authorized individuals can access the system

b. To evaluate the effectiveness of security enforcement controls and processes

c. To measure and charge for computer usage

d. To ensure that individuals are provided with privileges appropriate for their role

219. Which is a recommended method for virtual machine (VM) hardening?

a. Use a directory service for authentication

b. Use VM only for proprietary applications

c. Use a VM snapshot to provision a new VM

d. Disable VM access to the management console

220. A Cloud service provider decides to close its business due to legal litigation. Which Governance, Risk and Compliance (GRC) document would safeguard the interests of its clients?

a. Termination Agreement

b. Service Implementation Guide c. Business Continuity Agreement d. Service Level Agreement

221. Which Governance, Risk and Compliance (GRC) aspect may limit adoption of public Clouds for applications handling sensitive data?

a. SAN Security Regulations

b. Information Flow Regulations

c. Inadequate anti-virus protectiond. Lack of robust data encryption standards222. Which security process defines the scope of the access rights for a resource?

a. Authorization b. Authentication c. Encryptiond. Auditing

223. From which level should a Distributed Denial of Service attack be prevented?

a. Network

b. Access control

c. Perimeter

d. Compute

224. Consider the following actions:

Exhausting resources such as CPU cycles or network bandwidth

Exploiting weaknesses in communication protocols

Hijacking of user identities Intercepting communications trafficWhich of these actions are involved in a Denial of Service (DoS) attack?

a. 2 and 3

b. 2 and 4

c. 1 and 3

d. 1 and 2

225. What statement related to a Virtual Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) is true?

a. A virtual DMZ can support multiple trust zones.

b. DMZ virtual machines should be in separate sub-networks.

c. Virtual DMZ subnets do not use a firewall to protect traffi

d. Trusted nodes in the DMZ are not accessible from outside networks.226. Which security mechanism removes the need for services to provide their own identity system and allows users to consolidate their digital identities?

a. OpenID

b. Federated Identity Management

c. One-time passwords

d. Shared LDAP directory

227. Review the following considerations:

A contingency plan for handling data in the Cloud

A process for migrating the data back into the organization or to another Cloud

Whether or not data can be moved over the network in a reasonable amount of time

Cost of transferring ownership of the infrastructure back to the clientWhich considerations should apply before terminating a Cloud service agreement?

a. 2 and 4 only

b. 1, 2, and 3

c. 2, 3, and 4

d. 1 and 4

228. What is an advantage of adopting Cloud Open Standards?

a. It enables mission critical applications to be run on the Cloud

b. It prevents vendor lock-in issues c. It increases security compliance d. It improves performance

229. What action should be part of a security and compliance assessment prior to migrating business operations to the Cloud?

a. Selecting the geographic location of data storage

b. Reviewing disaster recovery options

c. Understanding the vendor lock-in period

d. Negotiating the service charge rate

230. During which phase of the Cloud migration process should business application compatibility withCloud infrastructure be evaluated?

a. Technical Assessment

b. Security and Compliance Assessment

c. Proof of Concept

d. Optimization

231. During which phase of the Cloud migration process should the usage pattern of an application be determined?

a. Proof of Concept

b. Assessment c. Optimization d. Migration

232. What are the three key Quality of Service (QoS) parameters that need to be assessed by an organization before moving operations to the Cloud?

a. Performance, Availability, and Security

b. RPO, RTO, and Security

c. Service Charge Rate, RTO, and Performance

d. Performance, Availability, and Service Duration

233. Which trade-off needs to be evaluated to determine how Cloud computing fits into an organizations overall business strategy?

a. Risk versus convenience b. Security versus penalty c. Risk versus compliance

d. Security versus compliance

234. Which Cloud deployment model(s) is considered suitable for most start-up organizations?

a. Private Cloud only b. Hybrid Cloud only c. Public Cloud

d. Both Private and Hybrid Cloud

235. Which Cloud deployment model(s) is considered most suitable for Tier 1 applications for the small to medium sized business (SMB) segment?

a. Private Cloud

b. Public Cloud only

c. Hybrid Cloud only

d. Both Public and Hybrid Cloud

236. Which type(s) of application involves higher risk when moving to the Cloud?

a. Proprietary and mission critical

b. Backup and testing

c. Proprietary but not mission critical

d. Non-proprietary and non-mission critical

237. Which document defines the quality and reliability of Cloud services?

a. Regulatory Compliance b. Document Service Charge Rate Specification c. Service Level Agreement

d. Service Contract Agreement

238. An organization is planning to migrate its operations to the ClouThere are several Cloud vendors that can provide the required services.Which is the primary factor that the organization should consider when selecting the vendor?

a. Ease of adding or removing services from the vendor

b. Identity of the vendor's existing clients

c. Range of value added services the vendor provides

d. The current market share of the vendor

239. Which step of the "Journey to the Cloud" allows pooling of resources?

a. Virtualizing the IT environment

b. Automating resource management processes

c. Delivering IT-as-a-Service

d. Policy-based provisioning

240. Which is a benefit of a virtualized environment?

a. Transparent Provider-to-Provider migrations

b. Optimized utilization of IT resources

c. Simplification of regulatory compliance

d. Reduced OPEX (Operational Expenditure)

241. An organization must meet government requirements prohibiting export of data outside its territory. Which Cloud deployment model would be most appropriate for this organization?

a. On-premise Private Cloud

b. External Private Cloud

c. Public Cloud

d. Hybrid Cloud

242. Which technology provides user-level authentication and file locking functionality?

a. NAS b. FCIP c. iSCSId. FCoE

243. Which storage platform supports file, block, and object level access?

a. Unified

b. Converged

c. Virtual

d. SOAP

244. Which provide file-level access to storage on a NAS device?

a. CIFS and NFS b. CIFS and FCIP c. iSCSI and FCoE

d. SATA and SCSI