Chapter-1: Human Resource Management Self …iimts.com/.../2013/01/International-Human-Resouce-Management.pdfChapter-1: Human Resource Management Self Assessment Questions 1. HRM is

Chapter-1: Human Resource Management

Self Assessment Questions

1. HRM is a term increasingly used to refer to the philosophy, policies, procedures and practices

relating to the management of people within ……………………s.

a. organization

b. management

c. Human Resource Management

d. None of these

2. Personnel management (Human Resource Management) aims to achieve both efficiency and

justice, neither of which can be pursued successfully without the other.

a. True b. False

3. The characteristics of human resources are ________ in nature

a. homogeneous

b. heterogeneous

c. ductility

d. None of the above

4. Identify the managerial function out of the following functions of HR managers.

a. procurement

b. development

c. organizing

d. performance appraisal

5. Which of the following is an example of operative function of HR managers?

a. planning

b. organizing

c. procurement

d. controlling

6. The scope of human resource management includes

a. procurement

b. development

c. compensation

d. All of the above

7. Human resource management is normally ________ in nature.

a. proactive

b. reactive

c. combative


8. The human resource management functions aim at

a. ensuring that the human resources possess adequate capital, tool, equipment and

material to perform the job successfully

b. helping the organization deal with its employees in different stages of employment

c. improving an organization’s creditworthiness among financial institutions


9. Which of the following aptly describes the role of line managers and staff advisors, namely HR

professionals?

a. Staff advisors focus more on developing HR programs while line managers are more

involved in the implementation of those programs.

b. Line managers are concerned more about developing HR programs whereas staff

advisors are more involved in implementing such programs.

c. Staff advisors are solely responsible for developing, implementing and evaluating the HR

programs while line managers are not all involved in any matters concerning HR.

d. Line managers alone are responsible for developing, implementing and evaluating the

HR programs while staff advisors are not all involved in any matters concerning HR.

10. What is the meaning of the acronym HRM?

a. Human Relations Management.

b. Humane Resource Management.

c. Humanistic Resource Management.

d. Human Resource Management.

11. Which of the following terms was also used before the language of modern HRM? Select all that

apply.

a. Labor relations.

b. Personnel management.

c. Personal management.

d. Industrial relations.

12. What is meant by the acronym SHRM?

a. Soft Human Resource Management.

b. Strategic Human Resource Management.

c. Sophisticated Human Resource Management.

d. Superior Human Resource Management.

13. What is meant by the acronym HCM?

a. High Calibre Management.

b. High Class Management.

c. High Capability Management.

d. High Commitment Management.

14. Which of the following is not a function normally performed by the HR department?

a. Pay and reward.

b. Recruitment and selection.

c. Employee relations.

d. Accounting.

15. It has been said that some HR departments have had a 'Cinderella' image. What is meant by this

statement?

a. Influential and powerful.

b. Low status and obscure.

c. Bureaucratic.

d. Old fashioned and staid.

16. How long has the term 'HRM' been fashionable?

a. The last 100 years.

b. The last twenty years.

c. The last forty years.

d. The last five years.

17. In the 'matching model' of HRM, what is meant by 'Cost driven HRM'?

a. Where a strategic planning process exists, but people are viewed as a cost.

b. Where a strategic planning process does not exist, and people are viewed as a cost.

c. Where a strategic planning process exists, and people are viewed as a resource.

d. Where a strategic planning process does not exist, but people are viewed as a

resource.

18. Human resource management is the formal part of an organization responsible for all of the

following aspects of the management of human resources except:

a. management of the organization’s finances

b. policy making, implementation, and enforcement

c. strategy development and analysis

d. systems, processes, and procedures

19. The field of HRM was founded on the idea that the competitive advantage of the organization

relies on the following sources of capital:

a. cultural, human and system capital

b. social, cultural and human capital

c. organization relies on the following sources of capital:

d. cultural, human and source capital

20. To address the challenges and opportunities they face organizations engage in a process of

strategic management. Strategic management is:

a. short-term focused and composed of organizational strategy, including strategy

formulation and implementation

b. long-term focused and composed of the organization’s mission, vision and value

statements

c. short-term focused and composed of the organization’s mission, vision and value

statements

d. long-term focused and composed of organizational strategy, including strategy

formulation and implementation

Answers for Self Assessment Questions

1. (a) 2.(a) 3.(b) 4.(c) 5.(c)

6. (d) 7.(a) 8.(b) 9.(a) 10.(d)

11. (b) 12.(b) 13.(d) 14.(d) 15.(b)

16. (b) 17.(a) 18.(a) 19.(b) 20.(a)

Chapter-2: E–Human Resource Management


1. The e-HRM is not a specific stage in the development of HRM, but a choice for an approach to

HRM

a. True b. False

2. ………….is concerned with administrative functions - payroll and employee personal data.

a. Transformational e-HRM

b. Operational e-HRM

c. Informational e-HRM

d. None of these

3. ……………………………. is concerned with strategic HR activities such as knowledge

management, strategic re-orientation.




d. None of these

4. Organizations making steps towards e-HRM are……………

a. Cost reduction/efficiency gains

b. Client service improvement/facilitating management and employees

c. Improving the strategic orientation of HRM

d. a,b.c

5. The HR function is to be structured to help organizations

a. True b. False

6. ………………….. support can be characterized as support that is primarily focused on improving

the operational efficiency of the HR system.




d. None of these

7. The roles for the HRM are:

a. Leadership role

b. Managerial role

c. Operational role

d. a,b,c

8. Functional areas of Human Resource Management are:

(a) Employment

(b) Selection and Training

(c) Employee Services

(d) a,b,s

9. ………is a specialized function and is one of the fundamental operative functions of HR

management.

(a) managemen training

(b) Employee training

(c) organization training

(d) Nine of these

10. Employee assistance focuses on providing personal problem solving, counseling to individual

employees.

a. True b. False

11. HR or personnel policies are required in the following areas:

(a) Acquisition of personnel

(b) Training and development

(c) Appraisal and compensation of human resources

(d) a,b,c,

12. Cultural shock which is often the outcome of the negative experience of moving from a familiar

culture to one that is unfamiliar is important to understand in the context of internationalization

because:

a) It can effect soldiers returning form was zones

b) It can effect students on 'gap year' experiences

c) It can impact on individuals taking overseas assignments

d) Friends and families reunited

13. Planning has not a strategic element and should be viewed in the light of the strategic direction

of the practice.

a) True

b) False

14. Key to successful management of HR processes is the ability to?

a) Travel abroad

b) Recruit local managers

c) Identify key skills and competencies required for working overseas

d) Having appropriate training systems

15…………………….changes to legislation, particularly in the compliance area, may have an effect

on the viability of areas of the practice and require a change of emphasis in the types of services

provided.

a) Legal environment

b) Technological changes

c) Demographic trends

d) None of these

16. Planning has a strategic element and should be viewed in the light of the strategic direction of

the practice.

a) True

b) False

17. In the Delphi technique a number of partners and professional staff (experts) who are familiar

with the firm’s ………………………. each prepare a forecast.

a) long- and short-term plans

b) no long- and short-term plans

c) long- and no short-term plans

d) None of these

18. Human Resource Planning is not a mandatory part of every organization’s annual planning

process.

a) True

b) False

19. HR and hiring managers developed screening tools, such as applications, interviews, tests,

background checks and reference checks and begin accepting applications.

a) True

b) false

20. Cross-cultural training organizations are not experts in the area of cross-cultural relationships

and can provide training on many topics.

a) True

b) False


1. (a) 2.(b) 3.(a) 4.(d) 5.(a)

6. (c) 7.(d) 8. (d) 9.(b) 10.(a)

11.(d) 12.(c) 13.(b) 14.(c) 15. (a)

16.(a) 17.(a) 18.(b) 19.(a) 20. (b)

Chapter-3 HR Planning Recruitment

1.An expert forecasting technique used in environmental scanning where individual ideas, round

robin listing and ranking occurs is known as…………

a) Delphi Technique

b) Impact Analysis

c) Trend Analysis

d) Nominal Group Technique

e) Priority Ranking Method

2. Which is NOT one of the key elements of the 5C Model of HRM Impact?

a) cost

b) contribution

c) critical incident

d) compliance

e) client satisfaction

3. An error of omission when a job description or specification fails to incorporate important aspects

of the job required for success is called………………..

a) contamination

b) deficiency

c) performance gap

d) generalization

4. Regression analysis may be used in HR forecasting. Another term for independent variable in

such analysis is………………

a) target variable

b) correlation

c) causal variable

d) linear relationship

5. The likelihood that an individual in a specific job will exhibit one of the five movement behaviors

is known as……………………

a) transitional probabilities

b) chain effect

c) Markov cell

d) multiplier effect

6. In any downsizing initiative it is important to:

a) attend to rumours

b) make expectations clear

c) allow time for grieving

d) All of these

7. Which of the following is NOT a reason why an organization may outsource?

a) to improve employee morale

b) to improve service levels

c) to access specialized expertise

d) to save money

8. What is meant by 'internal' and 'external' fit?

a. HR policies which are complementary and consistent within the organization and

with the overall business strategy

b. The extent to which HR policies match business strategy

c. The level of consistency between HR policies

d. The level of consistency and coherence between HR policies

9. Which of the following techniques are not connected with human resource planning?

a. Succession planning

b. Management of change

c. Simple linear regression

d. Markov matrix analysis

10. Which of the following is not a selection technique?

a. Interviews

b. Ability tests

c. Performance appraisal

d. Psychometric testing

11. Which of the following would not form part of a flexible reward package?

a. Cafeteria benefits

b. Non-pay items such as child care vouchers

c. Performance-related pay

d. Ability to 'buy and sell' leave days

12. Human resource planning should be an integral part of business planning.

a) True

b) False

13. The primary aim of recruitment and selection process is to

a. meet the high labor turnover

b. hire the best individuals at optimum cost

c. ensure the availability of surplus in the case of sickness and absence

d. none of the above

14. Recruitment is widely viewed as a _______ process.

a. positive

b. negative

c. both positive and negative

d. none of these

15. The process of developing an applicants’ pool for job openings in an organization is called

a. hiring

b. recruitment

c. selection

d. retention

16. Recruitment policy usually highlights the need for establishing

a. job specification

b. job analysis

c. job description


17. _______ indicates the degree to which a tool or test measures what it is supposed to measure.

a. validity

b. reliability

c. dependability

d. goodness of fit

18. Which of the following is the most serious problem that might arise due to excessive reliance on

internal recruitment?

a. reduced job performance

b. high labor turnover

c. lack of motivation

d. internal resistance

19. Internal recruitment has the potentiality to increase the _______ of the employees.

a. conflicts

b. misunderstanding

c. income

d. morale

20. Advertisements through newspapers, TV, radio, professional journals and magazines are

_______ methods of recruitment.

a. direct

b. indirect

c. third-party



1. (d) 2.(a) 3.(b) 4.(c) 5.(a)

6. (d) 7.(a) 8. (a) 9.(b) 10.(c)

11.(c) 12.(a) 13.(a) 14.(a) 15. (b)

16.(a) 17.(a) 18.(d) 19.(b) 20. (b)

Chapter-4 Appraising and Evaluating People in the Organization


1. All of the following are phases of career development except

a. Performance Phase

b. Direction Phase

c. Assessment Phase

d. Development Phase

2. Performance Appraisal is a primary HRM process that links employees and organizations and

provides input for other processes through these means

a. Identification, Measurement, Management

b. Assessment, Direction, Development

c. Recruitment, Selection, Onboarding

d. Skill, Effort, Responsibility

3. Which of the following is not a type of performance appraisal?

a. Customer appraisals.

b. Appraisal of managers.

c. Team based appraisal.

d. 45 degree appraisal.

4. Why might an organization use multiple systems of appraisal? Select all that apply.

a. Different systems for different part of the organization.

b. To separate reward and non-reward aspects of appraisal.

c. Different systems for different organizational groups.

d. To provide employees with a choice of methods.

5. Which of the following is not a reason why performance appraisal is used by organizations?

a. To determine promotion.

b. To motivate employees.

c. Because it is a legal requirement.

d. To clarify and define performance expectations.

6. A good potential appraisal system provides opportunities continuously for the employee to know

his strengths and weaknesses.

a) True

b) False

7. Which of the following statements about performance management systems is not true?

a. They cause stress for employees.

b. Performance management systems are ineffective.

c. Commitment from line managers is questionable.

d. They improve organizational performance in the long-term.

8. Performance management in government is the managerial activity necessary to promote well-

performing policy management and service delivery.

a) True

b) False

9. Which of the following statements about performance appraisal is not true?

a. Companies use appraisal to encourage employee loyalty and commitment.

b. Performance appraisal has become a tool to motivate and control workers.

c. Performance appraisal reduces managerial control.

d. Employees may be appraised on both objective and subjective measures.

10. What is the meaning of upward appraisal?

a. Line managers rate the performance of employees.

b. Employees rate the performance of their peers.

c. Senior managers rate the performance of line managers.

d. Employees rate the performance of their manager.

11. What is meant by 360 degree appraisal?

a. A system where every employee rates another employee chosen at random.

b. A system where the line manager rates subordinates simultaneously.

c. A system where feedback is obtained from peers subordinates and supervisors.

d. A system where a senior manager rates all line managers simultaneously.

12. Performance planning is not the first crucial component of any performance management

process which forms the basis of performance appraisals.

a) True

b) False

13. The process of evaluating an employee’s current and/or past performance relative to his or her

performance standards is called _____.

a. recruitment

b. employee selection

c. performance appraisal

d. organizational development

14. When goal setting, performance appraisal, and development are consolidated into a single,

common system designed to ensure that employee

performance supports a company’s strategy, it is called _____.

a. strategic organizational development

b. performance management

c. performance appraisal

d. human resource management

15. Performance management combines performance appraisal with _____ to ensure that employee

performance is supportive of corporate goals.

a. goal setting

b. training

c. incentive systems

d. all of the above

16. Managers following a performance management approach to appraisals will usually meet with

employees on a _____ basis.

a. weekly

b. monthly

c. bi-annual

d. yearly

17. Managers following a traditional performance appraisal system will typically

meet with employees on a _____ basis.

a. daily

b. weekly

c. monthly

d. yearly

18. The component of an effective performance management process that communicates the

organization’s higher level goals throughout the organization and then translates these goals into

departmental goals is called _____.

a. role clarification

b. goal alignment

c. developmental goal setting

d. direction sharing

19. Performance Appraisal helps in chalking out compensation packages for employees.

a) True

b) False

20. A good potential appraisal system provides opportunities continuously for the employee to

know his strengths and weaknesses.

a) True

b) False


1. (a) 2.(a) 3.(d) 4.(c) 5.(c)

6. (a) 7.(d) 8. (a) 9.(c) 10.(d)

11.(c) 12.(b) 13.(c) 14.(b) 15. (d)

16.(a) 17.(d) 18.(d) 19.(a) 20. (a)

Chapter-5 Industrial Relations

1. Which of the following is usually not an objective of industrial relations?

a. Connectedness

b. Collective wisdom

c. Conflict prevention

d. None of these

2. Identify the major actor of industrial relations from the following.

a. Employers

b. Unions

c. Government

d. All of these

3. That the authority rests solely with the management with no right to anyone to challenge it is the

basis of the

a. Pluralist approach

b. System approach

c. Unitary approach

d. Social action approach

4. The balance of power is not vested with any one group; rather, it is maintained between the

parties to the industrial relations.” This is the essence of the


b. System approach

c. Unitary approach


5. That the behavior, actions and role of the individuals are primarily shaped by the cultures of the

society is the basic assumption in the


b. System approach

c. Unitary approach


6. Which of the following approaches assumes that the understanding of industrial relations requires

an understanding of the capitalized society?

a. Marxist approach

b. Gandhian approach

c. Human relations approach

d. Giri approach

7. The utility of non-violence as the means of conflict resolution is the core principle of the

a. Marxist approach



d. Giri approach

8. “Organizations are made up of people and the success of management lies in its dealings with

these people.” This is the fundamental of the

a. Marxist approach



d. Giri approach

9. Which of the following approaches assumes that voluntary negotiations between employers and

employees are a means of settling disputes?

a. Marxist approach

b. Giri approach


d. Gandhian approach

10. Which of the following approaches insists on investigating the underlying trends and patterns in

the cause and effect of industrial disputes?

a. Gandhian approach

b. Giri approach

c. Industrial sociology approach

d. Pluralist approach

11. Productivity bargaining is considered as a classic example of the

a. Oxford school approach

b. Giri approach


d. Gandhian approach

12. Which Act of Parliament defines a `trade union’ and governs much of the law on industrial

relations?

a. The Trade Union and Labour Relations (Consolidation) Act 1992.

b. The Trade Union Act 1955.

c. The Trade Union and Labour Relations Act 2005.

d. The Trade Union and Labour Relations (Consolidation) Act 1991.

13. Under which of the following situations may a union refuse to admit a person or expel a

member?

a. Because of misconduct.

b. Because of their financial means.

c. Because they do not feel that they are a suitable member.

d. Because of their current state of health.

14. Who is responsible for the maintenance of the `lists’ of independent trade unions?

a. The Health and Safety Executive.

b. The Central Arbitration Committee.

c. The Certification Officer.

d. None of these

15. Which of the following best explains the term `union ballots’?

a. A ballot is the method by which a union expels members.

b. A ballot is the system by which union members vote for, e.g. industrial action.

c. A ballot is the system by which union members put forward information for `listing’.

d. A ballot is the method by which a union recruits new members.

16. Which of the following is not an `industrial tort’?

a. Intimidation.

b. Conspiracy.

c. Inducement.

d. Gross misconduct.

17. Which of the following can a union do once it is `recognized’?

a. Apply to be referred to as a `workplace union’.

b. Apply for union status.

c. Apply to engage in the `closed shop’.

d. Engage in collective bargaining with an employer.

18. An individual spends his maximum time at the workplace and his fellow workers are the ones

with whom he spends the maximum hours in a day.

a. True

b. False

19. Labor relations cannot refer broadly to any dealings between management and workers about

employment conditions.

a. True

b. False

20. Industrial relations are used to denote the collective relationships between management and the

workers.

a. True

b. False


1. (d) 2.(d) 3.(a) 4.(a) 5.(b)

6. (a) 7.(b) 8. (c) 9.(b) 10.(c)

11.(a) 12.(a) 13.(a) 14.(c) 15. (b)

16.(d) 17.(d) 18.(d) 19.(a) 20. (b)

Chapter-6: Communication and Conflict


1. An example of a communication channel is

a. context.

b. face-to-face conversation.

c. feedback.

d. noise.

2. Which of the three components are part of the human communication process?

a. Message, noise, feedback

b. Noise, feedback, jargon

c. Message, recording, feedback

d. Feedback, message, critiquing

3. In interpersonal communication, ethics

a. are important.

b. are not a consideration.

c. stand in the way of honesty.

d. increase barriers to understanding.

4. Interpersonal communication occurs only when

a. an individual converses with people they have no interest in knowing.

b. intimate conversation takes place.

c. three or more people are communicating with each other at the same time.

d. an individual interacts with another person as a unique individual.

5. What is "context"?

a. An interference with message reception

b. Verbal and nonverbal responses to messages

c. Effective communication

d. A physical and psychological environment for conversation

6. The ability to communicate effectively

a. depends on the education level of those around you.

b. depends on not using technology to send messages.

c. can be learned.

d. is a natural talent that cannot be learned.

7. Learning to communicate with others is key to

a. winning the approval of everyone around you.

b. establishing rewarding relationships.

c. eliminating all of your listeners' physiological noise.

d. never being misunderstood.

8. Conflict that refers to a disagreement among connected individuals is

a. intrapersonal conflict.

b. negative conflict.

c. interpersonal conflict.

d. friendly conflict.

9. What is a part of every interpersonal relationship?

a. Love

b. Communication

c. Conflict

d. Stress

10. What type of approach to conflict is "avoiding"?

a. I lose - you lose

b. I win -- you win

c. I win - you lose.

d. I lose -- you lose, and then I win

11. What type of approach to conflict is "competing"?

a. I lose -- you lose

b. I win -- you lose

c. Be both win and lose

d. I lose -- you win

12. One advantage of conflict is that it

a. forces problems to be addressed.

b. makes problem people go away.

c. forces one to choose friends wisely.

d. makes problems go away.

13. A competing conflict style might be best suited for which environment?

a. A courtroom

b. A business partner relationship

c. An intimate relationship

d. A child-parent relationship

14. One reason people might give for selecting an accommodating approach to conflict is to

a. avoid further conflict.

b. force someone to be more open in discussions about a particular issue.

c. keep the peace.

d. win an argument.

15. A person using an "avoiding" style of engaging in conflict is likely

a. trying to manipulate another person.

b. unlikable.

c. irresponsible.

d. trying to ignore a problem.

16. The first stage of conflict resolution is to

a. analyze the problem.

b. define the problem.

c. choose a solution.

d. think through possible solutions.

17. What drives conflict?

a. Unreasonable rules

b. Goals

c. Interpersonal relationships

d. Angry people

18. Which of the following is the most likely consequence of avoiding a conflict?

a. The issue can resurface in another guise.

b. It will go away permanently.

c. Everyone wins.

d. Resentment will build.

19. When a conflict is defined, what needs to be attended to in addition to any obvious issues?

a. The relationship

b. Evaluation

c. Where the conflict will be resolved

d. Accommodation

20. Which of the following is a conflict resolution skill?

a. Accomodating

b. Active listening

c. Passive listening

d. Avoiding


1. (b) 2.(a) 3.(a) 4.(d) 5.(d)

6. (c) 7.(b) 8.(c) 9.(c) 10.(a)

11. (b) 12.(a) 13.(a) 14.(c) 15.(d)

16. (b) 17.(b) 18.(a) 19.(a) 20.(b)

Chapter-7: Small Groups Organizations


1. Indian small-scale industries (SSIs) are mostly …………..n small-scale industries.

a. modern

b. company

c. organization

d. None of these

2. The staff headcount is measured in annual work units (AWU)

a. True b. False

3. The small-scale sector are enormous due to the following factors:

a. Less Capital Intensive

b. Extensive Promotion and Support by Government

c. Reservation for Exclusive Manufacture by Small Scale Sector

d. a,b,c

4. Small-scale industrial (SSI) undertakings has changed over time.

a. True b. False

5. The small-scale industries sector plays a vital role in the ……………of the country.

a. position

b. growth

c. small

d. None of these

6. The small-scale sector are enormous due to the following factors:

a. Less Capital Intensive

b. Extensive Promotion and Support by Government

c. Reservation for Exclusive Manufacture by Small Scale Sector

d. a,b,c

7. Small scale industries are not at a distinct disadvantage as compared to large scale industries.

a. True b. False

8. ………is generally promoted and operated by a single person, who may not possess all the

managerial skills required to run the business.

a. small company

b. small business

c. small organization

d. None of these

9. “Group theory” appears to be one of the principal concerns of many political scientists, as well as

a major preoccupation of many sociologists and social psychologists.

a. True b. False

10. Raw materials are not available neither in sufficient quantity, nor of requisite quality, nor at

reasonable price.

a. True b. False

11. Which approach recognizes that there is no optimal organizational design?

a. Contingency

b. Boundless organizations

c. Flexible organizations

d. Virtual organizations

12. According to Burns and Stalker, which of the following is a feature of organic organizations?

a. A specific hierarchical structure

b. Prestige drawn from personal contribution

c. Emphasis on vertical communication channels

d. Knowledge requirement based on job

13. How did Lawrence and Lorsch refer to problems of trying to cope with varied environmental

demands from the same department or the same demands from different departments?

a. Integration failure

b. Differentiation errors

c. Insufficient collaboration

d. Cognitive and emotional conflict

14. Which key skill was not mentioned by Kanter as needed by managers of innovative

organizations?

a. Communicating

b. Team leading

c. Political

d. Coping

15. Which of the following is not true of span of control?

a. The technical content of jobs has little effect on the required span of control of supervisors.

b. High spans of control were found in supervision of line production.

c. It is the number of subordinates who report directly to a supervisor

d. The average span of control affects the number of managers.

16. How did Woodward come to suggest a normative theory about production organization?

a. Because different groups of firms had different organizational characteristics.

b. Because those with leaner, shorter hierarchies performed best.

c. Because the best-performing firms in each technological group had organizational

characteristics that were similar to each other.

d. Because it became clear that firms should adapt their organization to match process

technology.

17. Structure is the pattern of relationships among positions in the organization and among

members of the organization. Which of the following does structure make possible?

a. The planning, organizing, directing and controlling of the activities of the organization.

b. The application of the process of management.

c. The creation of a framework of order and command.

d. All of the above.

18. Which of the following functions may be described as 'task' functions?

a. Production.

b. Quality control.

c. Personnel.


19. Which of the following might be classified as functions of the ‘staff organization’ as opposed to

functions of the ‘line organization?

a. Computer support services.

b. Public relations.

c. Personnel.


20. Which three of the following terms best describe the three levels in a hierarchical structure?

a. Missionary level.

b. Co-ordination level, Objective level.

c. Technical level, Community level.

d. Managerial level, Community level, Technical level.


1. (a) 2.(a) 3.(d) 4.(a) 5.(b)

6. (d) 7.(b) 8.(b) 9.(a) 10.(b)

11. (a) 12.(b) 13.(b) 14.(a) 15.(a)

16. (c) 17.(d) 18.(a) 19.(d) 20.(d)

Chapter-8: Compensation and Rewards


1. Wages of security men in a production unit comes under :-

a. Indirect labour

b. labour

c. direct labour

d. None of these

2. In Payroll process, Cost of Living Index provides the basis for calculating………

a. A.P.

b. D.A.

c. P.A.

d. A.D.

3. Indirect compensation mainly acts as :-

a. Maintenance factor

b. labor

c. direct labor

d. None of these

4. To maintain best manpower in the organization, Management Incentive Plan based on the

individual performance is necessary.

a. True b. False

5. Payment to out workers is done on ________ basis.

a. Monthly

b. Day

c. Year

d. None of these

6. Compensation system should reduce ________.

a. Compensation structure

b. Employee turnover

c. Motivation

d. None of these

7. The wage and salary administration is concerned with the financial aspect of need, reward and….


b. Employee turnover

c. Motivation

d. None of these

8. Documents used for wage analysis are………….


b. internal equity

c. neutrality

d. Job cards , Wage sheets

9. Basic purpose of Wage and Salary administration is to establish and maintain an equitable :-

a. Wage and Salary structure

b. Compensation structure

c. Indirect compensation

d. Non-monetary compensation

10. Providing equal pay for jobs of equal nature based on job evaluation ensures _______ in

compensation administration.

a. external equity

b. internal equity

c. neutrality


11. Payment of cash rewards for the work extracted from the employee is normally called

a. direct compensation

b. indirect compensation

c. non-monetary compensation


12. Stock option and performance shares are examples of

a. base salary

b. short-term incentive plan

c. long-term incentive plan

d. All of the above

13. Performance-based annual bonuses are an example of

a. base salary

b. short-term incentive plan

c. long-term incentive plan

d. All of the above

14. Which of the following is the fixed component in compensation packages?

a. Profit-sharing

b. Base salary

c. Gain-sharing

d. Equity stock options

15. Which of the following theory states that the employees work hard in the job only when they are

sure of positive outcomes from that job?

a. Equity theory

b. Expectancy theory

c. Agency theory

d. Contingency theory

16. Wages which are usually positioned above the minimum wages but below the living wages are

described as

a. real wages

b. fair wages

c. minimum wages

d. living wages

17. Wages usually adjusted for the prevailing rate of inflation is called

a. real wages

b. fair wages

c. minimum wages

d. living wages

18. When there are several pay grades in a pay structure, it is called

a. traditional pay structure

b. broad-graded structure

c. job family structure


19. Which of the following factors is not an external influencing factor in wages and salary

administration?

a. Cost of living

b. Labor legislations

c. Labor market conditions

d. Ability to pay

20. Which of the following factors is not an external influencing factor in wages and salary

administration?

a. Capacity of the organization to pay

b. Corporate policies and philosophy

c. Performance evaluation report



1. (b) 2.(b) 3.(a) 4.(a) 5.(a)

6. (b) 7.(c) 8.(d) 9.(b) 10.(a)

11. (a) 12.(c) 13.(b) 14.(b) 15.(b)

16. (b) 17.(a) 18.(a) 19.(d) 20.(d)

Chapter-9: Individuals and Self Management


1. …………………means providing information and encouragement to help people maintain greater

control by understanding their condition and being able to monitor and take appropriate action.

a. Self-evaluation

b. Self-monitoring

c. Supporting self-management

d. None of these

2. Self-managed super cannot be extremely tax effective, and help with financial planning.

a. True b. False

3. Self-management means no charges from fund managers.

a. True b. False

4. ………………..is a term used to describe a form of organization in which the employees at the

operational level are given a number of tasks collectively which is traditionally carried out by

managers and staff members.

a. Self-evaluation

b. Self-monitoring

c. Self-managing teams

d. Self-managing superannuation

5. Training individuals to evaluate, monitor, and regulate themselves, they become responsible and

unaccountable for their own progress and performance, and essentially, become “self-managers”.

a. True b. False

6. ………………..refers to an individual’s belief in their capacity to successfully learn and perform a

specific behavior.

a. Self-efficacy

b. the Big Five model

c. Impact on Self-efficacy

d. None of these

7. Primarily management, will decide which tasks the ……………will carry out and which task will

remain with management or others in the organization.

a. self-managing teams

b. the Big Five model


d. None of these

8. Aptitude is the capacity to learn the ability. People differ in their abilities and aptitudes.

a. True b. False

9. Theory of individual based on the factors identified is known as……….

a. The Big Five model

b. Self-managing Team


d. None of these

10. The Big Five factors are

a. Extraversion

b. Self-managing Team


d. None of these

11. The individual’s ability to be open to any kind of experience that helps him or her to do the job

effectively is known as……..

a. Emotional Stability

b. Openness to Experience

c. Conscientiousness

d. None of these

12. Self-management is defined as efforts by an individual to control his or her own behavior.

(a) True (b) False

13. Which one is not a Factor influencing individual behavior?

(a) Abilities (b) Gender

(c) Perception (d) Motivation

14. The first and foremost skill of self-management refers to a personal ability to resist any

stressful situations.

(a) Stress-resistance (b) Problem Solving

(c) Communication (d) Both (a) and (b)

15. ………is the basic cognitive process that transforms sensory stimuli into meaningful

information.

(a) Attribution (b) Attitude

(c) Perception (d) Sensation Thinkers

(ST)

16. From what Theory is self-management training based from?

(a) Cognitive behavioral. (b) Psychodynamic.

(c) Social learning. (d) Social cognition.

17. Ignorance is an option in self managed superannuation.

(a) True (b) False

18. According to the proponents of big five theory, these five factors can be used to explain

possibly most of the differences in ……...

(a) human behavior (b) human personality

(c) human perception (d) creativity

19. ……….. exert significant influence when both workplace and society have considerable

diversity.

(a) Gender (b) Race and culture

(d) Abilities (d) None of these.

20. Attribution is the process of observing behavior and then determining its cause based on

individual’s personality or situation.

(a) True (b) False


1. (c) 2.(b) 3.(a) 4.(c) 5.(b)

6. (a) 7.(a) 8.(a) 9.(a) 10.(a)

11. (b) 12.(a) 13.(d) 14.(a) 15.(c)

16. (d) 17.(a) 18.(b) 19.(b) 20.(a)

Chapter-10: Handling Stress at Workplace


1. Workplace stress is seen as the entire process in which people perceive and interpret their work

environment in relation to their capability to cope with it.

a. True b. False

2. Stress is a normal physical response to events that make a person _______

a. Feel upset in some way

b. Happy

c. Excited

d. None of these

3. Most definitions of stress focus on

a. stressful events.

b. physiological changes.

c. emotional changes.

the relationship between the person and the environment.

4. Fight or flight response included which of the following physiological changes?

a. Increased blood flow to brain and large muscle groups

b. Pupils of the eye enlarge

c. Palms of the hands and feet sweat

d. All of the above

5. Which principal component in the general model of workplace stress relates to the employees'

perception of a situation?

a. Social support

b. Individual differences

c. Perception of job demands


6. Which extrinsic source of stress relates to a lack of feedback or erroneous feedback that is based on

a poor system of performance appraisal?

a. Lack of career progress

b. Poor employee appraisal and feedback

c. Rapid changes in pace and content of work

d. Role conflict and role ambiguity

7. Which extrinsic source of stress relates to an organization constantly trying new methods for

processing work?

a. Poor working conditions

b. Rapid changes in pace and content of work

c. Job control and responsibility

d. Work overload or work under load

8. Which organizational stressor relates to the impact produced by the establishment of unreachable

goals given the time allotted to complete them?

a. Hierarchical structure

b. Irrational deadlines

c. Technology

d. Size and management style

9. Which does not describe someone with a Type A personality?

a. Workaholic tendencies

b. Less likely to react in a hostile or aggressive manner

c. Impatience with anything that interferes with goal attainment

d. Constant feeling of time urgency

10. Which individual stress management technique refers to an activity from which a person derives

enjoyment?

a. Leisure activities

b. Cognitive restructuring

c. Relaxation training

d. Time management

11. Stress can be defined as a negative emotional experience accompanied by

a. biochemical and physiological changes.

b. cognitive changes.

c. behavioral changes.

d. all of the above.

12. As related to sources of stress, job context is intrinsic in nature, whereas job content is extrinsic.

a. True b. False

13. When the performance expectations of an employee are incompatible or confusing the employee

may experience role ambiguity.

a. True b. False

14. Job rotation is defined as movement from one position to another on the same level and can

reduce the stress associated with boredom and under-promotion.

a. True b. False

15. Which of the following could be considered a stressor?

a. noise

b. crowding

c. commuting to work

d. all of the above

16. Stress response can save our life by going us ............. to defend ourselves.

a. Fear

b. Extra strength

c. Challenges

d. None of these

17. Stress stops helping beyond a certain point and starts...........

a. Causing one to mature

b. Causing major changes

c. Causing major damage to one's health

d. None of these

18. Chromic stress leads to .............

a. Serious health related problems

b. A healthy life

c. A happy life

d. None of these

19. The situation that causes stress are known as ..........

a. Obesity

b. Stressors

c. Stress response

d. None of these

20. The stress of the bodies reaction to danger is human as .............

a. Energy

b. Stress response

c. Imaginary

d. None of these


1. (a) 2.(a) 3.(d) 4.(d) 5.(c)

6. (b) 7.(b) 8.(b) 9.(b) 10.(a)

11. (d) 12.(b) 13.(a) 14.(a) 15.(d)

16. (c) 17.(b) 18.(a) 19.(b) 20.(c)