CCNA3 Final

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator noticed that the VLAN configuration changes at SW2 did not propagate to SW3. On the basis of the partial output of the show vtp status command, what is the possible cause of the problem?

VTP V2 mode is disabled.

SW3 is configured as transparent mode.

The number of existing VLANs does not match.

The configuration revision number does not match.

2

Refer to the exhibit. Which route will appear in the routing table?

R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/1] via 10.10.10.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/1





3What will be the two wildcard masks required in an extended access list

statement that blocks traffic to host 192.168.5.45 from the 172.16.240.0/27 network? (Choose two.)

0.0.0.0

255.255.240.0

255.255.255.255

0.0.31.255

255.255.255.240

0.0.0.31

4Which bandwidth allocation technique minimizes bandwidth waste by reallocating unused time slices to communicating users?

VPN

NCP

TDM

STP

STDM

5Which two statements are true about RIPv1 and RIPv2? (Choose two.)

Both versions broadcast updates on port 520.

Both versions send the subnet mask as part of the update.

By default, both versions will receive RIPv1 and RIPv2 updates.

Both versions support the features of split horizon and poison reverse.

By default, both versions automatically summarize routes.

RIPv1 has a higher AD than RIPv2 has.

6

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator must manually summarize all IP addresses on the POP router for the ISP. Which one is the correct summary address?

192.168.0.0/22

192.168.0.0/23

192.168.0.0/24

192.168.0.0/25

7After comparing a previous baseline to current network statistics, the network engineer has discovered a significant increase in unwarranted traffic to the extranet. Which two steps simplify administration and control the unwanted traffic? (Choose two.)

define an ACL at the distribution layer to isolate packets

add an ACL at the router in the enterprise edge to block the traffic

deploy a Layer 3 switch to contain broadcasts

connect remote locations directly to the intranet

configure all hosts with the same default gateway to eliminate unnecessary broadcasts

deploy one core ISP router to reduce the delay in path determination

8What do companies gain from the services performed at the enterprise edge?

faster communication with server farms

stronger security against malicious attacks

faster communication with Internet destinations

enhanced performance and reliability through VLANs and redundant trunk links

9

Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be gathered from the output of this command? (Choose two.)

172.16.16.0/20 is a manually summarized route.

All subnets are being advertised because default summarization was disabled.

The output verifies that EIGRP is advertising only the networks in the same AS.

The 172.16.1.0/24 network is directly attached to the router that produced this output.

The Null0 interface indicates that this is not an actual path, but a summary for advertising purposes.

10

Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the RIPv1 routing protocol is enabled and that all networks are being advertised, which statement is true?

All packets from H1 that are destined to H2 will arrive at H2.

None of the packets from H1 that are destined to H2 will arrive at H2.

Approximately half the traffic from H1 that is destined to H2 will reach R3.

Some of the packets from H1 that are destined to H2 will be sent to the switch that is connected to network 192.168.3.64/26.

11Which statement is accurate about the CIR in Frame Relay?

It is important to purchase a CIR that matches the highest bandwidth requirements of the enterprise.

The CIR can be no lower than the port speed of the local loop.

The CIR defines the contracted maximum rate available from the service provider on the Frame Relay circuit.

It is possible to burst over the CIR if bandwidth is available.

12What are two characteristics of an extended ACL? (Choose two.)

IP is used to specify TCP traffic only.

IP is used to specify TCP and UDP traffic only.

IP is used to specify all TCP/IP protocols including TCP, UDP, ICMP and routing protocols.

Traffic can be filtered on source address only.

Traffic can be filtered on source and destination address only.

Traffic can be filtered on source and destination address, protocol, and specific port number.

13

Refer to the exhibit. In what sequence (from first to last) does an OSPF router check the parameters listed when selecting the DR?

C, B, A, D

D, C, B, A

A, B, C, D

A, C, B, D

B, C, A, D

14

Refer to the exhibit. What three facts represent the result of DR and BDR elections in this OSPF network? (Choose three.)

RTC will be the DR of 10.5.0.0/30.

RTD will be the BDR of 10.5.0.0/30.

RTD will be the DR of 10.4.0.0/28.

RTB will be the BDR of 10.7.0.0/28.

RTB will be the DR of 10.7.0.0/28.

RTA will be the BDR of 10.4.0.0/28.

15Which two statements describe how the information contained in a BPDU is used by a switch? (Choose two.)

to set the duplex mode of a redundant link

to activate looped paths throughout the network

to determine the root bridge

to prevent loops by sharing routing tables between connected switches

to determine which ports are placed in forwarding mode

16If a modem is being used to connect to an ISP, which WAN connection type is being used?

leased line

cell switched

circuit switched

packet switched

17

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator enters the command ip route 10.10.4.16 255.255.255.248 s0/0/1 into the router. What will be the result of this configuration?

A static route pointing to 10.10.4.16/29 is placed into the routing table.

A static route to 10.10.4.16/29 is placed into the routing table if interface FastEthernet0/1 goes down.

A static route pointing to 10.10.4.16/29 is only placed into the routing table if the route to 10.10.4.0 is removed.

A static route is not placed into the routing table because a RIP route that includes the destination network already exists.

18

Refer to the exhibit. What is represented by the Null0 route for the 128.107.0.0 network?

a child route that is defined

a parent route that is defined and sourced from a physical interface

a summary route for advertising purposes, not an actual path

the result of the no auto-summary command on a router

19What are two ways VLAN memberships can be created in an enterprise network? (Choose two.)

manually configuring the switch ports to be part of a VLAN

allowing the user to choose a specific VLAN through a GUI menu

configuring the switch to allow VLAN membership based on NetBIOS association

implementing an access list that specifies which devices are placed into specific VLANs.

associating MAC addresses to specific VLANs in a VLAN management policy server database

manually configuring the host devices to be part of a VLAN

20If an authentication protocol is configured for PPP operation, when is the client or user workstation authenticated?

prior to link establishment

during the link establishment phase

before the network layer protocol configuration begins

after the network layer protocol configuration has ended

21

Refer to the exhibit. R1 is connected to the Internet through its serial 0/0/0 interface. Hosts on the 192.168.100.0/24 LAN on R1 cannot communicate with hosts on the Internet. What two NAT configuration issues might explain this failure? (Choose two.)

The ip nat pool command has not been applied correctly.

The inside interface has not been defined on R1.

The access list does not include the group of IP addresses that are supported by the inside network.

The ip address that is assigned to the serial 0/0/0 interface is incorrect.

The outside interface has not been defined on R1.

22A network administrator wants to deny responses to ping requests. Which

ACL statement denies ping responses while not affecting other traffic?

access-list 123 deny tcp any any eq 80



access-list 123 deny icmp any any echo-reply

access-list 101 deny tcp any any established

23

Refer to the exhibit. Which IP addressing scheme would be correct for the network?

H1-172.18.0.10/16H2-172.18.0.11/16H3-172.18.0.12/16

H1-172.18.0.10/16H2-172.19.0.10/16H3-172.18.0.11/16

H1-172.18.0.10/16H2-172.18.0.11/16H3-172.19.0.11/16

H1-172.18.0.10/16H2-172.19.0.11/16

H3-172.19.0.11/16

24

Refer to the exhibit. Internet access is crucial for the company network shown. Internet access is provided by two ISPs. ISP1 is the primary provider and ISP2 is the backup provider. The network administrator configures BorderR as the border router so that in normal operations, all Internet traffic goes through ISP1. However, if the link to ISP1 fails, then BorderR will automatically forward Internet traffic to ISP2. The administrator configures two default routes:

BorderR(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.100.1 200BorderR(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.1.1

However, when the administrator issued the show ip route command to verify the configuration, only the second default route is in the routing table. Why is the first default route not showing?

The first configuration command overwrites the second command.

The first default route will be installed into the routing table if there is traffic with an IP address that is destined for the 192.168.100.0 network.

This is expected because the link to ISP1 is active. If the link to ISP1 goes down, then the first default route will be installed into the routing table.

The first default route cannot be installed into the routing table unless the administrator manually disables the second default route with the no ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.1.1 command.

25Which command should a network administrator issue to disable default summarization in an EIGRP network?

Router(config-router)# null 0 route

Router(config-if)# no ip summary-address

Router(config-router)# no ip summary-address

Router(config-if)# no auto-summary

Router(config-router)# no auto-summary

26The headquarters of a corporation uses static routes to connect to three branch offices. What are two advantages of using static routes for the WAN connections? (Choose two.)

Static routes are more secure.

Static routes converge faster.

Static routes have higher administrative distances than dynamic routing protocols.

The metrics of a static route need adjusting only if the bandwidth of the WAN connection changes.

They are more stable and less susceptible to network changes in the

interior gateway protocol.

27What two statements are true regarding EIGRP tables? (Choose two.)

A feasible successor route can be found in the topology table.

A successor route can only be found in the routing table.

The topology table shows whether a route is in the passive or active state.

The routing table shows the amount of time elapsed since a router adjacency was formed.

The neighbor table shows all adjacent Cisco devices.

Administrative distance is shown as a column in the neighbor table.

28

Refer to the exhibit. A company has recently installed a new switch (S2) into their network. After several minutes, the network administrator notices that the new VLAN information is not being propagated to the new switch. Given the show vtp status command output, what is the possible problem that prevents the information from being received by the new switch?

VTP version mismatch

VTP domain name mismatch

VTP revision number mismatch

time synchronization problems

29

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is adding a new router to the network. The IP address 192.168.13.6/30 has been assigned to the connecting serial interface on R2. What IP address must the administrator assign to the serial interface of the new router?

192.168.13.4/30

192.168.13.5/30

192.168.13.7/30

192.168.13.58/30

192.168.13.61/27

192.168.13.63/27

30

Refer to the exhibit. A network support technician has been asked to set an IP address on one of the FastEthernet interfaces on a new router. What is causing the interface to reject the address?

The IP address is already in use.

The technician is using a network address.

The technician is using the wrong subnet mask for /26.

The technician must enable VLSM on the interface.

31Why would a network administrator want to limit the size of failure domains when designing a network?

to eliminate the effects of Ethernet collisions

to reduce the impact of a key device or service failure

to reduce the impact of Internet congestion on critical traffic

to eliminate the need to block broadcast packets at the edge of the local network

32

Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 is configured in the network shown. Hosts in the network have access to all internal networks but do not have Internet access. On which router should the commands, shown in the exhibit, be added to provide Internet access for all hosts in the network?

R1

R2

R3

ISP

33

Refer to the exhibit. If R4 is announcing all shown internal networks as a summary address to the ISP, which summary address will be most specific?

192.168.1.0/22

192.168.4.0/21

192.168.6.0/23

192.168.8.0/21

192.168.4.0/22

34When MD5 authentication is used for OSPF routing protocol authentication, what two facts are known about the key? (Choose two.)

The key passes between routers in plain text.

The key is used to help generate an encrypted number for authentication.

The key passes between routers in encrypted form.

The key is never transmitted.

The key can be captured by using a packet sniffer.

35What are two benefits of implementing VLANs in an enterprise network? (Choose two.)

eliminates the need for a Layer 3 device

provides segmentation of broadcast domains

allows for the propagation of broadcasts from one local network to another

allows for the logical grouping of devices despite physical location

prevents issues such as broadcast storms by ensuring a loop free environment

36

Refer to the exhibit. Because of continuing instability of one of the serial links in the OSPF network, a network administrator configures router ASBR as shown. Which two statements will be a result of this configuration? (Choose two.)

Traffic intended for destinations across unstable serial links will be forwarded by ASBR even when the links are down.

A summary route of 192.168.0.0/22 will be advertised to the ISP router.

Serial links in range 192.168.0.0 255.255.252.0 will be forced into a passive state.

Networks connected to the unstable serial links will be placed in an unreachable state.

Negative effects of route flapping will be reduced.

37

Refer to the exhibit. OSPF is enabled and the network has completely converged. Which two routers will be designated as DROTHER routers? (Choose two.)

R1

R2

R3

R4

38

Refer to the exhibit. Users on the 172.30.20.0/24 network are unable to access any of the servers located on the 192.168.0.0/23 network. Given the network topology and OSPF configuration, what two problems exist in this network? (Choose two.)

There is a routing loop occurring between all three routers.

There is a network statement missing.

Network 172.30.20.0 has an incorrect wildcard mask.

The OSPF Area configuration is incorrect.

/23 is an invalid subnet mask for the 192.168.0.0 network.

39Which two statements are true about the native VLAN on a switch? (Choose two.)

It requires a special VLAN ID tag.

It is unable to be changed to a different VLAN.

Untagged traffic slows the switching process down.

The native VLAN defaults to VLAN 1 on Cisco Catalyst switches.

Untagged frames that are received on a trunk become members of this VLAN.

40In which VTP mode can a switch create VLANs, ignore VTP messages, and not pass local VLAN information to other VTP domain members?

client

server

pruning

transparent

41Assuming VLSM is not being used, what impact will adding the command ip route 172.16.64.0 255.255.240.0 serial0/0 have on a router that is already operational in a network?

All packets with a destination address between 172.16.64.1 and 172.16.80.254 will be forwarded out serial0/0.




42

What is the term for the value 2172416 that is highlighted in the output of the show ip eigrp topology command?

feasible distance of the successor

reported distance of the successor

feasible distance of the feasible successor

reported distance of the feasible successor

43

Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are connected via serial interfaces. Both interfaces show that there is Layer 2 connectivity between them. The administrator verifies that CDP is operational; however, pings between the two interfaces are unsuccessful. What is the cause of this connectivity problem?

no set loopback

incorrect subnet mask on R2

incompatible bandwidth

incorrect IP address on R1

incompatible encapsulation

44Which two statements are true regarding a PPP connection between two Cisco routers? (Choose two.)

LCP tests the quality of the link.

LCP manages compression on the link.

Only a single NCP is allowed between the two routers.

NCP terminates the link when data exchange is complete.

With CHAP authentication, the routers exchange plain text passwords.

45

Refer to the exhibit. All routes in the exhibit are available to a router. Which two routes will be placed into the routing table? (Choose two.)

A

B

C

D

E

F

46Which two criteria are used by STP to select a root bridge? (Choose two.)

memory size

bridge priority

number of ports

switch location

switching speed

base MAC address

47

Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be drawn from the displayed output? (Choose two.)

A packet with a destination IP address of 172.20.1.14 will exit the router via the Serial 0/1/0 interface.

The default administrative distance for EIGRP has been changed.

Network 172.20.1.4 can be reached through two possible routes of equal

cost.

The addresses on this network were created using VLSM.

The router connected to Serial 0/1/1 is advertising four separate routes through EIGRP to this router.

48

Refer to the exhibit. The network is using OSPF as the routing protocol. A network administrator issues the show ip ospf neighbor command to check the status of operation. Which statement is true?

RB has the lowest priority value.

RC and RD have the lowest router IDs on the network.

RA has established adjacencies with all neighbor routers.

RA and RB can not form an adjacency because they are stuck in the 2-way state.

49

Refer to the exhibit. If router RTA fails, which statement is true?

Hosts A and B can reach each other, but cannot reach hosts C and D or the server.

No host can reach any other host.

Hosts A, B, C, and D can reach each other, but cannot reach the server.

All hosts can reach each other.

50

Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that all three routers are configured with the EIGRP routing protocol and sharing information, what information can be gathered from the show command output?

Router B has EIGRP adjacencies with both router A and C.

Router B has a fully converged topology table.

Router B has not formed an adjacency with router A.

Router B has not formed an adjacency with router C.

51A sales representative is preparing to send sensitive information to corporate headquarters from a hotel room using the Internet. Prior to the trip, the IT staff made the necessary provisions to allow secure Internet access. What solution was implemented for the sales representative?

VPN

Frame Relay

PPP with CHAP authentication

PPP with PAP authentication

52

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator wishes to deny Internet access to all R2 LAN hosts, while allowing these hosts to reach all other devices on the company networks. Where should the ACL shown in the exhibit be placed to meet these requirements?

R2: Fa0/0 inbound

R1: S0/1/0 outbound

R1: S0/0/1 inbound

R2: S0/0/1 outbound

R2: Fa0/0 outbound

53Which three statements are true about RSTP? (Choose three.)

RSTP can fall back to STP to provide support for legacy equipment.

RSTP and STP have the same number of port states.

Like PortFast and UplinkFast, RSTP is a proprietary protocol.

RSTP takes up to 50 seconds to converge.

RSTP requires a point-to-point, full-duplex connection.

RSTP views all ports that are not discarding as part of an active topology.

54A company is using a Class B IP addressing scheme and expects to need as many as 150 networks. What is the correct subnet mask to use with the network configuration?

255.255.0.0

255.255.240.0

255.255.254.0

255.255.255.0

255.255.255.128

255.255.255.192

55A sales representative is using a wireless connection to make a VoIP call. Which protocol will be used to transport the voice packets?

TCP

UDP

PPP

HDLC

56

Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command: RouterA(config)# access-list 1 permit 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255?

It identifies traffic on all inside interfaces to be translated and given access to the ISP router.

It identifies traffic from the fa0/1 interface to be translated and given access to the ISP router.

It allows traffic from the ISP to reach all of the inside interfaces.

It identifies traffic from the fa0/0 interface to be translated and given access to the ISP router.

It allows traffic from the ISP router to the fa0/1 interface.

57

Refer to the exhibit. Server7 has been added to the server farm network.

The hosts can ping Servers 2 and 3 and Server2 and Server3 can ping each other. Server7 cannot ping the other servers connected to the switch. What is the cause of this problem?

The Fa0/1 port on the switch should be in access mode.

The switch IP address is not on the same subnet as Server7.

The switch port used for Server7 is not in the same VLAN as Server2 and Server3.

The Fa0/0 interface of the router has not been configured for subinterfaces to support inter-VLAN routing.

58Which three IP addresses are valid host addresses in the 10.200.0.0/20 network? (Choose three.)

10.200.11.69

10.200.16.1

10.200.0.255

10.201.0.55

10.200.15.240

10.200.30.29

Exam Viewer - DRSEnt Final - CCNA Discovery: Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise (Version4.0)31.

Refer to the exhibit. Which route will be added to the routing table of R1 as a result of running the commands displayed?D 192.168.0.0/24 is a summary, Null0D 192.168.0.0/22 is a summary, Null0D 192.168.0.0/24 [90/203010] via 10.1.1.2, 00:00:10, Serial0/0/0D 192.168.0.0/22 [90/203010] via 10.1.1.2, 00:00:10, Serial0/0/0

Scoring Rule For:correctness of response

2 points for Option 2

0 points for any other option

Max Value = 2

32. What is the difference between the passive and active route status as displayed in an EIGRP topology table?

Routes that are passive are never updated.

Routes that are active are used to forward data.

Routes that are active are being recalculated by DUAL.

Routes that are passive are waiting for the neighbor adjacency process to

completeScoring Rule For:correctness of response

2 points for Option 30 points for any other option

Max Value = 2

33. What are three correct host addresses in the 172.16.0.0/17 network? (Choose three.)

172.16.0.255

172.16.16.16

172.16.127.127

172.16.128.1

172.17.1.1

172.18.1.1

Scoring Rule For:correctness of responseOption 1, Option 2, and Option 3 are correct.

1 point for each correct option.0 points if more options are selected than required.

Max Value = 3

34.

Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 and Switch2 are connected to each other via a trunk link that has been tested and is working properly. Whyis VTP unable to propagate VLANs from one switch to the other?

The revision number is different on both switches.

Both switches are in server mode.

The VTP domain name is different on both switches.

The VTP pruning mode is disabled.Scoring Rule For:correctness of response


0 points for any other optionMax Value = 2

35. What are two reasons for assigning switch ports to different VLANs? (Choose two.)

They increase network security.

They facilitate VTP implementation.

They decrease the size of the collision domain.

They make more physical connections to the network possible.

They logically group hosts according to their function.Scoring Rule For:correctness of response

Option 1 and Option 5 are correct.1 point for each correct option.

0 points if more options are selected than required.Max Value = 2

36. Which statement describes a PVC?

A PVC provides a permanent logical connection to forward data between

two points.

A PVC is dynamically established when a router requests a transmission.

A PVC prevents small messages from being held up behind larger

messages.

A PVC requires call set-up information to be sent before transmitting any

data.Scoring Rule For:correctness of response


Max Value = 2

37. What are two benefits of using ACLs? (Choose two.)

They provide IP filtering.

They reduce the processing load on the router.

They simplify the configuration of inter-VLAN routing.

They prevent routing loops and facilitate convergence.

They identify traffic for multiple uses such as QoS and NAT.Scoring Rule For:correctness of response



38.

Refer to the exhibit. OSPF is enabled and the network is fully converged. Which two routers will be designated as the DR and BDR, if allthe routers are booted at the same time? (Choose two.)

R1 will be the DR.

R4 will be the DR.

R5 will be the DR.

R2 will be the BDR.

R3 will be the BDR.

R4 will be the BDR.Scoring Rule For:correctness of response



39. What are two advantages of using dynamic routing protocols in a network? (Choose two.)

They adapt to topological changes.

They are more secure than static routes.

They eliminate the need for default routes.

They have lower administrative distances than static routes.

They enable routers to share information about the reachability and status

of remote networks.Scoring Rule For:correctness of response



40.

Refer to the exhibit. Which Telnet session will be blocked as a result of the displayed commands?

the session from host A to host B

the session from host B to hosts C and D

the session from host B to hosts E and F

the session from host E and host F to host A and host BScoring Rule For:correctness of response


Max Value = 2

41.

Refer to the exhibit. What information can be determined from the exhibited command?

The command specifies how traffic will be routed to the 10.1.1.2 host.

It will set the default route in the routing table.

This route has an administrative distance of 1.

If a dynamic routing protocol with default parameters is configured on this

router, this route will not be installed in the routing table.Scoring Rule For:correctness of response


Max Value = 242.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of configuring the newly installed R1 with the exhibited command?It will set the gateway of last resort for R1.It will configure the IP address 10.1.1.2 on one interface of R1.It configures the router to forward traffic that is destined for the 192.168.1.128/26 network through the interface with IP address10.1.1.2.It configures a static route for all packets with the source network address 192.168.1.128/26.

Scoring Rule For:correctness of response2 points for Option 3

0 points for any other option

43.Which two STP states allow a switch to learn MAC addresses? (Choose two.)

blocking

listening

learning

disabled

forwardingScoring Rule For:correctness of response



44.

Refer to the exhibit. All switches are configured with default bridge priority. Which two ports will be STP root ports if all links areoperating at the same bandwidth? (Choose two.)

Fa0/1 interface of switch AFa0/2 interface of switch AFa0/1 interface of

switch BFa0/2 interface of switch BFa0/1 interface of switch CFa0/2

interface of switch CScoring Rule For:correctness of response



45. Which two statements are true about untagged frames on a switch? (Choose two.)

An untagged frame cannot pass through access ports.

An untagged frame cannot pass through trunk ports.

All frames that pass through trunk ports are untagged frames.

Untagged frames minimize the delays that are associated with inspection of

the VLAN ID tag.

Untagged frames that are received on an 802.1Q trunk port are members

of the native VLAN.Scoring Rule For:correctness of response



46. Which three statements relate to PPP encapsulation and CHAP authentication? (Choose three.)

CHAP sends passwords in clear text.

CHAP uses repeated challenges for verification.

PPP encapsulation is configured in interface mode.

CHAP uses a 2-way handshake to establish a link.

PPP encapsulation is the default for serial interfaces on Cisco routers.

CHAP uses a challenge/response that is based on the MD5 hash

algorithm.Scoring Rule For:correctness of responseOption 2, Option 3, and Option 6 are correct.

1 point for each correct option.0 points if more options are selected than required.

Max Value = 3

47.

Refer to the exhibit. Which VTP function will this switch perform?

It will create, change, and delete VLANs.

It will send VTP messages to other attached switches.

It will ignore information that is contained in the VTP message.

It will retain its original database when it receives updates from the server.Scoring Rule For:correctness of response


Max Value = 2

48. An organization is planning to expand by adding five new branches. After the expansion, it will require secured, full-time, andsimultaneous connectivity for its new branch offices with the central office. There is only one port available on the central office router.Which WAN technology can be used in this situation?PPP

ISDN

Frame Relay

analog dialupScoring Rule For:correctness of response


Max Value = 2

49.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of assigning the IP address 192.168.30.1 to an access layer switch?

to assign a default gateway to the hosts that are connected to the switch

to allow hosts on the same LAN to connect to each other

to allow remote management of the switch

to allow inter-VLAN communicationScoring Rule For:correctness of response


Max Value = 2

50. Which two statements correctly describe RSTP? (Choose two.)

It is a Cisco proprietary protocol.

It recalculates the spanning tree in less than 1 second.

It requires the PortFast and UplinkFast features on switch ports.

It supports four states: blocking, listening, learning, and forwarding.

It requires a full-duplex, point-to-point connection between switches to

achieve the highest recalculation speed.Scoring Rule For:correctness of response

Option 2 and Option 5 are correct.

1 point for each correct option.


51.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has implemented NAT on R1. Which two addresses are valid inside global addresses?(Choose two.)

192.168.1.1

192.168.1.2

198.133.219.1

198.133.219.102

198.133.219.103Scoring Rule For:correctness of response


52. Which two statements correctly describe RIPv1 and RIPv2? (Choose two.)

Both broadcast their entire routing table from all participating interfaces to

255.255.255.255.

Both advertise their routing updates out all active interfaces every 30

seconds.

Both have the same administrative distance value of 120.

Both can turn off automatic summarization.

Both support VLSM and CIDR.Scoring Rule For:correctness of response


53.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct description of the highlighted address?

It is the address of the destination network.

It is the routerID of the neighboring router.

It is the next hop address of the feasible successor.

It is the IP address of the serial0/0/0 interface of RouterC.Scoring Rule For:correctness of response

2 points for Option 354.

Refer to the exhibit. R1 is using the default OSPF operation. Which IP address will be used as the router ID of R1?

192.168.201.1

172.16.1.1

10.10.10.1



55. Which Frame Relay component provides connection status information about PVCs in the network?CIRLMIDLCIFECN

Scoring Rule For:correctness of response2 points for Option 2

56.

Refer to the exhibit. None of the hosts in network A are able to access the Internet. How can this problem be resolved?

Configure dynamic NAT instead of PAT.

Configure the access list for the correct network.

Include theip nat pool command in the configuration.

Configure theip nat inside command on the correct interface.Scoring Rule For:correctness of response

2 points for Option 257. Which two wildcard masks are required in an extended access list statement that blocks the traffic from host 172.16.1.2 to network192.168.1.0/25? (Choose two.)

255.255.255.255

0.0.0.255

0.0.0.128

0.0.0.127



CCNA3 Final

Documents

tcp traffic

udp traffic

unwarranted traffic

unwanted traffic

network administrator

ospf network

network engineer

ospf router