Cisco CCNA Security, chapter 1 Exam. Questions and answers 100% correct. 1. What are the basic phases of attack that can be used by a virus or worm in sequential order? paralyze, probe, penetrate, persist, and propagate probe, penetrate, persist, propagate, and paralyze penetrate, persist, propagate, paralyze, and probe persist, propagate, paralyze, probe, and penetrate 2. Which two are characteristics of DoS attacks? (Choose two.) They always precede access attacks. They attempt to compromise the availability of a network, host, or application. They are difficult to conduct and are initiated only by very skilled attackers. They are commonly launched with a tool called L0phtCrack. Examples include smurf attacks and ping of death attacks. 3. Users report to the helpdesk that icons usually seen on the menu bar are randomly appearing on their computer screens. What could be a reason that computers are displaying these random graphics? An access attack has occurred. A virus has infected the computers. A DoS attack has been launched against the network. The computers are subject to a reconnaissance attack. 4. What are three types of access attacks? (Choose three.) buffer overflow ping sweep port redirection trust exploitation port scan Internet information query 5. What occurs during a spoofing attack? One device falsifies data to gain access to privileged information. Large amounts of network traffic are sent to a target device to make resources unavailable to intended users. Improperly formatted packets are forwarded to a target device to cause the target system to crash.
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Cisco CCNA Security, chapter 1 Exam.
Questions and answers 100% correct.
1. What are the basic phases of attack that can be used by a virus or worm in sequential order?
paralyze, probe, penetrate, persist, and propagate
probe, penetrate, persist, propagate, and paralyze
penetrate, persist, propagate, paralyze, and probe
persist, propagate, paralyze, probe, and penetrate
2. Which two are characteristics of DoS attacks? (Choose two.)
They always precede access attacks.
They attempt to compromise the availability of a network, host, or application.
They are difficult to conduct and are initiated only by very skilled attackers.
They are commonly launched with a tool called L0phtCrack.
Examples include smurf attacks and ping of death attacks.
3. Users report to the helpdesk that icons usually seen on the menu bar are randomly appearing
on their computer screens. What could be a reason that computers are displaying these random
graphics?
An access attack has occurred.
A virus has infected the computers.
A DoS attack has been launched against the network.
The computers are subject to a reconnaissance attack.
4. What are three types of access attacks? (Choose three.)
buffer overflow
ping sweep
port redirection
trust exploitation
port scan
Internet information query
5. What occurs during a spoofing attack?
One device falsifies data to gain access to privileged information.
Large amounts of network traffic are sent to a target device to make resources unavailable
to intended users.
Improperly formatted packets are forwarded to a target device to cause the target system to
crash.
A program writes data beyond the allocated memory to enable the execution of malicious
code.
6. What is a characteristic of a Trojan Horse?
A Trojan Horse can be carried in a virus or worm.
A proxy Trojan Horse opens port 21 on the target system.
An FTP Trojan Horse stops anti-virus programs or firewalls from functioning.
A Trojan Horse can be hard to detect because it closes when the application that launched
it closes.
7. Which phase of worm mitigation requires compartmentalization and segmentation of the
network to slow down or stop the worm and prevent currently infected hosts from targeting
and infecting other systems?
containment phase
inoculation phase
quarantine phase
treatment phase
8. Which two statements are characteristics of a virus? (Choose two.)
A virus typically requires end-user activation.
A virus has an enabling vulnerability, a propagation mechanism, and a payload.
A virus replicates itself by independently exploiting vulnerabilities in networks.
A virus provides the attacker with sensitive data, such as passwords.
A virus can be dormant and then activate at a specific time or date.
9. What is a ping sweep?
A ping sweep is a network scanning technique that indicates the live hosts in a range of IP
addresses.
A ping sweep is a software application that enables the capture of all network packets sent
across a LAN.
A ping sweep is a scanning technique that examines a range of TCP or UDP port numbers
on a host to detect listening services.
A ping sweep is a query and response protocol that identifies information about a domain,
including the addresses assigned to that domain.
10. Which type of security threat can be described as software that attaches to another program
to execute a specific unwanted function?
virus
worm
proxy Trojan horse
Denial of Service Trojan horse
11. A disgruntled employee is using Wireshark to discover administrative Telnet usernames and
passwords. What type of network attack does this describe?
Denial of Service
port redirection
reconnaissance
trust exploitation
12. What occurs during the persist phase of a worm attack?
identification of vulnerable targets
modification of system files and registry settings to ensure that the attack code is running
transfer of exploit code through an attack vector
extension of the attack to vulnerable neighboring targets
13. What are the three major components of a worm attack? (Choose three.)
enabling vulnerability
infecting vulnerability
payload
penetration mechanism
probing mechanism
propagation mechanism
14. A network administrator detects unknown sessions involving port 21 on the network. What
could be causing this security breach?
An FTP Trojan Horse is executing.
A reconnaissance attack is occurring.
A denial of service attack is occurring.
Cisco Security Agent is testing the network.
15. What are three goals of a port scan attack? (Choose three.)
disable used ports and services
determine potential vulnerabilities
identify active services
identify peripheral configurations
identify operating systems
discover system passwords
16. How is a Smurf attack conducted?
by sending a large number of packets, overflowing the allocated buffer memory of the
target device
by sending an echo request in an IP packet larger than the maximum packet size of
65,535 bytes
by sending a large number of ICMP requests to directed broadcast addresses from a
spoofed source address on the same network
by sending a large number of TCP SYN packets to a target device from a spoofed source
address
17. Which access attack method involves a software program attempting to discover a system
password by using an electronic dictionary?
buffer overflow attack
port redirection attack
Denial of Service attack
brute-force attack
IP spoofing attack
packet sniffer attack
18 Which two network security solutions can be used to mitigate DoS attacks? (Choose two.)
virus scanning
data encryption
anti-spoofing technologies
intrusion protection systems
applying user authentication
19. Which phase of worm mitigation involves terminating the worm process, removing modified
files or system settings that the worm introduced, and patching the vulnerability that the
worm used to exploit the system?
containment
inoculation
quarantine
treatment
20. Which characteristic best describes the network security Compliance domain as specified by
the ISO/IEC?
the integration of security into applications
an inventory and classification scheme for information assets
the restriction of access rights to networks, systems, applications, functions, and data
the process of ensuring conformance with security information policies, standards, and
regulations
21. Which statement describes phone freaking?
A hacker uses password-cracking programs to gain access to a computer via a dialup
account.
A hacker gains unauthorized access to networks via wireless access points.
A hacker mimics a tone using a whistle to make free long-distance calls on an analog
telephone network.
A hacker uses a program that automatically scans telephone numbers within a local area,
dialing each one in search of computers, bulletin board systems, and fax machines.
22. Which two statements describe access attacks? (Choose two.)
Port redirection attacks use a network adapter card in promiscuous mode to capture all
network packets that are sent across a LAN.
Password attacks can be implemented using brute-force attack methods, Trojan Horses, or
packet sniffers.
Buffer overflow attacks write data beyond the allocated buffer memory to overwrite valid
data or exploit systems to execute malicious code.
Port scanning attacks scan a range of TCP or UDP port numbers on a host to detect
listening services.
Trust exploitation attacks can use a laptop acting as a rogue access point to capture and
copy all network traffic in a public location on a wireless hotspot.
Cisco CCNA Security, chapter 2 Exam.
Questions and answers 100% correct.
1
.
Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be gathered from the generated
message? (Choose two.)
This message is a level five notification message.
This message appeared because a minor error occurred requiring further investigation.
This message appeared because a major error occurred requiring immediate action.
This message indicates that service timestamps have been globally enabled.
This message indicates that enhanced security was configured on the vty ports.
2. By default, how many seconds of delay between virtual login attempts is invoked when the
login block-for command is configured?
one
two
three
four
five
3.
Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are connected via a serial link. One router is
configured as the NTP master, and the other is an NTP client. Which two pieces of
information can be obtained from the partial output of the show ntp associations detail
command on R2? (Choose two.)
Both routers are configured to use NTPv2.
Router R1 is the master, and R2 is the client.
Router R2 is the master, and R1 is the client.
The IP address of R1 is 192.168.1.2.
The IP address of R2 is 192.168.1.2.
4. What are two characteristics of the SDM Security Audit wizard? (Choose two.)
It uses interactive dialogs and prompts to implement AAA.
It automatically enables Cisco IOS firewall and implements Cisco IOS IPS security
configurations to secure the router.
It displays a screen with Fix-it check boxes to let you choose which potential security-
related configuration changes to implement.
It requires users to first identify which router interfaces connect to the inside network and
which connect to the outside network.
It is initiated from CLI and executes a script in which the managment plane functions and
forwarding plane services are tested against known vulnerabilities.
5. If AAA is already enabled, which three CLI steps are required to configure a router with a
specific view? (Choose three.)
assign a secret password to the view
assign commands to the view
assign users who can use the view
associate the view with the root view
create a superview using the parser view view-name command
create a view using the parser viewview-name command
6.
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement regarding the JR-Admin account is true?
JR-Admin can issue show, ping, and reload commands.
JR-Admin can issue ping and reload commands.
JR-Admin can issue only ping commands.
JR-Admin can issue debug and reload commands.
JR-Admin cannot issue any command because the privilege level does not match one of
those defined.
7. Which recommended security practice prevents attackers from performing password recovery
on a Cisco IOS router for the purpose of gaining access to the privileged EXEC mode?
Keep a secure copy of the router Cisco IOS image and router configuration file as a
backup.
Disable all unused ports and interfaces to reduce the number of ways that the router can
be accessed.
Configure secure administrative control to ensure that only authorized personnel can
access the router.
Locate the router in a secure locked room that is accessible only to authorized personnel.
Provision the router with the maximum amount of memory possible.
8. Which three options can be configured by Cisco AutoSecure? (Choose three.)
CBAC
SNMP
syslog
security banner
interface IP address
enable secret password
9.
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output of the show running-config command, which type
of view is SUPPORT?
secret view, with a level 5 encrypted password
root view, with a level 5 encrypted secret password
superview, containing SHOWVIEW and VERIFYVIEW views
CLI view, containing SHOWVIEW and VERIFYVIEW commands
10. Which three services on a router does Cisco SDM One-Step Lockdown enable? (Choose
three.)
SNMP
TCP intercepts
SSH access to the router
Cisco Discovery Protocol
password encryption service
firewall on all outside interfaces
11. An administrator defined a local user account with a secret password on router R1 for use
with SSH. Which three additional steps are required to configure R1 to accept only encrypted
SSH connections? (Choose three.)
configure the IP domain name on the router
enable inbound vty Telnet sessions
generate the SSH keys
configure DNS on the router
enable inbound vty SSH sessions
generate two-way pre-shared keys
12. Which statement describes the operation of the Cisco SDM Security Audit wizard?
The wizard configures a router to prevent unauthorized access.
The wizard compares a router configuration against recommended settings.
The wizard monitors network data and logs possible unauthorized or malicious traffic.
The wizard logs the effectiveness of network security measures for baseline comparisons.
13. An administrator needs to create a user account with custom access to most privileged EXEC
commands. Which privilege command is used to create this custom account?
privilege exec level 0
privilege exec level 1
privilege exec level 2
privilege exec level 15
14. Which three areas of router security must be maintained to secure an edge router at the
network perimeter? (Choose three.)
physical security
flash security
operating system security
remote access security
router hardening
zone isolation
15. Which service is enabled on a Cisco router by default that can reveal significant information
about the router and potentially make it more vulnerable to attack?
HTTP
CDP
FTP
NTP
TFTP
16. Which two operations are required to implement Cisco SDM One-Step Lockdown? (Choose
two.)
Choose the One-Step Lockdown feature.
Apply the documented network policies.
Deliver the configuration changes to the router.
Compare the router configuration against recommended settings.
Select the Firewall and ACL task on the SDM Configuration screen.
17. Which statement matches the CLI commands to the SDM wizard that performs similar
configuration functions?
aaa configuration commands and the SDM Basic Firewall wizard
auto secure privileged EXEC command and the SDM One-Step Lockdown wizard
class-maps, policy-maps, and service-policy configuration commands and the SDM IPS
wizard
setup privileged EXEC command and the SDM Security Audit wizard
18.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of secret 5 in the generated output?
The ADMIN password is encrypted using DH group 5.
The ADMIN password is encrypted via the service password-encryption command.
The ADMIN password is hashed using MD5.
The ADMIN password is hashed using SHA.
19. Which three commands are required to restore a primary bootset from a secure archive on a
router on which Cisco IOS resilience is enabled? (Choose three.)
Restart the router in ROM monitor mode and display the secure bootset Cisco IOS image
name using the dir command.
Restart the router, enter privileged EXEC mode, and display the secure bootset Cisco
IOS image name using the show flash command.
Boot the secure bootset Cisco IOS image using the boot command with the filename.
Copy the secure bootset Cisco IOS image to flash using the copy IOS-backup-image
flash command.
Restore the secure configuration file using the copy config-backup flash command.
Restore the secure configuration file using the secure boot-config restore filename
command.
20. Which set of commands are required to create a username of admin, hash the password
using MD5, and force the router to access the internal username database when a user
attempts to access the console?
R1(config)# username admin password Admin01pa55
R1(config)# line con 0
R1(config-line)# login local
R1(config)# username admin password Admin01pa55
R1(config)# line con 0
R1(config-line)# login internal
R1(config)# username admin Admin01pa55 encr md5
R1(config)# line con 0
R1(config-line)# login local
R1(config)# username admin secret Admin01pa55
R1(config)# line con 0
R1(config-line)# login local
R1(config)# username admin secret Admin01pa55
R1(config)# line con 0
R1(config-line)# login internal
21.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the current SDM logging setup? (Choose
two.)
Buffered logging will be enabled on the router for Logging Level 7 messages.
Buffered logging will be enabled on the syslog server for Logging Level 7 messages.
All messages with a trap level of 4 and higher (less critical) will be logged.
All messages with a trap level of 4 and lower (more critical) will be logged.
The router interface IP address that is connected to the syslog server is 192.168.1.3.
The syslog server IP address is 192.168.1.3.
22. What are two characteristics of SNMP community strings? (Choose two.)
A vulnerability of SNMPv1, SNMPv2, and SNMPv3 is that they send the community
strings in plaintext.
Commonly known community strings should be used when configuring secure SNMP.
If the manager sends one of the correct read-only community strings, it can get
information and set information in an agent.
SNMP read-only community strings can be used to get information from an SNMP-
enabled device.
SNMP read-write community strings can be used to set information on an SNMP-enabled
device.
23. What is the minimum recommended modulus key length for keys generated to use with
SSH?
256
512
768
1024
2048
24. Which two characteristics apply to Role-Based CLI Access superviews? (Choose two.)
CLI views have passwords, but superviews do not have passwords.
Users logged in to a superview can access all commands specified within the associated
CLI views.
A single superview can be shared among multiple CLI views.
Commands cannot be configured for a specific superview.
Deleting a superview deletes all associated CLI views.
25.
Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the output? (Choose two.)
The Cisco IOS image and configuration files have been properly secured.
ROMmon mode will be inaccessible upon entering the privileged EXEC reload
command.
The Cisco IOS Resilient Configuration feature is enabled.
The Cisco IOS Resilient Configuration feature has detected an image version mismatch.
The Cisco IOS configuration files have been erased.
26. What are three requirements that must be met if an administrator wants to maintain device
configurations via secure in-band management? (Choose three.)
network devices configured to accommodate SSH
a separate network segment connecting all management devices
at least one router acting as a terminal server
encryption of all remote access management traffic
connection to network devices through a production network or the Internet
direct access to the console ports of all network devices
Cisco CCNA Security, chapter 3 Exam.
Questions and answers 100% correct.
1. Why is local database authentication preferred over a password-only login?
It specifies a different password for each line or port.
It provides for authentication and accountability.
It requires a login and password combination on console, vty lines, and aux ports.
It is more efficient for users who only need to enter a password to gain entry to a device.
2. What is a characteristic of AAA?
Authorization can only be implemented after a user is authenticated.
Accounting services are implemented prior to authenticating a user.
Accounting services determine which resources the user can access and which operations
the user is allowed to perform.
Authorization records what the user does, including what is accessed, the amount of time
the resource is accessed, and any changes that were made.
3. Due to implemented security controls, a user can only access a server with FTP. Which AAA
component accomplishes this?
accessibility
accounting
auditing
authentication
authorization
4. Which two AAA access method statements are true? (Choose two.)
Character mode provides remote users with access to network resources and requires use
of the console, vty, or tty ports.
Character mode provides remote users with access to network resources and requires use
of dialup or VPN.
Character mode provides users with administrative privilege EXEC access and requires use
of the console, vty, or tty ports.
Packet mode provides users with administrative privilege EXEC access and requires use of
dialup or VPN.
Packet mode provides remote users with access to network resources and requires use of
dialup or VPN.
Packet mode provides users with administrative privilege EXEC access and requires use of
the console, vty, or tty ports.
5. Which two statements describe AAA authentication? (Choose two.)
Server-based AAA authentication is more scalable than local AAA authentication.
Local AAA is ideal for large complex networks because it uses the local database of the
router for authentication.
Server-based AAA authentication can use the RADIUS or TACACS+ protocols to
communicate between the router and a AAA server.
Server-based AAA authentication is ideal for large complex networks because it uses the
local database of the router for authentication.
Local AAA authentication requires the services of an external server, such as the Cisco
Secure ACS for Windows Server.
6. What is a difference between using the login local command and using local AAA
authentication for authenticating administrator access?
Local AAA authentication supports encrypted passwords; login local does not.
Local AAA provides a way to configure backup methods of authentication; login local
does not.
A method list must be configured when using the login local command, but is optional
when using local AAA authentication.
The login local command supports the keyword none, which ensures that authentication
succeeds, even if all methods return an error.
7
.
Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured as shown, with the resulting log message.
On the basis of the information presented, which two AAA authentication statements are true?
(Choose two.)
The locked-out user failed authentication.
The locked-out user is locked out for 10 minutes by default.
The locked-out user should have used the username Admin and password Pa55w0rd.
The locked-out user should have used the username admin and password
Str0ngPa55w0rd.
The locked-out user stays locked out until the clear aaa local user lockout username
Admin command is issued.
8.
Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is configured as shown. An administrative user attempts to use
Telnet from router R2 to router R1 using the interface IP address 10.10.10.1. However, Telnet
access is denied. Which option corrects this problem?
The R1 10.10.10.1 router interface must be enabled.
The vty lines must be configured with the login authentication default command.
The aaa local authentication attempts max-fail command must be set to 2 or higher.
The administrative user should use the username Admin and password
Str0ngPa55w0rd.
9. When configuring a method list for AAA authentication, what is the effect of the keyword
local?
It accepts a locally configured username, regardless of case.
It defaults to the vty line password for authentication.
The login succeeds, even if all methods return an error.
It uses the enable password for authentication.
10. What is a characteristic of TACACS+?
TACACS+ is an open IETF standard.
TACACS+ is backward compatible with TACACS and XTACACS.
TACACS+ provides authorization of router commands on a per-user or per-group basis.
TACACS+ uses UDP port 1645 or 1812 for authentication, and UDP port 1646 or 1813
for accounting
11. Which statement identifies an important difference between TACACS+ and RADIUS?
TACACS+ provides extensive accounting capabilities when compared to RADIUS.
The RADIUS protocol encrypts the entire packet transmission.
The TACACS+ protocol allows for separation of authentication from authorization.
RADIUS can cause delays by establishing a new TCP session for each authorization
request.
12. In regards to Cisco Secure ACS, what is a client device?
a web server, email server, or FTP server
the computer used by a network administrator
network users who must access privileged EXEC commands
a router, switch, firewall, or VPN concentrator
13. What is the result if an administrator configures the aaa authorization command prior to
creating a user with full access rights?
The administrator is immediately locked out of the system.
The administrator is denied all access except to aaa authorization commands.
The administrator is allowed full access using the enable secret password.
The administrator is allowed full access until a router reboot, which is required to apply
changes.
14. When configuring a Cisco Secure ACS, how is the configuration interface accessed?
A Web browser is used to configure a Cisco Secure ACS.
The Cisco Secure ACS can be accessed from the router console.
Telnet can be used to configure a Cisco Secure ACS server after an initial configuration is
complete.
The Cisco Secure ACS can be accessed remotely after installing ACS client software on
the administrator workstation.
15. Which AAA protocol and feature best support a large ISP that needs to implement detailed
accounting for customer invoicing?
TACACS+ because it combines authentication and authorization, but separates
accounting
RADIUS because it supports detailed accounting that is required for billing users
TACACS+ because it requires select authorization policies to be applied on a per-user or
per-group basis
RADIUS because it requires select authorization policies to be applied on a per-user or
per-group basis
16. After accounting is enabled on an IOS device, how is a default accounting method list
applied?
Accounting method lists are applied only to the VTY interfaces.
A named accounting method list must be explicitly defined and applied to desired
interfaces.
Accounting method lists are not applied to any interfaces until an interface is added to the
server group.
The default accounting method list is automatically applied to all interfaces, except those
with named accounting method lists.
17.
Refer to the exhibit. In the network shown, which AAA command logs the use of EXEC
session commands?
aaa accounting connection start-stop group radius
aaa accounting connection start-stop group tacacs+
aaa accounting exec start-stop group radius
aaa accounting exec start-stop group tacacs+
aaa accounting network start-stop group radius
aaa accounting network start-stop group tacacs+
18. How does a Cisco Secure ACS improve performance of the TACACS+ authorization
process?
reduces overhead by using UDP for authorization queries
reduces delays in the authorization queries by using persistent TCP sessions
reduces bandwidth utilization of the authorization queries by allowing cached credentials
reduces number of authorization queries by combining the authorization process with
authentication
19.
Refer to the exhibit. Which Cisco Secure ACS menu is required to configure the IP address
and secure password of an AAA client?
User Setup
Group Setup
Network Configuration
System Configuration
Interface Configuration
Administration Control
20. What is an effect if AAA authorization on a device is not configured?
Authenticated users are granted full access rights.
User access to specific services is determined by the authentication process.
Character mode authorization is limited, and packet mode denies all requests.
All authorization requests to the TACACS server receive a REJECT response.