1 Which device connects a local LAN to a geographically separate network? switch hub router bridge Observable Description Max Value correctness of response 1 point for Option 3 0 point for any other option 1 2 Refer to the exhibit. Host A sends a data packet to host B. What will be the addressing information of the data packet when it reaches host B?
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Transcript
1
Which device connects a local LAN to a geographically separate network?
switch
hub
router
bridge
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 3
0 point for any other option 1
2
Refer to the exhibit. Host A sends a data packet to host B. What will be the addressing information of the data packet when it reaches host B?
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 1
0 points for any other option 1
3
Which layer of the OSI model handles the process of identifying and discarding damaged frames?
presentation
session
transport
network
data link
physical
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 5
0 point for any other option 1
4
Data is being sent from a source PC to a destination server. Which three statements correctly describe the function of TCP or UDP in this situation? (Choose three.)
The UDP destination port number identifies the application or service on the server which will handle the data.
TCP is the preferred protocol when a function requires lower network overhead.
UDP segments are encapsulated within IP packets for transport across the network.
The source port field identifies the running application or service that will handle data returning to the PC.
The TCP source port number identifies the sending host on the network.
The TCP process running on the PC randomly selects the destination port when establishing a session with the server.
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 1, Option 3, Option 4
0 point for any other option 1
5
Which three statements characterize UDP? (Choose three.)
UDP provides connectionless, fast transport of data at Layer 4.
UDP provides connection-oriented, fast transport of data at Layer 3.
UDP relies on application layer protocols for error detection.
UDP works well when an application does not need to guarantee delivery of data.
UDP relies on IP for error detection and recovery.
UDP provides sophisticated flow control mechanisms.
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 1, Option 3, Option 4
0 point for any other option 1
6
What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.
A jam signal indicates that the collision has cleared and the media is not busy.
A device listens and waits until the media is not busy before transmitting.
The device with the electronic token is the only one that can transmit after a collision.
All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network medium.
After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has expired.
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 3, Option 5, Option 6
0 point for any other option 1
7
Refer to the exhibit. A switch with a default configuration connects four hosts. The ARP table for host A is shown. What happens when host A wants to send an IP packet to host D?
Host A sends an ARP request to the MAC address of host D. Host D responds with its IP address.
Host D sends an ARP request to host A. Host A responds with its MAC address.
Host A sends out the packet to the switch. The switch adds the MAC address for host D to the frame and forwards it to the network.
Host A sends out a broadcast of FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF. Every other host connected to the switch receives the broadcast and host D responds with its MAC address.
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 4
0 points for any other option 1
8
What are two actions performed by a Cisco switch? (Choose two.)
building a routing table that is based on the first IP address in the frame header
using the source MAC addresses of frames to build and maintain a MAC address table
forwarding frames with unknown destination IP addresses to the default gateway
utilizing the MAC address table to forward frames via the destination MAC address
examining the destination MAC address to add new entries to the MAC address table
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 2, Option 4
0 point for any other option 1
9
Which three statements are true about full-duplex operation on an Ethernet network? (Choose three.)
There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
A dedicated switch port is required for each node.
Hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
The host network card must detect the availability of the media before transmitting.
The host network card and the switch port must both be in full-duplex mode.
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 1, Option 2, Option 5
0 point for any other option 1
10
What is the purpose of the SVI on a Cisco switch?
The SVI provides a physical interface for remote access to the switch.
The SVI provides a faster method for switching traffic between ports on the switch.
The SVI adds Layer 4 connectivity between VLANs.
The SVI provides a virtual interface for remote access to the switch.
The SVI is a virtual, not physical, interface that provides remote access to the switch. It does not impact Layer 4 nor does it enhance switching between switch ports on the switch.
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 4
0 points for any other option 1
11
Refer to the exhibit. Which password will the administrator need to use on this device to enter privileged EXEC mode?
Cisco
class
password
cisco
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 4
0 point for any other option 1
12
Which two devices allow hosts on different VLANs to communicate with each other? (Choose two.)
Layer 2 switch
Layer 3 switch
hub
repeater
router
Members of different VLANs are on separate networks. For devices on separate networks to be able to communicate, a Layer 3 device, such as a router or Layer 3 switch, is necessary.
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 2, Option 5
0 points for any other option 1
13
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is reviewing port and VLAN assignments on switch S2 and notices that interfaces Gi0/1 and Gi0/2 are not included in the output. Why would the interfaces be missing from the output?
There is a native VLAN mismatch between the switches.
There is no media connected to the interfaces.
They are administratively shut down.
They are configured as trunk interfaces.
Interfaces that are configured as trunks do not belong to a VLAN and therefore will not show in the output of the show vlan brief commands.
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 4
0 points for any other option 1
14
In which memory location are the VLAN configurations of normal range VLANs stored on a Catalyst switch?
flash
NVRAM
RAM
ROM
When a normal range VLAN is created the configuration information of the VLAN is stored in flash in the vlan.dat file.
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 1
0 points for any other option 1
15
Which three statements accurately describe duplex and speed settings on Cisco 2960 switches? (Choose three.)
When the speed is set to 1000 Mb/s, the switch ports will operate in full-duplex mode.
An autonegotiation failure can result in connectivity issues.
By default, the autonegotiation feature is disabled.
Enabling autonegotiation on a hub will prevent mismatched port speeds when connecting the hub to the switch.
The duplex and speed settings of each switch port can be manually configured.
By default, the speed is set to 100 Mb/s and the duplex mode is set to autonegotiation.
By default, autonegotiation is enabled on a Catalyst 2960 switch. However, the duplex and speed settings can be manually configured for each switch port. If the speed is set to 1000 Mb/s, the switch ports will operate in full-duplex mode. Switches, not hubs, can be configured for auto negotiation.
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 1, Option 2, Option 5
0 points for any other option 1
16
Which combination of DTP modes will form a link to allow multiple VLANs?
dynamic auto-dynamic auto
dynamic auto-dynamic desirable
trunk-access
access-access
Switch ports can be set to trunk mode on both sides. They can also become trunks if one side is set to dynamic auto while the other is set to dynamic desirable.
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 2
0 points for any other option 1
17
Given IPv6 address prefix 2001:db8::/48, what will be the last subnet that is created if the subnet prefix is changed to /52?
2001:db8:0:f00::/52
2001:db8:0:8000::/52
2001:db8:0:f::/52
2001:db8:0:f000::/52
Prefix 2001:db8::/48 has 48 network bits. If we subnet to a /52, we are moving the network boundary four bits to the right and creating 16 subnets. The first subnet is 2001:db8::/52 the last subnet is 2001:db8:0:f000::/52.
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 4
0 points for any other option 1
18
An organization is assigned an IPv6 address block of 2001:db8:0:ca00::/56. How many subnets can be created without using bits in the interface ID space?
256
512
1024
4096
Subnetting a /56 prefix to a /64 prefix involves increasing the network prefix by 8 bits. 8 bits will create 256 subnets. The last 64 bits of the address is reserved for the interface ID.
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 1
0 points for any other option 1
19
How many /30 subnets can be created from one /27 subnet?
2
4
6
8
A /27 subnet contains 32 IP addresses, and a /30 subnet contains 4 IP addresses, so eight /30 subnets can be created from one /27 subnet.
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 4
0 points for any other option 1
20
A network administrator is designing an IPv4 addressing scheme and requires these subnets.
1 subnet of 100 hosts
2 subnets of 80 hosts
2 subnets of 30 hosts
4 subnets of 20 hosts
Which combination of subnets and masks will provide the best addressing plan for these requirements?
9 subnets of 126 hosts with a 255.255.255.128 mask
3 subnets of 126 hosts with a 255.255.255.128 mask
6 subnets of 30 hosts with a 255.255.255.224 mask
3 subnets of 126 hosts with a 255.255.255.192 mask
6 subnets of 30 hosts with a 255.255.255.240 mask
1 subnet of 126 hosts with a 255.255.255.192 mask
2 subnets of 80 hosts with a 255.255.255.224 mask
6 subnets of 30 hosts with a 255.255.255.240 mask
IPv4 subnets that require 100 and 80 hosts are provided by creating subnets of 126 usable addresses, each of which requires 7 host bits. The resulting mask is 255.255.255.128.
Subnets that require 30 and 20 hosts are provided by creating subnets of 30 usable addresses, each of which requires 5 host bits. The resulting mask is 255.255.255.224.
Creating nine subnets, each consisting of 126 usable addresses, would waste large numbers of addresses in the six smaller subnets.
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 2
0 points for any other option 1
21
A network administrator has been allocated the IPv4 10.10.240.0/20 block of addresses for a LAN. Two devices on two different, but contiguous, subnets on the LAN have been assigned the addresses 10.10.247.1/21 and 10.10.248.10/24, respectively. The administrator has to create a third subnet from the remaining address range. To optimize the use of this address space, the new subnet will follow on directly from the existing subnets. What is the first available host address in the next available subnet?
10.10.248.17
10.10.249.1
10.10.250.1
10.10.255.17
The complete address range of the subnet with the host 10.10.247.1/21 is 10.10.240.0/21 to 10.10.247.255/21. The complete address range of the subnet that contains the host 10.10.248.10/24 is 10.10.248.0/24 to 10.10.248.255/24. This means that the next subnet will have a network address of 10.10.249.0 with a prefix length between 24 and 30. The first useable host address on this new subnet is therefore 10.10.249.1.
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 2
0 points for any other option 1
22
What is the purpose of deploying dual stack devices?
Dual stack allows companies to migrate to IPv6 over time.
It provides globally unique IPv6 addresses to end devices.
It permits multiple devices to share a single IPv6 address.
It creates redundancy in the network by eliminating a single point of failure.
Dual stack devices run both IPv4 and IPv6. This allows a company to begin to slowly move end devices over to IPv6, while still maintaining backwards compatibility with IPv4 devices.
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 1
0 points for any other option 1
23
What is the most compressed representation of the IPv6 address 2001:0000:0000:abcd:0000:0000:0000:0001?
2001:0:abcd::1
2001:0:0:abcd::1
2001::abcd::1
2001:0000:abcd::1
2001::abcd:0:1
The IPv6 address 2001:0000:0000:abcd:0000:0000:0000:0001 in its most compressed format would be 2001:0:0:abcd::1. The first two hextets of zeros would each compress to a single zero. The three consecutive hextets of zeros can be compressed to a double colon ::. The three leading zeros in the last hextet can be removed. The double colon :: can only be used once in an address.
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 2
0 points for any other option 1
24
Which address type is not supported in IPv6?
private
multicast
unicast
broadcast
IPv6 supports unicast, private, and multicast addresses but does not support Layer 3 broadcasts.
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 4
0 points for any other option 1
25
Refer to the exhibit. How will R1 generate the interface ID portion of the IPv6 address on interface FastEthernet 0/0?
by using stateful DHCP
by using a manually set value of 64
by using a randomly generated 64-bit number
by using the interface MAC address with a 16-bit filler
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 4
0 points for any other option 1
26
What can a network administrator modify on a router to specify the location from which the Cisco IOS loads? (Choose two.)
system ROM
the startup configuration file
the system image file
the configuration register value
the NVRAM file system
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 2, Option 4
0 point for any other option 1
27
How will a router handle static routing differently if Cisco Express Forwarding is disabled?
It will not perform recursive lookups.
Serial point-to-point interfaces will require fully specified static routes to avoid routing inconsistencies.
Ethernet multiaccess interfaces will require fully specified static routes to avoid routing inconsistencies.
Static routes that use an exit interface will be unnecessary.
In most platforms running IOS 12.0 or later, Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled by default. Cisco Express Forwarding eliminates the need for the recursive lookup. If Cisco Express Forwarding is disabled, multiaccess network interfaces require fully specified static routes in order to avoid inconsistencies in their routing tables. Point-to-point interfaces do not have this problem, because multiple end points are not present. With or without Cisco Express Forwarding enabled, using an exit interface when configuring a static route is a viable option.
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 3
0 points for any other option 1
28
Which feature on a Cisco router permits the forwarding of traffic for which there is no specific route?
next-hop
gateway of last resort
route source
outgoing interface
A default static route is used as a gateway of last resort to forward unknown destination traffic to a next hop/exit interface. The next-hop or exit interface is the destination to send traffic to on a network after the traffic is matched in a router. The route source is the location a route was learned from.
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 2
0 points for any other option 1
29
What is the purpose of using SSH to connect to a router?
It allows a router to be configured using a graphical interface.
It allows a secure remote connection to the router command line interface.
It allows the router to be monitored through a network management application.
It allows secure transfer of the IOS software image from an unsecure workstation or server.
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 2
0 point for any other option 1
30
When creating an IPv6 static route, when must a next-hop IPv6 address and an exit interface both be specified?
when CEF is enabled
when the static route is a default route
when the next hop is a link-local address
when the exit interface is a point-to-point interface
Link-local addresses are only unique on a given link, and the same address could exist out multiple interfaces. For that reason, any time a static route specifies a link-local address as the next hop, it must also specify the exit interface. This is called a fully specified static route.
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 3
0 points for any other option 1
31
Refer to the exhibit. OSPFv2 has been configured on router R1, and the router-id command has not been manually configured. When the network administrator reboots router R1, what will be the value of the OSPF router ID?
172.16.1.1
192.168.2.254
10.15.15.1
10.0.10.2
If the router ID is not exactly specified by the router-id command, then the highest IPv4 address on any configured loopback interface(s) would become the router ID.
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 1
0 points for any other option 1
32
A network administrator has recently implemented OSPFv2 across the entire network topology. Which command can be implemented to prevent the forwarding of OSPF messages to Layer 2 switches and hosts on interface Fast Ethernet 0/1, while maintaining network connectivity?
To prevent OSPF from sending messages to a LAN interface that is activated for OSPF, in this case interface Fast Ethernet 0/1, the passive-interface FastEthernet 0/1 command must be implemented in the R1(config-router)# mode.
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 4
0 points for any other option 1
33
A network administrator has enabled single-area OSPFv3 on a router via the ipv6 router ospf 100 command. Which command will enable this OSPFv3 process on an interface of that router?
R1(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
R1(config-if)# ipv6 ospf 0 area 100
R1(config-if)# ipv6 ospf 100 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 area 100
The command to enable an OSPFv3 process on a router interface is ipv6 ospf process-id area area-id. The process ID is 100 and the area ID is 0.
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 3
0 points for any other option 1
34
A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick model to configure a switch and a router for inter-VLAN routing. What configuration should be made on the switch port that connects to the router?
Configure the port as an access port and a member of VLAN1.
Configure the port as an 802.1q trunk port.
Configure the port as a trunk port and assign it to VLAN1.
Configure it as a trunk port and allow only untagged traffic.
The port on the switch that connects to the router interface should be configured as a trunk port. Once it becomes a trunk port, it does not belong to any particular VLAN and will forward traffic from various VLANs.
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 2
0 points for any other option 1
35
Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration that is shown in the exhibit is applied to the SVI, the switch fails to respond to Telnet attempts from a host in the same subnet. What is the cause of the problem?
The SVI should be interface vlan 1.
The subnet mask is invalid.
The SVI is incorrectly cabled.
The interface is administratively down.
The address should be applied to interface Fa0/1.
Part of the SVI configuration requires the no shutdown command, which was not included in the configuration in the exhibit.
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 4
0 points for any other option 1
36
Which three statements describe a DHCP Discover message? (Choose three.)
The source MAC address is 48 ones (FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF).
The destination IP address is 255.255.255.255.
The message comes from a server offering an IP address.
The message comes from a client seeking an IP address.
All hosts receive the message, but only a DHCP server replies.
Only the DHCP server receives the message.
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 2, Option 4, Option 5
0 point for any other option 1
37
What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 172.16.4.1 172.16.4.5 to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server?
Traffic that is destined for 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5 will be dropped by the router.
Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.
The DHCP server function of the router will not issue the addresses from 172.16.4.1 through 172.16.4.5 inclusive.
The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 3
0 points for any other option 1
38
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured R2 for PAT. Why is the configuration incorrect?
The static NAT entry is missing.
NAT-POOL2 is bound to the wrong ACL.
The ACL does not define the list of addresses to be translated.
The overload keyword should not have been applied.
In the exhibit, NAT-POOL 2 is bound to ACL 100, but it should be bound to the configured ACL 1. This will cause PAT to fail. 100, but it should be bound to the configured ACL 1. This will cause PAT to fail.
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 2
0 points for any other option 1
39
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct based on the output as shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
The output is the result of the show ip nat translations command.
The host with the address 209.165.200.235 will respond to requests by using a source address of 192.168.10.10.
The host with the address 209.165.200.235 will respond to requests by using a source address of 209.165.200.235.
Traffic with the destination address of a public web server will be sourced from the IP of 192.168.1.10.
The output is the result of the show ip nat statistics command.
The output displayed in the exhibit is the result of the show ip nat translations command. Static NAT entries are always present in the NAT table, while dynamic entries will eventually time out.
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 1, Option 2
0 points for any other option 1
40
Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are connected via a serial link. One router is configured as the NTP master, and the other is an NTP client. Which two pieces of information can be obtained from the partial output of the show ntp associations detail command on R2? (Choose two.)
Both routers are configured to use NTPv2.
Router R1 is the master, and R2 is the client.
Router R2 is the master, and R1 is the client.
The IP address of R1 is 192.168.1.2.
The IP address of R2 is 192.168.1.2.
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 2, Option 4
0 points for any other option 1
41
A network administrator is issuing the login block-for 180 attempts 2 within 30 command on a router. Which threat is the network administrator trying to prevent?
a user who is trying to guess a password to access the router
a worm that is attempting to access another part of the network
an unidentified individual who is trying to access the network equipment room
a device that is trying to inspect the traffic on a link
The login block-for 180 attempts 2 within 30 command will cause the device to block authentication after 2 unsuccessful attempts within 30 seconds for a duration of 180 seconds. A device inspecting the traffic on a link has nothing to do with the router. The router configuration cannot prevent unauthorized access to the equipment room. A worm would not attempt to access the router to propagate to another part of the network.
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 1
0 points for any other option 1
42
Refer to the exhibit. Interfaces Fa0/5, Fa0/7, and Fa0/9 are the only connected ports on the switch CiscoSwitch. All other ports are unused. Which security best practice did the administrator forget to configure?
Change the native VLAN to a fixed VLAN other than VLAN 1.
All active user ports are associated with VLANs distinct from VLAN 1.
Delete VLAN 1 from the switch CiscoSwitch.
Configure all unused ports to a 'black-hole' VLAN that is not used for anything on the network.
All access ports are placed in VLAN 1 by default. This VLAN is the default VLAN and cannot be deleted or renamed. Security best practices dictate that user ports should be changed to something other than VLAN 1 with the command switchport access vlan ID.
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 4
0 points for any other option 1
43
Refer to the exhibit. Interfaces Fa0/2, Fa0/4, and Fa0/6 are connected to users on the data network of a switch named CiscoSwitch. Interface Fa0/24 is connected to a file server on the management network. All other ports are unused. Which security best practice did the administrator forget to configure?
Configure all unused ports to a 'black-hole' VLAN that is not used for anything on the network.
Change the native VLAN to a fixed VLAN other than VLAN 1.
Disable autonegotiation on interfaces that are not being utilized as a trunk.
Delete VLAN 1 from CiscoSwitch.
Cisco switches use DTP to autonegotiate between each other. It is recommended to disable autonegotiation to prevent any malicious users from forming a trunk with the Cisco switch on nontrunking interfaces.
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 3
0 points for any other option 1
44
A network technician is configuring port security on a LAN switch interface. The security policy requires host MAC addresses to be learned dynamically, stored in the address table, and saved to the switch running configuration. Which command does the technician need to add to the following configuration to implement this policy?
Switch(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch(config-if)# switchport mode access
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 40
A network engineer is configuring PAT on a router and has issued the command:
ip nat source list 1 interface serial 0/1/0 overload
Which additional command is required to specify addresses from the 192.168.128.0/18 network as the inside local addresses?
access-list 1 permit 192.168.128.0 255.255.192.0
access-list 1 permit 192.168.128.0 0.0.127.255
access-list 1 permit 192.168.128.0 0.0.63.255
ip nat inside source list 1 pool INSIDE_NAT_POOL
ip nat inside source static 192.168.128.0 209.165.200.254
A standard access list with the appropriate wildcard mask specifies the inside local addresses to be translated. The ip nat inside source list 1 pool NAT_POOL command configures NAT to use a pool of outside global addresses, not a single outside interface address as required. The ip nat inside source static 192.168.128.0 209.165.200.254 command configures one-to-one static NAT, not PAT as the overload keyword specifies.
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 3
0 points for any other option 1
46
Which series of commands will cause access list 15 to restrict Telnet access on a router?
R1(config)# line vty 0 4
R1(config-line)# access-class 15
R1(config)# line vty 0 4
R1(config-line)# ip access-group 15 in
R1(config)# int gi0/0
R1(config-if)# access-class 15 in
R1(config)# int gi0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 15 in
Once an access list to restrict Telnet or SSH access has been created, it is applied to the vty lines with the access-class command. This will restrict Telnet or SSH access.
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 1
0 points for any other option 1
47
Which two issues might cause excessive runt and giant frames in an Ethernet network? (Choose two.)
native VLAN mismatch
damaged cable connector
a malfunctioning NIC
excessive collisions
using the incorrect cable type
incorrectly configured auto-MDIX feature
In an Ethernet network, a runt is a frame that is shorter than 64 bytes and a giant is a frame that is longer than the maximum allowed length. Both are often caused by NIC malfunctioning, but can also be caused by excessive collisions. CRC errors usually indicate a media or cable error caused by electrical interference, loose or damaged connections, or using the incorrect cabling type.
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 3, Option 4
0 points for any other option 1
48
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is investigating a lag in network performance and issues the show interfaces fastethernet 0/0 command. Based on the output that is displayed, what two items should the administrator check next? (Choose two.)
cable lengths
damaged cable termination
duplex settings
electrical interference
incorrect cable types
The output shows that there are excessive late collisions occurring. Late collisions can be caused by duplex settings mismatch and/or excessive cable lengths. Electrical interference, incorrect cable types, and damaged cable termination are causes of CRC errors.
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 1, Option 3
0 points for any other option 1
49
A user calls the help desk to report that a Windows XP workstation is unable to connect to the network after startup and that a popup window says “This connection has limited or no connectivity.” The technician asks the user to issue the ipconfig /all command. The user reports the IP address is 169.254.69.196 with subnet mask of 255.255.0.0 and nothing is displayed for the DNS server IP address. What is the cause of the problem?
The workstation NIC has malfunctioned.
The subnet mask was configured incorrectly.
The DNS server IP address needs to be configured.
The workstation is unable to obtain an IP address from a DHCP server.
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response 1 point for Option 4
0 points for any other option 1
50
Refer to the exhibit. Fill in the blank.
There are______________________________________ collision domains in the topology.
Each link connected to a switch is a collision domain. A FastEthernet link between routers is also a collision domain.
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response Observable 1 receives +1 point if it was answered correctly.
Observable 1 receives +0 points if it was answered incorrectly. 1
51
Fill in the blank.
A late collision occurs after________________________ bits of a frame have been transmitted.
Observable
Description
Max Value
correctness of response Observable 1 receives +1 point if it was answered correctly.
Observable 1 receives +0 points if it was answered incorrectly. 1
53
Packets with a destination of 172.17.6.15 are forwarded through Fa0/0. Packets with a destination of 172.17.10.5 are forwarded through Fa1/1. Packets with a destination of 172.17.12.10 are forwarded through Fa1/0. Packets with a destination of 172.17.14.8 are forwarded through Fa0/1. Because network 172.17.8.0 has no entry in the routing table, it will take the gateway of last resort, which means that packets with a destination of 172.17.8.20 are forwarded through Serial0/0/0. Because a gateway of last resort exists, no packets will be dropped.
55
The PT initialization was skipped. You will not be able to view the PT activity.
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.