Booklet No. - Kerala State Financial Enterprisespop.ksfe.com/downloads/Promotion Tset 2012- Question Papers... · Booklet No. Qualifying Test for ... 27. Which of the following is

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Booklet No.

Qualifying Test for Promotion to the position of Assistant Manager in Kerala State Financial

Enterprises Limited

Paper I

Date: 17th

February 2013 Time:10 a.m to 11.30 a.m

Total Marks : 100

Choose the best answer from among the options given under each question. All question

carry equal marks. There are four alternative answers for every question. For each wrong

answer one fourth (0.25) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.

If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong even if one of the given

answers happened to be correct; there will be same penalty of a wrong answer. If a question

is left blank, there will be no penalty for that question. Candidates may please indicate their

answers by darkening the bubbles against the question numbers in the OMR sheet provided,

with black ink ball point pen. Please read the instructions in the OMR sheet carefully to

understand the correct method of marking answers.

1. How many stagnation increments are granted to an employee who reaches the

maximum of his scale of pay?

A. 3 Increments B. 4 Increments

C. 5 increments D. 6 Increments

2. An officer was on commuted leave from 15-06-2012 to 30-09-2012. His increment

date prior to this leave was on 01-07-2011. So his next increment is to be sanctioned

from

A. 01-10-2012 B. 15-11-2012

C. 01-07-2012 D. 16-10-2012

3. Which of the following rules in KSR Part I is applied when there is a promotion or

appointment to the higher post on a substantive basis with minimum of higher scale

exceeds 36,140 w.e.f 01-07-2009

A. Rule 28 B. Rule 28A

C. Rule 37 (a) D. Rule 37 (b)

4. An officer drawing Rs. 14,980 w.e.f 01-08-2009 in the scale of Rs. 13,210-330-

13540-360-14,980-400-16,980-440-18,740-500-21,240-560-23,360 was promoted on

13-06-2010 in the scale of Rs. 14,620-360-14,980-400-16,980-440-18,740-500-

21,240-560-24040-620-25,280. If he opted his fixation on the date of promotion what

is his pay on 01-06-2011 in the promoted post?

A. Rs. 15,380 B. Rs. 15,780

C. Rs. 16,180 D. Rs. 16,580

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5. Paternity leave introduced as per 9th

pay revision order is for ...... days

A. 10 Days B. 15 Days

C. 20 Days D. 30 Days

6. Maternity leave is available to lady officers of State Government for

A. One child B. Two children

C. Three children D. No such limit

7. How many days are normally allowed for preparation in the case of transfers to a

station involving more than 8 Kilometres?

A. 3 Days B. 6 Days

C. 7 Days D. 8 Days

8. In calculating the joining time, the distance between the old station and the new

station is to be taken from the .......... of the employee at the old station to that of the

new station.

A. Head Quarters B. Office

C. Residence D. Railway Station

9. An officer with HQ at Thrissur was on earned for 7 days from Friday, 1st February,

2013 with permission to suffix holidays on 9 and 10 of February 2013. While on

leave he was transferred to Thiruvananthapuram (293 kilo metres by rail) and was

relieved on 8-02-2012 AN. (Friday) Find the date on which he should join in the new

station? (no road journey involved)

A. 16-02-2013 FN B. 18-02-2013 F.N

C. 19-02-2013 FN D. 20-02-2013 FN

10. The maximum amount of leave (all kinds of leave combined together) granted at a

time shall not exceed......

A. 5 Years B. 15 Years

C. 20 Years D. No such limit

11. HRA is allowed with leave salary for .........



12. Which of the following statement is correct according to the Rules on leave in KSR?

A. An officer on leave may take any service or accept any employment without

permission

B. An officer may be compulsorily recalled to duty before the expiry of his leave

C. All kinds of leave can be denied by the head of office according to his

discretion

D. The nature of leave applied for can be altered by the leave sanctioning

authority

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13. Which of the following is not an ordinary leave according to the leave classification in

Rule 77 of KSR Part I

A. Maternity Leave B. Earned Leave

C. Half Pay leave D. Leave without allowance

14. Which of the following holidays falling in between journey time is not considered as

joining time.

A. Republic Day B. Independence Day

C. Second Saturday D. Sunday

15. Mr. A drawing Rs. 49,740 from 01-07-2010 in the scale of pay of Rs. 40,640-1000-

48,640-1100-57,440 was promoted on an officiating basis to a higher post in the scale

of pay of Rs. 42,640-1000-48,640-1100-57,740-1200-58,640 w.e.f 17-02-2011. Find

is pay as on 01-02-2012.

A. Rs. 50,840 B. Rs. 51,940

C. Rs. 53,040 D. Rs. 54,140

16. An officer drawing a substantive pay of Rs. 19,240 w.e.f 01-10-2010 in the scale of

Rs 14,620-360-14,980-400-16,980-440-18740-500-21,240-560-24,040-620-25,280

was promoted on a regular basis on 21-03-2011 in the scale of pay of Rs. 16,180-400-

16,980-440-18,740-500-21,240-560-24,040-620-27,140-680-29,180. He has opted

fixation of pay under Rule 28A part I KSR on the date of promotion. What is his pay

as on 01-03-2013?

A. Rs. 19,740 B. Rs. 20,240

C. Rs. 20,740 D. Rs. 21,240

17. How many stagnation increments are biennial increments in the present scheme of

increments?

A. One B. Two

C. Three D. None of these

18. Find the period during which earned leave will be earned?

A. Period of dies-non

B. Period of leave on earned leave

C. Overstay of joining time when regularised as leave

D. Suspension period treated as duty

19. An officer drawing pay of Rs. 21,240 comes under which of the following grades for

the purpose of claiming Travel Allowance?

A. Grade I B. Grade II (a)

C. Grade II (b) D. Grade III

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20. Which of the following is the eligible class of travel for Grade II (b) officer?

A. II Ac Train B. I Class Train

C. III AC Train D. II Class Train

21. The lowest rate of Daily Allowance for travel within the State as per the 9th

Pay

Revision order is.........

A. Rs. 100 B. Rs. 125

C. Rs. 150 D. Rs. 200

22. An officer starts from Station X at 9 a.m and travels a distance of 35 Kilo Metre to

reach station Y at 10 a.m. He halts for 8 hours and returns to HQ on the same day.

Bus fare Rs. 25.00 for one way. DA Rs. 200. Find the eligible TA

A. Rs. 350 B. Rs. 250

C. Rs. 200 D. Rs. 150

23. The maximum amount of earned leave that may be granted at a time for a serving

officer is ...........



24. An office starts from Station XYZ at 9 a.m and travels a distance of 55 Kilometres to

reach Station ABC at 11 a.m. He halts for 8 hours and returns to Head quarters XYZ

on the same day. Bus fare Rs. 65.00 for one way. DA Rs. 200. Find the eligble TA

A. Rs. 430 B. Rs. 330

C. Rs. 230 D. Rs. 200

25. Which of the following is not a kind of travelling allowance as per Part II KSR

A. Conveyance allowance B. Incidental expenses

C. Actual travelling expenses D. Mileage allowance

26. The sanction obtained to commence a chit as per S. 4 of the Chit Funds Act 1982 will

expire in ................ unless it is further extended.

A. 3 months B. 6 months

C. 12 months D. None of these

27. Which of the following is not a reason for refusing to register a Chit agreement by the

Registrar?

A. That the security offered by the foreman U/S 20 is not sufficient

B. The foreman had been convicted to any offence under this Act

C. That the foreman had been convicted of any offence involving moral turpitude

and sentenced to imprisonment unless a period of 5 years has elapsed since the

release

D. That the foreman conducts other businesses in the concerned state without

government permission or beyond the period permitted under this Act.

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28. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Without Government permission, no company carrying on Chit business shall

conduct any other business

B. Where at the commence of this Act, any company is carrying on any business

in addition to Chit business, such business shall wind up before the expiry of 3

years from such commencement

C. The State Government can, if necessary, further extend B above on public

interest for a period or periods not exceeding two years in aggregate.

D. All above are correct.

29. Which of the following is not a right of foreman?

A. To obtain chit amount of the first instalment without deduction of discount

provided he subscribes to a ticket in the Chit.

B. To get 10 per cent of the Chit amount as commission

C. To collect interest on defaulted payment

D. To demand sufficient security from the prized subscribers for the payment of

future subscriptions payable by him.

30. The quorum of the meeting of a general body of subscribers for considering any

proposal to pass a special resolution is;

A. Not less than 50% of the non-prized and unpaid prized subscribers

B. Not less than 50% of all subscribers

C. Not less than 25% of non prized and unpaid prized subscribers

D. Not less than 25% of all subscribers.

31. The maximum repayment period for a consumer/vehicle loan is


C. 72 months D. None of these

32. Which of the following is not correct with regard to special car loan (General)

A. Lien should be noted in the R.C book and duplicate key kept in safe custody

B. Collateral security should not be insisted if the loanee is prepared to give LIC

policy/FD receipt covering full amount.

C. In addition to FD receipts, 10 post dated cheques should also be collected

D. Spouse should join the agreement.

33. The limit a manager can exercise to sanction a Reliable Customer Loan is

A. Up to Rs. 400,000 B. Up to Rs 100,000

C. Up to Rs. 750,000 D. Up to Rs. 200,000

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34. Which one of the following is not correct while accepting partition deed as Security?

A. The party should produce the original partition deed for deposit

B. The consent in writing from share holders of the deed should be obtained

before accepting the deed as security.

C. The written consent must be attested by a notary public.

D. None of the shareholders of the deed should be defaulters in any scheme of the

company.

35. Valuation of property in cases where the liability ranges from Rs. 200,001 to 500,000

vests with......

A. Branch Manager

B. Branch Manager and an independent approved valuer

C. Committee comprising two officers of the Company and an approved valuer

D. None of these

36. The estimated market value of the property accepted as security for NHFS and SMS

schemes should be

A. Amount equal to advance plus interest

B. 2 times of the future liability

C. 2.3 times of the loan amount

D. 1.3 times of the loan amount

37. The following persons are not acceptable as sureties/guarantors to various schemes

offered by KSFE

A. Employees of Central/State Government undertakings

B. Employees of Central Government working outside the state

C. Employees of Government aided schools

D. Employees of local bodies

38. The enhanced maximum amount of advance under NHFS is

A. Rs. 25 lakhs B. Rs. 60 lakhs

C. Rs. 50 lakhs D. None of these

39. The appointing authority of canvassing cum collection agent is

A. Branch Manager B. Regional Manager

C. G.M. Personnel D. AGM

40. The appraiser charges at the time of pledging gold as security is

A. 0.1% of the amount to be secured

B. 0.2% of the amount to be secured

C. 0.5 % of the amount to be secured

D. None of these

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41. Products include more than just tangible goods. Broadly defined, products include

everything except:

A. Ideas B. Persons

C. Thoughts D. Places

42. A consumer’s view of a brand is very important to the future success of a company.

Everything is considered part of the brand except:

A. A name B. A term

C. A symbol D. An idea

43. Well conceived, well designed, high value and high prestige are considered

product.......

A. Attributes B. Benefits

C. Values D. Personality

44. A high level of brand equity provides a company with many competitive advantages.

Which of the following is not considered to be one of these advantages?

A. Brand awareness B. Bargaining leverage with reseller

C. Brand Loyalty D. Economies of Scale

45. Interactive marketing is the marketing process between

A. Customers and Company B. Company and employees

C. Employees and Customers D. Companies and Companies

46. The basic asset underlying brand equity is

A. Company brand strength B. Customer Equity

C. Brand loyalty D. All of the above

47. Product mix........... refers to how many different product lines the company carries

A. Consistency B. Width

C. Depth D. Length

48. Brand repositioning may require changing

A. The product B. The image of the product

C. Consumer perception of the product D. All of these

49. In customer acquaintance relationship

A. The sustainability of the competitive advantage is high

B. Firms generally focus on providing value comparable to the competitors

C. The relationship time horizon is long

D. Customized products are produced.

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50. Which of the following is a benefit that a customer receives for entering a partnership

relationship with a firm?

A. Economic benefits B. Attrition benefits

C. Retention benefits D. Confidence benefits

51. Which of the following is NOT included as a basic idea to the definition of marketing

concepts?

A. Total company effort B. Profit

C. Productivity D. Customer Satisfaction

52. ............... is defined as the difference between the benefits a customer sees from a

market offering and the costs of obtaining those benefits

A. Customer Value B. Satisfaction scale

C. Profit Margin D. Competitive benefit

53. Which of the following is NOT included in the marketing management process used

by the marketing manager to achieve its objectives?

A. Planning marketing activities

B. Raising funds to finance the marketing projects

C. Controlling marketing plans

D. Directing implementation of the marketing plans

54. Which of the following parts are included in the marketing mix?

A. Product, place, promotion, and price

B. Competition and customer satisfaction

C. Buying, selling, transporting and storing

D. Profit, distribution and advertising

55. ............... is defined as communication with large numbers of customers at the same

time

A. Personal selling B. Sales Promotion

C. Mass selling D. All of these

56. In a ................ orientation, the role of marketing research is to determine customer

needs and how well the company is satisfying them.

A. Marketing B. Production

C. Both of these D. None of these

57. When a manager focuses on making whatever products are easy to produce, and then

trying to sell them, that manager has a ................... orientation.

A. Marketing B. Production

C. Sales D. Profit

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58. Which of the following is NOT consistent with a manager having a marketing

orientation.

A. Inventory levels are set with customer requirements and costs in mind

B. Customer relationship focuses on customer satisfaction before and after sale ,

leading to a profitable long-run relationship

C. Focus on advertising is on product features and how products are made

D. Packaging is designed for customer convenience and as a selling tool

59. The controllable variables a company puts together to satisfy a target group is called

the ............

A. Marketing Strategy B. Marketing Mix

C. Strategic Planning D. Marketing Concept

60. ................ is the extent to which a firm fulfils a customer’s needs, desires and

expectations.

A. Form utility B. Production

C. Customer satisfaction D. Micro Marketing

61. Possession utility is provided when

A. A good or service is obtained and there is a right to use or consume it

B. A product is available where someone want it

C. Someone performs a task for someone else

D. Someone produces something tangible

62. The performance of activities that seek to accomplish an organization’s objectives by

anticipating customer or client needs and directing a flow of need-satisfying goods

and services to a customer or client is

A. A planned economic system B. Macro-marketing

C. Micro marketing D. An intermediary

63. The universal functions of marketing include;

A. Buying, selling and risk taking

B. Transporting, standardization and grading

C. Storing, financing, and market information

D. All of these

64. Marketing should begin with

A. Potential customer needs B. The production processes

C. Both A & B D. None of the above

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65. A social process that directs an economy’s flow of goods and services from producers

to consumers in a way that effectively matches supply and demand and accomplished

the objectives of society is called

A. Micro marketing B. Macro-marketing

C. Global marketing D. Planned economic system

66. Firms that provide marketing functions other than buying or selling include

advertising agencies, marketing research firms, independent product-testing

laboratories, and internet service providers. These firms are known as.............

A. Enhancers B. Facilitators

C. Adjuncts D. Coordinators

67. Exchanges between individuals or organizations – and activities that facilitate those

exchanges – based on applications of information technology are called

A. Internet Commerce B. e-Commerce

C. Web Commerce D. High-tech commerce

68. The cost of finding a new service provider and ............ are the two primary barriers to

switching

A. Distrust of autonomy B. Sales force apathy

C. The customer paradox D. Customer inertia

69. For which of the following reasons would a service provider decide to end its

relationship with a customer?

A. The customer only want a transactional relationship

B. The client is engaged in a rebranding strategy

C. The customer is in an inappropriate market segment

D. All of the above

70. The primary goal of relationship marketing is to build and maintain a base of

committed customers who are ............. for the organization

A. Loyal B. Networking

C. Responsive D. Profitable

71. One of the benefits that come from long-term customers is the free word of mouth

advertising. This is known as a (an)

A. Customer behaviour benefit B. Economic benefit

C. Social benefits D. Confidence benefit

72. A .................. is a strong stimulus that encourages action to reduce or satisfy a need

A. Want B. Desire

C. Drive D. Motivation

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73. The whole set of beliefs, attitudes, and ways of doing things of a reasonably

homogeneous set of people is a ..............

A. Culture B. Reference group

C. Social class D. Society

74. The steps people go through on their way to reaching a decision about a new idea is

called the

A. Learning process B. Adoption process

C. Rejection process D. Acceptance process

75. The objectives of Customer Relationship Management (CRM) are

A. Customer acquisition, retention and profitability

B. Increased profitability through customer profiling

C. Customer loyalty and longevity

D. Finding the top customers who spent any amount of money

* * * * *

Space for rough work

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Booklet No.

Qualifying Test for Promotion to the position of Assistant Manager in Kerala State

Financial Enterprises Limited

Paper II

Date: 17th

February 2013 Time: 12 noon to 1.30 p.m

Total Marks : 100

Choose the best answer from among the options given under each question. All question carry

equal marks. There are four alternative answers for every question. For each wrong answer one

fourth (0.25) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. If a candidate gives

more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong even if one of the given answers happened to be

correct; there will be same penalty of a wrong answer. If a question is left blank, there will be no

penalty for that question. Candidates may please indicate their answers by darkening the bubbles

against the question numbers in the OMR sheet provided, with black ink ball point pen. Please read

the instructions in the OMR sheet carefully to understand the correct method of marking answers.

1. The sales day book is best described as

A. Part of the double entry system B. Containing Customers’ accounts

C. Containing real accounts D. A list of credit sales

2. A business had net assets of Rs.150,000 at 1 January 2012 and Rs.100,000 at 31

December 2012. During 2012 the owner introduced capital of Rs. 30,000 and made

drawings of Rs. 10,000. The profit or loss for 2012 was

A. Rs. 10,000 B. Rs. 30,000

C. Rs. 50,000 D. Rs. 70,000

3. The ledger entries in respect of stocks of goods for resale at the end of an accounting

year are;

A. Debit and credit the stock account.

B. Debit stock account and credit trading account.

C. Debit trading account and credit stock account

D. Debit and credit the trading account.

4. In general, revenue is recognized when the earnings process is virtually complete and

A. Collection of the sales price is reasonably assured.

B. A purchase order is received

C. Cash is collected

D. Production is completed

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5. Which of the following is most likely an accrued liability?

A. Depreciation B. Interest

C. Cost of Goods Sold D. Office supplies

6. At the end of the accounting period, the business had Rs. 450 of office supplies on

hand; which was 50% increase over the beginning balance. If the business purchased

Rs. 1,200 of office supplies during the year, then Rs. ...... of office supplies were used

during the year.

A. Rs. 975 B. Rs. 1050

C. Rs. 1,650 D. Rs. 1,425

7. If the required adjusting entry for depreciation expense is omitted:

A. Assets will be overstated and income understated.

B. Assets will be overstated and income overstated.

C. Assets will be understated and income overstated.

D. Assets will be understated and income understated.

8. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the balance sheet?

A. The major classifications of the balance sheet are assets, liabilities, and

owners' equity.

B. The balance sheet reports the change in financial position.

C. Assets generally are listed in order of their liquidity.

D. The balance sheet provides information useful in assessing liquidity.

9. A delivery van that cost Rs. 40,000 has an expected service life of eight years and a

residual value of Rs. 4,000. Depreciation for the second year of the asset's life using

the sum-of-the-years'-digits method is:

A. Rs. 4,500 B. Rs. 7,000

C. Rs. 8,000 D. None of the above

10. Cash discount allowed by a creditor should be credited to

A. Creditors Account B. Allowance Account

C. Debtors Account D. None of these

11. Journal proper is meant for recording

A. Credit purchase of fixed assets only

B. Returns of goods

C. All such transactions for which no special journal has been kept by the

business

D. Cash purchase of goods

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12. When balance as per cash book is the starting point, un-presented cheques are

A. Added B. Subtracted

C. Not Considered D. None of these

13. A statement sent by the seller to his customer intimating that his account has been

adjusted with the amount of goods returned by him or any other allowance granted is

a;

A. Debit Note B. Credit Note

C. Cash Discount D. Trade Discount

14. Unwritten amount of deferred revenue expenditure is shown as

A. Liabilities B. Current Liabilities

C. Asset D. Expense

15. Rs. 3000 received from the sale of old machinery has been wrongly posted to Sales

Account. The accounts to be debited and credited respectively to rectify this mistake

are

A. Sales and Machinery accounts B. Machinery and Sales Account

C. Sales and Sales return accounts D. None of these

16. Retained earnings will change over time because of several factors. Which of the

following factors would explain an increase in retained earnings?

A. Net Loss B. Net Income

C. Dividends D. Investment by share holders

17. Which of the following is an example of conservatism?

A. Deferring the recognition of gains and losses

B. Reporting liabilities in a footnote rather than on the balance sheet

C. Not recognizing a bad debt loss on a receivable until it is proven uncollectible

D. Deferring the recognition of gains, but recognizing losses

18. A sale should not be recognized as revenue by the seller at the time of sale if:

A. payment was made by cheque.

B. the selling price is less than the normal selling price

C. the buyer has a right to return the product and the amount of future returns

cannot be reasonably estimated.

D. none of the above

19. A decrease in economic resources resulting from ordinary revenue generating

activities is a(n):

A. Cost B. Expenditure

C. Expense D. None of these

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20. Each of the following is an essential characteristic of an expense, except:

A. if it is a result of activities that constitute the entity's ongoing major operations

B. if it represents distributions to the stockholders of the entity.

C. if it represents an outflow of assets or the incurrence of a liability.

D. If it represents actual expected cash outflows (or the equivalent)

21. The balance in a bank account appearing in a two column cash book;

A. Will always be on the credit side

B. If it has a balance it could be on either side

C. Will always be on the debit side

D. Will always be either on the debit side or credit side

What would be the bank balance as at 11th May 2012 as reported in the bank statement

in each of the following circumstances: (Questions 22 to 24)

22. As at this date the deposits awaiting clearance is Rs. 18,240 and cheques yet to be

presented for payment is Rs. 21,590; while the bank balance as recorded in the Cash

book was Rs. 9,480

A. Rs. 12,830 o/d B. Rs. 6130

C. Rs. 12,830 D. None of these

23. As at this date the Cash Book reports a bank balance of Rs. 11,450, without recording

bank charges of Rs. 35. Deposits awaiting clearance and cheques yet to be presented

amount to Rs. 49,240 and Rs. 29,780 respectively.

A. Rs. 30,845 B. Rs. 8045 o/d

C. Rs. 8010 o/d D. None of these

24. The Cash Book reports a bank balance of Rs. 4,250, without recording a credit

transfer from a customer of Rs. 7,200 and a standing order payment of Rs. 4,500.

Deposits awaiting clearance were Rs. 22,400 and the value of cheques yet to be

presented on this date was Rs. 9,480.

A. Rs. 5970 o/d B. Rs. 11370 o/d


25. A machine acquired for Rs. 360,000 on 1st April 2006 and depreciated at 10% of cost

per annum was sold for Rs. 112,000 on 30th September 2011. Depreciation is time

apportioned. Expenses of disposal amounted to Rs. 3,000. What is the gain or loss on

disposal of the machine to be reported in?

A. Rs. 53,000 Loss B. Rs. 161,000 Loss

C. Rs. 161,000 Gain D. Rs. 53,000 Gain

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26. The total of the debit balances listed in a trial balance will not be equal to that of the

credit balances.

A. If an amount entered in the prime entry book is not posted

B. If an amount drawn by the owner is posted to the debit of the capital account.

C. If a transaction has not been entered in the book of prime entry.

D. If an amount paid for purchases is posted to stationery account.

27. Which of the following errors will a trial balance fail to reveal?

A. Rs. 7,500 received from sales being posted to the Sales account as Rs. 5,700

B. Sales account total being added as Rs. 36,400 instead of Rs. 39,400

C. Payment of Rs. 240 for stationery being posted as Rs. 420

D. Payment of Rs.2,800 for goods to be sold being posted to Stationery account

28. Which of the following errors would have caused a difference in the trial balance?

A. Posting a payment of Rs. 21,000 for stationery as Rs.12,000 to the Stationery

account

B. Posting to Motor vehicles account Rs. 600 paid for servicing vehicles

C. Recording a sale of Rs. 30,000 as Rs. 3,000 in the Cash Book

D. Not recording in the Cash Account Rs. 15,000 paid for purchasing goods for

sale

Assuming that each of the errors stated below is the only accounting error, identify the

amount by which the Trial Balance will fail to balance. (Questions 29 to 31)

29. Rs. 360 received on sales was not posted

A. Excess Debit of Rs. 720. B. Excess Credit of Rs. 360

C. Excess Debit of Rs. 360. D. None of these

30. Rs. 1,800 paid for purchases was posted as Rs. 180

A. Trial balance will balance B. Excess credit of Rs. 1,800

C. Excess credit of Rs. 1,620 D. None of these

31. Rs. 145 paid for servicing the vehicle was posted to the Motor Vehicles account

A. Excess debit of Rs. 145 B. Excess credit of Rs. 145

C. Trial Balance will balance D. None of these

32. As per circular No. 32/91, remittance of monthly instalment of the tickets substituted

by KSFE should be made by transfer challans on the due date by recording which of

the following entries?

A. Substituted Chitty Dr Concerned Chitty Cr.

B. Foreman’s Investment in Chitty Dr Concerned Chitty Memo Cr.

C. Foreman’s Investment in Chitty Dr Substituted Chitty Cr.

D. None of the above

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33. Cheques issued but outstanding for more than 6 months as on March 31st should be

transferred to

A. Un-presented cheques account by Debiting Bank account

B. Un-presented cheques account by Debiting the concerned customer account

C. No entry is needed


34. The entry for profit/loss on sale of fixed asset is

A. Concerned Asset Dr. Depreciation reserve Cr.

B. Depreciation Reserve Dr. Profit/Loss on sale Cr.

C. Depreciation reserve Dr. Concerned Asset Cr.


Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. (Questions

35 to 42)

There is no shortage of problems that plague public policy and social life in India

today. But one of them is not talked about very much, though it has important – even

crucial – ramifications for people’s lives: the lack of basic economic literacy. This is

a widespread problem, not just among ordinary citizens but even among the media,

legislators and elected representatives, decision-makers in public and private

organizations, and others. This has very adverse consequences because it means there

is usually an inadequate understanding of the processes that are set into play by

particular policy choices, or of other possibilities. So the public at large is not in a

position to interrogate economic policies that are only too often presented as

“necessary” or “inevitable” according to some opaque but supposedly technocratic

determination.

One reason for this is, of course, the disagreement among economists themselves

about the nature and working of economic processes. After all, in this discipline there

are continuing and unresolved debates on almost everything. The underlying – but

rarely explicit – political and ideological predilections of different economic analysts

determine not only the choice of assumptions made in theoretical models but even the

analyses of empirical outcomes. Even well-established ideas tend to be clouded over

either by a miasma of obfuscating jargon or by so many signs of two-handedness that

people are just left confused.

35. The theme being discussed in the passage is:

A. Public policy and social life in India today

B. Ramifications of people’s lives in India today

C. Lack of basic economic literacy among people

D. The problems among the ordinary citizens

7/14

36. The word “two-handedness” in the passage means:

A. Capacity to use both hands simultaneously

B. Discussing the pros and cons of an idea

C. Simultaneous interpretation and misinterpretation of an idea

D. Juggling of ideas in both hands

37. The word “obfuscating” means:

A. Apparent

B. Making clearer and more understandable

C. Making less clear and more difficult to understand

D. Obsequious

38. “To plague public policy” means:

A. To boost public policy B. To foster public policy

C. To deal with public policy D. To cause trouble to public policy

39. Some economic policies are made out to be “necessary” or “inevitable” as a result of

supposedly:

A. The intervention of civil society

B. The determination of top bureaucrats

C. The determination of experts in the field of science and engineering

D. The decision of the vested interest groups

40. The term “empirical outcomes” means:

A. The result based on experiments and experience

B. The result of imperial economy

C. The result of experiments in various empires

D. The result based on ideas and theories

41. “Predilections” means:

A. Premonition B. Predictions

C. Presumption D. Preference

42. Which of the following means the opposite of “explicit”?

A. Complicit B. Implicit

C. Requisite D. Composite

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In the following questions, chose the world, which is most nearly the same in meaning to the

bold word. (Questions 43 to 50 )

43. His style is quite transparent

A. Verbose B. Involved

C. Lucid D. Witty

44. I don’t see why he should be so Obsequious to his brother just because the latter is

rich.

A. Unfriendly B. Unusually kind

C. Offensive D. Excessively respectful

45. His trite remarks failed to cut any ice with the audience.

A. Hackneyed B. Sharp

C. Illogical D. Bitter

46. Sporadic rise in the temperature caused us much worry.

A. Scattered B. Irregular

C. Irksome D. Frequent

47. A movement for the word unity is in the offing

A. In the air B. On decline

C. About to start D. At the end

48. He made a very innocuous proposal in the committee meeting, but his opponents

were furiously opposed to it.

A. Useful B. Agreeable

C. Pleasant D. Harmless

49. The opposition made a strident demand for putting the bill to vote.

A. Powerful B. Vociferous

C. Brave D. Courageous.

50. I tried to persuade him to change his mind, but he remained adamant.

A. Stubborn B. Defensive

C. Aggressive D. Foolish

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51. Techniques for making business messages effective include;

A. Emphasizing any negative elements to make the message clear

B. Pointing out the positive impact on their company in order to show employees

there are benefits

C. Taking into account how your audience feels about you as the person

delivering the message

D. Limiting every business message to only one purpose

52. The question “What is in it for me?” in a business message relates most closely to

A. The level of formality

B. A description of the features of a product or policy

C. The organizational structure

D. Audience benefit

53. Passive verbs would not be used in business communication if the goal is to;

A. Emphasize the object receiving the action, not the agent

B. Make it clear who is responsible for doing the action when there is no agent in

the sentence

C. Provide coherence within a paragraph

D. Avoid assigning blame

54. Which one of the following statements would best apply to a microcomputer?

A. They are exclusively sing user systems

B. They must be portable

C. They are not used as professional workstations

D. They can include a size classification called “laptop”

55. Which one of the following statements would best describe a personal digital

assistant?

A. Support applications with heavy mathematical computing and graphics display

demands such as computer-aided design

B. Used to coordinate telecommunications and resource sharing in small local

area networks and internet and intranet web sites.

C. Designed for convenient mobile communications and computing using touch

screens

D. All of the above

56. The CPU and memory are located on the ........................

A. expansion board B. storage device

C. motherboard D. output device

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57. The section of the CPU that selects, interprets and sees to the execution of program

instructions

A. Memory B. Register unit

C. Control unit D. ALU

58. Process is

A. program in High level language kept on disk

B. contents of main memory

C. a program in execution

D. a job in secondary memory

59. A computer cannot "boot" if it does not have the

A. Assembler B. Compiler

C. Loader D. Operating system

60. Memory:

A. Is a device that performs a sequence of operations specified by instructions in

memory

B. Is the device where information is stored

C. Is a sequence of instructions

D. Is typically characterized by interactive processing and time-slicing of the

CPU's time to allow quick response to each user.

61. In virtual memory systems, dynamic address translation;

A. Is the hardware necessary to implement paging

B. Stores pages at a specific location on disk

C. Is useless when swapping is used

D. Is part of the operating system paging algorithm

62. PROLOG is an example of

A. Object Oriented Programming language

B. Structured Programming Language

C. Logic Programming Language

D. All of the above

63. …………….. is a popular graphic browser.

A. Chrome B. Lynx

C. Editor D. None of these

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64. ISDN stands for

A. Integral Service Dynamic Network

B. International Subscriber Dialup Network

C. International Service Digital Network

D. Integrated Service Digital Network

65. Which of the following TCP/IP protocol is used for transferring electronic mail

messages from one machine to another?

A. FTP B. SNMP

C. SMTP D. RPC

66. Communication circuits that transmit data in both directions but not at the same time

are operating in;

A. A simplex mode B. A half-duplex mode

C. A full-duplex mode D. An asynchronous mode

67. With respect to a network interface card, the term 10/100 refers to

A. Protocol speed B. A fiber speed

C. Megabits per second D. Minimum & maximum server speed

68. Which of the following is used for modulation and demodulation?

A. Modem B. Protocols

C. Gateway D. Multiplexer

69. Which of the following device is used to connect two systems, especially if the

systems use different protocols?

A. Hub B. Bridge

C. Gateway D. Repeater

70. Frequency of failure and network recovery time after a failure are measures of the

…………….. of a network.

A. Performance B. Reliability

C. Security D. Feasibility

71. A…………….. connection provides a dedicated link between two devices.

A. point-to-point B. multipoint

C. primary D. secondary

72. In Smart MIS, which sub menu is used for Scheme Settings?

A. Report B. Data Entry

C. Administration D. Fund Flow

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73. KSFE CAS module is used to ……

A. Create Inter Branch transaction records at branches

B. Upload the file from the source branch

C. Accept / Return the IB details at the destination branch

D. all of these

74. Ponnonam software is used;

A For necessary data entry of the chitties registered and the customer enrolled in

the chitties.

B. For announcing the chitty proposals

C. For enabling the customers to make EOI

D. None of these

75. Ethical hacking is promoted by

A. Cyber Criminals

B. Cyber Police

C. Organization to check the vulnerability of their web security system

D. International Computer Security Organizations

* * * * *

Space for rough work

1/12

Booklet No.

Qualifying Test for Promotion to the position of Manager Grade IV in Kerala State


Paper I

Date: 17th

February 2013 Time: 10 a.m to 11.30 a.m

Total Marks : 100








the instructions in the OMR sheet carefully to understand the correct method of marking answers.

1. The minimum period for which an increment can be barred without cumulative effect is

..........


C. 9 months D. 12 months

2. An employee was on LWA without medical certificate from 01-05-2011 to 15-06-2011. If his

increment date before this leave was on 01-04-2011, when would be his next date of

increment?

A. 01-04-2012 B. 16-06-2012

C. 01-05-2012 D. 01-06-2012

3. An officer drawing a substantive pay of Rs 37,940 in the scale of pay of 36,140-900-40640-

1000-48640-1100-49740 from 01-07-2010 was promoted to the next higher post with a scale

of pay of Rs. 40,640-1000-48640-1100-57440 on 15-10-2010 on a substantive basis. His pay

in the new post is to be fixed at ........................... on 15-10-2010

A. Rs. 40640 B. Rs. 41640

C. Rs. 42640 D. None of these

4. Notional increment is allowed under which of the following rules for fixation of pay in KSR

Part I

A. Rule 28 B. Rule 28 A

C. Rule 37 A D. Rule 33

5. An officer drawing Rs 15,380 w.e.f 01-06-2010 in the scale of pay of Rs. 13210-22360 was

promoted on 01-08-2010 in the scale of Rs 14,620 – 25,280. If he opted his fixation on the

date of increment what is his pay on 01-08-2011 in the promoted post? (Relevant portion of

master scale: 14,980-400-16980-440-18740)

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A. Rs. 16,180. B. Rs. 16,580

C. Rs 16,980 D. Rs. 17,420

6. Paternity leave is available to the husband for .............

A. One child B. Two children

C. 3 Children D. No such limit

7. An officer relieved in the FN of Saturday on 16-02-2013 to another office (where Sunday is

not working) within 8 KM shall join in the new office on .......

A. 16-02-2013 FN B. 16-02-2013 AN

C. 18-02-2013 FN D. 18-02-2013 AN

8. For a transfer from one place to another involving distance of 400 KM, the officer travelled

by bus, even though the places are connected by train. The joining time allowable in normal

case for preparation plus journey time is ............... days.

A. 7 Days B. 8 Days


9. Find the date of joining of an officer who has been relieved from station ‘A’ in the AN of 4th

January 2013 (Friday) to Station B.

Distance from Station A to Station B - 400 KM (Rail)

Residence to Railway Station at Station A - 15 KM (Road)

Railway Station to Residence at Station B - 15 KM (Road)

A. 14-01-2013 AN B 14-01-2013 FN

C 15-01-2013 AN D 15-01-2013 FN

10. Which of the following leave is not allowed to be exchanged under commutation of leave

A. Commuted leave B. Half Pay leave

C. Earned Leave D. Leave without allowance

11. Which of the following statement is not correct according to the rules on leave in KSR?

A. Leave cannot be claimed as a right

B. Leave on loss of pay exceeding 3 months requires sanction of Government

C. Leave can be denied only by leave sanctioning authority

D. No leave shall be granted to an officer while under suspension.

12. Special leave according to KSR part I Rule 77 does not include

A. Leave not due B. Child Adoption Leave

C. Hospital leave D. Maternity Leave

13. Which of the following kind of leave is not debited against the leave account of the officer?

A. Half pay leave B. Commuted Leave

C. leave not due D. Leave without allowance

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14. Which of the following leave is allowed to be combined with ordinary leave in certain

circumstances?

A. Casual Leave B. Special Casual Leave

C. Compensation Leave D. None of these

15. Mr. A drawing Rs. 47640 w.e.f 01-08-2010 in the scale of pay of Rs. 36140-900-40640-1000-

48640-1100-49740 was promoted to the scale of pay of Rs. 40,640-1000-48640-1100-57440

on 14-10-2010 in substantiate capacity. What shall be his pay as on 01-08 2011 in the

promoted post?

A. Rs. 48,640. B. Rs. 49,740

C . Rs. 50,840 D. Rs. None of these

16. An officer drawing Rs. 37,940 w.e.f 01-08-2011 in the scale of pay of Rs. 36,140-900-40640-

1000-48640-1100-49740 was promoted in an officiating capacity on 14-10-2011 in the scale

of pay of Rs. 40,640-1000-48,640-1100-57,440. Find his pay on 01-08-2012

A. Rs. 40,640 B. Rs. 41,640

C. Rs.42,640 D. Rs. None of these

17. An officer drawing a substantive pay of Rs. 19,240 w.e.f 01-10-2010 in the scale of Rs 14,620-

360-14,980-400-16,980-440-18740-500-21,240-560-24,040-620-25,280 was promoted on a

regular basis on 21-03-2011 in the scale of pay of Rs. 16,180-400-16,980-440-18,740-500-

21,240-560-24,040-620-27,140-680-29,180. If the officer opted fixation under Rule 28 A on

the date of increment in the lower post what is his pay on the date of promotion in the

promoted post?

A. Rs. 19,240 B. Rs. 19,740

C. Rs. 20,240 D. Rs. 20,740

18. When promoted to a higher post while drawing maximum of a time scale of pay in the lower

post, the rate of notional increment is.................

A. The next increment in the master scale

B. The rate of increment last drawn in the lower post

C. No Notional increment

D. First increment in the higher scale

19. Which of the following is not correct?

A. Those who have completed 3 year continuous service will become eligible to EL at

the rate of 1/11 of the period spent on duty

B. Pay and allowances that are admissible to an officer while on earned leave are also

admissible for terminal surrender

C. Regular employees who have put in less than one year service are also eligible to

surrender earned leave at their credit.

D. A permanent substantive officer earns earned leave at the rate of 1/22 of period

spent on duty for the first year of service.

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20. An officer travels at 7 a.m. in official (Department) vehicle from Trivandrum to

Nedumangaud and reaches at 8 a.m. He returns at 9 a.m. to Trivandrum on the same day

and reaches at 10 p.m. Distance travelled 18 KM one way. DA rate is Rs. 200. Find the

admissible TA

A. Nil B. Rs. 100

C. Rs. 200 D. Rs.300

21. An officer entered service on 24-08-2003. He availed earned leave for 60 days and LWA for

6 months for treatment. Find the half pay leave at his credit on 31-12-2012.



22. Which of the following officers will not come under Grade II (b) of the classification of

officers for the purpose of TA.

A. Officer drawing pay of Rs. 13,900 B. Offices drawing pay of Rs. 20,740

C. Last grade accompanying Governor D. All of the above

23. Which of the following is a special conveyance?

A. Auto-rikshaw B. Motor Cycle

C. Scooter D. Motor Car

24. The rate of daily allowance admissible to a Grade I officer who travel within the state, as per

9th

pay revision is ......

A. Rs. 350 B. Rs. 300

C Rs. 250 D. Rs. 200

25. An officer started from Station A at 10 a.m reached Station B at 10.25 a.m travelling 15 KM.

He halts at Station B for 7 hours, and reached Station A at 5.25 p.m on the same day. Bus

fare Rs. 18.00 for one way, DA Rs. 200. What will be his eligible TA?

A. Rs. 336 B Rs. 236

C. Rs. 100 D. Rs. 200

26. As per definition of Chit Funds Act 1982, the share of a subscriber in a Chit is called;

A. Prize amount B. Dividend

C. Ticket D. Discount

27. No person shall issue or cause to be issued any notice, circular, prospectus, proposal or

other document inviting the public to subscribe for tickets in any chit unless that contains a ;

A. Statement of Chit agreement

B. Statement as per S 4 of the Chit Funds Act

C. Statement of Risk

D. Statement of Risk and Uncertainty

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28. If a prized subscriber failed to pay subscriptions regularly, he shall liable to

A. Be terminated

B. Have his name removed from the list of subscribers

C. Make a consolidated payment of all the future subscriptions forthwith

D. None of these

29. Which of the following is not true with regard to the termination of a Chit?

A. The period specified in the chit agreement expired provided the payment dues to all

the subscribers has been completed

B. All the non-prized and unpaid prized subscribers and the foreman consent in writing

C. All the non-prized and prized subscribers and the foreman consent in writing

D. A foreman dies or becomes of unsound mind or is otherwise incapacitated and the

Chit is not continued in accordance with the provisions of the Chit agreement.

30. All the records pertaining to a Chit shall be kept by the foreman for a period of ...... years

from the date of termination of Chit.

A. 8 Years

B. 10 Years

C. Till the registrar asks them to be destroyed.

D. After the inspection by the Reserve Bank of India.

31. Which of the following is not true with regard to the winding up of Chit as per S 48 & 49 of

Chit Funds Act.

A. If the foreman fails to deposit any amount required to be deposited under any of the

provisions of this Act.

B. If it is proved to the satisfaction of the Registrar that the foreman is unable to pay

the amount due to the subscribers.

C. If it is just and equitable that the Chit should be wound up

D. When non-prized and unpaid prized subscribers representing 20 per cent of the

amount submit an application for winding up before the registrar of concerned

state.

32. According to S. 70 of the Chit Funds Act, any party, aggrieved by any order/award by the

Registrar or the nominee can appeal to the State Government within ......... from the date of

order or award.

A. One month B. Two months

C. Six months D. Three months

33. According to S 86 of the Chit funds Act 1982, which of the following Institutions can carry on

Chit Business?

A. Nationalized Banks B. Cooperative banks

C. Scheduled Bank D. None of these

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34. Which of the following is not a mandatory register to be kept by a foreman as per Rule 27 of

Kerala Chit Funds Rules 2012.

A. Certificate of sufficiency of security in Form XI

B. Register of subscribers in Form XIII

C. A ledger in form XIV

D. A day book in form XV

35. The qualifications, to be appointed as a Registrar’s nominee as per Rule 50 of Kerala Chit

Funds Rules 2012, are

A. A degree in law from a university recognized by Government of Kerala

B. A degree in law from a University recognized by Government of Kerala and holds

office as a Deputy Registrar or District Registrar or Sub Registrar in the Registration

Department.

C. Holds office as Deputy Registrar or District Registrar or Sub Registrar in the

Registration Department


36. Interest on prized chitties started before 01-11-2012 is

A. 9% B. 14%

C. 10% D. None of these

37. Which of the following is not correct with regard to New Housing Finance Scheme (NHFS)

A. Repayment should be completed within the date of attaining 65 years

B. The maximum repayment period for purchase of house site is 5 years

C. Repayment period is 5 years for loan taken for the renovation of building

D. Interest to be charged on fixation of EMI for loans from 5 to 50 lakhs is 11% (Yearly

diminishing)


A. Not to accept cardamom Estate as security

B. The maximum estimated market value of Rubber/Coffee/Tea/Coconut plantation

should be below Rs 5 lakhs per acre

C. Paddy fields having road access, tractorable and two crops will fetch a maximum

estimated market value of Rs. 1 lakh per acre

D. Managers should forward the files in respect of additional charges on properties

already under mortgage to Company for the sanction of the AGM in the case of

Plantations mentioned above.


A. Every agent should contribute to the enrolment in every chitty at least to the extent

of 10% of the total tickets.

B. The above should be completed within a period of 4 months, otherwise they will be

warned that they are liable to be terminated.

C. The agents should not be allowed to participate in auction for others.

D. The agents should not issue cheque for the payment of others.

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40. An agent who enrols tickets of Chits with denomination above Rs. 10,000 and duration

below 40 months will get only ...... as agency commission

A. 5% B. 8%

C. 12% D. None of these

41. Appraiser charges at the time of pledging gold for giving gold loan is;

A. 0.1% of the loan amount subject to a maximum of Rs. 50

B. 0.2% of the loan amount subject to a maximum of Rs. 100

C. Rs. 125 per loan

D. Based on the time spent by the appraiser

42. The Company pays service Taxes on;

A. Prized intimation and surety confirmation charges with regard to Chit

B. Writing fee/documentation fee with regard to Chitty

C. Incidental charges with regard to loans

D. All of the above

43. The due date for remittance of service tax collected except in the month of March is;

A. On or before 1st

working day of the following month

B. On or before 5th

of the following month

C. On or before 10th

of the following month

D. None of these

44. While remitting the amount of service tax under the Head “ Service Tax” in the BAS, the

entry will be

A. Service Tax A/C Dr

To Bank Cr

B. Services Tax A/C Dr

To Service Tax Payable Cr

C. Service Tax payable A/C Dr

To Bank Cr

D. None of these

45. The maximum amount an assistant can draw as overdraft under Sugama Akshaya overdraft

for employees is;

A. Rs. 50,000 B. Rs. 100,000


46. Marketing Myopia means manufacturing products according to

A. Company’s requirements B. Industry requirements

C. End user requirements D. Market requirements

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47. Selling concept focuses on;

A. selling products according to customer needs

B. selling products at affordable price

C. selling products according to market needs

D. None of these

48. Integrated Marketing focuses on treating each department as

A. Internal customer B. external customer

C. Producer D. All of the above

49. Loyalty v/s Selling cost quadrant deals with identification of’

A. Degree of customer loyalty B. Amount of selling cost

C. Different types of customers D. Relationship between loyalty and

selling cost

50. Marketing, sales and service become;

A. Functions of business B. Touch points of customers

C. Dimensions of service business D. End process of business

51. Attaining customer loyalty leads to;

A. Increasing growth of the markets B. Increasing sales of a company

C. Enhancing customer life time value D. None of these

52. Holistic Marketing Concept deals with;

A. Producing products according producer’s requirements

B. Producing products based on price points

C. Producing products according to consumer needs

D. producing products to enhance customer relationship

53. Customer relationship management deals with;

A. Developing new customer base

B. Developing and managing relationship with customers

C. Ensuring the contribution of existing customers

D. all the above

54. Understand social need deals with;

A. Delivering products/services to satisfy potential value of consumers

B. Delivering products/services to satisfy social value of consumers

C. Delivering products/services to satisfy perceived value of consumers

D. Delivering products/services to satisfy future value of consumers

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55. Potential value offering deals with;

A. Creating loyal consumers B. Creating brand value consumers

C. Creating price sensitive consumers D. Creating high value consumers

56. Relationship marketing focuses on

A. Developing relationship with consumers

B. Developing and managing relationship with consumers

C. Developing, managing and making consumers contribute to business

D. Managing the churn of consumers

57. Touch points focus on;

A. Acquisition of new consumers

B. Ensuring interaction with consumers

C. Ensuring contribution of consumers

D. All the above

58. Listening post deals with;

A. Listening to customer needs B. Listening to customer demands

C. Listening to customer complaints D. Listening to customer enquires

59. Strategic relationship deals with;

A. Emotional connection between a company and consumers

B. A long term relationship

C. Building a fruitful relationship

D. All the above

60. Customer retention deals with;

A. Managing existing customers through continuous value offering

B. Regaining lost customers through superior value offering

C. retaining existing customers through superior value offering

D. None of the these

61. Customerization deals with;

A. Develop and offer products/services to a particular segment of consumers

B. Develop and offer products/services to individual consumers

C. Developing and offer products/services to a group of consumers

D. All of these.

62. Customer Evangelist means;

A. Loyal consumer B. Contributing consumer

C. Ardent consumer D. None of the above

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63. Customer life time value deals with;

A. Years spent by a consumer in a company

B. Amount spent by a consumer in a company

C. Amount of contribution by a consumer in a company

D. All the above

64. CRM hierarchy pyramid deals with;

A. Process of communicating information to consumers

B. Process of converting customer information into profitable business

C. Process of communicating customer information for profitable business

D. Process of communicating customer information to different departments

65. Brand concept deals with

A. Name of a product B. Value creation of a product

C. Reliability of a product D. All the above

66. Brand value is measured by

A. Popularity of a brand

B. Ability of a brand to generate revenue

C. Ability of a brand to satisfy consumers


67. Brand equity deals with

A. Premium value of a brand B. Perceived value of a brand

C. Potential value of a brand D. All the above

68. Brand communication deals with;

A. Communicating features of a brand

B. Communicating value of a brand

C. Communicating perceived value of a brand

D. communicating potential value of a brand

69. Brand extension deals with

A. Selling products under same brand

B. Selling products under different brands

C. Selling products under different sub brands

D. None of these

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70. Power brand deals with;

A. Create value to consumers

B. Generate large revenue to a company

C. Powerful to attract new consumers

D. Retaining existing customers

71. Fighter brand deals with

A. Fighting with competitive brands through offering value

B. Fighting with competitive brands through offering low price points

C. Fighting with competitive brands through offering promotions

D. All of the above

72. De-marketing deals with

A. Creation of a new brand B. Removal of a powerful brand

C. Modification of existing brand D. None of these

73. Post purchase behaviour focuses on;

A. Experience of consumers towards a brand

B. Future course of action by consumers

C. creation or destruction of a brand

D. All of these

74. Trade segment primarily deals with;

A. Institutional Consumers B. Organized retailers

C. Distribution Channel D. All of the above

75. Multilevel marketing deals with;

A. Selling products through retailers

B. Selling products through consumers

C. Selling products through distributions

D. Selling products through dealers

* * * * *

1/12

Booklet No.

Qualifying Test for Promotion to the position of Manager Grade IV in Kerala State


Paper II

Date: 17th

February 2013 Time: 12 noon to 1.30 p.m

Total Marks : 100








the instructions in the OMR sheert carefully to understand the correct method of marking answers.

1. Given that the current ratio is 2:1. If the net working capital is Rs. 60,600, then the

amount of current liabilities is:

A. Rs. 30,300 B. Rs. 60,600

C. Rs. 1,21,200 D. Rs. 90,900

2. XYZ Ltd. has incurred a net loss of Rs. 5,000 in an accounting year. Depreciation for

the relevant year was Rs. 1000, preliminary expenses written off was Rs. 3,000 and a

loss of Rs. 4,000 due to sale of plant and machinery. Based on this data, fund from

operation is:

A. Rs. 3,000 B. Rs. 2,000

C. Rs. 5,000 D. Rs. 4,000

3. If opening stock is Rs. 3000, closing stock Rs. 5000, sales Rs. 40,000 and margin 20

percent, then stock turnover is:

A. 6 times B. 5 times

C. 7 ½ times D. 8 times

4. A trader bought goods for resale on credit for Rs.1,000 in July and paid for them in

August. These were sold on credit for Rs. 1,500 in September and the money was

received in October.

Which of the following statement is true applying the accrual and matching concepts?

A. The cost was incurred in July, the revenue was earned in September and the

profit of Rs. 500 arose in September.

B. The cost was incurred in August, the revenue was earned in October and the

profit of Rs. 500 arose in October

C. There was a loss of Rs. 1,000 in July and a profit of Rs.1,500 in September.

D. There was a loss of Rs. 1,000 in August and a profit of Rs. 1,500 in October

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5. Which of the following statements is true?

A. An increase in current assets decreases working capital

B. A decrease in current asset increases working capital

C. A decrease in current liabilities increases working capital

D. An increase in current liabilities increases working capital

6. Writing off an asset means making the WDV (Written Down Value) of the asset Nil

but;

A. Removing the asset from the stock of assets

B. Replacing the asset

C. Discarding the asset

D. Not removing the asset from the stock of assets.

7. X has an accounting year ending on 31 October. He pays rent quarterly in advance on

1 January, 1 April, 1 July and 1 October. Up until the 30 June 19X7 this was Rs.

3,000 a quarter but on 1 July 19X7 this was raised to Rs. 3,300 per quarter. The

charge to the profit and loss account in respect of rent for the year ended 31st October

19X7 is:

A. 12,400 B. 12,500

C. 12,600 D. 12,800

8. The two primary decision-specific qualities that make accounting information useful

are

A. Verifiability and representational faithfulness

B. Predictive value and feedback value

C. Cost effectiveness and materiality

D. Relevance and reliability

9. R & Co sells goods on cash as well as credit basis. The following particulars are

extracted from their books of accounts for the Calendar year 2012.

Total Gross sales - Rs. 100,000

Cash Sales (Included in the above) - 20,000

Sales Return - 7,000

Total Debtors as on 31-12-2012 - 9,000

Bill Receivable as on 31-12-2012 - 2,000

The average collection period is closest to: (Assume 360 days in a year)

A. 54.25 days B. 60.32 Days

C. 49.5 Days D. None of these

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10. The following data have been taken from G Company’s financial records for the

current year.

Book Value per share - Rs. 140

Dividend per share - Rs. 12

Earning per share - Rs. 20

Market Value per share - Rs. 180

The Price earnings ratio is;

A. 1.67 to 1 B. Rs. 7.0 to 1

C. 9.0 to 1 D. 15.0 to 1

11. Financial leverage will be negative when:

A. The return on total assets is less than the rate of return on common

stockholders' equity.

B. The return on total assets is less than the rate of return demanded by creditors.

C. Total liabilities are less than stockholders' equity

D. Total liabilities are less than total assets

Selected information from the 2012 accounting records of a firm is as follows.

Debtors Velocity - 3 Months

Creditors Velocity - 2 Months

Stock Velocity - 8 times

Capital-turnover Ratio - 2.5 times

Fixed asset turnover Ratio - 8 times

Gross Profit turnover Ratio - 25%

Gross profit in a year amounts to Rs. 80,000. There is no long term loan or overdraft.

Reserves and surplus amount to Rs. 28,000. Liquid assets are Rs. 97,333. Closing

stock of the year is Rs. 2000 more than the opening stock. Bills receivable amount

Rs. 5000 and Bills payable to Rs. 2000. (Assume 360 days in a year and 30 days in a

month. Assume all sales as credit sales and all purchases as credit purchases)

Answer questions 12 to 15 based on the above data

12 The sales are;

A. Rs. 3,20,000 B. Rs. 80,00,000


13 Total debtors are

A. Rs. 3,20,000 B. Rs. 80,00,000


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14. The closing stock is

A. Rs. 30,000 B. Rs. 29,000

C. Rs. 58,000 D. Rs. 31,000

15. The fixed assets are

A. Rs. 50,000 B. Rs. 40,000

C. Rs. 60,000 D. Rs. 320,000

Answer Questions 16 and 17 from the data furnished below

Opening and closing balances of the machinery account (at cost) appearing in the

comparative balance sheets are Rs. 100,000 and Rs. 300,000 respectively. Balances

of accumulated depreciation in respect of machinery in the beginning was Rs. 40,000

and at the end Rs. 88,000. Further it is given that

a. A machine costing Rs. 100,000 was bought during the year in exchange of

fully paid debentures; and

b. An old machine costing Rs. 20,000 (accumulated depreciation Rs. 12,000) was

sold during the year for Rs. 6000.

16. The further purchase of machinery, if any, during the year was

A. Rs. 15,000 B. Rs. 200,000

C. Rs. 120,000 D. No further purchase

17. The amount of depreciation provided in the Profit and Loss account during the year

was:

A Rs. 12,000 B. Rs. 6,000

C. Rs. 2,000 D. Rs. 60,000

18. Right issue of ordinary shares results in

A. A positive cash flow B. A negative cash flow

C. No change in cash position D. An increase in non-current assets

19. The disposal of a large number of shares by a major share holder results in

A. No cash flow effect to the business

B. A positive cash flow to the business

C. A negative cash flow to the business

D. An increase in long term liabilities of the business

20. A company wishes to payout all available profits as dividends. Net profit is Rs.

26,600. There are 20,000, 8% preference shares of Rs. 1 each and 50,000 ordinary

shares of Rs 1 each. Rs 5,000 is to be transferred to General Reserve. What ordinary

dividends are to be paid in percentage terms?

A. 20 per cent B. 10 per cent

C. 40 per cent D. 60 per cent

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21. Which is not a responsibility of the budget committee?

A. Providing central guidance

B. Providing continued communication of the budget to the organization

C. Rejecting department budgets that do not reflect realistic amounts

D. Preparing department budgets

22. The following projections have been made:

Cash sales Rs. 380,000

Beginning cash balance Rs. 30,000

Operating expenses of Rs 420,000 including depreciation of Rs. 20,000

Interest expenses of Rs 12,000 is included in operating expenses

Borrowing - Rs. 50,000

End of period accrued liabilities of Rs. 20,000 for operating expenses

What is the projected ending cash balance?

A. Rs. 80,000 B. Rs 40,000

C. Rs. 52,000 D. Rs. 48,000

23. Sales Budget

Month October November December January

Credit Sales Rs. 40,000 Rs. 50,000 Rs. 60,000 Rs. 35,000

Expected cash collection pattern is 50% in the month of sale, 30% in the following

month, and 15% in the second following month. Five percent of the credit sale is

uncollectible. December collection will be:

A. Rs 35,000 B. Rs 51,000

C. Rs. 54,000 D. Rs. 50,000

24. Which one of the following is an operating activity?

A. Issuing shares for a building

B. Redemption of bonds at maturity

C. Collecting the interest on investment

D. Purchasing common shares of another entity as an investment

25. The cost of goods sold was Rs. 190,000. Beginning merchandise inventory was

Rs.14,000 and ending merchandise inventory was Rs. 22000. During the year prepaid

expenses decreased by Rs. 6000, Accounts receivable increased by Rs. 6,200 and

accounts payable increased by Rs. 3000. The amount reported for cash paid for

merchandise would be

A. Rs. 201,000 B. Rs. 195,000

C. Rs. 198,000 D. Rs. 185,000

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26. The cash provided from operations was Rs. 23,000. The net increase in cash was Rs.

22,000. If the net cash inflow from financing activities was Rs. 15,000, then the net

cash flow from investing activities was

A. A net inflow of Rs. 16,000 B. A net outflow of Rs. 16,000

C. A net outflow of Rs. 14,000 D. A net inflow of Rs. 1,000

27. The following events occurred during the accounting period: Cash of Rs. 46,000

received from the issue of common shares. Cash dividends of Rs. 11,000 were paid to

share holders. Cash of Rs. 19,000 was received from an investment. Cash of Rs.

14,000 was paid for interest payments to bond holders. Cash of Rs. 10,000 was used

to retire preferred shares. Net cash provided or used by financing activities was:

A. Rs. 44,000 provided B. Rs. 29,000 provided

C. Rs. 25,000 provided D. Rs. 35,000 used

28. At the end of the fiscal year, an adjusting entry was made for accrued salaries of Rs.

500. The salaries for one week Rs. 1,250, were paid on the first Friday of the new

fiscal period. The entry to record paying the salaries expense for the week would be

A. Sal. Expenses Dr.,Rs. 750, Salaries Payable Dr.Rs. 500 and Cash Cr. Rs. 1250

B. Sal. Expenses Dr., Rs. 500, Salaries Payable Dr Rs. 750, Cash Cr. Rs. 1250

C. Salaries Expenses Dr., Rs. 1250, Cash Cr. Rs. 1250

D. Salaries Expenses Dr., Rs. 1250, Salaries Payable Cr. Rs. 1250

29. At the beginning of the year, a business had a two-year Rs 1,200 insurance policy on

its office equipment. On July 1 it purchased a three-year, Rs. 1800 policy on a newly

constructed building. The December 31, year-end adjusting entry would be

A. Insurance Expense, Debit Rs. 3000; Prepaid Insurance, Credit Rs. 3,000

B. Insurance Expense, Debit Rs. 1,200; Prepaid Insurance; Credit Rs. 1,200

C. Insurance Expense, Debit Rs. 1,000; Prepaid Insurance, Credit Rs. 1000

D. Insurance Expense, Debit Rs. 900; Prepaid Insurance, Credit Rs. 900

30. Which change in the following ratios would be regarded as generally favourable by

creditors but unfavourable by shareholders?

A. Debt to equity ratio changed from 1:2 to 1:2.5

B. Current Ratio changed from 2:5 to 3:4

C. Debt to equity ratio changed from 2:5 to 1:3

D. Return on total assets changed from 10% to 12.5%

31. The strategy concerned with deciding which industries a firm should compete in and

how the firm should enter or exit industries is a(n)

A. Strategic plan B. Business level strategy

C. Corporate level strategy D. Operating strategy

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32. The plan that human resource personnel might develop for hiring a sales force to sell a

new product the division has developed is called a(n)

A. Operating plan B. Unit plan

C. Operating strategy D. Business level plan

33. The rational decision making model is

A. Perfect model for decision making

B. Reasonable except for one problem: Dialectic inquiry

C Reasonable except for one problem: Bounded rationality

D. Reasonable except for one problem: The outside view

34. The drive to form social relationship and develop mutual caring commitments with

others is referred to as the drive to

A. Care B. Nurture

C. Bond D. Connect

35. Goal setting provides the critical linkage between the

A. Organization’s financial statements and individual motivation

B. Organization’s financial statements and the HR Department

C. Organization’s competition and the marketing Department

D. Organization’s strategic plans and individual motivation

36. According to expectancy theory an individual’s effort level depends on their

A. Effort-to-performance B. Drive for affiliation

C. Safety needs D. Drive for power

37. A positive emotional experience resulting directly and naturally from the individual’s

behaviour or results is called a(n)

A. Drive to bond B. Intrinsic reward

C. Motivator D. Extrinsic reward

38. The theory that explains how people develop perceptions of fairness in the

distribution and exchange of resources is called

A. Four-drive theory B. Exchange theory

C. Expectancy theory D. Equity theory

39. The process of motivating, influencing, and directing others in the organization to

work productively in the pursuit of organization goals is known as:

A. Leadership B. Management

C. Charisma D. Strategic thinking

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40. The ability of a leader to get high performance from his or her subordinates is known

as

A. Efficient leadership B. high-performance leadership

C. Effective leadership D. Community leadership

41. Which of the following is something that a leader with people-oriented behaviour

would most likely do?

A. Establish stretch goals

B. Challenge employees

C. Ensure employees follow company rules

D. Listen to employee suggestions

42. Which of the following statements about the communication process is most accurate?

A. Communication is a one way process

B. The sender forms a message and decodes it into symbols, words, gestures, or

other signs

C. The meaning of the communication to the receiver is always what the sender

intended when the sender crafts a wonderful message

D. Communication channel is also called media.

43. The most media rich channel for exchanging information is

A. e-mail communication B. face-to-face communication

C. telephone communication D. Written memos

44. Which of the following is a strategy that can help receivers manage information

overload?

A. Collecting B. Buffering

C. Connecting D. Outlining

45. A leader who helps an organization achieve its current objectives is known as a(n)

A. Achievement Oriented Leader B. Directive Leader

C. Transactional Leader D. Objective Leader

46. One disadvantage of RAM is;

A. Capacity is limited B. Volatile

C. Inaccurate D. More power consuming

47. Arithmetic and Logic Operations are performed by

A. CPU B. Memory

C. ALU D. Mother Board

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48. The ability to recover and read deleted or damaged files from a suspected computer is

an example of a law enforcement specialty called:

A. Robotics B. Simulation

C. Computer forensics D. Cyber hawking

49. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. ROM devices are non-volatile.

B. ROM devices must be programmed by the chip manufacturer.

C. EEPROMs can be written to (programmed) as well as read from.

D. EPROMs can be erased using an ultraviolet light source.

50. Which of the following are the three main components of the CPU?

A. Control Unit, Registers and Main Memory

B. Registers, Main Memory and ALU

C. Control Unit, ALU and Registers

D. ALU, Bus and Main Memory

51. What difference does the 5th generation computer have from other generation

computers?

A. Technological advancement B. Scientific code

C. Object Oriented Programming D. All of the above

52. From which location is the 1st computer instructions available on boot up?

A. ROM BIOS B. CPU

C. boot.ini D. CONFIG.SYS

53. A 25-pin female connector on the back of your computer will typically be:

A. Serial port B. A parallel port

C. Docking D. COM2 port

54. RS-232 is a standard that applies to:

A. serial ports B. parallel ports

C. game ports D. networks

55. Thrashing

A. is a natural consequence of virtual memory systems

B. can always be avoided by swapping

C. always occurs on large computers

D. can be caused by poor paging algorithms

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56. Bug means

A. A logical error in a program

B. A difficult syntax error in a program

C. Documenting programs using an efficient documentation tool

D. All of the above

57. In virtual memory systems, Dynamic address translation;

A. is the hardware necessary to implement paging

B. stores pages at a specific location on disk

C. is useless when swapping is used

D. is part of the operating system paging algorithm

58. Which virus, when run, would infect the current host and also send itself to the first

50 addresses in the individual's address book?

A. Code Red B. Love bug

C. Melissa D. Slammer

59. Which of the following groups of individuals are considered to be the biggest

potential threat to computer security?

A. Dumpster divers B. Insiders

C. Script kiddies D. Should surfers

60. Which of the following methods is the best form of authentication?

A. Biometrics B. Multiple factor

C. Password-based D. Token-based

61. The process in which users prove their identity is called ____.

A. Authentication B. Authorization

C. Identification D. Recognition

62. Which one of the following statements would best describe a network server?

A. Support applications with heavy mathematical computing and graphics display

demands such as computer-aided design

B. Used to coordinate telecommunications and resource sharing in small local

area networks (LANs) and Internet and intranet web sites.

C. Designed for convenient mobile communications and computing using touch

screens.

D. All of the above.

63. Which of the following is not an advantage of multiprogramming?

A. Increased throughput B. Shorter response time

C. Decreased operating-system overhead D. All of the above

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64. In SmartMIS, which sub menu is using for Scheme Settings.

A. Report B. Data Entry

C. Administration D. Fund Flow

65. In Pravasi Bandhu Chitty, Cash withdrawal limit has to be entered in .............. Form

A. PBC OD Control B. PBC Common Control

C. PBC Authorised Amount D. PBC OD Closing

66. The primary purpose of a document that is written to motivate or convince a reader to

act is to

A. Respond B. Persuade

C. Build Goodwill D. Inform

67. Oral channels

A. Give you more control over a message than paper documents typically do

B. Are more formal than paper documents

C. Are better for group decision making than paper documents

D. Are not as effective as paper documents in clearing up misunderstandings

68. As more people compete for fewer jobs the ones who will build successful careers are

those who

A. Learn to delegate well when working in groups

B. Communicate well with customers and colleagues

C. Actively work to change an organization’s conventions

D. Are able to work well alone most of the time

69. A written message is preferable to an oral one when you want to

A. Modify Plans

B. Present extensive and complex data

C. Resolve conflicts and build consensus

D. Get immediate action or response

70. If an audience will see your message as unimportant

A. Make it lengthy to present enough information so they see the merits of your

ideas

B. Insist on a short deadline so they do not have time to lose what interest they

have

C. Avoid asking for any action whatsoever even if it is the purpose of your

message

D. Use a subject line or first paragraph that immediately shows the message is

important and relevant

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71. Good writers are likely to

A. Use one writing strategy for all situations

B. Adhere strictly to a set of established rules for writing

C. Carefully analyze the initial problem before beginning a draft

D. Edit documents during the process of writing the first draft

72. What techniques of generating ideas involves writing down ideas, circling them, and

looking for patterns or repeated ideas?

A. Storyboarding B. Free writing

C. Clustering D. Brainstorming

73. In which part of the writing process is most important to know the rules of grammar

and punctuation?

A. Planning B. Editing

C. Gathering D. Revising

74. Which of the following will help make your business writing easy to read?

A. Using nouns rather than verbs to carry the weight of sentences

B. Increasing wordiness

C. Using transition words that link ideas

D. Using passive verbs more often than active verbs.

75. Which of the following makes business writing effective if used consistently?

A. Sentence fragments B. Active verbs

C. Short words D. Short choppy sentences

* * * * *

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