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Bonds by Alan Brazil

Apr 06, 2018

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Anuj Sachdev
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    Goldman, Sachs & Co.

    Alan Brazil

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    Goldman, Sachs & Co.

    1

    Assumptions: Coupon paid every 6 months, $100 of

    principal paid at maturity, government guaranteed

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    Debt is a claim on a fixed amount of cashflows in the future A mortgage loan

    Equity is a claim on a fixed percentage of cashflows in the

    future A share of GS

    What's the difference?

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    3

    0

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    10 50 90 130

    170

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    290

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    410

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    490

    530

    570

    610

    650

    690

    730

    770

    810

    850

    890

    930

    970

    Revenue

    Probability

    All cashflows can be divided into certain and uncertaincashflows

    Certain

    First $260 Uncertain

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    530

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    770

    810

    850

    890

    930

    970

    Revenue

    Probability

    Debt gets the first set of cashflows, equity gets theremainder

    Debt:

    First $200

    Equity:

    You Get 10% of the Remainder

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    120140

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    10

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    190

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    370

    460

    550

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    730

    820

    910

    100

    Revenue

    Probability

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    80

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    120140

    160

    180

    200

    10

    100

    190

    280

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    460

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    730

    820

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    Revenue

    Probability

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    160

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    190

    280

    370

    460

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    730

    820

    910

    100

    Revenue

    Probability Highly Rated

    Higher

    Yield

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    6

    Higher coupon, higher price, but is it high enough?

    Higher coupon, longer maturity, lower price, why?

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    The typical terms of a debt obligation is broken down intotwo components

    You receive principal in N years

    And every year until then you receive a coupon payment This coupon is a percentage of the principal

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    Remember what that was

    The lump sum of $100 was the principal

    The $6 was the coupon payment

    $6 = 6% of $100

    You get $6 every year for ten years,then a lump sum payment of

    $100 in ten years

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    Seems like a reasonable price Total of at least $160

    You get a total of $60 (6 times 10) over 10 years

    You also get your money back in ten years Problems

    You dont get to use you $100 for ten years

    Giving me $60 over ten years may not be enough

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    Lets say you were going to pay B for the first set of cashflows

    But instead you are offered whats behind door number 2:

    You can invest risk free at R% every year for the next tenyears

    Well call this the rolling strategy

    You roll your investment as it matures every year

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    Rolling Strategy Assume you invest B in this rolling strategy, and reinvest

    each year the entire amount

    After Year 1: $B (1 + R)1

    Year 2: $B (1 + R)2

    Year 3: $B (1 + R)3

    .

    .

    Year 10: $B (1 + R)10

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    Assume you pay B and you reinvest the interim cashflows atR as well

    The first coupon is worth more in ten years due toreinvestment

    Year 1 you get $6In year 2, after reinvesting at R, you get 6(1 + R)

    In year 3, you get 6(1 + R) (1+R) = 6(1 + R)2

    .

    .By year 10, this grows to 6(1 + R)9

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    Year 1 Cashflow In ten years: 6(1 + R)9

    Year 2 Cashflow in ten years: 6(1 + R)8

    Year 3 Cashflow in ten years: 6(1 + R)7

    .

    .

    Year 10 Cashflow in ten years: 6 + 100

    Total Cashflows in ten years,

    10

    100 + 6 (1 + R)10-i

    i=1

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    It had better be a dead heat otherwise you have anarbitrage opportunity

    10

    B (1 + R)10 = 100 + 6 (1 + R)10-ii=1

    Cashflow at the end of ten years

    of both strategies must be the same

    Rolling Value in Ten Years = Cashflow One in Ten Years

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    You can retire in a few years and skip the rest of this course For example if

    Then borrow B dollars at R and buy the first security at B

    No cost and you cash out in ten years Do this a bunch of times and your making real money

    10

    B (1 + R)10