Bank PO · Bank PO General Awareness 1. ... Medicine 5) None of these 17. ... Orkut as India's No. 1 social networking site? With over

Model Question

B a n k P O

General Awareness 1. Who among the following has been appointed as the

new Director-General of the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)? 1) K Vijay Kumar 2) Raman Srivastava 3) Vikram Srivastava 4) Kuldeep Khuda 5) None of these

2 Name the American Central Intelligence Agency (CIA) chief who visited India recently. 1) Evo Morales 2) Leon Panetta 3) Sebastian Pinera 4) Carlos Barrios 5) None of these

3. Name the travelling museum put out on the tracks by the Indian Railways to celebrate the many facets of Rabindranath Tagore. 1) Banga Express 2) Tagore Darshan Express 3) Sanskriti Express 4) Gurudev Express 5) None of these

4. The eighth Asia Europe Meeting (ASEM) Summit was held in 1) Brussels 2) Paris 3) London 4) Copenhagen 5) None of these

5. Who is the new Chief Information Commissioner? 1) Wajahat Habibullah 2) MM Ansari 3) AN Tiwari 4) Tushar Gandhi 5) None of these

6. World Habitat Day is observed on 1) 1st Oct 2) 2nd Oct 3) 3rd Oct 4)4th Oct 5) None of these

7. Name the political party which has been launched by the former Pakistani President Pervez Musharraf. 1) All Pakistan Muslim League 2) People's Party of Pakistan 3) Democratic Party of Pakistan 4) Republican Party of Pakistan 5) None of these

8. President Pratibha Patil has presented the prestigious Lai Bahadur Shastri National Award for Excellence in Public Adminstration, Academia and Management to 1) Rajender Singh 2) Aruna Roy 3) Deep Joshi 4) Sandeep Singh 5) None of these

9. Who among the following has become the first Indian to get the UID (Unique Identification)? 1) Ranjana Sonawne 2) Sushma Waghmare 3) Rekha Thakre 4) VimalaGhorpade 5) None of these

10. Which state govt started 4,500 schemes under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act? The schemes have been launched to tackle drought conditions in the state. They include construction of wells, ponds and tracks to provide help to the villagers.

l)Bihar 2) UP 3) MP 4) Jharkhand 5) None of these

11. Who is the author of the book Luka and the Fire ofLife? 1) Aravind Adiga 2) Salman Rushdie 3) Ruskin Bond 4) Amitav Ghosh 5) None of these

12. The Reserve Bank has constituted a working group to review the current operating procedure of monetary policy, as transmission of the policy to the rest of the system remains imperfect. The group, to be headed by RBI executive director , will also review the liquidity adjustment facility (LAF), through which the central bank manages money supply in the system on a day-to-day basis. 1) Usha Thorat 2) Deepak Mohanty 3) Rakesh Mohan 4) Naresh Chandra 5) None of these

13. A computer worm designed for espionage or sabotage of industrial control systems has been found at its Bushehr nuclear plant. Until Sep 24 power plants had suffered only collateral damage from Internet-based attacks but "Stuxnet" is the first capable of seizing full control. Identify the country. l)Iraq 2) Iran 3) Pakistan 4) Saudi Arabia 5) None of these

14. Name the country in which Kim Jong IPs youngest son, Kim Jong-Un, will succeed him as the next leader of the reclusive communist nation. 1) Cuba 2) Vietnam 3) North Korea 4) Cambodia 5) None of these

15. Name the award for which Oscar winner AR Rahman and Ramkrishna Mission Ashram in Narainpur, Chhattisgarh have been chosen for promoting and preserving national integration in the country. 1) Lai Bahadur Shastri Award 2) Rajiv Gandhi Sadbhavana Award 3) Gandhi Peace Award 4) Indira Gandhi Award 5) None of these

16. Robert Edwards, the British scientist behind the world's first test-tube baby and the man who pioneered IVF treatment, was awarded the Nobel Prize for . Edwards, 85, professor emeritus at the University of Cambridge, started working on IVF in the 1950s. 1) Chemistry 2) Physics 3) Biology 4) Medicine 5) None of these

17. Name the giant of literature whose political ambitions saw him run for president of his native Peru and who has finally won the Nobel literature prize. 1) Mario Vargas 2) Gabriel Garcia Marquez 3) Octavio Paz 4) Gunter Grass 5) None of these

18. Andre Geim of the Netherlands and Russian-British

national Konstantin Novoselov won the 2010 Nobel prize for their pioneering work on graphene,

a form of carbon which conducts electricity. 1) Chemistry 2) Geology 3) Physics 4) Astrophysics 5) None of these

19. Which of the following statements are true about the Model District Health Project? A. Assam chief minister Tarun Gogoi has launched the

Morigaon Model District Health Project, the Health Department's ambitious project, in collaboration with The Earth Institute, Columbia University, and the Union ministry of health and family welfare.

B. The project aims at reducing infant and maternal mortality rates.

C It aims to scale healthcare services to all parts of the country by 2050.

D. Morigaon becomes the first district in the country to have started the project and is among the five districts in the country (the rest being one each in Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh and Bihar) to have been selected under the model district health project.

l ) O n l y A , B & C 2 ) O n l y B , C & D 3 ) O n l y A , C & D 4 ) O n l y A , B & D 5) None of these

20. Name the Chinese professor who is serving an 11-year sentence for co-authoring a manifesto for democratic rights and who has won China's first Nobel Peace Prize. Beijing promptly denounced the award as a 'blasphemy'. l)LiuXiaobo 2)LiRui 3)HuJiwei 4) Fan Yafeng 5) None of these

21. Fredrik Reinfeldt has been re-elected as the prime minister of 1) Norway 2) Sweden 3) Finland 4) Belgium 5) None of these

22. American Richard Heck and Japanese researchers Eiichi NegishiandAkiraSuzukiwontheNobelPrize in for developing a chemical method that allowed scientists to test cancer drugs and make thinner computer screens. 1) Physics 2) Medicine 3) Chemistry 4) Biology 5) None of these

23. IMF has projected the Indian economy will grow by in 2010.

1)9% 2)9.2% 3)9.4% 4)9.7% 5) None of these 24. Who among the following has won the US Open men's

singles title in 2010? 1) Rafael Nadal 2) Roger Federer 3)NovakDjokovic 4) Tim Moya 5) None of these

25. What is the name of Afghanistan's Parliament? 1) Majlis 2) Jirga 3)Shuraa 4)Ijtema 5) None ofthese

26. Name the eminent Punjabi poet who has been honoured with the prestigious Saraswati Samman 2009 for his collection Lafzan Di Dargah. 1) Avtar Singh Pash 2) Maheep Singh 3) Surjit Patar 4) Amrita Pritam 5) None of these

27. Which of the following is the item whose import from India has been banned the by the European Union (EU) after laboratory tests showed a high level of lead and anti-biotics in the samples?

1) Butter 2) Honey 3) Milk powder 4) Sugar 5) None of these

28. Harishankar Brahma, a retired senior bureaucrat hailing from Assam, took charge as 1) Information Commissioner 2) Election Commissioner 3) UPSC Chairman 4) CAG 5) None of these

29. Which of the following has dethroned Google-owned Orkut as India's No. 1 social networking site? With over 2 crore visitors this past month, it has shown stupendous growth, overtaking Orkut, according to global research firm comScore, Inc? l)Linkedin 2)M&N 3) Twitter 4) Facebook 5) None of these

30. Name the country whose President Emomali Rakhmon b lamed foreign madrasas for radical is ing his impoverished country's youth, after Islamist militants staged a stunning jail-break in the capital Dushanbe. 1) Uzbekistan 2) Tajikistan 3) Russia 4) Armenia 5) None of these

31. Responding to the concerns of exporters and the sudden decline in exports in Sep 2010, the UPA government has announced sops worth to the labour-intensive textile, handicrafts and leather sectors to help them cruise through the fragile global economic recovery phase. l )Rs l ,052cr 2)Rs2 ,072cr 3)Rs3,000cr 4) Rs 4,500 cr 5) None of these

32. Name the World No. 2 who has won his second ATP Cincinnati Masters crown in a row outlasting American Mardy Fish 6-7(5), 7-6 (1), 6-4 for his 63rd career title. 1) Rafael Nadal 2) Roger Federer 3)NovakDjokovic 4) Tim Moya 5) None of these

33. Who among the following has became the first Indian and just the sixth Asian-born player to win on the PGA Tour when he secured a one-stroke victory at the Wyndham Championship? l)ArjunAtwal 2) Jeev Milkha Singh 3)Jyoti Randhawa 4)VijaySingh 5) None of these

34. Name the former Indian Prime Minister who will be conferred with a special posthumous honour for his her remarkable contributions to Bangladesh's independence in 1971. This is part of a Bangladesh government plan to acknowledge the role of foreign nationals. 1)AB Vajpayee 2) JL Nehru 3)LBShastri 4) Indira Gandhi 5) None of these

35. Name the Chennai girl who got gets' Sword ofHonour' for best all-round cadet at the Indian Army's Officers Training Academy—first woman ever to win the coveted prize. l)DivyaAjith Kumar 2) Lalitha Suresh Kumar 3) Sujatha Krishnan 4) Vimala Shekharan 5) None of these

36. Which of the following is not correctly matched about ICC Awards? 1) Cricketer of the Year (Winning the Sri Garfield

Sobers Trophy)-Sachin Tendulkar (Ind)

4) Lack of money supply and goods 5) None of these 48. Which bank in India performs the duties of the central

bank?

2) Women's Cricketer of the Year-Shelley Nitschke (Aus)

3) Test Player of the Year-MS Dhoni (Ind) 4) ODI Player of the year-AB de Villiers (SA) 5) Emerging Player of the Year-Steven Finn (England)

37. SEBI was established in 1)1993 2)1992 3)1988 4)1990 5) None of these

38. The working of SEBI includes: 1) To regulate the dealings of share market 2) To check the foul dealings in share market 3) To control the inside trading of shares 4) All of these 5) None of these

39. The 'Ad hoc Treasury Bill a system' of meeting budget deficit in India was replaced by a system which came into force on l)March31,1997 2)April 1,1996 3)April 1,1997 4) March 31,1996 5) None of these

40. The recommendations of the 13th Finance Commission has become/will be operational during the period 1)2009-14 2)2010-15 3)2011-16 4)2012-2017 5) None of these

41. Which of the following statements is true for IMF? 1) It is not an agency of UNO. 2) It can grant loan to any country of the world. 3) It can grant loan to state Govt of a country. 4) It grants loan only to member nations. 5) None of these

42. Which day has been declared as 'Balika Diwas' (Girl Day) by the Minis t ry of Woman and Children Development? 1) April 5 every year 2) July, every year 3) October 9 every year 4) December 9 every year 5} None of these

43. Rural women can avail the benefit of Mahila Samriddhi Yojana if they open their account in 1) Rural Post Offices 2) Commercial Banks 3) Rural Development Bank 4) Any of the above 5) None of these

44. The rate at which banks lend to RBI is known as 1) Bank Rate 2) Repo Rate 3) Reverse Repo Rate 4) Interest Rate 5) None of these

45. The newly appointed cha i rman of Compet i t ion Commission of India is 1) Harish Chandra Gupta 2) Dhanendra Kumar 3) Gul Kriplani 4) Naveen Chawla 5) None of these

46. Which committee recommended tax on Agriculture Holdings? 1) Bhootlingam Committee 2) Wanchoo Committee 3) Raj Committee 4) Kelkar Committee 5) None of these

47. The cause of deflation is 1) Lack of goods and services as compared to money

supply 2) Lack of imports as compared to exports 3) Lack of money supply as compared to supply of

goods and services

49. Mixed Economy means 1) Co-existence of small and large industries 2) Promoting both Agriculture and Industries in the

economy 3) Co-existence of public and private sectors 4) Co-existence of the rich and the poor 5) None of these

50. Pure Banking, Nothing Else' is a slogan raised by l)ICICIBank 2) HDFC Bank 3)SBI 4) UTI Bank 5) None of these

English Directions (Q. 51-65): Read the passage carefully and

answer the questions given below it These Games, formerly known as the British Empire

Games, were first held in 1930 in Hamilton, Ontario, Canada. The name changed to British Empire and Commonwealth Games in 1954 and later to British Commonwealth Games in 1970. Since 1978, they are known as the Commonwealth Games. The Commonwealth Games are a unique, world-class, multi-sport event held once every four years amongst the member-countries and territories of the Commonwealth. The three core values of the Commonwealth Games movement are Humanity, Equality and Destiny, which were adopted by the Games movement in 2001. These values inspire and unite millions of people and symbolise the broad mandate for holding the Games within the Commonweal th . The Commonwealth Games Federation (CGF) has 71 member nations and terri tories called Commonwealth Games Associations (CGAs), which includes India.

The Games will be held in 17 + 1 (Elite Athletes with Disability) disciplines. Around 8000 sportspersons will participate. 2000 mediapersons are likely to attend.

Approximately 100,000 visitors are expected tor the Games. The entire Games will be covered in High Definitior Television. Television audience of two billion people across the world will watch the Commonwealth Games.

New media rights such as fay l V, internet and telephony will ensure the widest possible reach. These Games will be Green Games promoting renewable energy resources, reduction of carbon emissions and sustainable development.

Competitions will be held in seventeen sports —Aquatics, Archery, Athletics, Badminton, Boxing, Cycling, Gymnastics, Hockey, Lawn Bowls, Netball, Rugby Sevens, Shooting Squash, Table Tennis, Tennis, Weightlifting and Wrestling.

Queen s Baton Relay is a very important tradition ot the Commonwealth Games. It started in 1958 in Cardiff, Wales, and has since then been the curtain raiser to every Commonwealth Game.

51. How many member -coun t r i e s const i tu te the Commonwealth Games Federation (CGF)? 1) All the Asian countries 2) 50% of the countries of the world. 3) It changes from one event to another. 4) Membership is granted to all the countries desirous 5) None of these

52. The XIX Commonwealth Games will be held in how many disciplines? 1)27 2)37 3)17 4)18 5) None of these

53. What are the three core values of the Commonwealth Games movement? 1) Peace, equality and mutual cooperation 2) Love, nuclear proliferation and unity 3) Humanity, equality and destiny 4) All the above 5) None of these

54. When were the core values adopted by the Games movement? 1) The Commonwealth Games 2001 2) The Commonwealth Games 1978 3) The Commonwealth Games 1970 4) The Commonwealth Games 1930 5) None of these

55. What was the name of these games when they were organised? 1) British Empire Commonwealth Games 2) British Commonwealth Games 3) British Empire Games 4) British Empire and Commonwealth Games 5) None of these

56. When are the XIX C W Q Delhi schedule to be held? 1) 3rd to 14th Oct 2010 2) 13th to 24th Oct 2010 3) 23rd Oct to 1st Nov 2010 4) Not found in the Passage 5) None of these

57. When was hockey included in the CWG? 1)1978 2)1958 3)2010 4) Not mentioned 5) None of these

58. Which of the following events was started in 1958? 1) To start the occasion with the message of Her Majesty

Queen Elizabeth II 2) The tradition of Queen's Baton relay 3) To inaugurate the event with a cultural ceremony 4) All the above 5) None of these

59. When was the existing name adopted? 1)1978 2)1970 3)1958 4)1954 5) None of these

60. What was the name which was replaced and adopted as the Commonwealth Games? 1) British Empire and CWG 2) Commonwealth Games Britain 3) British CWG 4) English CWG 5) None of these Directions (Q. 61-65 ): In each of the following sen­

tences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence there are five pairs of words denoted by numbers 1), 2), 3), 4) and 5). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make it meaningfully complete. 61. I got up early I cover most of the

distance before noon.

1) because, may 2) so as, did 3) so that, could 4) for, should 5) with, would

52. He promised that he deliver the parcel within a week, but he keep his promise. 1) will, failed 2) would, didn't 3) must, was not to 4) could, had not 5) will, was not

53. walking on the road, the dog that man. 1) while, bit 2) when, bitted 3) yesterday, bite 4) daily when, bites 5) bit, when

54. both the parties differed in their opinions on different points the agreement not be signed. 1) because of, was 2) since, could 3) for, were 4) because, had 5) because, had

55. Expectations lead us to . 1) almost, failure 2) never, succeed 3) often, grief 4) most, no where 5) never, almost Directions (Q. 66-75): Which of the phrases 1), 2), 3)

ind 4) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold to make the sentence grammatically correct? [f the sentence is correct as it is, mark 5), ie "No correction required", as your answer. 56. An indecisive person can be easily persuasive to change

his mind. 1) easy persuading 2) persuading easily 3) easy persuaded 4) easily persuaded 5) No correction required

57. The candidate possesses no quality for a deserving one. 1) none quality for 2) no any quality 3) no quality of 4) none of quality 5) No correction required

58. The floods that came last year was devastating more than the ones this year. 1) was more devastating 2) were more devastating 3) was more devastated 4) were more devastate 5) No correction required

59. There is no need of being anxious about him. 1) for being anxious 2) of be anxious 3) to be anxious 4) for anxious 5) None of these

70. Soon after the match I returned to my quarter. 1) I return to my quarter 2) I returned to my quarters 3) I returned at my quarter 4) I returned for my quarters 5) No correction required

71. Some believed that Lara's batting was better than Tendulkar. 1) was more better 2) was better than of 3) was better of 4) was better than that of 5) No correction required

72. Law-breakers, when found, must be severe punished. 1) severely punished 2) severely punish 3) punish severely 4) severe punish 5) No correction required

73. The performance of Indian players are better than those of Sri Lankan players. 1) is better than those of 2) is better than that of 3) are better than that of 4) are better than of 5) No correction required

74. Only those candidates who are good at office administration will be considered for this post. 1) will consider 2) will be consider 3) will be considering 4) will considered 5) No correction required

75. Huge investments are requi red , if the pace of infrastructure development is to be speeded up. 1) are to be speeded up 2) is to be speed up 3) is to speed up 4) is sped up 5) No correction required Directions (Q. 76-85): Read each sentence to find out

whether there is any grammatical e r ror in it. The er ror if any will be in one par t of the sentence. The number of that part will be the answer. If there is 'No error ' , mark (5) as the answer. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any). 76. 1) The guests / 2) had their/ 3) fill and / 4) had a chitchat.

/ 5) None of these 77. 1) The cows of / 2) Tibet are not / 3) so good as / 4) that

of India. / 5) None of these 78. 1) The workers / 2) of the two / 3) political parties

quarrelled / 4) with each other./ 5) None of these 79. 1) The committee / 2) left its seats / 3) after deciding / 4)

the matter. / 5) None of these 80. 1) Good boys like/ 2) you and he / 3) should not / 4)

abuse others. / 5) None of these 81. 1) For a prosperous tomorrow / 2) every teacher and

every student / 3) is required to, / 4) do their duty honestly./ 5) None of these

82. 1) The chief guest is / 2) expected to hoist / 3) the flag in the / 4) beginning of the function. / 5) None of these

83. 1)1 shall certainly / 2) help her / 3) provided she / 4) will come to me. /5) None of these

84. 1) Though Mr Sharma / 2) is very rich / 3) but he is not quite/ 4) a happy person./ 5) None of these

85. 1) However fast/ 2) you may run/ 3) you cannot / 4) catch the train. / 5) None of these Directions (Q. 86-90): Rearrage the following sentences

A, B, C, D and E to make a meaniningful paragraph and then answer the questions that follow:

A. When we are tired, or our brain is weary with serious study, it is good as well as healthy to lose our selves in some absorbing stories written by a master hand.

B. And novels and books of imagination must have their place in everybody's reading.

C Some books we read simply for pleasure and amusement, for example good novels.

D. Reading gives the highest kind of pleasure and satisfaction.

E The blessings which the reading habit confers on its possessor are many, provided we choose the right kind of books.

86. On rearrangement which of the following should come 'FIRST'? 1)A 2)B 3)C 4)D 5)E

87. On rearrangement which of the following should come 'FIFTH'?

1)A 2)B 3)C 4)D 5)E 88. On rearrangement which of the following should come

'FOURTH'? 1)A 2)B 3)C 4)D 5)E

89. On rearrangement which of the following should come 'THIRD'? 1)A 2)B 3)C 4)D 5)E

90. On rearrangement which of the following should come 'SECOND'? 1)A 2)B 3)C 4)D 5)E Directions (Q. 91-100): In the following passage there

are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers a re printed below the passage and against each Ave words a re suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate words.

An eleven-year boy walking behind his parents and his pet dog on England's highest cliffs 91 rise to 230 metres at 92 peak, was 93 off in a gale to a 94 of at least 170 metres. The gale 95 out the boy's screams while his parents walked 96 ahead. They 97 what happened only 98 the dog barked furiously at a helicopter flying in the sky. The pilot of the helicopter 99 exemplary presence of 100 and picked up the boy from the cliff to the great relief of the parents who found him alive and kicking. 91. l )what 2) who 3) where

4) which 5) how 92. 1) it's 2) their 3) those

4) that 5) this 93. 1) kicked 2) flied 3) blown

4) fell 5) blow 94. 1) height 2) top 3) high

4)peak 5)super 95. 1) subdued 2) suppressed 3) put

4) drowned 5) drown 96. l )on 2) at 3) to

4) for 5) in 97. 1) realised 2) knew 3) felt

4) accepted 5) usual 98. l )why 2) for 3) when

4) because 5) what 99. 1) delivered 2) disclosed 3) exhibited

4) displayed 5) played 100. 1) aptitude 2) brain 3) heart

4) mind 5) wits

Quantitative Aptitude Directions (Q. 101-105): What should come in place of

the question mark (?) in the following questions?

1)2 2)4 3)8 4)16 5)32

1)32400 2)31600 3)33800 4)30200 5) None of these

5) None of these

Directions (Q. 106-110): What approximate value should come in the place of (?)

1)12825 2)13625 3)14775 4)15625 5)16875

1)116 2)120 3)124 4)127 5)132

108. (0.000428 -0.00040) x 55.05 =.?

1)53 2)56 3)59 4)63 5)73

1)45 2)50 3)55 4)60 5)65

1)22 2)26 3)18 4)28 5)24 Directions (Q. 111-115): What value should come in the

place of (?) in the following number series.

111.6, 36, 324, 2916, ?

1)52488 2)50124 3)48764 4)44212 5)42384

112. 124, 268, 412, 484, 556, 592, 628, ?

1)842 2)812 3)764 4)704 5)646

113.132, 196, 321, 537, 880, 1392, ?

1)1892 2)2012 3)2121 4)2244 5)2272

114.12, 75, 466, 3279, ?

1)26250 2)26440 3)27480 4)27610 5)28120

115.5, 34, 185, 1126, 7899, ?

1)63210 2)64320 3)65430 4)66540 5)67650 116. Three persons A, B and C run along a circular path with

speeds of 6 kmh" 1,4 kmh"1, 8 kmh"1 respectively. If they start their race from the same point and at the same time and the length of circular path is 24 km, then after what time will they meet again. 1)3hrs 2 )4hrs 3 )6hrs 4)12hrs 5) 1 hr

117. If the sum of one-third, one-sixth and of a number is 20 less than the number itself, then what is the number? 1)72 2)60 3)48 4)36 5)24

118. If A's salary is 40% more than B's; then how much per cent is B's salary less than A's?

1)40% 2)36%

119. A certain amount of money is put on simple interest at a certain rate for 4 years. Had it been put at 3% higher rate, it would have fetched Rs 360 more. What is the amount? l)Rs2400 2)Rs3000 3)Rs3600 4) Rs 4200 5) None of these

120. The compound interest on a certain sum for 2 years is Rs 412 and the simple interest is Rs 400. What is the rate of interest per annum? 1)3% 2)4% 3)6% 4)8% 5)5%

121. In a party every person shakes hands with every other person. If there were a total of 120 handshakes in the party then what is the number of persons present in the party? 1)15 2)16 3)17 4)18 5)20

122. An unbiased coin is tossed 5 times. Find the chance that head will appear exactly 3 times.

123. There are three persons A, B and C when the age of A is added to half of the age of B, the result is equal to C's age. One-third of the age o f 'B ' is equal to one-fourth of the age o f ' C . If one-fifth of A's age is added to half of B's age, the result is equal to half of C's age. Then what is the age of'B'? l )16yrs 2)20yrs 3)24yrs 4)30yrs 5)32yrs

124. A train crosses a 120-metre and a 70-metre long platform in 17 seconds and 12 seconds respectively. What is the speed of the train? l ) 1 0 m s - 1 2) 16 ms - 1 3) 20 ms - 1

4) 24 ms - 1 5) 30 ms - 1

125. Ram can complete a work in 45 days and Mohan can do the same work in 27 days. If Ram leaves the work after 5 days, then in how many days will Mohan do the remaining work? 1)18 days 2)20 days 3)24 days 4)21 days 5) 25 days Directions (Q. 126-130): In an examination total

students passed from five different cities A, B, C, D and E is 6000. The given pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of these passed students among these five cities. Line graph shows the percentage of girls passed from each cities. Answer the following question based on these graphs.

126. What is the number of students passed from City A, B and C together? 1)3600^ 2)3700 3)3800 4)3900 5)4200

127. Wha. . . he total number of female students passed from these five cities together? % 1)2816 2)2919 3)3140 4)3210 5)3060

128. What is the ratio of the total number of boys passed from city 'E ' to the total number of girls passed from city 'B '? 1)1 :2 2 ) 2 : 3 3 ) 2 : 1 4 ) 3 : 2 5 ) 1 : 1

129. The number of girls passed from city ' E ' is what percentage of the total number of students passed from city 'B'? 1)24% 2)30% 3)36% 4)40% 5)60%

130. The number of students passed from city ' D ' is what percentage more the number of boys passed from City'A'?

1)24% 2)30%

4)36% 5) None of these Directions (Q. 131-135); In a company of total 1200

employees, 470 hold account in ICICI bank, 395 in HDFC Bank and 675 in SBI. 70 employees holds account in all the three Banks. The number of employees having account in ICICI Bank and HDFC Bank but not in SBI is equal to the number of employees having account in ICICI Bank and SBI but not in HDFC Bank, and this number is equal to 6.25% of the total number of employees. Answer the following questions based on this information.

131. What is the percentage of employees who have account . in SBI only?

1)25% 2)30% 3)40% 4)45% 5)50%

132. What is the number of employees having account in HDFC Bank and SBI but not in ICICI Bank? 1)40 2)50 3)60 4)70 5)80

133. What is the number of employees who have account in exactly one bank? 1)880 2)910 3)920 4)930 5)940

134. How many employees are there who have account in at least two banks? 1)270 2)280 3)290 4)310 5)320

135. How many employees are there who have account in at most two banks? 1)270 2)930 3)1130 4)70 5) None of these Directions (Q. 136-140): In this given table the total

number of students appeared in an examination, percentage of boys among them and percentage of girls passed (among total appeared girls) is given (for five colleges in years 2009 and 2010).

136. What is the number of girls failed from college ' D ' in 2009? 1)196 2)198 3)203 4)205 5)208

137. Total number of girls passed from city 'E ' in 2010 is 1)21 2)24 3)27 4)28 5)30

138. Total number of girls appeared from city 'C in year 2009 and 2010 together is 1)710 2)720 3)730 4)740 5)750

139. What is the difference between the number of girls passed from 'A' and the number of girls failed from 'A' in year 2009 and 2010 together? 1)42 2)52 3)62 4)72 5) None of these

140. What is the ratio ofthe number of girls failed from City E in 2009 to the number of girls failed from City A in 2010? 1)5 :4 2 ) 7 : 6 3 ) 8 : 7 4 ) 9 : 8 5)11:9 Directions (Q. 141-145): In the given line graph the

runs scored by two batsmen A and B in six matches are given. Based on this graph answer the following questions.

141. What is the average runs scored by Batsman 'A' in all 6 matches'? 1)42.5 2)47.5 3)52 4)54 5)57.5

142. Total runs scored by 'A' is what percentage more/less than the total runs scored by 'B '? 1)5% less 2) 8% more 3) 7.5% less 4) 12% more 5) 15% less

143. What is the percentage rise or fall in the runs scored by Batsman ' B ' in the 3rd match compared to the 2nd match? 1) 40% rise 2) 45% fall, 3) 40% fall 4) 45% rise 5) None of these

144. Run scored by 'A' in 1 st match is what percentage of the runs scored by ' B ' in 2nd match? 1)30% 2)40% 3)50% 4)60% 5)70%

145. What is the ratio of the runs scored by 'A' in 4th match to the average runs scored by ' B ' in all six matches? 1)5 :4 2 ) 6 : 5 3 ) 7 : 5 4 ) 7 : 6 5 ) 3 : 4 Directions (Q. 146-150): In the following bar graph the

ratio of export to import is given for two companies 'A' and 'B' during the period 2001 to 2005.

146. If the import of Company B in the year 2001 was 25 lakh then what was its export in that year?

1)16 lakh 2)181akh 3)201akh 4) 30 lakh 5) 31.25 lakh

147. If the export of Company 'A' in the year 2004 was 13.75 lakh then what was its import in that year? 1)10 lakh 2) 17.5 lakh 3) 22.5 lakh 4) 27.5 lakh 5) None of these

148. If in the year 2002 the import of company 'A' and the export of company 'B ' was equal to42 lakh then what was the sum of export of' A and import of' B' in the same year? l)75.61akh 2) 81.2 lakh 3)84.51akh 4) 86 lakh 5) 94 lakh

149. In which year was the difference between export and import of Company B maximum? 1)2001 2)2003 3)2004 4)2005 5) None of these

150. If the total import of Company 'B ' in years 2001 and 2004 together is 60 lakh then what is the sum of total export of ' B ' in years 2001 and 2004 together? 1)48 lakh 2) 56 lakh 3) 60 lakh 4) 75 lakh 5) None of these

Test of Reasoning Directions (Q. 151-155): In each question below, there

ire three statements followed by two conclusions numbered [ and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even f they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts »nd then decide which of the given conclusions logically Follow(s) from the given statements. Give answer

1) if only conclusion I follows; 2) if only conclusion II follows; 3) if either I or II follows; 4) if neither I nor II follows; and 5) if both I and II follow.

151. Statements: a. All pens are boxes. b. Some boxes are blades. c. Some blades are files.

Conclusions: I. Some blades tare pens. II. Some pens are files.

152. Statements: a. All cups are saucers. b. No saucer is a tray. c. Some trays are bowls.

Conclusions: I. Some bowls are saucers. II. No saucer is a bowl.

153. Statements: a. Some roses are thorns. b. All thorns are flowers. c. No flower is a petal.

Conclusions: I. No petal is a rose. II. Some flowers are roses.

154. Statements: a. All toys are dolls. b. All dolls are jokers. c. Some toys are cars.

Conclusions: I. Some cars are jokers. II. Some dolls are cars.

155. Statements: a. All books are ledgers. b. All pens are keys.

c. Some pens are books. Conclusions: I. Some ledgers are keys.

II. Some keys are books. . 156. In a row of boys facing north Ravi is thirteenth from the

left. When shifted to his right by three places, he be­comes seventeenth from the right end of the row. How manv bovs are there in the row? 1)32 2)33 3)31 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these

157. If the order of the first half of the letters in the English alphabet is reversed, which letter will be seventh to the left of seventeenth letter from the left? 1)X 2) J 3 ) D 4 ) C 5) None of these

158. In a certain code language LANGOUR is written as RZMTLFL; and CERTAIN is written as NVIGZRC. How will ALPHABET be written in that code? 1) TLPHABEA 2) TOKSAYVA 3) TOKSAZYA 4) TOKSZYVA 5) None of these Directions (Q. 159-160): Answer these questions based

on the following sequence. B M N G O P C Q R H S T F L U V W X Y A K Z D I E J

159. Counting from left, if it is possible to make a meaningful word from the third and fifth letters from left, using each at least twice, and third letter from right in sequence, only once, write the first letter of the word as your an­swer. If more than one such word can be formed write 'M' as your answer, and if no word can be formed write 'X ' as your answer. 1)M 2)X 3 ) 0 .4)1 5) None of these

160. Four of the following five are alike on the basis of their positions in the sequence and hence form a group.

Which is one that does not belong to the group? 1)BGQ 2)CHW 3)PRV 4)TUZ 5)OQU

Directions (Q. 161-165): Study the following infor­mation carefully and answer the questions given below.

XYZ Limited Company organised an exhibition of machine tools. The exhibition was open on all the week days for public. Certain passcodes were issued to the visitors as entry card. The passcode of entry card was changed every hour according to a certain rule as shown below. The entry time of the first batch of the visitors was 9 AM and that for the last batch was 7 PM. Each batch was allowed only one hour. The lunch time was from 1 PM to 2 PM.

Batch I (9 AM to 10 AM) Passcode: she when out and but while of Batch I I : ( 1 0 A M t o l l A M ) Passcode: when but she and of out while Batch III: (11 AM to 12 Noon) Passcode: but of when and while she out and so on.

161. If the passcode for the batch entering at 12 noon is "oh you are wrong do it again", then what will be the passcode for the batch entering at 3 PM? 1) are oh it wrong you again do 2) again it do wrong are you oh 3) you do oh wrong again are it 4) do again you wrong it oh are 5) None of these

162. Ravi and Priti visited the exhibition with the same passcode but not in the same batch. If Priti visited the exhibition with Sneha in second batch then in which batch did Ravi visit the exhibition? 1)111 2) IV 3) VI 4) VII 5) None of these

163. If the passcode for batch V is "one done task all why he is", then what will be the passcode for the seventh batch? 1) is why done all he one task 2) done why one all is task he 3) why is done all he one task 4) done is why all he one task 5) None of these

164. If the code for the second batch is "door to window above wall of home", then which batch has the code "wall home to above of door window"? 1) VIII 2 ) X 3) IX 4) VII 5) VI

165. If the passcode for batch VII is "go home meet your parents at once" then what will be the passcode for the batch whose en­try time is 11 AM? 1) parents once home your at go meet 2) once at parents your meet home go 3) once parents home your at go meet 4) Can't say 5) None of these Directions (Q. 166-170): Each of the questions below

consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read

both the s t a tements a n d give a n s w e r 1) if the data in s tatement I a lone are sufficient to an­

swer the quest ion while the data in s tatement II a lone are not sufficient to answer the quest ion.

2) if the data in s tatement II a lone are sufficient to an­swer the quest ion whi le the data in statement I a lone are not sufficient to answer the quest ion.

3) if the data either in s tatement I a lone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the quest ion.

4) if the data even in both s ta tements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the quest ion.

5) if the data in both s ta tements I and II together are necessary to answer the quest ion.

166. H o w is Suman related to the m a n in the photograph? S ta tements : I. The man in the pho tograph is the only son-in-law of

Suman ' s maternal grandfather. II . The man in the pho tograph has no brothers or sisters

and his father is Suman ' s grandfather. 167. What is the code for ' o r ' in a certain code language?

S ta tements : I. In the same code language ohh ko la means ' d o or

d i e ' ; pa la ga means ' d ie in ha rnes s ' ; and mai bhai ohh means ' d o your du ty ' .

II. In the same code language 'brother or sister' is coded as ale mete ko; and ' your du ty ' is coded as mai bhai.

168. In a row of 28 girls what is the position o fMadhu from left? I. Madhu is exactly midway between Rita and Pinki. Rita

and Pinki are at 5th and 6th posi t ions respect ively from different ends .

II. Al l the girls in the r o w are facing nor th but M a d h u is not at the 15th posi t ion from left.

169. Mohan is seventh from left and Suresh is tenth from right in a row. Both exchange their posi t ions. W h a t is the strength of the r o w ? I. Suresh is twenty-first from left after changing positions. II Suresh is twenty-first from right after changing pos i ­

t ions .

170. Wha t is the dis tance be tween Patna and Jehanabad? I . Patna to G a y a is 300 km and Gaya to Jehanabad is 150

km. All the towns are on a straight line. H Flying at a uniform speed of 150 km/hr a plane takes

three hours to reach Patna f rom Jehanabad. D i r ec t i ons ( Q . 171-173) : S t u d y t h e following infor­

m a t i o n careful ly t o a n s w e r these ques t ions . Six employees P, Q, R, S, T and U are working in A B C

publ ishing company. All of them have been assigned com­posing of different books . All the books are for General Aware­ness but have been n a m e d as Part I , Par t II, Part III, Part IV, Part V and Part VI . The re are two females in the group.

No female m e m b e r has been assigned composing part III and VI. Q is a w o m a n and she is composing part V. P and R are not compos ing part II. S is composing part IV. T, a woman, is not compos ing part II. 171. W h o is compos ing Part II?

1 ) P 2 ) Q 3 ) R 4 ) T 5 ) N o n e o f these 172. W h o is compos ing part III?

1)P 2 ) T 3 ) R 4) Either P or R 5) N o n e of these

173. If the w o m e n employees delay their duty then which parts of Genera l Awareness will be affected the most? l ) I a n d V 2 ) I I a n d V 3 ) I I I a n d V 4) C a n ' t say 5 ) N o n e of these

174. Mr X took leave for a few days from his office. He spent his first day shopping and at night left for town Y to meet his wife and son. N e x t day he reached town Y. Hardly had he spent three days in town Y when Mr X again started the j o u r n e y for town Z to mee t his father. He took 24 hours in the second journey. I fMr X left his father after 72 hours and started jou rney for his office and reached office after 24 hours on M o n d a y morning, then on which day did he start his j o u r n e y to mee t his wife and son? 1) Sunday 2) M o n d a y 3) Saturday 4) Tuesday 5) N o n e of these

175. H o w m a n y p a i r s o f l e t t e r s a r e t h e r e i n t he w o r d S P E C I A L I S A T I O N which have as many letters between them as in the Engl ish a lphabet? l ) t w o 2) three 3) four 4) five 5) N o n e of these

Di rec t ions ( Q . 176-180) : S t u d y t h e following infor­ma t ion t o a n s w e r these ques t ions .

Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H belonging to different cities Delhi , M u m b a i , Kolkata , Chennai , Kanpur, Lucknow, Hyderabad and Patna, not necessari ly in the same order, went to Banga lore to at tend an awareness programme

to restrict AIDS from expanding. Each one had a. different specialisation, viz Acting, Choreography, Literature, Science, Economics, Marke t ing , Designing and Information Technology.

E is from Kolkata. G does not have specialisation in Acting or Choreography. C is a man from Kanpur and he has specialisation in Economics. Neither F nor G has specialisation in Science or Marketing. One who is from Kolkata has specialisation in Designing. A and B have specialisation ei ther in Marketing or in Information technology. D does not have specialisation in Science and F does not have specialisation in Choreography. One who is from Chennai has specialisation in Acting and one who is from Delhi has specialisation in Choreography. G and H belong either to Hyderabad or to Mumbai. A and G do not belong to Patna and Hyderabad respectively. One who belongs to Lucknow has specialisation in Information Technology. 176. Which of the following persons is from Chennai?

1)A 2 ) C 3 ) D 4 ) F 5) None of these 177. Who is specialised in Acting?

1)D 2 ) F 3 )G 4 ) H 5) None of these 178. The person with specialisation in Choreography comes

from 1) Chennai 2) Delhi 3) Lucknow 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these

179. Which of the following combinations of person, city and specialisation is correct? 1) G — Hyderabad — Literature 2) H — Mumbai — Science 3) A — Lucknow —Marketing 4) B — Patna — Information Technology 5) None of these

180. Who is specialised in Choreography? 1)A 2)B 3)C 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these

181. How many such 4's are there in the following sequence that the sum of the immediately following two digits is greater than the sum of the immediately preceding two digits? 2 4 4 5 4 7 4 2 9 8 7 4 7 3 4 5 2 1 4 1 3 4 4 4 8 7 3 3 9 1 1 4 2 1 1) seven 2) six 3) five 4) four 5) None of these

182. If the position of the first letter of English alphabet is interchanged with the position of the fourteenth letter, second letter with fifteenth letter, and so on, in such a way that M is interchanged with Z, then which of the following letters will be 7th to the right of 13th letter from the right? 1)U 2)G 3)H 4)1 5) None of these

183. If all the consonants starting from B are given sequen tially the value of even numbers such as B = 2, C = 4 and so on, and all the vowels are given double the value of the preceding vowel and value of A is 5, then what is the value of REASONING? 1) 167 2) 177 3) 185 4) 187 5) None of these

184. If A + B means "A is the sister of B", A x B means "A is the wife of B", A + B means "A is the father of B", and A - B means "A is the brother of B", then which of the

following expresses the relationship that "Z is the son of L"?

5) None of these Direct ions (Q. 185-190): Study the following

information carefully and answer the questions given below: An insti tute XYZ provides scholarship to its

employees for higher studies in the US. Following are the conditions for awarding scholarship to the employees. The candidate must:

(i) not be more than 30 years of age as on April 1,2011 (ii) have secured more than 70 per cent marks in post-

graduation and 75 per cent marks in graduation. (iif) have at least two years' work experience in the XYZ

institute. (iv) be ready to sign a bond for two years with the

company. (v) have got A or A+ rating for his/her work in the last

two years. However, in case of a candidate who fulfils all the criteria EXCEPT

(a) (ii) above, but has secured minimum 60 per cent marks in graduation and postgraduation and he/ she has PhD, may be referred to the Director.

(b) (v) above, but has work experience of three years with B+, may be referred to the Chairman.

(c) (iv) above, but is ready to pay Rs 50,000 in case he/ she has to leave the institute, may be referred to the President.

Based on these criteria and information provided below decide the appropriate course of action in each case. You are not to assume anything. The cases are given to you as on April 1,2011. If the data provided are not adequate to decide the given course of action, your answer will be "data inadequate". 185. Kapil Sachdeva is twenty-six years old. He is a post­

graduate in Physics. He has registered for PhD. He scored 80% and 82% marks in graduation and postgraduation respectively. He has been working in the XYZ institute since 2007. His performance ratings in the last three years

are B+, A+ and A respectively. He is ready to sign two years' bond with the institute. 1) To be selected 2) Refer to the President 3) Refer to the Chairman 4) Refer to the Director 5) None of these

186. Gopal Mishra is 29 years old and has PhD and postgraduation in chemistry. His percentages of marks in postgraduation and graduation are 76% and 77% re­spectively. He has been working in the institute for last three-and-a-half years and his performance ratings in the last three years are A+, B+ and A respectively. He is ready to sign the bond for two years. 1) Not to be selected 2) To be selected 3) Refer to the Director 4) Refer to the President 5) Refer to the Chairman

187. Ankita Suman is a postgraduate in History. She had se­cured 7 1 % marks in postgraduation and 75% marks in graduation. She has been working in the institute for a period of more than two years. Her performance ratings are A+ and A in the last two years. She is not ready for a bond for two years but is ready to pay the required money if required to leave. Her date of birth is 02.04.1981. 1) To be selected 2) Refer to the President 3) Refer to the Director 4) Refer to the Chairman 5) Data inadequate

188. Amarnath Tripathy has been working in the XYZ insti­tute for the last two years. His'performance is good and he secured rating A+ in both years. He secured 70 per cent and 75 per cent marks in graduat ion and postgraduation respectively. He is ready to sign the bond for two years. His date of birth is 31-01-1984. He has done PhD also. 1) To be selected 2) Data inadequate 3) Refer to the Director 4) Refer to the President 5) None of these

189. Manoj Bhave has been working in the XYZ institute for the last three years. He has shown miraculous perfor­mance and has got A+ rating in these three years. He has done postgraduation and graduation with 70%

marks in each. He is ready for the bond for two years. His date of birth is 1 April, 1982. 1) To be selected 2) Data inadequate 3) Refer to the Director 4) Refer to the President 5) None of these

190. Dinesh Malhotra, whose date of birth is 31 March, 1981, has secured 71 % marks in postgraduation and 76% marks in graduation. He has been working in the XYZ institute for the last five years. His performance during this pe­riod has been praiseworthy. Each year he got A+ rating for his work. He is ready to sign a bond for two years with the company. 1) Not to be selected 2) To be selected 3) Data inadequate 4) Refer to the Chairman 5) None of these

Directions (Q. 191-195): In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the follow­ing assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the s tatement Give answer

1) if only assumption I is implicit. 2) if only assumption II is implicit. , 3) if either I or II is implicit. 4) if neither I nor II is implicit. 5) if both I and II are implicit.

191. Statement: "Provide scholarships to the children in pri­mary schools to increase the number of students in school." — View of Mr X Assumptions: I. Scholarship will attract the children to school. II . Those children who are deprived of money but intel­

ligent will attend the school and scholarship will make their aspirations feasible.

192. Statement: "Smartness cannot be the only criteria for deciding a person's personality."— Mr Y Assumptions: I. Persons with equal smartness are not necessarily

treated equally.

II. Personality of a person is not linked only with smart­ness.

193. Statement: "Everyone desires to buy a mobile phone." — a student Assumptions: I. Mobile phones are not a necessity but an item of

luxury. II. Mobile phone makes one more active.

194. Statement: "Top rankers of forthcoming examination for probationary officers will definitely be from our class­room coaching." — Co-ordinator of XYZ classroom coaching Assumptions: I. Most of the intelligent competitors are from XYZ

coaching institutes. II. Question-paper of the forthcoming examination will

be entirely based on the concept-building papers of XYZ institute.

195. Statement: "It has become the need of the hour that we should entrust all the power, regulating our franchisees, to one person to maintain smooth running of our fran­chisees as well as the organisation."—An employee of XYZ institute Assumptions: I. Entrusting powers to more persons will cause flexibil­

ity and indiscipline and as a result regulation of organisational work will be hindered.

II. Smooth running of franchisees is necessary for the organisation. Directions (Q. 196-200): In making decisions about

important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between strong arguments and weak arguments insofar as they relate to the question. Strong arguments are those which are both important and directly related to the question. Weak arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not be direct related to the question or may be related to a trivial aspect of the question.

Instruction: Each question below is followed by two ar­guments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a strong argument and which is a weak argument.

Give answer 1) if only argument I is strong. 2) if only argument II is strong. 3) if either I or II is strong. 4) if neither I nor II is strong. 5) if both I and II are strong.

196. Statement: Should government hospitals charge user charges from those government employees who pay in­come taxes? Arguments: I. Yes. This will lessen the burden of the government

and money thus accumulated will be helpful in pro­viding more facilities to the needy.

II. No. It will be an injustice towards those persons who pay income taxes as a revenue to the country.

197. Statement: Should the habit of being absent from the class-room be checked in educational institutions? Arguments: I. Yes. Otherwise it will create a poor image of the insti­

tute in the society. II. No. This will be an act of encroaching upon one's

liberty. 198. Statement: Should children be prevented completely

from using the Internet? I. No. Internet is a medium of education where children

get education with entertainment. II.Yes. There are some sites available on Internet which

show porno films or programmes etc, which affect the child's mind to a great extent; recent surveys have revealed most of the users of these sites are children.

199. Statement: Should there be a ban on the persons pro­viding services to more than one firm or organisation? Arguments: I. Yes. It will reduce the problem of unemployment to

some extent. II. No. It will create a lot of frustration and large amount

of dissatisfaction and disappointment among the skil­ful and intellectual classes.

200. Statement: Should people be allowed to keep traditional arms while on a long train iournev?

Arguments: L Yes. This will reduce the cases of train dacoities and

other activities such as snatching chains or ornaments. H. No. This will create inconvenience to the passengers

and aggravate the law-and-order situation. Directions (Q. 201-205): Given below are pairs of events

'A' and ' B \ You have to read both the events 'A' and ' B ' and decide their nature of relationship. You have to assume that the information given in 'A' and ' B ' is true and you will not assume anything beyond the given information in deciding the answer. Mark answer.

1) If 'A' is the effect and ' B ' is its immediate and principal cause.

2) If'A' is the immediate and principal cause and ' B ' is its effect.

3) If 'A' is an effect but ' B ' is not its immediate and prin­cipal cause.

4) If ' B ' is an effect but 'A' is not its immediate and prin­cipal cause.

5) None of these 201. Event (A): Science has made the world a global village.

Event (B): Today a man can contact any person in the world within seconds.

202. Event (A): Because of the proper distribution of gas ov­ens the life of the women of rural areas has be­come more comfortable.

Event (B): Life of women is becoming insecure in rural areas.

203. Event(A): The government has finalised the contours of a massive debt swap operation.

Event (B): Central government's current year's gross fis­cal deficit touched 5.3% of GDP.

204. Event (A): Subscribers of Hutch and Airtel cellular ser­vices companies are increasing day by day de­spite facing tough competition from other cellular services companies.

Event (B): Recently, Hutch and Airtel have announced another joint scheme, according to which sub­scribers of these giants will not have to pay for incoming calls.

205. Event (A): In the world's biggest conference on AIDS in Barcelona, officials in their declaration called for $ 10 billion a year to be donated to the global AIDS fund and for at least two million people with HIV in developing countries to receive antiretroviral treatment.

Event (B): According to a recent UN report, about 70 million people will die of AIDS over the next two decades in the 45 worst affected countries.

Directions (Q. 206-210): Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity. M a r k answer

1) if the inference is 'definitely true', ie it properly fol­lows from the statement of facts given.

2) if the inference is 'probably true' though not 'defi-nitelv tnie' in the lipht of the facts eiven.

3) if the data are inadequate, ie from the facts given you , cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or

false. 4) if the inference is 'probably false' though not 'defi­

nitely false' in the light of the facts given. 5) if the inference is 'definitely false', ie it cannot possi­

bly be drawn from the facts given for it contradicts the given facts. India s export ot readymade garments increased oy

almost 11 per cent in value terms during April 2002 at $ 324 million over the san e period in 2001. As per provisional data compiled by the Apparel Export Promotion Council (AEPC), readymade garment exports were higher by 10.9 per cent in value terms compared to $ 292.2 million in April 2001. In terms of quantity, exports in April 2002 were 16.8 percent higher at 94 million pieces compared to 80.8 million pieces in the same month a year earlier. Exports in rupee terms increased by over 16percenta tRs 1587.3 crore compared to Rs 1368.9 crorea year earlier. 206. Apparel Export Promotion Council (AEPC) releases

authentic data, and one can believe it. 207. India's export of readymade garments was increasing

every year in both value terms as well as rupee terms. 208. In 2001, there was a recession in garment export. 209. Readymade garments' export is a good option for skilful

unemployed persons to deal in. 210. Readymade garments' export in 2001 was more than

readymade garments' import in the same year. Directions (Q. 211-215): In the following questions, the

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given belowthem is/are definitely true.

Give answer 1) if only Conclusion I is true. 2) if only Conclusion II is true. 3) if either Conclusion I or II is true. 4) if neither Conclusion I nor II is true. 5) if both Conclusions I and II are true.

Directions (Q. 216-220): Each of the following ques­tions consists of unmarked figures followed by five figures marked 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 and 5. Select a figure from the marked

211. Statements: M $ K , D ∗ K, R # K Conclusions: I. D $ M II. M % D

212. Statements: F ∗ M, M % R, E @ F Conclusions: I. M % E H. R @ E

213. Statements: H $ K, T # H, W * T Conclusions: I. K % W H.T#K

214. Statements: N % A, A # L, F $ N Conclusions: I. L % F II. F % A

215. Statements: B ∗ D, D $ M , F % M Conclusions: I. B # M II. F % B

symbols @, #, S, ∗ and % are used as illustrated below: 'P @ Q' means 'P is not smaller than Q'. 'P # Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q' 'P $ Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q'. 'P ∗ Q' means 'P is not greater than Q'. 'P % O' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'

figures which will replace the question mark so that a series be established by the unmarked figures.

Directions (Q. 221-225): The first figure in the first unit of the problem fig­ures bears a certain relationship to the second figure. Similarly, one of the figures in the answer figures bears the same relationship to the second figure in the second unit of the problem figures. You are therefore to locate the figure which would replace the Question mark .