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Q4. What is Modified Duration of Equity? (a) 6.33 (b) 7.33 (c) 8.33 (d) 9.33 Ans.(d) Explanation: Modified duration of equity (MD) = DGAP * leverage ratio = 0.69 * 13.52 = 9.3288 = 9.33 years Q5. If there is 200 bp change in rate, what is drop in Equity Value? (a) 18.66 (b) 20.33 (c) 22.66 (d) 24.33 Ans.(a) Explanation: Equity value=Change in rate (BP)*MD = 200*9.33/100 = 18.6576 = 18.66% Q6. Which approaches are used for measuring and managing funding requirement? i) Stock approach ii) Standard approached iii) Flow approach iv) Quantitative approach (a) i) and iii) only (b) ii) and iv) only (c) ii) and iii) only (d) i) and iv) only Ans.(a) Directions: As per the RBI guideline on ALM, capital and reserves are to be placed in over 5 years bucket, Saving and Current Deposits may be classified into volatile and core portions. Saving bank (10%) and Current (15%) deposit are generally withdrawable on demand. This portion may be treated as volatile. While volatile portion can be placed in the time bucket 14 days, the core portion may placed in 1-3 year bucket. The Term Deposits are to be placed in respective maturity bucket.
Capital Rs. 1180 Cr Reserve Rs. 12000 Cr Current account Rs. 1000 Cr Saving Bank Rs. 4000 Cr Term Deposits 1 month maturity bucket Rs. 400 Cr Term deposit 1 to less than 6 month maturity bucket Rs. 800 Cr Term deposit 3 month to less than 6 month Maturity bucket Rs. 1200 Cr Term Deposit 6 month to less than 12 month maturity Bucket Rs. 2000 Cr
Term Deposit 1 year to less than 3 year maturity bucket Rs. 1200 Cr Term deposit 3 year to less than 5 year Maturity bucket Rs. 600 Cr Term deposit above 5 year maturity bucket Rs. 800 Cr Borrowing from RBI Rs. 400 Cr
Based on the above information answer the following questions
Q7. What is the amount of Current account deposit that can be placed in 14 days bucket?
(a) Rs. 100 Cr
(b) Rs. 150 Cr
(c) Rs. 200 Cr
(d) Rs. 250 Cr
Ans.(b)
Explanation:
Volatile portion of 15% to be placed in this bucket
=1000*15/100=150
Q8. What is the amount of Saving bank deposit that can be placed in 14 days bucket?
(a) RS.100 Cr
(b) RS.200 Cr
(c) RS.300 Cr
(d) RS.400 Cr
Ans.(d)
Explanation:
Volatile portion of 10% to be placed in this bucket
=4000*10/100=400
Q9. What is the amount of Current account deposit that can be placed in 1-3 year bucket?
(a) RS.100 Cr
(b) RS.400 Cr
(c) RS.800 Cr
(d) RS.850 Cr
Ans.(d)
Explanation:
Non- Volatile portion of 90% to be placed in this bucket
=1000*85/100=850
Q10. What is the amount of Saving bank deposit that can be placed in 1-3 year bucket?
(a) RS.4000 Cr
(b) RS.3600 Cr
(c) RS.3200 Cr
(d) RS.3000 Cr
Ans.(b)
Explanation:
Non-Volatile portion of 90% to be placed in this bucket
Q20. Which is not a derivative product? (a) Swap (b) Repo (c) Option (d) Forward Ans.(b) Q21. Among interest rate risk management techniques one is
static simulation and other is ...... (a) Fixed (b) Variable (c) Dynamic (d) None of the above Ans.(c) Q22. Minimum investment in T-bill is ...... (a) Rs. 10000 (b) Rs. 25000 (c) Rs. 50000 (d) Rs. 100000 Ans.(b) Q23. ECB is denominated in which currencies ...... (a) USD (b) Euro (c) JPY (d) Any freely convertible currency Ans.(d) Q24. Dirty price is = ...... (a) Clean price (b) Clean price - accrued interest (c) Clean price + accrued interest (d) None of the above Ans.(c) Q25. Under LRS, amount that can be remitted in each financial year is ...... (a) Rs. 100000 (b) Rs. 250000 (c) USD 100000 (d) USD 250000 Ans.(d) Q26. Value at risk is a measure of ...... (a) Gap risks in Money Market Operations (b) Gap risks in Capital Market Operations (c) Gap risks in Foreign Exchange Operations (d) None of the above Ans.(c)
Q49. What is the amount liabilities that will be included in NDTL
for the purpose of CRR calculation? (a) 233200 cr (b) 233800 cr (c) 237600 cr (d) 238400 cr Ans.(a) To be included in NDTL = other than those not included
while calculating NDTL = 26000+82000+123200+800+200+80+800+120 = 233200 Q50. What is the amount of NDTL at 4% average balance to be
maintained by the bank? (a) 9140 cr (b) 9328 cr (c) 9504 cr (d) 9536 cr Ans.(b) = 233200 x 4/100 = 9328 Q51. What is the minimum balance in CRR amount with RBI? (a) 6430 cr (b) 6480 cr (c) 6530 cr (d) 6675 cr Ans.(c) = 9328 x 70% = 6530 Q52. While calculating the NDTL for CRR purpose which of the following liabilities is/are to be
excluded? (i) Capital and Reserves, (ii) Refinance from NABARD, sidbi, (iii) Inter Bank deposit with original maturity of 15 Days or above
(a) Only (i) and (ii) (b) Only (i) and (iii) (c) Only (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii) Ans.(d) Directions: Answer the following questions, based on the below given information on results of a bank
1st year (Rs. In crores) 2nd year (Rs. In crores)
Net profits 600 Net profits 700
Provisions 800 Provisions 800
Staff expenses 900 Staff expenses 1000
Other operating expenses 1000 Other operating expenses 1200
Q56. What is the amount of risk weighted assets for operational risks in India as per Basel III
recommendations, on the basis of 1st year results alone? (a) 3913 cr (b) 4304 cr (c) 4565 cr (d) 4826 cr Ans.(b) Explanation: Capital charge / 11.5 % = 495 / 11.5 % = Rs. 4304 cr Q57. What is the amount of risk weighted assets for operational risks in India as per Basel III
recommendations, on the basis of 2nd year results alone? (a) 3913 cr (b) 4034 cr (c) 4565 cr (d) 4826 cr Ans.(d) Explanation: Capital charge / 11.5 % = 555 / 11.5 % = Rs. 4826 cr Q58. What is the amount of risk weighted assets for operational risks in India as per Basel III
recommendations, on the basis of 1st year and 2nd year results? (a) 3913 cr (b) 4034 cr (c) 4565 cr (d) 4826 cr Ans.(c) Explanation: Capital charge / 11.5 % = 525 / 11.5 % = Rs. 4565 cr Q59. When the Advising Bank, at the request of the issuing Bank, adds its confirmation which would
constitute a definite undertaking by the former the L/C is known as a / an ...... (a) Irrevocable L/C (b) Transferable L/C (c) Confirmed L/C (d) Revolving L/C Ans.(c) Q60. Mr. Raj has taken up employment with XYZ corporation at London On 20th June 1983. He got
married with Jessy, a UK resident in 1985. From them a son John took birth in 1987. Mr. Raj took divorce from Jessy in year 1989. Mr. John has done an MBA and wants to settle in India. He wants to open up a joint bank account with his mother. Which type of account can he open?
(a) He cannot open any account (b) He can open FCNR & NRE only (c) He can open NRO account only (d) He can open NRE account only Ans.(b)
Q69. What is the amount of Total Risk Weighted Assets? (a) 40 crore (b) 150 crore (c) 300 crore (d) 2610 crore Ans.(d) Explanation: Total RWAs = 120 + 1000 + 150 + 1000 + 300 + 40 = 2610 crore Q70. What is the amount of Capital Required? (a) 40 crore (b) 150 crore (c) 300 crore (d) 2610 crore Ans.(c) Explanation: Capital Required = 2610 * 11.5 % = 300 crore Directions: On 20th January, M/s ABC Exporter tenders for purchase a Bill payable 60 Days from Sight and Drawn on New York for USD 25,000. The Dollar / Rupee rates in the interbank exchange market were as under: Spot USD 1 = Rs. 65.4000 / 4550 Spot / February 1600/1500 Spot / March 3000/2900 Spot / April 5000/4900 Spot / May 6000/5900 Exchange Margin of 0.10% is to be loaded. Rate of Interest is 11% p.a. Q71. What will be the Exchange Rate to be quoted to the customer? (a) 64.6525 (b) 64.8350 (c) 64.9000 (d) 65.4000 Ans.(b) Explanation: The notional due date is (60 + 25) days from 20th January, i.e., 15th April. (Note that transit period
of 25 days is to be taken even if the question is silent). Since the dollar is at discount (forward margin is in descending order), this period will be rounded off to higher month, i.e., end November, and the rate quoted will be based on Spot / November rate for US dollar in the interbank market.
Dollar / Rupee market spot buying rate = Rs. 65.40000 Less: Discount for Spot / February – Rs. 0.50000 65.40000 - 0.50000 = Rs. 64.90000 Less: Exchange margin at 0.10% on Rs. 64.90000 = Rs. 0.06490 64.90000 - 0.06490 = 64.8351 Rounded off to the nearest multiple of 0.0025, the rate quoted would be Rs. 64.8350 per dollar.
Q75. What will be the Exchange Rate to be quoted to the customer if the Bill is payable 90 Days from
Sight? (a) 64.3750 (b) 64.5250 (c) 64.6750 (d) 64.7350 Ans.(d) Explanation: The notional due date is (90 + 25) days from 20th January, i.e., 15th May. (Note that transit period
of 25 days is to be taken even if the question is silent). Since the dollar is at discount (forward margin is in descending order), this period will be rounded off to higher month, i.e., end November, and the rate quoted will be based on Spot / November rate for US dollar in the interbank market.
Dollar / Rupee market spot buying rate = Rs. 64.65250 Less: Discount for Spot / May – Rs. 0.60000 65.40000 - 0.60000 = Rs. 64.80000 Less: Exchange margin at 0.10% on Rs. 64.80000 = Rs. 0.06480 64.80000 - 0.06480 = 64.7352 Rounded off to the nearest multiple of 0.0025, the rate quoted would be Rs. 64.7350 per dollar. Q76. What will be the Rupee Amount payable to him if the Bill is payable 90 Days from Sight? (a) Rs. 15,62,286 (b) Rs. 15,68,564 (c) Rs. 15,74,862 (d) Rs. 15,83,426 Ans.(a) Explanation: Rupee amount payable on the bill for USD 25,000 At Rs. 64.7350 per dollar = Rs. 16,18,375 Less: Interest for 115 days at 11% on Rs. 16,18,375 = Rs. 56,089 = 16,18,375 - 56,089 = 15,62,286 Q77. Interest arbitrage is done by the treasury by using which of the following methods ...... (a) Borrowing in a foreign currency and deploying in home currency & vice-versa taking
advantage of interest differential (b) Borrowing from RBI at a lower rate & lending to borrower at a higher rate (c) By using derivative product (d) As treasury make money in other areas of money market they lend to borrower at a lower rate Ans.(a) Q78. Duration is a measure of ...... (a) Currency risk (b) Counterparty risk (c) Interest rate risk (d) MTM Value Ans.(d)
Q83. Find out the credit risk weighted asset for C Ltd. (a) 0.18 Cr (b) 0.24 Cr (c) 0.80 Cr (d) 2.65 Cr Ans.(d) Explanation: Applying the credit risk mitigation formula: E* = max {0, [E x (1 + He) - C x (1 - Hc - Hfx)]} where: E* = the exposure value after mitigation E = current value of the exposure for which the collateral qualifies as a risk Mitigant He = haircut appropriate to the exposure C = the current value of the collateral received Hc = haircut appropriate to the collateral Hfx = haircut appropriate for currency mismatch between the collateral and exposure Party - C Ltd Exposure - 60.00 Rating of Exposure - A Risk Weight - 50% Hair cut for exposure - 0 Collateral value - 62.00 Collateral - Gold Maturity of collateral - 6 Hair cut for collateral - 15% E* = max {0, [60 x (1 + 0) - 62 x (1 – 0.15 - 0 )]} = max of 0 or [7.30] Means the collateral value after mitigation = 62 - 7.30 = 54.70 So the net exposure = 60 - 54.70 = 5.30 RWA = 5.30 x Risk weight of exposure which is 50% = 2.65 Cr Q84. In a loan a/c, the balance outstanding is Rs. 5 lacs and a cover of 75% is available from CGTMSE.
The a/c has been doubtful since 01.10.2011 and the value of security held is Rs. 2 lacs. What will be the total provision to be made for this account as on 31.03.2015?
(a) Rs. 500000 (b) Rs. 275000 (c) Rs. 225000 (d) Rs. 75000 Ans.(b) Explanation: Outstanding balance = Rs. 5 lacs, Security available = Rs. 2 lacs CGTMSE cover of 75% available on the remaining amount = (500000 – 200000) x 75/100 = 300000 x 75/100 = 225000 We will take the uncovered amount for taking provision, which will be, 300000 - 225000 = 75000
Since loan is in doubtful category for more than 3 years, we will take 100 % Provision for security value.
=200000 So total provision will be, 75000+200000 = 275000 Directions: Balance sheet of a bank provides the following information: Total advances Rs 50000cr, Gross NPA 10% and Net NPA 3%. Based on this information, answer the following questions? Q85. What is the amount of gross NPA? (a) Rs 4000cr (b) Rs 4500cr (c) Rs 5000cr (d) Rs 5500cr Ans.(c) Explanation: Gross NPA = 50000 x 10 % = 5000 Cr Q86. What is the amount of net NPA? (a) Rs 1000cr (b) RS 1200cr (c) Rs 1500cr (d) Rs 1800cr Ans.(c) Explanation: Net NPA = 50000 x 3 % = 1500 Cr Q87. What is the amount of provision for standard loans, if all the standard loan account represent
general advance? (a) Rs 150cr (b) Rs 160cr (c) Rs 180cr (d) Rs 200cr Ans.(c) Explanation: Standard Accounts = Total advances - Gross NPA = 50000 - (50000 x 10%) = 50000 - 5000 = 45000 Provision for standard loans (general advance) = 0.4% = 45000 x 0.4% = 180 Cr
Directions: On 20th January, M/s ABC Exporter tenders for purchase a Bill payable 60 Days from Sight and Drawn on New York for USD 25,000. The Dollar / Rupee rates in the interbank exchange market were as under: Spot USD 1 = Rs. 65.4000 / 4550 Spot / February 1600/1500 Spot / March 3000/2900 Spot / April 5000/4900 Spot / May 6000/5900 Exchange Margin of 0.10% is to be loaded. Rate of Interest is 11% p.a. Q100. What will be the Exchange Rate to be quoted to the customer? (a) 64.6525 (b) 64.8350 (c) 64.9000 (d) 65.4000 Ans.(b) Explanation: The notional due date is (60 + 25) days from 20th January, i.e., 15th April. (Note that transit period
of 25 days is to be taken even if the question is silent). Since the dollar is at discount (forward margin is in descending order), this period will be rounded off to higher month, i.e., end November, and the rate quoted will be based on Spot / November rate for US dollar in the interbank market.
Dollar / Rupee market spot buying rate = Rs. 65.40000 Less: Discount for Spot / February – Rs. 0.50000 65.40000 - 0.50000 = Rs. 64.90000 Less: Exchange margin at 0.10% on Rs. 64.90000 = Rs. 0.06490 64.90000 - 0.06490 = 64.8351 Rounded off to the nearest multiple of 0.0025, the rate quoted would be Rs. 64.8350 per dollar.
Q101. What will be the Rupee Amount payable to him?
(a) Rs. 15,62,129
(b) Rs. 15,79,354
(c) Rs. 16,20,875
(d) Rs. 16,35,000
Ans.(b)
Explanation:
Rupee amount payable on the bill for USD 25,000
At Rs. 64.8350 per dollar = Rs. 16,20,875
Less: Interest for 85 days at 11% on Rs. 16,20,875 = Rs.