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~
merican Student DentalAssoc iation
National Board Dental Examinations
TEST P CKET II M
Compiled
released items from
approximately 2000 2008
American Student Dental Association
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These released exam inaUonmaterials are distributed by th American Student Dental Association
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permission from lt1e
American Dental Association Joint Commisskln on National Dental Examina tions You may not copy for any
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itten permission from the American Dental Association.
This collection of examination materials includes questions compiled from examinations administered by the
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periodically releases items no longer in use to familiarize candidates, educators and others with the general
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JOINT COMMISSION ON NA
TION L
DENT
L
EXAMINATIONS
MERICAN DENT
L
SSO I TION
211 EAST CHICAGO AVENUE, CHICAGO, ILLINOIS 60611
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merican
DentalAssociation, JointCommssionon Nationa DentalExaminations All rightsreserved.
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TABLE OF CONTENTS
Part II Released Items 5
Case A Questions
Case B Questions 4
Case A 6
Case B
Answer Key
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2
3
A
patient
has pain over the left pre-auricular area;
this patient can open approximately 45 mm and
has a pop-and-ctck in the joint area. The most
likely diagnosis is
A.
myofascial pain dysfunction syndrome.
B. internal derangement with reduction.
C. auriculotemporal syndrome.
D. coronoid hyperplasia.
Erythromycin is responsible for numerous drug
interactions, some of which are fatal. This is
because erythromycin
A.
increases the absorption of many drugs.
B. decreases the absorption of many drugs.
C. decreases cytochrome P-450 metabolism of
other drugs.
D. increases renal reabsorption of many drugs.
E. decreases distribution of many drugs.
The penetrating quali ty of x-ray beams is
influenced by which of Ihe following?
A.
Kilovoltage
B. Milliamperage
C. Exposure time
D. Focal-film distance
E. Filament temperature
6
7
8
9
A 2-day-old developing plaque consists primarily of
A Treponema species.
B. Bacteroides species.
C. filamentous organisms.
D. gram-positive cocci and rods .
E. a structureless, non-mineralized pellicle.
Each of the fol lowing is an electromagnetic
radialion EXCEPT one. Which one is the
EXCEPTION?
A. Rada r
B. X rays
C. Alpha rays
D. Gamma rays
E. Visible light
Which of the fal lowing is NOT a complication of
radiation therapy?
A. Mucositis
B. Xerostom ia
C. Osteoradionecrosis
D. Granuloma
Each of the fol lowing is known to contribute to
orofaclal
c eftin g EXCEPT one. Which one is the
EXCEPTION?
Contraction of the lateral pterygoid muscle moves
the articular disk in which of the fol lowing
directions?
10 . Which of the following physical signs indicates
severe CNS oxygen deprivation?
4
B.
c.
D.
E.
Anteriorly and medially
Posteriorly and medially
Anteriorly and laterally
Posteriorly and laterally
Anteriorly, laterally, and inferiorly
A
B
c.
D
Valium
Poor diet
Acetaminophen
Vitamin deficiency or excess
5
A e rease in which of the fol lowing causes an
increase in radiog raphic density?
A.
B.
c.
D.
Dilated pupils with increased light reflex
Pinpoint pupils with increased light reflex
Dilated pupils with an absence of light reflex
Pinpoint pupils with an absence of light
reflex
A.
B
c.
D.
E.
Milliamperage mA)
Kilovoltage peak kVp)
Object-film distance
Source-film distance
Exposure time
5
11 . Subconjunctival hemorrhage is most commonly
found in which of the followi ng fractures?
A Nasal
B. LeFort I
C. Frontal sinus
D. Zygomatic arch
E. Zygomaticomaxillary complex
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18 Acute pyogenic bacterial infections produce
12
13
Which of the fol lowing drug groups increases
intraocular pres sure and is, therefore,
contraindicated in patients with glaucoma?
A. Catecholamines
B. Belladonna alkaloids
C. Anticholinesterases
D. Organophosphates
Which of the fonowing besl describes a vestibu
loplasty?
A Bone is added to the mandible to augment
ils height.
B. Osseointegrated denial implants are placed
10support prosthesis.
C. Soft tissue is repositioned in order to
increase the area on which the denture may
be supported.
D. The chin is augmented to enhance estheti cs.
E
Periodontal tissue is removed from around a
tooth to establish a biologic width.
17
19.
An analgesic compound 3 conta ins how many mg
of codeine?
A 7 5
B. 15
C
D 6
A. leukopenia.
B. lymphopenia.
C. neutropenia.
D. leukocytosis .
E
lymphocytosis .
A 35-year-old woman has an acute dentoalveolar
abscess. Which of the following conditions will be
the most l ikely to compl icate the management of
this patient?
14
. On a new patients initial appointment. the dentist
should do which of the following first?
A
B
c.
D.
Asthma
Epilepsy
Chemotherapy
Hypertension
A
B.
c.
D.
Establish rapport
Inform
Gather information
Evaluate
2 Which of the following is indicated to correct a
condition of atropine poisoning evidenced by rapid
heart rate, dry mouth and gastrointestinal
inactivity?
15, An elderly patient has worn a maxillary complete
denture against 6 mandibular anterior teeth for an
extended period of time. In examining the
edentulous mouth of this patient, the dentist would
probably see which of the following?
A.
B
C
o
E
Nicotine
Homatropine
Epinephrine
Pilocarpine
Physostigmine
16. The useof study casts in orthognalhic surgery
does each of the fol lowing EXCEPT one. Which
one is the EXCEPTION?
A.
B.
c.
D
Intrusion of the mandibu lar anterior teeth
Flabby
ridge
tissue in the pos
terior
maxillary
arch
Loss of osseous structure in the anterior
maxillary arch
Cystic degeneration of the foram ina of the
anterior palatine nerve
21
If a patient suddenly becomes unconscious during
treatment. the practitioner should immediately
assess the patient s
A.
airway and pulse .
B. airway and blood pressure.
C. pulse and blood pressu re.
D. color and pupils.
A, Constructs splints
B. Performs
mo
del surgery
C. Determines the postoperative occlusion
D. Identifies the type of skeletal deformity
E. Aids in explaining the surgical procedure to
the patient
6
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22
Gingival
overg
rowth . hirsutism, coa rsening of facial
features, lymph gland hypertrophy, cognitive
deficits, and fetal abnormalities are side effects
associated with which of the following antlepileptic
drugs
A. Phenobarbital
B. Carb amazepi ne Tegretoj)
C. vaioroate Depakene )
D. Phenytoin Dilantin)
E. Ethosuximide Zarontin)
27
What space management treatment should be
p la nn ed for a child age 4. missing both primary
mandibular first molars with no primate space
present?
A. Lingual arch
B. Distal shoe{s)
C. Nance holding arch
D. Band-and-loop spa ce mainta iner s)
E. Observation ; no space maintai
ner
necessary.
W hich of the following should be performed first for
a collapsed or unconscious victim of illness or
accident?
Each of the followi ng characterizes an impend ing
insulin shock EXC EPT one. Which one is the
EXCEPTION?
23
A .
C.
D
Ope n the airway
Establish unresponsiveness
Establish pulselessness
Examine the victim for b
leeding and
fractures
28
A.
B.
C
D.
Weakness
Convulsions
Mental confusion
Cold per spiration
24
25
A p at ie nt p re se nt s with facia l lacerations thai ha ve
lrreqular or devitalized
wound
edges. In excising
the wound elliptically, a practitioner takes into
account eac h of the following EXCE PT one . Which
is th e EXC EPTION?
A, Excision is perpendicular to the natural skin
tension lines.
B. Length to width rat io of the excision is at
least 3 to 1.
C . Excision is done as conservatively as
possible.
D. The wound is undermined prior to closure.
Wh ich of the following represents the major route
of excretion of penicillin V?
A. Secretion in the bile and into the feces
B. Excretion in the urine as inactive metabolite s
C. Total metabolism by the liver and excretion
in the feces
D. Secretion not metabolized in the urine
29
3
31
An unconscious patient is suspected of having an
obstructed airway. How should this patient be
managed?
A. Protrude the tong ue , clear the pharynx,
extend the neck, and protrude the mandibl e
B. Extend the neck, clear the pharynx, protrude
the tongu e. and protrude the mandible
C. Extend the neck, protrud e the mandible,
protrude the tongue, and clea r the phary nx
D. Clear the pharynx, extend the neck , protrude
the mandible, and protrude the tongue
A tender swell ing in the soft tissue of the
submandibular tr iangle is most likely caused by
A. lipoma .
B. lymphadenopathy.
C. an obstruction of stensen s duct.
D. an infected thy roglossal duct cyst.
Which of the follow ing is the least helpful in
determining the anatomical integrity of the
temporomandibular joint?
26.
WhiCh of the following systemic conditions lowers
resistance, impairs healing , and indicates earl y use
of antibiotics for infections?
A.
Vitamin C deficiency
B . Diabet es mellitus
C. Poly cythemia vera
D. Systemic lupus erythematosus
7
A.
B
c.
D
E.
Arth rography
Arthroscopy
Panora mic fil ms
Compute rized tomog raphy
Magnetic resonance imaging
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32 A freshly condensed Class II amalgam restoration
has a defici ent margin at the proximogingivar
cavosurface angle. This might have been caused
by
which of the
following?
A. Overtightening the matrix band
B. Neglecting to wedge the matrix band
C, Neglect ing to contour the matrix band
D. Using too large an initial increment of
amalgam
36. Which of the following is a local contraindication for
the surgical removal of an impacted tooth?
A. A nonvital tooth
8. Fever of unknown origin
C. A history of bleeding disorder
D. An undiagnosed ulcer in the oral cavity
E. Pale g ingiva with a confirmed history of
anemia
33
34
Each of the fol lowing measures can minimize
fractures of the maxillary alveolar process
EXCEPT
one.
Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A Use of controlled force when using forceps
and elevators
B. Removal of buccal bone and/or sectioning of
teeth
C. A thorough presurgical analysis and planning
alterations in the surgica l approach
D. Use of the maxillary pinch grasp 10detect
expansion of the alveolar bone
E. Use of forceps with beaks that grasp the
roots more firmly
Ethyl a lcohol is a good ant idote for methanol
poisoning because
37
38
Which of the following properties increases
when
the intermediate chain of a local anesthetic drug is
lengthened?
A. Potency
8. Allergenicity
C. Solubility in
water
D. Rate of
botr
anstormanon
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of
chemical vapor sterili zation?
A. Cycle time is short.
B.
will not char fabrics.
C.
It
will not cause corrosion.
D. There is no need for special ventilation.
E.
Instruments are dry at the end of the cycle.
Each of the following nonsedating antihistamines
would be contraindicated in an individual taking
cimetidine for heartburn
EXCEPT
one. Which one
is the EXCEPTION?
A. it inhibits methanol metabolism.
8. it competes successfully with methanol for
alcohol dehydrogenase.
C. it prevents formation of formaldehyde.
D.
it
prevents
damage
to the optic nerve .
E. All of the above.
The most common cause of f racture at the isthmus
of
a
Class II restoration is
Alveoplasty following closed extraction is usually
performed with
a bur.
fingers.
a rongeur.
a bone file.
A.
B.
A. delayed amalgam expansion.
B. a sharp axio-pulpafIine angle.
C. isthmus width too narrow.
O. moisture contamination of the amalgam
during placement.
E. lack of interproximal contact.
39
4
Astemizole Hismanal
Diphenhydramine Benadryl
Fexofenadine Allegra
Hydroxyzine Vistaril
Terfenadine Seldane
A.
B.
c.
D
E.
35
4 The periosteal e levator is used to do each of
the
following
EXCEPT
one. Which one is the
EXCEP
TION?
A. Luxate the teeth
B. Retract the soft t issue flap
C. Elevate the interdental papil lae
O. Provide protection to the soft ti ssue flap
8
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. The fenestration technique for mandibular vesubu
loplasty is based on the premise that the mucosal
attachment will
48 How does the growth of the cranial base generally
relate in time to the growth of the j ws
A.
B.
c
D.
not cross the skin graft.
not cross the mucosal graft.
not cross a fibrous scar band.
be maintained in its lowered position by the
new denture.
A
B.
c.
D.
E.
Follows
Precedes
Unrelated
Accompanies
Initially follows, then accompanies
43
Which of the following represents a constitutional
symptom?
49.
Aplastic anemia is a serious toxic effect associated
most frequently with which of the following
antib iotics?
44
Which of the following is the most commonly used
surgical procedure to correct maxillary
retrognathia?
5
The therapeutic index of a given drug indicates the
relative
A
B.
c
D.
A
B.
c
D.
Tinnitus
Chills
Xerostomia
Dysphagia
C-osteotomy
Le Fort I osteotomy
Inverted Losteotomy
Anterior maxillary osteotomy
A
B.
c.
D.
A
B.
c.
D
E
Streptomycin
Tetracycline
Chloramphenicol
Chlortetracycline
safety.
potency.
efficacy.
duration.
solubi lity.
45
In the preauricular approach to the TMJ, which of
the following anatomic structures, if damaged,
presents the potential for greatest morbidity?
51.
Which of the following flap designs allows the best
surgical access to the apical aspect of a tooth root
with the least reflection of soft lissue?
A
B
c.
D.
E
Facial nerve
Parotid gland
Auriculotemporal nerve
Superficial temporal vein
Facial artery
A.
B.
c.
D.
Envelope
Semilunar
Vertical release
Rotation pedicle
46
Which of the following is most clearly associated
with the appearance of moon facies ?
52.
Each of the following is a disadvantage of oral
sedation EXCEPT one. Which one is the
EXCEPTION?
47
A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Regular corticosteroid use
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Pancreatic insufficiency
Osteomyelitis of the mandible is most l ikely to
develop because of
A. failure of pus to localize.
B. a resistant strain of bacteria.
C. low resistance of the patient.
D. lack of drainage from the infected area.
9
A.
B.
c.
D.
The admin istrator has little control over the
ultimate clinical actions of the drug s).
There can be significant differences in the
bioavailabihty of oral drugs.
With most oral drugs, there is a relatively
slow onset of cl inical activity and a
prolonged duration of action.
Oral anxiolytic drugs are effective in relieving
anxiety in the hours immediately preceding
the dental appointment.
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53.
Principles for managing a localized alveolar osteitis
after extraction of a mandibular first molar include
each of the following EXCEPT one . Which one is
the EXCE PTION?
56
You are doing some preprosthetic surgery on
a
patient in preparation fo r a new den tu re. Which of
the following statements about removal of her
moderate-sized mandibular lingual tori is correct?
54
A. Flushing out debris with normal saline
solution
B. Curetting the boney wall to promote bleeding
C.
Placing a sedative dressing in the socke t to
protect exposed bone
D. Administering mild analgesic drugs as an
adjunct to local treatment
When is the most app ropriate time to permanently
modify/alter the occlusion of an acute TMD
patient?
A.
B.
c.
D
The tori should be removed using a large
p
ear
-shaped acrylic bur.
The tori should be removed by grooving the
superior surface then shearing the torus off
with a mono -beveled chisel. The area is
then smoothed with a bone file .
The tori should be removed by grooving the
superior surface of the torus with a bur, then
shear the torus off with a bibeveled chisel.
The tori should be removed by inserting a
rongeurs vertically under a lingual flap and
snipping off
the tori.
55
A. During the first visit, whi le the patient has the
acute symptoms
B. Prior to initiating splint therapy, one week
after the first visit
C. Only after the patient is sympton-free and
has shown improvement during splint
therapy
D. Never, until definitive orthodontic treatment
has been started
Which of the following best defines the term
Temporomandibular Disorders ?
A. A clinical condition related to dysfunction of
the temporomandibular joint and disk
B. A collective term for a heterogenous group
of musculoskeletal disorders of varying
etiologies , that present with similar signs and
symptoms
C. A clinical condition caused by disharmony
between the occlusal proprioceptors and
masticatory muscles
D. A
group of clinical conditions that arise from
excessive loads being placed on the TM
joints by muscle spasms, resulti ng in disk
displacement on one or both sides
10
57
58
Which of the following statements about the flap
for the removal of a palatal torus is correct?
A. The most opt imal flap uses a midline incision
which courses from the papilla between
teeth
8
and
9
posteriorly to the junction of
the
har
d and soft palates.
B The most opt imal flap is a ref lect ion of the
enti re hard palate mucoperiosteum back to a
line between the
2
f irst molar teeth.
C. The most optimal flap uses a midpalatal
incision that courses from the palata l aspect
of tooth
3
across to the palatal aspect of
tooth
4
D. The
most
optimal flap is shaped like a
double-r , with a midline incision and
anterior and posterior side arms extending
bilaterally from the ends of the midline
incision.
Which of the following statements about
maxil lofacial bone grafts is INCORRECT?
enogr fts
re
frequently used in
mandibular reconstruction.
B. The most common source of autologous
bone is the iliac crest.
c . Allogeneic banked bone is often used as a
carrier, suppl emented with an autogenous
graft.
D. An example of isogeneic bone grafting is
transplanting bone marrow in the treatment
of such diseases as leukemia.
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59
6
Your patient
was
referred to an oral and
maxillofacial surgeon for an impla nt, and you were
advised that she
was
going 10need a sinus l ift
procedure with placement of an autogenous bone
graft. What is the def in it ion of thai graft?
A. The graft will use an artificial, bone-like
material.
B. The graft uses bone from another human
being.
C. The graft uses the patient s own bone, laken
from another site.
D. The graft uses bovine bone, or bone from
another animal species .
A complete denture patient returns for a 24-hour
post-op appointment after insertion of new
dentures. The patient points to a sore area on top
of the mandib
ular
ridge crest on the posterior right
side but no sore spot is visually evident. Which of
the fol lowing is the first procedure the dentist
should perform?
62
63.
Each of the fol lowing statements concerning the
adm inistration technique of inhalation sedation is
correct, EXCEPT one . Which one is the
EXCEPTION?
A. the pat ient is wearing contact lenses, they
should be removed prior to administration of
the sedation.
B. The pat ient should be seated in an upright
85-90
degree) posit ion in the dental cha ir .
C. The initia l flow rate of oxygen should be at
least 6 Umin via the nasal hood.
D.
As the flow of n it rous oxide through a mixing
dial style unit is increased, the f low rate of
oxygen is reduced, so the correct
percentage of each is del ivered at a
constant flow rate.
Each of the fol lowing is a common cause of
postsurgical atelectasis decreased expansion of
the alveo li) EXCEPT one. Which one is the
EXCEPT ION?
A.
B.
c.
E.
Reduce the centric contacts on all posterior
teeth on the right side of the mandib
ular
denture.
Using a large acrylic bur, grossly reduce the
intemal surface of the denture.
Reduce all eccentric contacts on the right
side of the maxillary and mandibular
dentures.
Apply pressure indicator paste to the internal
surface of the mandibular denture and check
for pressure spots.
Tell the patient this is normal for the first day
of wearing new dentures and to retu rn in one
week for another post-op check.
64.
A. Shallow inspirations
B. Pain -limiting movement
C. Inactivity after surgery
D. Preoperative respiratory infection
E. Narcoti c analgesic that depress the
respira tory drive
Cavity liners should have a minimal thickness of
A. 1
mm.
B 5
mm.
C
5
mm.
D. 25
mm.
6 When a patient bites on a hard ob jec t on the left
mandibular molar, the interarticular pressure of the
right temporomandibular joint is
65
. Each of the following statements is correct
regarding phenytoin EXCEPT one. Which one is
the EXCEPTION?
A.
B
c.
o
increased.
decr
eased.
remains unchanged.
varied but it is unpredictable.
11
A.
B.
c.
D
E
Causes gingival hyperplasia
Corrects certain cardiac dysrhythmias
Is ineffective when administe red orally
Causes toxic effects related to the
cerebellum and vestibular system
Exerts antiseizure activ ity at doses which do
not cause general CNS d
epr
ession
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66
A
properly
executed posterior superior alveolar
nerve block will anesthetize each of the follOWIng
structures
EXCEPT
one. Which one is the
EXCEPTION
A. Maxillary sinus membrane in the molar
region
B. Second and third molar teeth and a portion
of the first molar tooth
C. Buccal alveolar bone soft tissue and
periodontium in the posterior maxilla
D. Soft palate mucosa on the side of the
injection
71
72
Which of the fol lowing is the most serious result of
digoxin intoxication?
A. Bradycardia
B. Renal failure
C. Atrial tachycardia
D. Atrial fibrillation
E. Ventricular fibrillation
Each of the following represents an advantage of
oral sedation EXCEPT one . Which one is the
EXCEPTION?
67
Which areas should be avoided for an M injection
before a chi ld can walk?
A. Gluteal muscles
B. Ventrogluleal
C. Vastus tateraus
D. Deltoid area
A.
B.
c.
D.
Need for specialized training and equipment
High incidence and severity of adverse
reactions
Erratic and incomplete absorption of drugs
from the llract
Short duration of action
The depth of l ight penetration into the tooth or
restoration before it is reflected outward is the
68 . Adrenal insufficiency during major stress results in
69. A palienllhat is having general anesthesia using
an
barbiturate rapidly passes through
74
In young patients stains are usually more
prominent in which areas of the teeth?
A
B.
C
o
A.
B.
C.
D.
gingival hyperplasia.
cardiovascular collapse.
hypotension.
ketoacidosis.
Stage
I.
Stage II.
Stage III.
Stage IV.
A
B
C
D.
A
B.
C
D
metamerism.
degree of translucency.
color perception.
value.
Incisal
Occlusal
Cervical
Facia
7
Which of the following antibiotics has been
implicated in the vast major ity of cases of oral
contraceptive failure during antib iotic use?
A. Penicillin
B Rifampin
C.
eflex
D. Erythromycin
E. Tetracycline
12
75. The character and individuality of teeth are largely
determined by
A
translucency.
B. surface texture .
C. color.
D shape.
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7 When the denti st enters the operatory, the patient,
who is new to the office, stands close to the wall ,
has his arms folded, and is looking at the floor. The
dentist should initiate communication by saying
whichof the following?
A. let s get going, I ve got a
lot
to do.
B. What are you angry about?
C. Didnt my assistant gel you seated?
D. You seem uncomfortable: did you have a
bad dental experience?
E. Hi, I m Doctor Wilson , what brings you here
today?
81
82.
The outstanding advantage of phenytoin over
phenobarbital in the treatment of epilepsy is that
phenytoin
A. does not bring about dependence.
S has a longer duration of action.
C. is effective against both grand and petit mal.
D. produces less sedation for a given degree of
motor cortex depression.
The main function of the liner used in a casting
ring is to
Exception to its use in a given situation is
acceptable if the patient is informed and consents.
The use of a rubber dam is considered an
essential component of endodontic
armamentarium.
The Occupational Safety and Health
Administration s (OSHA) Bloodbome Pathogens
Standard deals with each of the fol lowing
EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Disposal of medical waste
B. Exposure Control Plan
C. Hepatitis B vaccination
D. Instrument sterilization and storage
E. Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS)
provide venting of the mold.
help prevent shrinkage porosity.
provide easy divesting of the casting .
provide additional water to the investment
mix .
allow uniform and uninhibited setting
expansion of the investment.
A. Both statements are true.
B. Both statements are false.
C. The first statement is true, the second is
false.
D. The first statement is false, the second is
true.
E
A.
B
c.
D
84
83
A 4-year-old child has a history of frequent
spontaneous pain in a primary mandibular second
molar. This molar has a necrotic pulp. Which of the
following represents the treatment of choice?
A. Pulpectomy
B. Pulpotomy
C. Extraction
D. Pulp cap
A.
fluorescence
B. incandescence.
C. opalescence .
D. translucency.
E. metamerism.
The phenomenon whereby various light sources
produce different perceptions of color is ca lled
Which of the fol lowing is an outstanding advantage
of phenytoin over phenobarbital in the treatment of
grand mal epilepsy?
Which of the following antibiotics is the substitute
of choice for penic illin in the penicillin-sensitive
patient?
A. Cephalexin
B. Erythromycin
C. Tetracycline
D. Ctindamycin
8
79
78
77
A. Exerts less sedation for a given degree of
motor cortex depression
B. Is effective in a greater percentage of cases
C. Needs to be given much less frequentl y
D. Does not cause gastric distress
E Has a longer duration of action
13
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merican
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sscclanon
. Joint Commisson on
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Denial Exami
nations
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85
86
A 2 0- ye ar-old patient presents with an upper
maxillary ce ntral inc iso r p reviously treated for
endodontic fra c tur es a t the le ve l of the
alveo
lar
crest.
Which of
the following represents the first
necessary step
to
restore and maintain the tooth s
esthetics?
A. Orth od on ti ca fl y extrude rem ai ni ng tooth
structure
B. Extract remaining too th structure
C. Fabricate FPD over the remaining root
O. Fabricate RPD over the remaining root
Shrinkage
poros
ity in a gold casting is associated
with
9
91
Bac k pressure porosity is
A. the same as occluded gas porosity.
S. the result of using an oxidizi ng flame .
C. mos t likely wtlen the wax pattern is
positioned ve ry close to the open end of the
ring.
D. often evidenced by rounded margins
on
the
casting .
E. the same as suck-back porosity.
Which of the followi ng explains y a properly
d es ig ne d rest on the lingual s ur fac e of a c an in e is
preferred to a
property
designed rest on
the
incisal
surface?
8 7.
Which of
the f ol lo wi ng is an
acronym
fOf a
marketing strategyto use for reluctant patients?
The most poten t antituberc ular drug is
A.
B.
C
O
E
A.
B.
C
O
the use of excessive flux .
the u se
of
no flux.
sprue diameter.
a ll oy oxida tion.
excessive bumout lime.
SUCCESS
RECRUIT
OPTIMEM
EIEI Q
A .
B
c
o.
A.
B
C.
O.
The e nam el is thicker on the lingual surface.
Less leverage is exerted against the tooth by
the lingual rest.
The visibil ity of, as well as access to, the
lingual surface is better.
The cingulum of the canine provides a
natura l surface for the recess.
ison iazid.
vancomycin.
trimethoprim .
sulfamethoxazole .
88
89
Spontaneous gingival
hemorrhage
or acute
stomatitis, observed in a pe dia tr ic patient
under
trealment for absence seizures,
indicates
withdrawal of which of the followi ng anticonvulsant
drugs?
A. Phenytoin
B. Ethosuximide
C. Carbamazepine
D. Phenobarbital
E Valproic acid
Whi ch of the following drugs is most likely to c aU SQ
convulsions when
a
physically dependent person is
withdrawn?
93
94
The main metabolite of ingested isopropyl alcohol
is
A. urea.
B acetone.
C. methanol.
D. acetaldehyde .
E. forma ldehyde.
Al the try-in appointment for a 3-unit posterio r gold
FPD, the proximal con tacts , fit, occlusion, contour,
and surface finish have been determined 10 be
acceptable. Which of the following represents what
step is accomplished next with this FPD?
A .
B.
C.
O
E.
Pentobarbital
e m b u t a
iazepam Valium
Hydroxyzine Vtstari
Chlo ral hydrate o c t e c
Chlorzoxazone Parafon Forte)
14
A.
B
C
O.
Soldering index
CopaJite preparations
Temporary cementation
Mix
zinc phosphate ceme nt
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95
Larger condensers and laterally applied
condensation forces are recommended to ensure
complete condensation of which of the follow ing
amalgam
types?
A. Admixed
B. Spherical
C. Lathe-cui
D. High-copper
E
Conventional
100 With respect 10temperature the processing cycle
of a denture is designed to
A. attain development of color.
B. prevent boiling of the monomer.
C. prevent breakdown of the initiator.
D. volatilize the hydroquinone inhibitor.
101 Alcoholic euphoria results from
9 . Proposed modes of action for the oral ant idiabetic
agents include each of the following EXCEPT one.
Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A.
B
c.
D
E
increased activity of the cerebrum.
increased activity of thalamic areas.
increased activity of limbic synapses.
decreased act ivity of medullary centers
removal of the inhibitory effect of the cortex .
A
B.
c
D.
E.
Blockade of glucagon release from pancreas
Blockade of catecholamine release from
adrenal medulla
Stimulation of insulin release from pancreatic
beta cells
Action as direct receptor agonists for the
insulin receptor
Increase affinity of tissues for ulifization of
available plasma glucose
102.
The portion of an artif icial tooth that is found only
in porcelain anterior teeth is
A. the pin.
B. the collar.
C. the finish line.
D. the diatoric.
E. None of the above.
9 . Compressing the acrylic resin in a rubbery stage
will probably result in
104
Which of the following is a disadvantage of glass
ionomer cement?
103 The casting shrinkage of cobalt-chromium alloys is
approximately
A
B
c
D.
an open bite or open pin.
porosity of the finished acrylic.
incomplete filling of the mold details .
large amounts of excess that is difficult to
trim.
A
B.
c.
D.
1.25 .
1.75 .
2.2 .
3 2
98
99
Which of the following statements concern ing ethyl
alcohol is true?
A.
It
produces a true stimulation of the central
nervous system.
B. II protects individuals against exposure to
cold by preventing heat loss.
C. It is metabolized primarily by the lungs .
D. It is partially absorbed in the stomach .
E. It possesses anticholinergic properties.
The most likely cause of failure in the pre-ceramic
soldering technique is
A. underheating the parts to be joined.
6 . overheating the parts to be joined .
C. using an incompatible solder.
D. using phosphate as the soldering
investment.
E preheating the soldering assembly.
15
1 5
A. Difficulty in mixing
B. Irritation of the pulp
C. Low bond strength to dentin
D. Moisture sensitivity during initial set
Which of the following will result when using a
thinner mix of a gypsum-bonded casting
investment?
A. Produce a smoother casting
B. Increase setting expansion
C. Decrease setting expansion
D. Increase thermal expansion
E. Decrease required burn-out temperature
ommiss
Denta
Exam
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106. Which of the following oral bacteria have been
implicated as periodontal pathogens?
112. Allowing the ultrasonic-scaler tip to remain on the
tooth suriace too long will
A. damage the tooth suriace.
B. dull the tip of the instrument.
e . bumish the calculus onto the tooth surface.
D. cause irreversible pulpal damage.
A.
B.
c
D.
Porphyromonas gingivalis. Eubacterium sp.,
and eampylobacter recta
Streptococcus gordonii, Streptococcus
mutens, and Gemetla so.
l actobacillus casei and Veillonella
so
Streptococcus mitior. Streptococcus gordoni i,
and Bacteroides gracilis
113.
The most important anticoagulant effect of heparin
is to interfere with the conversion of
107.
lOB
109.
The base of the incision in the gingivectomy
technique is located
A. in the alveolar mucosa.
B. at the mucogingival junction.
e. above the mucogingival junction.
D. coronal to the periodontal pocket.
E. at the level of the cementoenamel junction .
Which of the followi ng is the most important factor
affecting pulpal response?
A. Heat
B. Depth to which dentinal tubules are cut
C. Desicca tion
D. Invasion of bacteria
Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis is most likely to
occur in which of the follOWing age groups?
A. 1 5 years
B.
6 10
years
C. 11 15
years
D. 16-20 years
E.
21-25
years
114.
115.
1
.
A. PTA to PTe .
B. PTe to Factor VIII.
e. fibrinogen to fibrin.
D. prothrombin to thrombin.
E. proaccelerin to accelerin.
Dental phobias are very hard to eliminate because
they
A. are
ego-syntonic.
B. cannot be seen .
e. become habitual.
D. are self-reinforcing.
Which of the fol lowing describes a material with
high compressive strength but low tensile
strength?
A. Resilient
B. Brittle
e. Ductile
D. Malleable
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration
OSHA ) is concerned with regulated waste within
the office.
110. Which of the
llowin
q filling materials is least
desirable for use as Preventive Resin Restoration?
OSHA regulates the transportation of waste from
the office.
111
A. Microfilled resin
B. Amalgam
C. Hybrid resin
D. Gbss onon ,.. .
Each of the following osseous defects would be
classified as infrabony EXCEPT one. Which one is
the EXCEPTION?
A. A trough
B. A dehiscence
e. A hemiseptum
D. An interdental crater
16
117.
A. Both statements are true.
B. Both statements are false.
C The fi rs t gtalmonl ;s
lr u
,
th e
s
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118. What percentage of the U.S. population does not
have dental insurance?
122. The drug of choice to treat overdosage with
tricyclic antidepressants is
A.
B.
c.
D.
3540
45 50
55 60
6570
A.
B.
c.
D.
E.
atropine.
phenytoin .
physostigmine.
pentobarbital.
an amphetamine.
119.
A patient works at a nuclear power plant. He is
frequently exposed to a small amount of radiation,
although the dose he receives is below the
occupational limits. Which of the following best
explains why this patient need not wear his
employee film badge while he is having dental
radiographs made?
A. His badge records only gamma-radiation,
not x rays.
B. His film badge must be used only to
measure occupational doses.
C. It is unlikely that the current dose will rise
above his occupational limit.
D. The dose from the dental radiographs is too
low to be measured accurately by the
badge.
123
Chlortetracycline acts by interfering with
A. cell wall synthesis.
B. nucleic acid synthesis.
C. protein synthesis on bacterial but not
mammalian ribosomes.
D. protein synthesis on mammalian but not
bacterial ribosomes.
124
. The toxic impurity that can theoretically be found in
nitrous oxide gas is
A. ozone.
B. helium.
C. methane.
D. nitric oxide.
E. cyclopropane.
12
A 5-year-old child has a posterior unilateral
crossbite that is accompanied by a functional shift
of the mandible. When should this crossbtte be
corrected?
125. How many hours per day should a cervical pull
headgear be worn to achieve the most effective
results?
B.
c.
D.
Immediately, without waiting for the eruption
of permanent first molars
When all the primary teeth have exfoliated
After the permanent first molars have fully
erupted
When the child is approximately 9 years of
age
B
c.
D
E.
6
8
10
12
14
121 When determining the appropriate dose of
systemic fluoride supplement for a child, it is, most
important for the dentist to consider which of the
following?
A. The fluoride content of the drinking water
B. The child s diet and caries activity
C. The child s age and the fluoride content of
the drinking waler
D. The child s weight and the fluoride content of
the drinking water
17
26 Drug interaction resulting in serious adverse
cardiovascular events, including death, might occur
between erythromycin and which of the following
antihistamine drugs?
A. Tertenadlne (Seldane)
B. Promethazine (Phenergan)
C. Hydroxyzine (Atarax)
D. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
E. Chlorpheniramine (Chlor-Trimeton)
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127
. A mercury spilt in the laboratory or office is
appropriately cleaned up by
A. removing the mercury, then spraying the
area with
BA
l
B. scrubbing the spill area with hot water and
detergent.
C.
sweeping up the mercury and disposing of it
in a plastic bag.
D.
aspirating the mercury into a wash bottle
trap, then dusting the spill area with sulfur
powder.
128. The concentration of which of the following ions
determines the binding affinity of agonists and
antagonists to the opioi receptor?
A. Sodium
B.
Calcium
C. Chloride
D. Potassium
E. Phosphate
129
. In oommunicating with children, which of the
following should the dental team do?
A. Allow the parent to answer questions asked
by the child at cbejrsioe
B.
Allow both the parent and the dentist to
communicate simultaneously with the child
C.
Transmit word substitutes for dental
procedures and equipment during the
appointment
D. Attai n voice control to build the groundwork
for future instructions
130. A prescription includes each of the following parts
EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Superscription
B. Inscription
C. Subscription
D. Transcription
E. Conscription
131 . Inhalation of amyl nitrile can result in each of the
following EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A.
Tachycardia
B.
Coronary artery dilation
C.
Peripheral arteriolar dilation
O. A
decrease
in
arterial blood pressure
E. Increased motility of the small bowel
18
132 Which of the following cannot be used 10 calculate
the dosage of a drug for a child?
A. Clark s rule
B. Vital signs
C. Body surface area
D. Body weight (mglkg)
133.
hich
of the following symptoms is the most
distinct characteristic of morphine poisoning?
A.
Comatose
sleep
B.
Pin-point pupils
C. Depressed respiration
D. Deep. rapid respiration
E. Widely dilated.
rco responsfv
e pupils
134 . In addition to the treatment of epilepsy, phenytoin
may be indicated for the treatment of
A. arrhythmia.
B.
narcolepsy.
C. hypertension.
D.
schizophrenia.
E. panic attacks .
135 . Which of the following drugs is commonty used in
the treatment of congestive heart failure?
A. Phenytoin
B.
Digitalis
C. Quinidine
O. Procamamide
E.
Nitroglycerin
136
. The mechanism of action of the muscle relaxation
induced by diazepam most clearly resembles that
produced by
A. d-tubocurarine.
B. meprobamate.
C.
succinylcholine.
D. decamethonium.
E. gallamine.
137
. What percent of the blood alcohol level is the most
likely to produce
a lethal effect in
50
per cent of the
population?
A. 0.05
B.
0.10
C. 0.20
D.
0.30
E.
0.50
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.
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38 rolonged use of amylnitritem y resultin
142
hich of the following
bast
describes adjunctive
orthodontic treatment?
A. aplastic anemia.
8
thrombocytopenia.
Orthodontic therapy performed only with
C. gran ulocytopenia .
removable app liances
D methemoglobinemia.
8 Limited orthodontic treatment to align the
E
hy
poprothrombinemia
front teeth for maximum esthetics
C Orthodontic Ireatm
enllo
enhance restorative
and periodontal rehabilitation
39
he thinnest portion of the wax pattern should be
D
Early treatment of orthodontic prob
lems
to
placed
prevent more serious malocclus ion
A. agai nst the ring for support.
8 in the deepest part of the ring.
143 Which of the following drug groups is currently the
C opposite the direction of rotat ion of the
mainstay of treatment in depressive
castin g arm.
psychoneurotic disease?
D in the same direction as the rotat ion of the
casting arm.
A
Amphetamines
B Phenothiazines
C Benzodiazepines
14 Which of the following statements is true
D
Monoamine oxidase inhib itors
concerning anticholinesterase?
E
Tricyclic imipramine-like antidepressants
Agents such as DEP inhibit only plasma
cho linesterase .
144 Each of the following is a symptom of poisoning by
8
Organophosphates are readi ly absorbed
an organophosphate insecticide EXC EPT one .
through the skin.
Which one is the EXCEPTION?
C
Age nts may cause paroxysmal supraven-
trlcutar tachycardia .
Diarrh ea
D
Reactivators such as 2-PAM reactivate
8 Hot, dry skin
AC HE wh ich has undergone
C
Excessive salivation
E Alkaloid physostigmine has the greatest
D Increased lacrimation
number of side effects unrelated to ACHE
E
Skeletal muscle fasciculation
inhibition.
145 Digital is should be given to patients with atrial
141
In developing a canine-protected articulation where
fib rillation who require quinidine to avoid
the anterior vertical overlap is determined to be
A. hypokalemia.
e ss than 2 mm, the posterior cusp height shou ld
be kept shallow because the buccal cusps of the
8
thromboembolism.
posterior teeth will have to assist in protrusive
C
sino-atrial bradycardia.
orsciusron
D
ventricular tachyarrhythmias.
E
prolongation of P-R interval of the ECG.
A. Both the statement and the reason are
correct and related.
8 Both the statement and the reason are
46
The presence of Ag in metal-ceramic alloys
correct but NOT related.
contributes to which of the following?
C The statement is correct but the reason is
A
Increases melting temperature
NOT.
D. The statement is NOT correct, but the
B
Increases
alloy
strength
reason is correct.
C Increases alloy corrosion resistance
E NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is
D May cause green discoloration of the
correct.
porcelain
19
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147
. Hoving had a complete radiographic survey made
12
months ago, an asymptomatic adult patient
presents for a recall appointment. There is no
clinical evidence of caries or periodontal disease .
The United States Food and Drug Administration
would recommend which of the following for this
adult?
151 The
S
in DMFS signifies which of the following?
A
Score
B
Standard
C. Surfaces
O Simplified
E Significant
48
A No radiographs
B. Bite-wing radioqraphs
uruy
C. Panoramic radiograph only
D. Panoramic and bite-wing radiographs
E. FUll-mouth survey including bite-wing
radiographs
When high gold content alloys are compared to
base metal alloys, the base metal alloys exhibit
152
Ench of the following pharmacologic effects is
produced by ethanol EXCEPT one. Which one is
the EXCEPTION?
A. Diuresis
B. CNS depression
C Enzyme induction
D.
Cutaneous vasoconstriction
E. Increased gastric acid secretion
A.
B
c
o.
E.
a higher melting point , increased specific
graVity, and generally higher yield strength
and hardness.
a higher melting point, decreased specific
gravity, and generally higher yield strength
and hardness .
a higher melting point, generally higher yield
strength and hardness, and more consistent
bonding 1 porcelain .
increased specific gravity, generally lower
yield strength, and more consistent bonding
to porcelain.
decreased specific gravity, generally higher
yield strength and hardness, and more
consistent bonding to porcelain.
5
54
The cardiac glycosides w reduce the
concentration of which ion in an active heart
muscle cell?
A Sodium
B. Calcium
C. Chloride
D. Potassium
E. MagneSium
Which of the following antihypertensive agents acts
direcUy on arterial smooth muscle to cause
vasociletion?
149 The central skeletal muscle relaxation produced by
depressing the polysynaptic
renex
arcs is brought
about by all of the following drugs EXCEPT
A. diazepam l i u m ~
B. lorazepam (Ativan).
C
meprobama te (Equanil(K
D. d-tubocurarine (Tubarine).
155
A. Methyldopa (
J
domet)
B. Clonidine
C a t a p r e s
C. Guanethid ine (lsmeli n)
D. Metoprolol (Lopresso )
E. Hydralazine r e s o l i ~
The combination of a Schedule II narco tic with an
antipsychotic drug produces which of the
following?
15 Which of the following statements best describes
why L dope ovontually becceeee incHedivc in the
treatment of Parkinson s disease?
A.
B.
c.
o.
Neuroleptic analgesia
onscious sedation
Dissociative anesthesia
Psychotomimetic analgesia
A
B
c.
o.
E.
L-dopa absorption slows with aging.
Dopa decarboxylase activity increases with
age.
Dietary intake of pyridoxine speeds L-dopa
metabolism.
Patients gradually develop tolerance
because L-dopa induces liver enzyme
activity.
Neuronal cell loss in the substantia nigra is
progressive and continuous over the course
of
the d
isease
2
56 Which of the following drugs is excreted primarily
by renal tubular secretion?
A. Benzylpenicillin
B.
Strep
tom ycin
C. Tetracyc line
D. Bacitracin
E. Polymyxin
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57 Excessive vertical dimension of occlusion may
result in which of the following?
62 In pursuit of what the dentist believes is best for
the patient, the dentist attempts to control patient
behavior. This is known as
A
c
E.
Poor denture retention
Increased interocclusar distance
Drooping of the corners of the mouth
Creases and wrinkles around the lips
Trauma to underlying supporting tissues
A
B.
c.
D
autonomy.
competence .
maleficence.
paternalism.
58 Which of the following represents the cause of
death in poisoning from an irreversible
anticholinesterase, such as diisopropylfluo
rophosphate?
Which of the following is the most common reason
for a cast crown not to seat on a patient s tooth?
Loss of a primary right molar in a a-year-oro child
requires placement of a
A. band and loop.
B. distal shoe.
C. removable acrylic appliance.
D. None of the above.
The disk sensitivity assay for antibiotic activity is
used because
A. the results are obtainable in a few minutes.
B. it distinguishes between bacteriostatic and
bactericidal drugs.
C. it Indicates whether or not an antibiotic has
good oral absorption.
D. it allows for routine testing of sensit ivity to a
range of antibiotics.
Metabolism of a drug will usually result in
conversion to each of the following EXCEPT one .
Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Inactive form
B. More active compound
C. Less active compound
D. More water-soluble compound
E. Less ionized compound
Which of the following represents an
amphetamine-like drug that is widely used in the
treatment of hyperkinetic children?
A.
Doxapram Dopramj
B. Hydroxyzine Atarax)
C. Theophylline h e o b i d ~
D. Methylphenidate Ritalin)
166
164
165
63
When 50 mg. of chlorpromazine Thorazine) is
administered to a patient, on standing the patient
might experience a fall in blood pressure due to
which of the following?
A.
Anticholinergic action
B. Decrease in heart rate
C. Alpha-adrenergi c blockade
D. Negative inotropic action
E Stimulation of autonomic ganglia
Cardiac failure, resulting from excessive
vagal stimulation
Dehydration, resulting from hypermotility of
the gastrointestinal tract
Asphyxia, resulting from increased airway
resistance
Respiratory failure , resulting from paralysis
of the intercostals and the diaphragm
Central nervous system depression,
following prolonged excitation
Treatment with sulfonamides is less likely to be
accompanied by crystalluria if
A. a mixture of sulfonamides is used.
B. cortisone is administered concurrently.
C. probenecid is administered concurrently.
D. the urine is acidified with ammonium
chloride.
E. para-aminosalicylic acid is administered
concurrent ly.
E.
A. Overextended margins
B. Excessive proximal contact
C. Undercut areas on the preparation
D. Casting too wide bucco-lingually
E. Porosity within the inner surface of the
crown
c
D
A.
B.
159
161
16
21
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167. Which of lhe following agents Is the least effective
in producing topical anesthesia?
173 Nystatin Mycostatin is used in the treatment of
infections caused by
A
B.
C
D
E
Tetracaine Pontocaine
Butacaine Butyn
Procaine Novocaine
Lidocaine Xylocaine
Benzocaine
A.
B
c
D.
E
Peptostreptococci spp.
Bacteroides spp.
Candida albicans.
Streplococcus mutans.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa .
168
169
Which of the following routes of administration
exhibits the slowest rate of absorption?
A. Oral
B. Sublingual
C. Subcutaneous
D. Intramuscular
Which of the following sedatives is most likely to
cause a dry mouth?
A. Buspirone BuSpar
B. Hydroxyzine Vistaril
C. Chloral hydrate
D. Phenobarbital
lum n l
174
175
Which of the following analgesics can be given
either orally or by intramuscular injection?
A. Aspirin
B. Acetaminophen Tylenor
C Ibuprofen Motrin, Advil
D. Ketorolac Torador
E. Naproxen Naprosyn, Aleve
A cast gold restoration might be indicated for the
replacement of a faulty amalgam
1
obtain
A. better margins.
B. more ideal contours .
C
less trauma
1
the putp.
D. less removal of tooth structure.
17 Barbiturates taken in combination with very high
doses of ethanol exhibit an interaction best
described as which of the following?
A. Potentiation
B. Protein bumping
C. Negative synergism
D. Competit ive inhibition
E. Enterohepat ic circulation
7 During a soldering procedure, flux serves
1
A. provide an oxidizing environment in the area
to be soldered.
B. displace gases and dissolve corrosion
products.
C. remove any debris that may remain in Ihe
area
1
be soldered.
D. hold the solder in place during healing.
171 Which of the following erythromycins is both
enteric coated and long acting?
77 Excessive heating of the acrylic resin during
process ing should be avoided to prevent
172 Each of the following is a characteristic of tramadol
Ultram EXCEPT one. Which one is the
EXCEPTION?
178 Following compression of acrylic into the denture
flasks, placing the flasks into the processing tanks
at curing temperature is delayed to
A.
B.
c
D.
A
B
c
D.
E.
ERYC
E.E.S.
Erythrocin
lIosone
Centrally acting analgesic
Structurally similar to morphine
Binds to the mu-opioid receptor
Biolransformed inlo a more actlve metabolite
Inhibits uptake of norepinephrine and
serotonin
22
A.
B
c.
D
E.
A.
B.
c.
exothermic heal buildup .
acrylic resin shrinkage.
evaporation of the monomer.
excessive acrylic resin expansion.
discoloration of the acrylic resin.
assure complete flow of acrylic into the mold.
allow the monomer to permeate all polymer
crystals.
establish an equalized and uniform pressure
in the molds .
allow the flasks and the acrylic
1
reach a
stable temperalure.
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Which of the following represents the structure
indicated by the
arrows
on the radi
ograph?
Prior to
undergoing
scaling and root planing, how
should this pat ient be treated?
A. Innominate line
B. Lateral border of the orbit
C. Pterygoid plate of the sphenoid
D. Zygomatic process of the maxilla
E. Posterior border of the maxillary sinus
A. Leukoplakia
B. Nicotinic stomatitis
C. Chronic lip chewing
D. Psoriasis
E
Smokeless tobacco
hyp
erkeratosis
Alveolar osteitis in the removal of bony
impactions might occur (5-20%).
The alveolar nerve is not likely to be injured
during this extraction.
Horizontally impacted teeth are considered
the most difficult mandibular impactions.
Asymptomatic bony impactions are not
recommended for extraction in patients over
35 years-of-age .
c.
The posit ion of tooth 26 will complicate the design
of a maxillary prosthesis.
Maxillary tuberosity reduction on the patient's left
side would facilitate prosthesis fabrication.
A. Both statements are true.
B. Both statements are false.
C. The first statement is true, the second is
false .
D. The first statement is false, the second is
true.
Which of the
f t owing
represents the best initial
restorative treatment for tooth 4?
B.
A.
Each of the following statements is true conceming
impacted teeth 17 and 32 EXCEPT one. Which
one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Place porcelain fused to metal crown
B. Restore with conservative MO amalgam
C. Treat mesial caries with composite resin
D. Place mesial glass lonorner restoration to
restore root caries lesion
E. No treatment is necessary.
D.
184
186
185
Amoxicillin
(Amoxil)
, 2 gm, 1
hour
prior to
procedure
Cephalexin (Keflexl, 3
gm,
1 hour prior to
procedure
Clarithromycin (Biaxin), 600 mg, 1 hour
prior
to procedure
Cllndamycm (Cleocin), 2 gm, 1 hour prior
to procedure
No antibiotic treatment is necessary.
c.
B.
D
ICase A s 179-1871
(see page 26)
The plaques on this patient's lower labial mucosa
most likely represent which of the following?
181
179
18
182
Which of the following risk factors is most likely to
contribute to future attachment loss in this patient?
A.
Probing depths greater than
3
mm
B. Insulin administration
C. Occlusion
D. Nutrition
E. Smoking
87
Prior to dental treatment using local anesthesia
without sedation the patient should be instructed to
take his usual dose of insulin and eat a normal
diet.
Ifthe patient is to have local anesthesia with
sedation, the patient should be instructed to reduce
the usual dose of insulin and not eat.
183. There is a vertical defect on the mesial of tooth 2.
There is a crater defect between tooth 2 and
tooth 3.
A. Both statements are true.
B. Both statements are false.
C. The first statement is true, the second is
false .
D. The first statem ent is false, the second is
true.
A.
B.
C
D
Both statements are true.
Both statements are false .
The first statement is true, the second is
false .
The first statement is false , the second is
true.
23
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merican
Dental
ssociation
Joint
Commission
on
National
Denial
Examinations
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reserved
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166.
ICase B 's 188-200I
(see page 31)
Which of the following is the most likely periodontal
diagnosis for uus patient?
A. Plaque-induced gingivit is
B. Chronic periodontitis
C. Aggressive periodontitis
D. Necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis
193.
194.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis
for the radio lucency distal to the apical third of the
root of tooth 13?
A. Metastatic carcinoma
B.
latera
l periodontal cyst
C. Chronic periradicular periodontitis
D. Extension of the maxillary sinus
Which of the following is the most appropriate
restorative therapy for the patient's lower incisors?
Following root canal therapy on tooth 10, which of
the following foundation options, prior to crown
preparation, is most appropriate?
A. Bonded composite resin
B.
Pin retained composile resin
C. Prefabricated post and composite resin core
D. Composite resin into cana l continuous with
cere
Which of the following approaches would be best
in determining why the patient has had infrequent
dental care in the past?
A. Why haven't you gone to the dentist more
often? The more you avoid the dentist the
worse your dental fear will become.
B. It is costly to have two daughters in college,
you should go to the dentist more often or
you will need expensive dental treatment.
C. Can you tell me why someone with a
medical history as bad as yours has stayed
away from the denti st for so long?
D.
You have had many dental problems in the
past. If you had seen the dentist regularly as
you should have you wouldn 't have had as
many. What could possibly have kept you
away?
E. Could you tell me more about your past
dental experiences and present dental
concerns?
169 .
190.
191.
Which of the fol lowing is the strongest radiograph ic
evidence that tooth 10 requires endodontic
treatment?
A. Pulp chamber calcification
B. Periodontal bone loss coronally
C. Extent of coronal restorat ion
D. Widened apical periodontal ligament space
Which of the following is the best, most
conservative restorative treatment for teeth 6 and
?
A. All-ceramic crowns
B. Porcelain fused to metal crowns
C. Restore proximal surfaces as neededwith
composite resin
D. Apply fluoride
Which of the following treatments will achieve the
best esthetic results for teeth 7, 8, 9 and 10?
A. Place all-ceramic crowns on all four teeth
B. Place ceramic crown on tooth 7, and place
composite resin restorations on teeth 8
10
C. Place all-ceramic crowns on teeth 7 and
9
replace MI composite resin restoration
on tooth 8, remove facial caries on tooth
10and restore with composite
D.
Restore caries on the facial surface of tooth
7, polish composite resin restorations on
teeth 8 and 9, and place crown on tooth
10
E.
Place porcelai n fused to metal crowns on
teeth 7, 9 and 10, and restore the
mesial surface of tooth 8 with composite
195.
196.
A.
B.
C.
Splint together with composite resin
Remove failing margins and rough surfaces,
and place new composite restorations where
indicated
Place porcelain fused to metal crowns
No treatment is indicated.
192 .
Which of the following is the best means to
evaluate the pulpa l vitality of tooth 13?
A. Appl ication of cold to teeth 12 and 13
B. Percussion testing on teeth 5 and 13
C. Electric pulp testing of teeth 12 and 13
D. Palpation in the buccal vestibule from teeth
12
14
24
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97 Which of the following options is the best to
replace the missing mandibular teeth?
A. Mandibu lar removab le partial denture
B. Fixed partial denture teeth 20 to 22 and
removable partial denture
C. Fixed partial denture teeth 28 to 31 and
removable partial denture
O. Fixed partial denture teeth 18 to 22 and
fixed partial denture 28 to 31
198 . Which of the following is the best diagnosis for the
radiolucency apical to teeth 23- 261
A. Mental fossa
B. Coalesced periapical granulomas
C. Periapical cemental dysplasia
o . Central giant cell granuloma
E. Traumatic bone cyst
199 . Following initial therapy, oral hygiene is good and
there is a 1 mm reduction in probing depths.
Periodontal treatment of the mandibula r anterior
teeth would include
A. another round of scaling and root planning .
B. nap surgery.
C. soft tissue grafting.
O. regenerative therapy.
E. periodontal maintenance therapy only.
. In addition to oral hygiene instructions and scaling
and root planing, which of the following course of
actions is most appropriate during initial
periodontal therapy?
A. Systemic tetracycline administration for 10
days
B. Subgingival irrigation with 0.12
chlorhexidine
C. Consultation with physician conceming
diabetes mellitus
O. Tooth grinding for occlusal adjustment and
equilibration of the dentition
5
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I
CASE A
I
ental
History
Sporadic visits for emergency extraction s.
Ag e
38 YRS
Sex
IllIMale 0 Female
Height
5 10
Iwelght
154
LBS
BIP
2578
hief
I d o
n t
l ike the spaces in my
omplaint
upper teeth:
Medical
History
Diabetes
Social
Patient had a hang-gliding accident 3 years ago
History
with resuitant knee replacement.
Bartender
He smokes 1 pac k of cigarettes per day and uses
chewing tobacco.
urrent
Medications
insulin (Humulin R
;;
-
Q
ti l
C
OJ
o
o
-
-
Q
ti l
ti l
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---
I
3
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ICASE B
I
Dental
History
Patient has had infrequent dental care .
Age
5 Y
Sex
8
Male 0 Female
Height
6 0
Weight
21 LBS
B/P
13 8
Chief
I m not happy with my front teeth .
Complaint
They fee l rough .
Medical
History
Patient says he had a mild stroke 3 years ago. Social
arrythmias
History
diabe t mellitus Type II
Patient is a building contractor with two daughters in college.
hypertension
Current
Medications
metformin (Glucophage
metoprolo l (Lapressor
)
sp r
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I CASE B I
Supplemental Oral xamination Findings
urrent Oral Hygiene Status
Fair
DULTCLINICAL EXAMINATION
3
6789
545
444
434
2
755 57
Probe 1
666 656 555 454 454 434
555 545 666 544
545 556 667
2
Probe2
55
5 565
667
756 55555 666
66 545
9
u
Vn
u
9
~
J
R
83)83)
QB
ffiW
9VVeY V9
~
m
J
Clinically
vi
ble carious jesson
g
Clinica lly mi n
ing
too:h
Probe
5 5 5 4
6
FurcatiQn
32 31 30 29 26 27 26 25
23 22 21 20 18
17
Through and throu gh /urcatlOl1
Probe 1:
initial probir lg depth
Probe 2:
probing dep th 1 melnl
aft
acal ing and I QOt
plll
ni ll
N
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w
o
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PART2 KEY
The keybelow maybeusedto rteterrmne correct andmcorrect answers howeve r lor thIs
Item
set
it
is not possible
to
conv
ert a raw scorn number correctto a staucurd ncore or essccreted J i ~ ~ l r n f f lf t US
B
5 B
E
5
C
2
C
52
2
A
52
3 A
53
R
3
C
53
D
4
A
54 C
4
D
54
E
5
D
55 B
5
C
55 A
6
D
56
B
6
A
56 A
7
C
57
D
7
C
57
E
8
D
58
A
8
B
58
D
9
C
59 C
9 A
59 A
C
6 D
B
6 B
E
6
B
B 6 D
2 B
62
B
2 A 62 D
3 C
63
D 3 C
63
C
4 A
64 C 4 D
64
D
5 C
65 C
5 B
65 E
6
D
66 D
6
C
66
D
7
C
67 A 7
A
67
C
8
D
68
B
8
D
68
A
9 C
69
B
9 B
69 B
2 E
7 B
2 A
7 A
A
7 E
2
C
171 A
22 D
72 C
22 C
72 B
23
B
73
B
23
C
73 C
24
A
74 C 24 D
74 D
25
D
75
B
25
E
75
B
26
B
76
E
26 A
76
B
27 D
B 27
D
77 C
28
B
78
E
28 A
78
D
29
D
79
A
29 C
79 E
3
B
8 A
3 E
8 D
3
C
8 D 3
E
8 A
32
D
82
E
32
B
82
E
33
E
83 C 33 B
83
D
34 E
84
E
34
A
84
C
35 C
85
A
35
B
85 C
36
D
86 C 36 B
86 A
37
A
87
C
37
E
87 A
38
D
88
E
38
D
88
B
39
B
89
A
39 B
89 D
4 B
9
D
4
B
9
C
4 A
9
B
4
C
9 A
42
C
92
A 42 C
92
A
43 B
93
B
43
E
93
C
44 B
94
C
44
B
94 B
45
A
95 B
45
D
95
E
46
B
96
D
46
D
96 C
47 C
97
C
47
A
97
B
48 B
98
D
48
B
98
A
49
C
99 B
49
D
99 B
5
A
B
5 E
2 C