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Security Threats & Authentication, Network Level Security
& Firewall Installation Question 1 Which is the most likely
reason that Micro-ATX form factor motherboards had fewer expansion
slots than ATX form factor motherboards?
A. The Micro-ATX CPU clock speed was too slow B. The Micro-ATX
was designed to fit in smaller cases C. The Micro-ATX power supply
could not support many slots D. The Micro-ATX chipset was typically
incompatible with many bus types
Answer: B
Question 2 Which measurement is closest to the full-size ATX
form factor?
A. 6 x 4.6 inches B. 6.5 x 6 inches C. 10 x 6.5 inches D. 12 x
9.6 inches
Answer: D
Question 3 Which are typically found on motherboards? Select all
that apply.
A. RAM slots B. Lithium battery C. Processor socket D. Hard disk
drive
Answer: A-C
Question 4 Which is a common term used for the Memory Controller
Hub (MCH) on Intel motherboards?
A. Northbridge B. Southbridge C. Central Processing Unit D. I/O
Controller Hub (ICH)
Answer: A
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Question 5 What is the name of the point-to-point connection
used by each link in a PCIe device?
A. Bus B. Plug C. Lane D. Tunnel
Answer: C
Question 6 Which are functions of a CPU socket? Select all that
apply.
A. Houses the CPU B. Houses system memory stores C. Enables easy
replacement of the CPU D. Physically supports the CPU and heat
sink
Answer: A, C, and D
Question 7 Which label is likely to be on a connector for the
power light?
A. HDD LED B. PWR OFF C. POWER SW D. POWER LED
Answer: D
Question 8 Which connector would most likely be used to connect
to an IDE DVD drive?
A. Mini B. PCIe C. SATA D. Molex
Answer: D
Question 9 Which is the maximum size of a Micro-ATX form factor
motherboard?
A. 6 x 6 inches B. 6 x 9.6 inches C. 9 x 9.6 inches D. 9.6 x 9.6
inches
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Answer: D
Question 10 Which are currently the most common motherboard form
factors? Select all that apply.
A. AT B. ITX C. ATX D. Micro-ATX
Answer: B-D
Question 11 Which made it difficult for manufacturers to support
or license RDRAM?
A. RDRAM was not fast enough B. RDRAM was not compatible with
PCs C. RDRAM was not part of the JEDEC standard D. RDRAM could not
hold enough memory
Answer: C
Question 12 A user has a 100 MHz system bus on the motherboard.
Which SDRAM speed should be installed?
A. 66 MHz B. 100 MHz C. 133 MHz D. 200 MHz
Answer: B
Question 13 Which are improvements of DDR3 over DDR2? Select all
that apply. A. Higher reliability B. Better storage capabilities C.
Lower power consumption D. Higher levels of performance Answer: A,
C, and D
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Question 14 How many pins does a standard DDR2 module
require?
A. 240 B. 333 C. 533 D. 800
Question 15 The original DDR is actually SDRAM that has been
double pumped, meaning that twice the data is transferred but at
the same __________.
A. RAM B. down flow C. clock speed D. megabytes per second
Answer: B
Question 16 Which are differences between SRAM and DRAM? Select
all that apply.
A. DRAM is slower than SRAM B. DRAM is volatile and requires
power to retain data C. SRAM is easily replaced and added to the
motherboard D. SRAM does not need refreshing, while DRAM needs to
be refreshed
Answer: A and D
Question 17 A single-sided memory module may have chips on both
physical sides or on just one side. Which is the reason it is named
single-sided?
A. The memory is stored on just one side B. The computer can
address all the chips at once C. Information is transferred from
one side at a time D. It is the only stick available on that side
of the computer
Answer: B
Question 18 Which is a result of installing dual-channel
RAM?
A. 32-bit bus B. 64-bit bus C. 128-bit bus D. 256-bit bus
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Answer: C
Question 19 Which are considerations when determining the
configuration of RAM? Select all that apply.
A. RDRAM B. Memory latency C. Single-sided or double-sided D.
Single-channel or dual-channel
Answer: B-D
Question 20 ECC RAM is not always supported by new PCs. Which
will disable ECC if it is supported?
A. BIOS B. Parity C. DIMM D. Memory latency
Answer: A
Question 21 Which are types of RAM? Select all that apply.
A. CPU B. DDR C. DIMM D. SDRAM E. Rambus
Answer: B, D, and E
Question 22 The DDR DIMM has 184 pins and is not compatible with
__________.
A. PC 1600 B. DDR 333 C. DDR 400 D. 168-pin SDRAM DIMMs
Answer: D
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Question 23 As part of the main memory of the CPU, RAM is used
to do which?
A. Store or retrieve data B. Permanently store information C.
Create space on the hard drive D. Find random bits of
information
Answer: A
Question 24 Which are ways to keep the computer CPU cool? Select
all that apply.
A. Keep case open for air B. Use a good thermal compound C.
Ensure all fans are functional and turn freely D. Keep heat sinks
and interior of case free from dust
Answer: B-D
Question 25 Most new CPU heat sinks contain factory-applied
thermal compound that spreads and fills gaps automatically after
installing the heat sink and booting the computer. TRUE FALSE
Answer: True
Question 26 Generally heat sinks have been made of aluminum, but
more recently they have been made out of which material?
A. Steel B. Plastic C. Copper D. Rubber
Answer: C
Question 27 On a laptop, the GPU is integrated with which
element?
A. Slot rate B. Registers C. Motherboard D. Disk controller
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Answer: C
Question 28 Multicore CPUs contain two or more actual processor
cores. TRUE FALSE Answer: True
Question 29 Hyper-threading is the basically the same as
HyperTransport. TRUE FALSE Answer: False
Question 30 Which is typically the largest CPU cache?
A. L0 B. L1 C. L2 D. L3
Answer: D
Question 31 Which term describes the speed of a component?
A. Slot rate B. AMD rate C. Clock rate D. Socket rate
Answer: C
Question 32 Which are names of different types of CPU? Select
all that apply.
A. Core i7 B. Athlon 64 C. Phenom X4 D. Core i7 Extreme
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Answer: A-D
Question 33 64-bit CPUs use a type of CPU architecture that
incorporates which elements that are 64 bits wide?
A. Names B. Posters C. Receipts D. Registers
Answer: D
Question 34 Which type of sockets use lands that protrude out
and touch the CPU's contact points?
A. 775 B. LGA C. PGA D. 1155
Answer: B
Question 35 Which does dual-channel architecture essentially
do?
A. Doubles DDR2 clock speed B. Doubles the data throughput C.
Creates multiple docks for DIMMs D. Creates two different channels
for video
Answer: B
Question 36 If the equation for data transfer rate is, Clock
speed x bytes x 2 = Data Transfer Rate, which is the data transfer
rate for a DDR-333 with a clock speed of 166 MHz and a 64-bit-wide
bus?
A. 2,667 MBps B. 3,200 MBps C. 2,133 MBps D. 1,600 MBps
Answer: A
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Question 37 The DDR2 has a faster signal than DDR1. Which
feature makes DDR2 faster?
A. Additional pins B. Additional memory C. Additional sticks D.
Additional RAM
Answer: A
Question 38 Which are pin formats for SO-DIMMs? Select all that
apply.
A. DDR 200-pin B. DDR2 200-pin C. DDR3 204-pin D. DDR4 204-pin
E. SDRAM 144-pin
Answer: A-C, E
Question 39 Which is the best way for a user to determine
whether their RAM will be compatible with the motherboard?
A. Go to a computer store and ask B. Search for the motherboard
model via Google C. Go to Microsoft's Web site and search for the
DRAM model D. Go to the RAM manufacturer's Web site and search for
the motherboard model
Answer: D
Question 40 Multicore systems should have at least how many
extra exhaust fans mounted to the back of the case?
A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four
Answer: A
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Question 41 Which is the most efficient cache memory?
A. L1 B. L2 C. L3 D. HTTP
Answer: B
Question 42 Which term is used for the interface that connects a
CPU to a motherboard?
A. Socket B. Pocket C. PCI slot D. AGP Slot
Answer: A
Question 43 A CPU socket is the electrical interface between the
CPU and which other element?
A. Case B. RAM C. Motherboard D. Disk controller
Answer: C
Question 44 Which is a reason to be careful with low-level
formatting?
A. Formatting may scramble files B. Formatting destroys data on
the drive C. The system security could be compromised D. Formatting
too often may use up all memory space
Answer: B
Question 45 In which area could a user see the voltage used by
the components of the motherboard?
A. IEEE B. BIOS C. BYOS D. Windows OS
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Answer: B
Question 46 Which is part of temperature monitoring?
A. Humidity B. Fan speed C. Computer usage D. Room
temperature
Answer: B
Question 47 Which types of media do optical drives support?
Select all that apply.
A. CD B. USB C. DVD D. Blu-ray
Answer: A, C, and D
Question 48 Which component holds the read/write head for a hard
drive?
A. Platter B. Spindle C. Actuator arm D. Jumper Block
Answer: C
Question 49 Which is the go-between from the CPU and the
RAM?
A. Memory controller B. SRAM C. DRAM D. ROM
Answer: A
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Question 50 Which are types of drive encryption? Select all that
apply.
A. Trusted platform module B. LoJack module C. CMOS D. UEFI
Answer: A and B
Question 51 Which can the BIOS monitor?
A. RAM usage B. Clock speed C. Search history D. HDs
installed
Answer: B
Question 52 To have a secure system with boot device priority,
which is recommended?
A. Reboot the system daily B. Delete any unused media devices C.
Set boot device priority to hard drive first D. Remove boot device
priority from the system
Answer: C
Question 53 Which keyboard shortcuts allow a user to access the
BIOS to configure it? Select all that apply.
A. F1 B. F2 C. F10 D. DEL E. CTRL+DEL
Answer: A-D
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Question 54 Which are connectors a TV tuner card might use to
connect to a computer? Select all that apply.
A. PCI B. USB C. PS/2 D. PCIe
Answer: A, B, and D
Question 55 Which option represents the maximum data rate for
802.11b?
A. 6.5 Mbps B. 11 Mbps C. 54 Mbps D. 600 Mbps
Answer: B
Question 56 Which would you typically see on a recently
manufactured video card? Select all that apply.
A. RAM B. GPU C. DVI port D. Fan and heat sink
Answer: A-D
Question 57 Which operating system requires a CD-ROM audio cable
to play audio from a CD-ROM drive through the sound card?
A. Windows 7 B. Windows XP C. Windows 2000 D. Windows Vista
Answer: C
Question 58 Which is the fastest expansion bus?
A. PCI B. ISA C. AGP D. PCIe
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Answer: D
Question 59 Which are expansion cards which can be added to a
PC? Select all that apply.
A. Modem B. Sound card C. Network card D. Computer speakers
Answer: A-C
Question 60 Which are processes that can be done by built-in
diagnostics in the BIOS? Select all that apply.
A. CPU tests B. SFC tests C. Drive tests D. Memory tests E.
Low-level formatting
Answer: A, C-E
Question 61 For a secure system, enter a strong __________
password.
A. user B. supervisor C. encrypted D. self-configuring
Answer: B
Question 62 Which is the main function of the central processing
unit?
A. Bootstrapping B. RW Blu-ray discs C. Execute instructions D.
Install firmware upgrades
Answer: C
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Question 63 Which is the main purpose of RAM in the CPU?
A. Memory B. Calculate C. Anti-malware D. Add clock speed
Answer: A
Question 64 Which is a reason to use a riser card in a PC?
Select all that apply.
A. A computer case is too small for a legacy card necessary for
custom software B. A modem is needed for a motherboard in an ATX
case C. A motherboard with one PCI slot requires two additional
slots D. A motherboard that has no on-board sound and only PCI
slots available
Answer: A and C
Question 65 The network card is the _______________ between the
PC and the network.
A. modem B. internet C. protocol D. interface
Answer: D
Question 66 Which motherboard slot is the best option when
connecting a USB 3.0 expansion card?
A. ISA B. PCI C. AGP D. PCIe
Answer: D
Question 67 A CD-RW can hold up to how much data?
A. 650 MB B. 900 MB C. 950 MB D. 1,000 MB
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Answer: A
Question 68 Which are functions of CDs, DVDs, and Blu-ray discs?
Select all that apply.
A. Data storage and access B. Audio storage and playback C.
Video storage and playback D. Unlimited data storage E. Application
access and installation
Answer: A-C, E
Question 69 How many disks can RAID 5 use?
A. Minimum of 3 B. Minimum of 2 C. Minimum of 5 D. Only 2
Answer: A
Question 70 When each disk is connected to a separate
controller, this is known as __________ __________.
A. Striping parity B. Multiple disks C. Disk duplexing D. Fault
tolerance
Answer: C
Question 71 Fault tolerance is determining, if something happens
to one disk, whether the data can be retrieved. Which RAID level
has no fault tolerance?
A. RAID 0 B. RAID 1 C. RAID 5 D. RAID 10
Answer: A
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Question 72 Which does RAID stand for?
A. Random access industry drives B. Round advanced independent
drives C. Redundant array of inexpensive disks D. Recovery
advantage of intelligent disks
Answer: C
Question 73 Which is a primary use for a tape drive?
A. Music storage B. Software updates C. Archival data storage D.
Security data storage
Answer: C
Question 74 Floppy disks are not used as often as they were ten
years ago. Which are reasons they are still used today?
A. Gaming B. New updates C. Special boot disks D. Store
important data
Answer: C
Question 75 SSDs use __________ to store data instead of moving
parts used in platter-based hard drives.
A. microSD B. media drives C. optical drives D. memory chips
Answer: D
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Question 76 Which three data transfer rates are SD cards divided
into?
A. Class 2 B. Class 4 C. Class 6 D. Class 8
Answer: A-C
Question 77 SD cards are technically similar to which type of
device?
A. Hard drive B. Floppy drive C. USB flash drive D. Community
drive
Answer: C
Question 78 Which are CompactFlash Type 1 cards used in? Select
all that apply.
A. Microdrives B. High-end cameras C. Handheld computers D.
Desktop gaming computers
Answer: B and C
Question 79 If a user is looking to purchase a USB flash drive,
and they want to know how many times it can be written to before
failure occurs. Which would be the best answer to give them?
A. Exactly the number that the manufacturers say B. The number
depends on the amount of usage C. Google the USB drive and find
what people say online D. Take the number that the manufacturers
list and cut it in half
Answer: D
Question 80 Which is the name for media with no moving
parts?
A. Mass media B. Optical media C. Magnetic media D. Solid-state
media
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Answer: D
Question 81 If the latency is directly related to rotational
speed and is usually half the time it takes to rotate the disk
once, which is the average latency of 7200 rpm?
A. 4.2 ms B. 3.0 ms C. 5.6 ms D. 2.8 ms
Answer: A
Question 82 Internal PATA uses which type of interface to
transmit data to and from the motherboard?
A. IDE B. UAC C. SOX D. DIMM
Answer: A
Question 83 The BASE-R standards requires which type of
cable?
A. Sheathed B. Fiberoptic C. Twisted-pair D. Shielded copper
twisted pair
Answer: C
Question 84 Which device might use eSATA?
A. Modem B. Cellular WAN C. Internal hard disks D. External hard
disks
Answer: D
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Question 85 Which is the most common USB version?
A. USB 1.0 B. USB 1.1 C. USB 2.0 D. USB 3.0
Answer: C
Question 86 USB stands for which option?
A. Universal serial bus B. Unpaired single bus C. Universal
system bus D. United system bridge
Answer: A
Question 87 The SCSI controller usually gets which ID?
A. ID 2 B. ID 5 C. ID 7 D. ID 0
Answer: D
Question 88 The motherboard IDE connection allows for which two
types of drives?
A. Slave B. Master C. Minion D. Overseer
Answer: A and B
Question 89 BD-R refers to two optical disc formats that can be
recorded with an optical disc recorder. TRUE FALSE
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Answer: True
Question 90 Which is the most common type of DVD?
a. DVD-5 b. DVD-R SL c. DVD+R SL d. DVD-R DL
Answer: A
Question 91 Data CDs can be read only from a compatible CD-ROM
drive. TRUE FALSE Answer: True
Question 92 Which is the definition of parity?
A. Data is copied to two identical disks. B. Data is placed
across multiple disks in an effort to increase performance C. If
one disk fails, the array can reconstruct the data from this
information D. A program specifically designed to retrieve,
interpret, and display information
Answer: C
Question 93 A tape drive can be internal or external. If it is
internal, which might it connect to?
A. FAT12 B. Parallel port C. USB, IEEE 1394 D. SCSI controller
card
Answer: D
Question 94 Which is an advantage of having an SSD in a portable
computer?
A. Less expensive B. Faster boot time C. Longer battery life D.
More storage capacity
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Answer: C
Question 95 CF cards can have which types of technologies
builtin? Select all that apply.
A. WLAN B. SDRAM C. Ethernet D. Bluetooth
Answer: A, C, and D
Question 96 Which are examples of solid-state cards? Select all
that apply.
A. SD B. USB C. Internal SATA D. CompactFlash
Answer: A and D
Question 97 Which are typical speeds for hard drives? Select all
that apply.
A. 7200 rpm B. 5400 rpm C. 6800 rpm D. 10,000 rpm
Answer: A, B, and D
Question 98 What is the maximum data transfer rate for the IEEE
1394b?
A. 1.5 Gbps B. 400 Mbps C. 500 Mbps D. 800 Mbps
Answer: D
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Question 99 What is the maximum length of USB version 2.0
cables?
A. 2 meters B. 3 meters C. 5 meters D. 10 meters
Answer: C
Question 100 Which option represents the number of pins on a VGA
connector? 7 12 15 24 Answer: C
Question 101 What is the maximum length of a FireWire 400
cable?
A. 8 meters B. 10 meters C. 4.5 meters D. 5.4 meters
Answer: C
Question 102 Which is the data transfer rate of FireWire
400?
A. 100 Mbps B. 200 Mbps C. 400 Mbps D. 800 Mbps
Answer: C
Question 103 Which specific type of fans move a larger volume of
air and typically produce less noise pollution than their smaller
cousins?
A. 75mm B. 80mm C. 100mm D. 120mm
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Answer: D
Question 104 A single-core processor and 3.2 GHz are the
recommended as a minimal specification for a gaming processor. TRUE
FALSE Answer: False
Question 105 An HTPC and other convergence devices integrate
components of a home theater into a unit co-located with a home
entertainment system TRUE FALSE Answer: True
Question 106 What is a RAID array?
A. A third-party hardware connection drive B. A data storage
scheme that uses multiple drives C. A status indicator that watches
for hardware failure D. A power generator that allows a system to
operate during a component or environmental
failure Answer: B
Question 107 Which systems use simple file sharing by default?
Select all that apply.
A. Windows 7 B. Windows Vista C. Windows XP Home Edition D.
Windows XP Professional
Answer: C and D
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Question 108 Which option is functional whether connected to a
network or not?
A. Macro-ATX B. Thin clients C. Thick clients D. Smart
clients
Answer: C
Question 109 Which is a stateless, fanless desktop
appliance?
A. Thin client B. Thick client C. Compact card D. RAM
processor
Answer: A
Question 110 For which reason do users need a large, fast hard
drive when editing video?
A. WEP objectives B. Connector sizes C. Video files are very
large D. The wattage requirements
Answer: C
Question 111 In Windows, selecting which option will allow users
to see how much RAM they currently have.
A. ATC B. Insert C. Properties D. Documents
Answer: C
Question 112 The graphics processor handles the taking of
commands from the CPU and translating them into coordinates and
color information for which element understand?
A. IRF B. CAT C. Molex D. Monitor
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Answer: D
Question 113 The HDMI output delivers video signals in which
type of format without analog conversion?
A. VGA B. Digital C. Type A D. Type B
Answer: B
Question 114 Which is another name for thick client?
A. Wide client B. Large client C. Deep client D. Heavy
client
Answer: D
Question 115 A video card is composed of which two major
components?
A. Video RAM B. CAX channels C. Menu controllers D. Video
processor GPU
Answer: A and D
Question 116 Which options do not represent a device that
converts analog signal to a digital format?
A. Scanner B. Keyboard C. Web camera D. Bar code reader E. Game
controller F. Mouse
Answer: B, E, and F
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Question 117 Game pads and joysticks are connected to a PC using
which type of medium? Select all that apply.
A. USB B. PS/2 C. Game ports D. The network
Answer: A and C
Question 118 Which are bar code readers designed to read?
A. CAP B. UPC C. KVM D. DRAM
Answer: B
Question 119 If a user travels often with a scanner, which would
be the best suggestion for them?
A. Pack the scanner with other machines B. Take the scanner only
if there is no other option C. Secure the lid to reduce damage to
the glass tray D. Use the locking mechanism for the scanner light
assembly
Answer: D
Question 120 When installing a scanner, which type of devices
are used? Select all that apply.
A. USB B. PS/2 C. TWAIN D. Firewire
Answer: A, C, and D
Question 121 Which is important to remember when connecting a
KVM?
A. Do not cross the cables B. KVM affects the bus speed C. Do
not forget to get the adapters D. The scanner can be only used with
the switch
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Answer: A
Question 122 Which best describes a touch screen?
A. An information kiosk that provides person/computer
interaction B. A mobile unit which enables interaction through
touch technology C. A monitor that allows interaction between
computers of the same touch quality D. A video display that detects
the presence of a finger that enables interaction with the
operating
system. Answer: D
Question 123 Which is a cause of the enhanced pointer precision
option in some applications for the mouse?
A. Erratic mouse movement B. Automatically turns on Clicklock C.
The double-click becomes too sensitive D. Switching primary and
secondary buttons does not work
Answer: A
Question 124 Which types of ports are used by a mouse or by a
keyboard? Select all that apply.
A. USB B. PS/2 C. SATA D. Wireless
Answer: A, B, and D
Question 125 Which types of connections can a microphone use to
connect to a PC? Select all that apply.
A. USB B. PS/2 C. 10-pin D. 1/8-inch mini jack
Answer: A and D
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Question 126 Which type of connector does a MIDI device use to
enable control and exchange of data? Select all that apply.
A. USB B. RJ-45 C. Mini-jack D. 5-pin DIN
Answer: A-D
Question 127 Which type of multimedia device uses a USB
connection? Select all that apply.
A. MIDI B. Camcorder C. Microphone D. Touch screen
Answer: A-C
Question 128 Most webcams use a special USB connection. Into
which type of port should a user plug in a webcam?
A. USB port B. Quality USB port C. Hi-Speed USB port D. Higher
frame USB port
Answer: C
Question 129 Digital cameras can be integrated into __________
and ___________.
A. PDAs B. KVM switches C. MIDI devices D. mobile phones
Answer: A and D
Question 130 Which is another type of display output device
besides the LCD monitor and CRT monitor?
A. SXGA+ B. WXGA C. Drivers D. Projector
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Answer: D
Question 131 Which is needed to connect speakers to a PC?
A. CD-ROM B. Sound card C. DVD/CD drive D. 4-pin analog
cable
Answer: B
Question 132 Which is a hot-swappable connection for a
printer?
A. SCSI B. Parallel C. IEEE 1394 D. Serial port
Answer: C
Question 133 Which option represents a typical Ethernet
cable?
A. SCSI B. PS/3 C. Cat 5 D. PATA
Answer: C
Question 134 Which option represents the number of pins on a
Centronics SCSI connector?
A. 25 B. 35 C. 40 D. 50
Answer: D
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Question 135 Which option represents the number of wires in a
self-powered IEEE 1394 cable?
A. 6 B. 9 C. 12 D. 15
Answer: A
Question 136 Which option represents the number of pins on an
EIDI connector?
A. 20 B. 40 C. 60 D. 80
Answer: B
Question 137 Which option represents the speed a SATA cable can
transfer data? 6 Gbps 13 Gbps 16 Gbps 100 Gbps Answer: A
Question 138 Which option represents the number of wires used in
a standard RJ-45 connector cable?
A. 8 B. 12 C. 14 D. 18
Answer: A
Question 139 Which option represents a typical peripheral that
uses a parallel connector?
A. printer B. monitor C. speakers D. keyboard
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Answer: A
Question 140 Which option represents the number of pins on a
standard IEEE 1394 connector? Select all that apply.
A. 4 B. 6 C. 9 D. 13
Answer: A-C
Question 141 Which option represents the number of pins on a
standard floppy drive?
A. 30 B. 34 C. 40 D. 44
Answer: B
Question 142 Which option represents the P in the term PATA?
A. Polar B. Precise C. Parallel D. Perpendicular
Answer: C
Question 143 Which option represents the number of pins in a
SATA connector?
A. 4 B. 7 C. 9 D. 11
Answer: B
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Question 144 Which option represents a typical material used to
make the inner conductor of a coaxial cable?
A. Tin coated with zinc B. Zinc coated with steal C. Copper
coated with tin D. Titanium coated with copper
Answer: C
Question 145 Which option represents the number of RCA
connectors on a composite cable that are needed to connect to a
video display device?
A. 1 B. 3 C. 4 D. 6
Answer: A
Question 146 Which option represents the type of connectors
typically found on a component cable?
A. RCA B. BNC C. HDMI D. FireWire
Answer: A
Question 147 Which options represents the fastest type of DVI
cable?
A. DVI Instant B. DVI Accent C. DVI Dual link D. DVI Diamond
Answer: C
Question 148 Which options represent a display cable? Select all
that apply.
A. DVI B. VGA C. MIDI D. HDMI
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Answer: A, B, and D
Question 149 Which option represents the number of pins on a
DVI-D connector?
A. Two sets of nine pins and a blade B. Three rows of eight pins
and a blade C. Two sets of nine pins and four contacts surrounding
a blade D. One set of eight pins and one set of four pins, with
four contacts surrounding a blade
Answer: A
Question 150 Which is used to reduce computer vision syndrome
(CVS)?
A. LCD screens B. Glass display C. Plasma screen D. Anti-glare
filter
Answer: A
Question 151 Which DVI port supports both digital and analog
signals?
A. DVI-I B. DVI-A C. DVI-N D. DVI-D
Answer: A
Question 152 In a comparison between a 15" and a 21" monitor,
what will be the difference if both monitors have a resolution of
1280 x 1024?
A. The 15" monitor will be sharper B. The 21" monitor will be
sharper C. The monitors will be equally sharp D. The resolution is
too large for the 15" monitor
Answer: A
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Question 153 What is a common refresh rate for most LCDs?
A. 40Hz B. 60Hz C. 100Hz D. 120Hz
Answer: B
Question 154 Which projector version uses light valves with
rotating color wheels?
A. LED B. DLP C. LCD D. XGA
Answer: B
Question 155 What is the lifespan of the average LED light?
A. 15 years B. About 7 years C. Less than 40,000 hours D. More
than 100,000 hours
Answer: D
Question 156 CRT monitors use which three colors to produce
images?
A. Red B. Blue C. White D. Green E. Yellow F. Magenta
Answer: A, B, and D
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Question 157 Besides a standard USB port, which way can a
biometric device connect to a PC? Select all that apply.
A. PS/2 B. RJ-45 C. Hard drive D. Through the network
Answer: A, B, and D
Question 158 Which types of ports do new bar code readers
use?
A. USB B. UPC C. PS/2 D. Serial
Answer: A and C
Question 159 Which tabs can be found in the Mouse Properties
window in the Windows Vista Mouse Control Panel applet? Select all
that apply.
A. Speed B. Wheel C. Buttons D. Support E. Pointers F.
Hardware
Answer: B, C, E, and F
Question 160 Which is the meaning of the multimedia device
MIDI?
A. Machine Interpreter Dual Interface B. Machine Integrate
Digital Interface C. Musical Instrument Digital Interface D. Motion
Infrared Detection Interface
Answer: C
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Question 161 Which is an advantage to using Start printing after
last page is spooled?
A. Fewer stalls B. Faster than print immediately C. Each pool
can be given a different priority D. The jobs can be paused,
restarted, or stopped completely
Answer: A
Question 162 Which option represents the number of wires in a
standard parallel cable?
A. 8 B. 12 C. 25 D. 30
Answer: C
Question 163 Which option represents the maximum length of an
eSATA cable?
A. 1 meter B. 2 meters C. 6 meters D. 8 meters
Answer: B
Question 164 Which option represents the maximum length of an
Ultra SCSI cable?
A. 1.5 meters B. 2.5 meters C. 5 meters D. 9 meters
Answer: A
Question 165 Which option represents the number of pins in a
SATA data connector?
A. 4 B. 7 C. 9 D. 11
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Answer: B
Question 166 Which option represents the type of data supported
by a VGA cable?
A. MIDI B. Digital C. Virtual D. Analog
Answer: D
Question 167 Which option represents the number of pins on an
RJ-45 connector?
A. 4 B. 8 C. 12 D. 14
Answer: B
Question 168 Which option is an example of a connector? Select
all that apply.
A. RCA B. USB C. DVI-D D. Modem
Answer: A-C
Question 169 Refresh rate is measured in which option?
A. Gbps B. Hertz C. Lumens D. Resolution
Answer: B
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Question 170 Which technologies are used to control the
electronic beam in a CRT monitor? Select all that apply.
A. Surge filter B. Slotted mask C. Aperture grill D. Shadow
mask
Answer: B-D
Question 171 Digital cameras connect to PCs using which type of
port?
A. USB B. PS/2 C. RJ-45 D. 5-pin DIN
Answer: A