Answer ALL questions PART A (50 x 1 = 50 MARKS)web.karunya.edu/exam/Model QP.pdf · 2013-10-10 · 24. Rani is fifth from the left and Peter is twelth from the right end in a row.

Name: ………………………………………. Date:……………

Karunya University

(Karunya Institute of Technology and Sciences) (Declared as Deemed to be University under Sec.3 of the UGC Act, 1956)

Model Question Paper

GENERAL APTITUDE

Time: 1 hour Maximum Marks: 50

Answer ALL questions

PART – A (50 x 1 = 50 MARKS) 1. How many terms are there in the series 201,208, 215,…….369

a. 21 b. 25

c. 26 d. 24 e. None of these

2. Find the next fraction in the series ½, ¾, 5/8 and 7/16?

a. 9/24 b. 9/32

c. 10/35 d. 12/35 e. None of these

3. Find next term in the series YEB, WFD, UHG, and SKI?

a. QGL b. QOL

c. TOL d. QNL e. None of these

4. Find the number 42:20:: 64:?

a. 30 b. 32

c. 31 d. 33 e. None of these

5. If FJUL is related to BOQQ, in the same way what is related to LHRS?

a. BKPR b. MNCC

c. HRYY d. HMNC e. None of these

6. Choose the odd word

a. Zinc b. Copper

c. Gold d. Brass e. Aluminium

7. Choose the number which is different from rest

a. 120 b. 168

c. 290 d. 380 e. 728

8. If GLARE is coded as 67810 and MONSOON is coded as 2395339, then what is the code for

RANSOM?

a. 183952 b. 189352

c. 189532 d. 198532 e. None of these

9. If ‘blue’ means ‘green’ ‘green’ means ‘white’, ‘white’ means ‘yellow’ means ‘Black’, black means ‘red’ and ‘Red’ means ‘brown’ what is the colour of milk? a. Red b. Yellow

c. Brown d. Green e. Black

[P.T.O]

Directions (10 – 11): In a certain code language a. ‘pot ni sem’ means ‘bring me water’

b. “ni je tod’ means ‘water is life’

c. ‘Tub od pot’ means ‘give me toy’

d. ‘je lin kel’ means ‘life and death’

10. Which of the following represent ‘is’ in that language

a. Je b. Ni

c. Tod d. lin e. kel

11. To find out the answers, which statement(s) can be dispensed with?

a. A only b. B only

c. C only d. D only e. None

Directors (Question 12 to 14) study the following information carefully and answer the

questions that follow i. Six friends P, Q, R, S, T, and U play different game of foot ball cricket, tennis, Basketball,

badminton, and Volley ball ii. T Who is taller than P and S, plays tennis

iii. The tallest among tem plays Basket ball

iv. The shortest among them plays Volley ball

v. Q and S neither play Volley ball nor basket ball

vi. R plays volley ball

vii. T is between Q who plays foot ball and P in order of height.

12. Who is taller than R but shorter the P?

a. Q b. T

c. U d. Data inadequate e. None of them

13. Who plays basket ball?

a. Q b. R

c. S d. U e. None

14. What does S play?

a. Cricket b. Badminton

c. Football d. either Cricket or Badminton

e. none of these

Directions (Questions 15 to 19) study the following information carefully and answer the

question that follow A team of five is to be selected from five boys A, B, C, D, E and four

girls P, Q, R and s. The criteria for selection are i. A and S have to be together

ii. P Cannot be put with R

iii. D and Q cannot to together

iv. C an E have to be together

v. R Cannot be put with B

15. If two the members have to be boys, the tem will consists of

a. A, B, S, P, Q b. A, D, S, Q, R

c. B, D, S, R, Q d. C, E, S, P, Q

e. None of them [P.T.O]

16. If R is one member, the other members of the team are

a. P, S, A, D b. Q, S, A, D

c. Q, S, C, E d. S, A, C, E e. None of them

17. If two of the members are girls and D is one of the members, the members of the team other than D are a. P. Q, B, C

c. P, S, A, B

b. P, Q, C, E

d. P, S, C, E e. None of them

18. If A & C are members, the other members are girls the member of the team are

a. E, B, S b. D, E, S

c. E, S, P d. P, Q, E e. None of them

19. If including P at least three members are girls the members of the team other than P are

a. Q, S, A, B b. Q, S, B, D

c. Q, S, C, E d. R, S, A, D e. None of them

20. A man walks towards wet. After walking a distance of 30 M, he turns towards right and walked 20 M. He then turned left and moves a distance of 10 M, again he turn to his left and walked 30 M. He now turns to the left and walks 5 M. Finally he turns to his left, In which direction is he walking now?

a. South b. East

b. West d. North e. None of them

21. How many meaningful words can be formed using the first, third, fifth and sixth letter letters of the work TRADEMARK using each letter only once in each word. a. One b. Two

c. Three d. Four e. more than four

Directions (questions 22-23) study the following five numbers and answer the questions

given below. 22. What will be the first digit of the second largest number after the positions of only the second

and the third digits with each numbers are interchanged? a. 2 b. 7

c. 8 d. 9 e. None

23. What will be the last digit of the third number from top when they are arranged in descending order after reversing the positions of the digits with each number? a. 2 b. 3

c. 5 d. 7 e. None

24. Rani is fifth from the left and Peter is twelth from the right end in a row. If Peter shifts by three places towards Rani, he becomes tenth from the left end. How many children are there in the row?

a. 21 b. 22

c. 23 d. 24 e. None

25. The age of the father is twice that of the elder son. Ten years later, the age of the father will be three time that of the younger son. If the difference of ages of the two sons is 15 years, the age of the father is

a. 50 b. 52

c. 61 d. 55 e. None [P.T.O]

26. In a city 40% of the adults are illiterate while 85% of the children are illiterate. If the ratio of the adults to that of the children is 2:3, then what percent of the population is illiterate? a. 30% b. 60%

c. 75% d. 45% e. None

27. If a 1mm thick paper is folded such that the area is halved at even fold, then what would be the thickness after 8 folds. a. 8mm b. 16mm

c. 32mm d. 64mm e. None

28. In an examination, a student scores 4 marks for every correct answer and losses 1 mark for every wrong answer. If the attempts 60 question and secures 130 marks, the number of questions he attempts correctly is a. 35 b. 36

c. 37 d. 38 e. None

Directions (29-31) question 30 to 32 are based on the following data.

a. Candidates appeared - 10500

b. Passed in 5 subjects - 5688

c. Passed in three subjects only - 1498

d. Passed in two subjects only - 1250

e. Passed in one subject only - 835

f. Failed in English only - 78

f. Failed in Mathematics only - 275

h. Failed in Physics only - 149

i. Failed in Chemistry - 147

j. Failed in Biology - 221

29. How many candidates failed in all the subjects?

a. 4800 b. 3320

c. 2867 d. 362 e. None

30. How many candidates passed in at least four subjects?

a. 5600 b. 1805

c. 875 d. 6555 e. None

31. How many candidates failed in four or less subjects?

a. 3600 b. 4800

32. A mango costs `. 7. A banana costs `. 5. A man spends `. 38 on these fruits. The number of mangoes bought e. Nonec.2268d.4453 a. 3 b. 4

c. 5 d. 6 e. None

33. A total of 324 Coins of 20 paise and 25 paise make a sum of 71, the number of 25 paise coins is

a. 150 b. 301

c. 124 d. 162 e. None [P.T.O]

34. In a City, 65% people watched news on television, 40% read a news paper and 25% watched and read the news. What percentage of people neither watched the news on television nor read a news paper? a. 5 b. 10

c. 15 d. 20 e. None

35. If each of the odd digits in the number 24583 is decreased by 1 and each of the even digits is increased by 1, than which of the following will be the sum of the digits of the new number. a. 21 b. 25

c. 20 d. 22 e. None

Direction (questions 36-39) Six people A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting on the ground in a hexagonal shape. All the

sides of the hexagon so formed are of the same length. A is not adjacent to B or C. D is not

adjacent to C or E. B and C are adjacent. F is in the middle of D and C. 36. Which of the following is not a correct neighbor pair?

a. A & F b. D & F

c. B & E d. C & F e. None

37. Who is at the same distance from D as E is from D?

a. B b. C

c. D d. F e. None

38. Which of the following is in the right sequence?

a. A,F,B b. F, A, E

c. B, C, F d. D, A, B e. None

39. If one neighbor of A is D, who is the other one?

a. B b. C

c. D d. F e. None

40. Some of the Cricket player are tennis players. Some tennis players are hockey players. No cricket player is hockey player. Which of the following diagrams correctly represents of the above statements.

a. b.

c. d.

41. Mary was baron on March 6, 2011. The same year, Independence day was celebrated on Friday. On which day Mary was born? a. Wednesday b. Saturday

c. Sunday d. Monday e. None

[P.T.O]

42 If + means , means x, means + and x means , then 15 3 +10 5 5 = ?

a. 5 b. 22

c. 48 d. 52 e. None

43. Arrange the given words in a meaningful sequence and then choose the most appropriate

sequence 1. Milky way, 2. Sun 3. Moon 4. Earth 5. Stars

a. 1,4,3,2,5 b. 2,3,4,5,1

b. 3,4,2,5,1 d. 4,3,2,5,1 e. None

44. Find the mission number

0

7

? 2

a. 40

b. 52

c. 63 d. 60 e. None

45. Pointing to a girl in the photograph, Arun said, “Her mother’s brothers is the only son of my mother’s father”. How is the girl’s mother related to Arun? a. Mother b. Sister

c. Aunt d. Grandmother e. None

46. A man built a fence around his square plot. He used 27 fence poles on each side the square. How many poles did he use altogether? a. 100 b. 108

c. 104 d. 96 e. None

47. Raju’s salary is 10% less than Ramu’s salary. What percentage of Ramu’s salary greater than Raju’s salary? a. 10% b. 11.1%

c. 13.3% d. 10% e. None

48. It takes 3 hours for 8 printing to print 5000 newspapers. How long will it take for 3 presses to print 3000 new papers? a. 4 Hours 8 Minutes b. 4 Hours 10 Minutes

c. 4 Hours 48 Minutes d. 4 Hours 40 Minutes

49. Two pipes A and b can fill a tank in 10 minutes and 15 minutes respectively. In how many

minutes will the tank be full if B was opened 3 minutes after A was opened

a. 4.2 b. 6.2

c. 7.2 d. 8.2 e. None

50. A triangle and a trapezium have same area. They also have same altitude. If the base of the

triangle is 18 cm the mean of the parallel sides of the trapezium is

a. 36 cm b. 9 cm

c. 18 cm d. 20 cm e. None

Disclaimer: The information at this site is provided solely for the user's immediate information / reference and

without warranty of any kind. The University has the rights to change the Pattern / Distribution of questions at

any time without prior notice.

Name: ………………………………………. Date:……………

Karunya University


Model Question Paper (Technical Aptitude)

Branch: BIO INFORMATICS



PART – A (30 x 1 = 30 MARKS) 1. Natural amino acids exists in

a. D form b. L form

c. D/L form d. R/S form

2. Jelly roll falls under

a. apha folds b. beta folds

c. alpha/beta folds d. extended folds

3. The composition of single vs. double bonds in a peptide bond is

a. 3: 2 b. 1: 2

c. 2: 3 d. 1: 4

4. The minimum length of an alpha helix

a. 6 aa b. 4 aa

c. 5 aa d. 8 aa

5. TIM barrel structure is made of

a. Beta-beta motif b. Helix- loop- helix motif

c. Greek key motif motif d. Beta-alpha-beta motif

6. The broadest helix

a. alpha helix b. beta helix

c. π helix d. 310 helix 7. Triprotic titration curve holds well to

a. LYS b. VAL

c. GLY d. All

8. Distantly related organisms are scored using

a. PAM 250 b. PAM 100

c. PAM 50 d. PAM 10

9. Near identical sequences are detected by

a. PSI-BLAST b. MEGA BAST

c. BLASTP d. Genome BLAST

10. Stringent database search is associated with

a. High expect threshold b. Low expect threshold

c. Optimum expect threshold d. Irrelevant

[P.T.O]

11. Gene expression studies are done using

a. qRT-PCR b. Differential displays

c. Microarrays d. All

12. What is not a true characteristic of “biological data” ?

a. Diversity b. Non-redundancy

c. Non- Reproducibility d. Variability

13. The BLOSUM score is highest for the following aligned pair

a. Gly – Gly b. Trp – Trp

c. Ala – Ala d. Ser – Ser

14. The BLAST variant used for finding “Orthologous sequences”

a. tBLAST b. Blastx

c. MegaBLAST d. PSI-BLAST

15. If “Oryzabase” is for rice, “____________” is for Arabidopsis

a. TIGR b. TAIR

c. Genome d. None

16. What not is a feature of the “Data warehouse”?

a. Centrally located b. Authenticated

c. A single data type d. Large data size

17. The phenomenon of electronegativity accounts for

a. hydrophobic interactions b. hydrogen bonding

c. electrostatic interactions d. vander waals interactions

18. In proteins motifs represent

a. primary structure b. secondary structure

c. super secondary structure d. tertiary structure

19. Gene with a similar function found in different organisms is called

a. homolog b. ortholog

c. paralog d. Xenologs

20. Alpha helix is stabilized via

a. charged interactions b. hydrogen bonding

c. hydrophobic interactions d. none

21. Directed shot gun approach was successfully carried out in

a. human b. rice

c. Arabidopsis d. C. elegans

22. Physical distance is measures as

a. centimorgan b. centimeters

c. base pairs d. centimorgan and base pairs

23. Macroevolution is the result of

a. deletion mutation b. point mutation

c. transposition d. transversion

[P.T.O]

24. Guide tree is based on

a. Distance score b. Gap score

c. E value d. All

25. The force that drive protein folding

a. van der waals b. hydrogen bond

c. hydrophobic interactions d. electrostatic interactions

26. Data from X-ray studies are deposited in PDB using

a. AutoDep input tool b. HTML

c. XTML d. SPDBV

27. Splice junctions are features of

a. bacteria b. chloroplast

c. eukaryotes d. Viruses

28. Myoglobin structure was first solved by

a. John kendrew b. Linus Pauling

c. Ramachandran d. Max Pertutz

29. Arrays are represented by

a. integer b. float

c. character d. All

30. The amino acid which is charged neutral at pH 7.0

a. lysine b. histidine

c. arginine d. asparagines

PART – B (10 x 2 = 20 MARKS)

31. Draw and assign dihedral angles across a peptide bond. 32. Rearrange, Ala, Lys and Trp to the increasing order of polarity.

33. Draw the structure of L-Glyceraldehyde.

34. Which of these is amphipathic by its property, Asp or Lys and why?

35. Write the F(i,j) value for an ungapped aligned pair.

36. Define INDELS.

37. How the pI of Arginine is calculated ?

38. Why Glycine occur on turns?

39. What are Salt bridges? 40. Is there a possibility for a functional protein to be totally made of hydrophilic amino acids?

Disclaimer: The information at this site is provided solely for the user's immediate information / reference and without

warranty of any kind. The University has the rights to change the Pattern / Distribution of questions at any time without

prior notice.

Name: ………………………………………. Date:……………

Karunya University



Branch: BIOTECHNOLOGY



PART – A (30 x 1 = 30 MARKS) 1. The cells dependent solely on glucose as an energy source are

a. Muscle cells b. Brain cells

c. Kidney cells d. Liver cells

2. The oldest eukaryotic organisms are considered to be

a. Diplomonads like Giardia b. Archaea

c. Fungi d. Animals

3. Humans are unable to digest

a. Starch b. Complex carbohydrates

c. Denatured proteins d. Cellulose

4. The 5' and 3' numbers are related to the

a. Length of the DNA strand b. Carbon number in sugar

c. The number of phosphates d. The base pair rule

5. In SDS-PAGE, the protein sample is first

a. Treated with a reducing agent and then with anionic detergent followed by fractionation by electrophoresis

b. Fractionated by electrophoresis then treated with an oxidizing agent followed by anionic detergent.

c. Treated with a oxidizing agent and then with anionic detergent followed by fractionation by electrophoresis

d. None of the above

6. Which of the following statements about enzymes or their function is true?

a. Enzymes do not alter the overall change in free energy for a reaction

b. Enzymes are proteins whose three-dimensional form is key to their function

c. Enzymes speed up reactions by lowering activation energy

d. All of the above

7. Thin layer chromatography is

a. Partition chromatography b. Electrical mobility of ionic species

c. Adsorption chromatography d. None of the above

[P.T.O]

8. Protein folding is

a. Automatic, mediated by the protein itself

b. Mediated by other proteins called chaperones

c. Mediated by the ribosomes


9. The released energy obtained by oxidation of glucose is stored as

a. A concentration gradient across a membrane

b. ADP

c. ATP

d. NAD+

10. Which of the following is incorrect?

a. Established cell lines (ECL) have short doubling time

b. ECL are invariably aneuploid

c. ECL grow in higher density

d. ECL do not show much evidence of spatial orientation

11. Which is/are the disadvantage/(s) of using IAA in plant cell culture media?

a. It is unstable in solution

b. Gets easily oxidized

c. Conjugated to inactive form by plant cells

d. All of the above

12. Which of the following growth regulator is added for short initiation during plant regeneration

from callus?

a. Auxins b. Cytokinins

c. Gibberellins d. Brassinosteroids

13. Which of the following is an ethylene biosynthesis inhibitor?

a. Citric acid b. Succinic acid

c. Activated charcoal d. Silver thiosulphate

14. Final alcohol content in wine varies from

a. 6-9 % by weight b. 8-13 % by weight

c. both (a) and (b) d. 13-15 % by weight

15. A molecular technique in which DNA sequences between two oligonucleotide primers can be

amplified is known as

a. Southern blotting b. Northern blotting

c. Polymerase chain reaction d. DNA replication

16. For gene probes to be useful they must

a. be large enough to contain gene-specific sequences

b. be labeled in some manner to allow detection

c. Both (a) and (b)


17. An odd number of cross over in inverted region will result into formation of a dicentric

chromatid and acentric chromatid at anaphase I incase of

a. Pericentric inversion b. Paracentric inversion

c. Double inversion d. None of these [P.T.O]

18. In an organism, the chromosome number is maintained constant because of

a. Independent assortment b. Crossing over

c. DNA duplication d. Synapsis

19. Transmission of a gene from male parent to female child to male grand child is known as

a. Holandric inheritance b. Quantitative inheritance

c. Criss-cross inheritance d. Maternal inheritance

20. The approach (s), which is/are currently followed to produce human monoclonal antibodies, is/are known as a. Transformation of antigen specific B lymphocytes (EBV) hybridization of 6-

thioguanine - resistant human plasmacytoma with immune human b. Lymphocytes

c. Combination of EB Vand hybridoma techniques

d. All of these

21. The cross linkage of antigens by antibodies is known as

a. Agglutination b. Complement fixation

c. Cross reaction d. All of these

22. Which of the following is incorrect?

a. MAbs can be used to diagnose or treat diseases

b. MAbs can be used in tumor scanning

c. MAbs can be used in cancer diagnosis

d. MAbs can not be used in such non-infectious diseases as those of endocrine system

23. Sequences that correctly describes the cell cycle is

a. -> G1-> G2 -> S -> mitosis -> cytokinesis ->

b. -> S -> G2 -> mitosis -> cytokinesis -> G1 ->

c. -> G1 ->S -> G2 -> cytokinesis -> mitosis ->

d. ->cytokinesis-> mitosis -> G1 -> S -> G2 ->

24. What single feature is probably most responsible for the success of angiosperms?

a. Seeds b. Fruit

c. Broad leaves d. Flowers

25. A very common mutualistic, symbiotic relationship between a fungus and the roots of a plant is

a. Lichen b. Mycorrhizal

c. Ascomycete d. Basidiomycete

26. A microarray is an ordered array of microscopic elements on a planer substrate that allows the specific binding of a. Gene or gene products b. Whole genome

c. Both (a) and (b) d. None of these

27. Which of the modification in hemoglobin is the cause of sickle cell anemia?

a. A mutation in the beta chain

b. A deletion in the beta chain

c. Replacement of the B chain by D chain


[P.T.O]

28. Most of the important functional groups in biological molecules contain

a. Oxygen and/or nitrogen and are acidic

b. Oxygen and a phosphate

c. Nitrogen and a phosphate

d. Oxygen and/or nitrogen and are polar

29. The isoelectric point of an amino acid is defined as the pH

a. Where the molecule carries no electric charge

b. Where the carboxyl group is uncharged

c. Where the amino group is uncharged

d. of maximum electrolytic mobility

30. In prokaryotes, just before the cell divides, the two daughter genomes are attached side by side to the a. Cell membrane b. Replication origin

c. Centromeres d. Equatorial plate

PART – B (10 x 2 = 20 MARKS)

31. Does ATP stimulate or inhibit phosphofructokinase-1?

32. On ribosomes, what are the functions of the A site, P site and E site?

33. Define ‘immunotoxins’

34. “The Agrobacterium is considered as Natural Genetic engineer of plants.” Comment.

35. Which antigen is present on T-cells which cause graft rejection during transplantation?

36. What causes genetic variations in individuals?

37. List the different areas which can be studied using microarray technologies.

38. What does the C-value paradox indicate?

39. What is Ref Seq?

40. Give the full form of the following: (a) WIPO, (b) TRIPS, (c) GM, (d) PCT, (e) GURT.



prior notice.

Name: ………………………………………. Date:……………

Karunya University



Branch: CHEMISTRY



PART – A (30 x 1 = 30 MARKS) 1. 1- chlorobutane on reaction with alcoholic potash gives

a. But-1-ene b. Butan-1-ol

c. But-2-ene d. Butane-2-ol

2. When n-propylchloride and AlCl3 are used in Friedel Craft reaction of benzene the

major product is

a. n-propylbenzene b. isopropylbenzene c. toluene d. o-xylene

3. Which among the following is an electrophile?

a. F- b. H2O

c. NH3 d. CO2

4. When phenol is treated with NaOH, it’s λmax value __________ a. Increases b. decreases

c. remains constant d. none

5. Keto-enol tautomerism is observed in

a. Benzaldehyde b. acetophenone

c. benzophenone d. formaldehyde

6. The correct order of acidity of the following i) CH3-CH2-COOH, ii) CH2=CH-COOH, iii)

H-C≡C-COOH is

a. iii > ii > i c. ii > iii > i

b. i > ii > iii d. i > iii > ii

7. The ground state term symbol for Co2+

ion is

a. 3P b. 3F

c. 4F d.

4P

8. The d-d transition for Cu2+

octahedral complex is

a. T2g Eg b. Eg T2g

c. T2g T1g d. Eg T1g 9. Froth floation process is used to concentrate the

a. Metallic oxide b. metallic nitrides

c. metallic chlorides d. metallic sulphides

[P.T.O]

10. The cell dimensions of cubic crystal system is

a.= = b. a b = c

c. a b = c d.=

11. NaCl is heated with sodium vapour, it becomes

a. White colour b. red colour

c. orange colour d. yellow colour

12. The n-type semiconductor have

a. Schottkey defect b. Frenkel defect

c. metal deficiency defect d. metal excess defect

13. EAN rule is applicable to

a. Metal carbonyl having even atomic number

b. Metal carbonyl having odd atomic number

c. Metal carbonyl having both odd and even atomic number


14. The energy gap between the conduction band and the valency band for semiconductor is

a. 1.1 ev b. 1.1 Joules

c. 1.1 ergs d. 5.4 ev

15. The medicine used to decrease body temperature are called

a. Analgesics b. Tranquilizers

c. Antiseptic d. Antipyretic

16. Glaciers are shrinking due to

a. Global warming b. Biological process

c. Irrigation Process d. Biomagnification

17. The number of and bonds respectively present in pent-4-ene-1-yne is

a. 10, 3 b. 3,10 c. 4, 9 d. 9,4

18. Large derivation from Trouton's rule is observed for systems which are

a. having more ordered structure

b. having more disordered structure c. having low melting points

d. having low boiling points

19. Staggered form of ferrocene belongs to ______ point group.

a. D5h b. D5d

c. C5V d. C4V

20. The number of rotational degrees of freedom of CO2 is

a. one b. two c. three d. four

21. The chemical potential of a substance would decreases with

a. Increase of volume b. increase of temperature

c. decrease in temperature d. None of these

[P.T.O]

22. Which of the following molecular orbital diagrams for butadiene represents the highest occupied molecular orbital in the excited state?

23. Which of the following compounds would yield the following set of multiplets in its proton magnetic resonance spectrum?

24. The following pmr spectrum represents which of the following compounds?

[P.T.O]



prior notice.

25. How many grams of NaOH are needed to make 100 milliliters of a 0.2 molar solution of NaOH?

a. 0.02 g b. 0.8 g

c. 20 g d. 800 g

26. What is the hybridization of the xenon atom in XeF4?

a. sp2 b. sp

3

c. sp3d d. sp

3d

2

27. Which of the following is not an eigen function of d2/dx

2?

a. ecos(ax) b. k cos (ax) + c

c. eax d. ksin(ax) 28. Which of the following compounds is optically active?

29. Among the following which one is normal spinels a nido-borane?

a. Fe2O4 b. Fe3O5

c. Mn3O4 d. Mn3O6 30. Olefin hydrogenation using Wilkinson’s catalyst initiates with:

a. olefin addition to Rh(PPh3)2Cl b. olefin addition to Rh(PPh3)3Cl

c. a phosphine dissociation from Rh(PPh3)3Cl

d. a phosphine addition to Rh(PPh3)2Cl

PART – B (10 x 2 = 20 MARKS)

31. Among the following which one has lowest value of Ksp at 25oC.

Why? Be(OH)2, Mg (OH)2, Ca(OH)2 and Ba(OH)2. 32. Find the pH of 75 ml of M/5 HCl + 25 ml of M/5 NaOH.

33. The cyanide ion CN−

and N2 are isoelectronic. But in contrast to CN−

, N2 is chemically inert. Why?

34. Chromium metal can be plated out from an acetic solution containing CrO3 according to the following equation.

CrO3 + 6 H+ + 6e ------ Cr + 3 H2O

Calculate the mass of chromium plated out by 24000 C. 35. What are the factors affecting electron affinity?

36. Identify the major product in the following reaction. alc. KOH, HBr

C6H5 CH2 CH(Br) CH3 ------------------- ? ---------------- ?

37. What is spectrochemical series? 38. Write increasing order of basicity for the following compounds. P-Toludine, N,N-Dimethyl-p-

toludine, p-Nitroaniline and Aniline. 39. The standard reduction potential of Ag and Fe electrode are + 0.80 and – 0.44 V respectively.

Calculate the standard free energy change. 40. Balance the equation

Sn2+

+ CrO72 ---- Sn

4+ + Cr

3+ (in the presence of acid)

Name: ………………………………………. Date:……………

Karunya University



Branch: COMPUTER SCIENCE AND ENGINEERING



PART – A (30 x 1 = 30 MARKS) 1. In a computer, 16 bits are used to specify addresses in a RAM, the number of addresses will be

a. 256 256 b. 65, 536

c. 64 K d. Any of these

2. The main difference between a CISC and RISC processor is/are that a RISC processor typically

a. Has fewer instructions and addressing modes

b. Has more registers

c. Is easier to implement using hard-wired control logic

d. All of these

3. In a memory systems, four 256 8 PROM chips are used to make total memory of size 1024

What is the number of address bus lines? a. 4 b. 8

c. 10 d. 16

4. Performance of pipelined processor suffers if

a. the pipeline stages have different delays b. Consecutive instructions are dependent on each other

c. the pipeline stages share hardware resources

d. All of these

5. Microprogramming is a technique for

a. Writing small programs effectively

b. Programming output/input routines

c. Programming the microprocessors

d. Programming the control steps of a computer

6. The algorithm search time of hashing with linear probing will be less if the load factor

a. Is far less than one b. Equal one

c. Is far grater than one d. None of these

7. A full binary tree with n leaves contains

a. n nodes b. log2 n nodes c. 2n – 1 nodes d. 2n nodes

[P.T.O]

8. Identify the correct statement about DFS traversal

i. It can be used to determine whether a graph is acyclic or not

ii. It identify the connected component of an undirected graph

iii. Traverse a single path of the graph until it visits a node with no successors

a. I and II b. II and III

c. I and II d. I, II, and III

9. Algorithm which solves the all-pair shortet path problem is

a. Dijikstra’s algorithm b. Floyd’s algorithm

c. Prim’s algorithm d. Warshall’s algorithm

10. Mutual exclusion problem occurs between

a. Two disjoint processes that do not interact

b. Processes that share resources

c. processes that do not use the same resource

d. None of these

11. Supervisor state is

a. Entered by programs when they enter the processor

b. Required to perform any I/O

c. Only allowed to the operating system

d. Never used

12. Windows NT

a. Security model is based on the notion of used accounts

b. Creates a security access token that includes the security ID for users

c. NT operates with client server

d. All of these

13. Trojan Horse

a. A code segment that misuse in file is called Trojan horse

b. Good for file accessing

c. Both (a) and (b)

d. None of these

14. Which one of the following is not a Client – server applications?

a. Internet Chat b. Web Browsing

c. E – mail d. ping

15. Which of the following concurrency control protocols ensure both conflict serializability and freedom from deadlock? i. Two – phase locking

ii. time – stamp ordering

a. I only b. II only

c. both I and II d. neither I nor II

16. The following functional dependencies are given:

AB CD, AF D, DE F, C G, f E, G A Which one of the following options is false?

a. CF+ = ACDEFG b. BG

+ = ABCDG

c. AF+ = ACDEFG d. AB

+ = ABCDFG

[P.T.O]

17. A desirable property of module is

a. Independency b. Low cohesiveness

c. High coupling d. Multifunctional

18. Relation of COCOMO model is

a. E = a* (KDL) 6 b. E = a

* (KDL) 5

c. E = a* (KDL) 7 d. E = a

* (KDL) 3

19. In object oriented design of software, object have

a. Attributes and name only b. Operations and name only

c. Attributes name and operations d. None of these

20. In testing phase, the effort distribution is

a. 10% b. 20%

c. 40% d. 50%

21. For stop – and – wait flow control, for n data packets sent, how many acknowledgments are needed? a. n b. 2n

c. n 1 d. n +1

22. In which routing method do all the routes have a common database?

a. Distance Vector b. Link – State

c. Line Vector d. None of these

23. Which of the following TCP/IP protocol is used to monitor IP gateway and the network to which they attach?

a. SGMP b. SUMP

c. FTP d. Both (a) and (b)

24. Decryption and encryption of data are responsibility of

a. Physical layer b. Data link layer

c. Presentation layer d. Session layer

25. A much better approach to establish the base URL is to use

a. BASE element b. HEAD element

c. Both (a) and (b) d. None of these

26. How many root elements can an XML document have?

a. One b. Two

c. Three d. As many as the memory provides

27. XPATH used to

a. Address your documents by specifying a location path

b. Address the server

c. Store IP address of the server d. None of these

28. Document object model (DOM) is a

a. A parser b. Specification

c. Store IP address of the server d. None of these

[P.T.O]

29. WWW is based on which model?

a. Local – server b. Client – server

b. 3 – tier d. None of these

30. DTD’s

a. Don’t follow inheritance principle

b. Follow the inheritance principle

c. Are, recommendation only

d. None of these

PART – B (10 x 2 = 20 MARKS)

31. What are the necessary conditions of deadlock situation?

32. Write the different process states.

33. What is the use of three-way handshaking?

34. Write two kinds of request messages supported by SNMP.

35. What is an embedded computing system?

36. What you mean by a socket?

37. Define marshalling.

38. What are two types of attacks?

39. What is supervised learning? Give an example.

40. Distinguish between classification and clustering.



prior notice.

Name: ………………………………………. Date:……………

Karunya University



Branch: ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING



PART – A (30 x 1 = 30 MARKS) 1. Which of the following given minimum probability of error.

a. ASK b. FSK

c. PSK d. DPSK

2. Companding is used in PCM to

a. reduce bandwidth b. reduce power

c. increase S/N ratio d. get almost uniform S/N ratio

3. The main advantage of TDM over FDM is that it

a. needs less power b. needs less bandwidth

c. needs simple circuitry d. gives better S/N ratio

4. Following is not an advantage of FM over AM

a. noise immunity b. fidelity

c. capture effect d. sputtering effect

5. The carrier is amplitude modulated to a depth of 40%.The increase in power is

a. 40% b. 20%

c. 16% d. 8%

6. A narrow band noise shows

a. amplitude modulation only b. frequency modulation only

c. both AM and FM d. none

7. Laplace transform has the following merit over Fourier transform

a. former is more informative

b. latter is more informative

c. former converges for more function

d. latter has exponential decay

8. Highest value of the autocorrelation of a function 10sin10t+t is equal to

a. 50 b. 100

c. zero d. depends on time t

9. Pick the odd man out

a. stochastic variable b. stochastic function

c. random variable d. random experiment

[P.T.O]

10. The most suitable method for detecting a modulated signal (2.5+5cosωmt) cosωct is a. envelop detector b. synchronous detector

c. ratio detector d. both a & b

11. The 10 bit D/A convertor provides an analog output which has a maximum value of 10.23 volts.The resolution is a. 10mv b. 20mv

c. 15mv d. 25mv

12. A divided by 78 counter can be realized using

a. 6nos of mod-13 counter

b. 13 nos of mod-6 counter

c. one mod-13 counter followed by one mod-6 counter

d. 13 nos of mod-13 counter

13. In sky wave propagation 1 skip distance is used

a. so as not exceed the critical frequency

b. to avoid faraday effect

c. to prevent skywave and upper ray interference

d. to obey filtering

14. Polarization of EM waves is due to

a. reflection

b. transverse nature of EM waves

c. longitudinal nature of EM waves

d. spherical wavefronts of EM waves

15. An ON-OFF controller is

a. P controller b. integral controller

c. Nonlinear controller d. PID controller

16. At the break points, the phase angle is and the gain is actually down by 3db.

a. -45° b. 90°

c. -90° d. 30°

17. The condition for a network to be lossless in terms of ABCD parameters is

a. A & D real , B & C imaginary b. A & D imaginary, B & C real

c. A& D real, B & C real d. A & D imaginary, B & C imaginary

18. The emitter region in the NPN transistor is more heavily doped than base region so that

a. flow across the base region will be mainly of holes

b. flow across the base region will be mainly of electrons

c. base current is low

d. base current is high

19. A strong electric field across a P-N junction that causes covalent bands to break a part

a. it is called avalanche breakdown b. it is called reverse breakdown

c. it is called lever breakdown d. it is called low voltage breakdown

[P.T.O]

20. Increasing temperature will cause one of the following effects if we do not use a stabilized biasing current a. thermal runaway

b. higher gain

c. requirement of higher load resistance

d. better stability

21. The damping ratio of the characteristic equation s2+s+1=0 is

a. 0.9 b. 1 c. 0.5 d. 0.8

22. The resistance Rg , inductance L and load RL are connected in series in a circuit with the

supply voltage of 220∟0˚ volts. The impedance of Rgis varied between 50Ω to 600Ω,the

impedance of Inductance and RL is j100 and 500Ω.What value of Rg results in maximum power transfer to the load.

a. 500Ω b. 50Ω

c. 600Ω d. 100Ω

23. The input offset current of 741 IC is

a. 200nA b. 150nA

c. 100nA d. 75nA

24. For a RC phase shift oscillator the value is

a. 32 b. 15

c. 29 d. 40

25. The power requirement of ASK signal is times that of PSK signal.

a. 3 b. 4

c. 1 d. 2

26. A linear Block code with dmin=5 can correct upto _______ errors.

a. 2 b. 3

c. 4 d. 5

27. When 8086 is operated in maximum mode the control Bus signals are produced by

a. 8282 b. 8288

c. 8237 d. 8256

28. Pick the odd man out

a. SIM b. RST 7.5

c. INTA d. HOLD

29. In MOSFET when Vds>Vsat Vgs-Vt , the channel is

a. resistive b. inverted

c. pinched off d. cutoff

30. The PN chip rate is 40X106 and message bit rate is 10

4.The processing gain in dB for a spread

spectrum system is a. 39 dB b. 22 dB

c. 40 dB d. 25dB [P.T.O]

PART – B (10 x 2 = 20 MARKS)

31. Depletion MOSFET is commonly known as “normally –ON-MOSFET”. Why?

32. Why positive feedback is rarely used in practice?

33. How aliasing can be reduced? 34. A receiver is connected to an antenna whose resistance is 40Ω. The receiver has an equivalent noise

resistance of 35Ω. Calculate the receiver noise figure and its equivalent noise temperature 35. An event has six possible outcomes with the probabilities p1 = , p2 = , p3 =

, p4 = , p5 = , p6 = . Find the entropy of the system 36. 24 telephone channels, each band limited to 3.4KHz are to be time division multiplexed by

using PCM. Calculate the bandwidth of the PCM system for 128 quantization levels and an 8 KHz sampling frequency.

37. Determine the mean of the random variable Z=X+Y

38. Find the Fourier transform of unit step function 39. y(n) = a .Check whether y(n) is stable 40. Assuming a crystal frequency of 12 MHz, find the time delay associated with the loop section

of the following delay subroutine Delay MOV R3,#100 Here : NOP

NOP

NOP DJNZ R3,Here RET



prior notice.

Name: ………………………………………. Date:……………

Karunya University



Branch: ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING



PART – A (30 x 1 = 30 MARKS) 1. Surge impedance of lossless transmission line is

a. L

C

c. C

L

2. The material used in surge arrester is

a. zinc sulphate c. zinc oxide

b. LC d. LC

b. zinc carbonate

d. zinc carbide

3. The most severe fault in power system is

a. single line to ground fault b. double line to ground fault

c. line to line fault d. three phase fault

4. Which motor is preferred for an electric traction?

a. Three phase induction motor b. DC shunt motor

c. DC series motor d. Synchronous motor

5. A single phase full-bridge diode rectifier delivers a load current of 10 A. The average and rms

values of source current are respectively

a. 5 A, 10 A b. 10 A, 10 A

c. 5 A, 5 A d. 0 A, 10 A

6. For an SCR, dV/dt protection is achieved through the use of

a. RL in series with SCR b. RC across SCR

c. L in series with SCR d. RC in series with SCR

7. A chopper can be used on

a. PWM only b. FM only

c. AM only d. both PWM and FM

8. SMPS are superior to linear power supplies in respect of

a. size and efficiency b. efficiency and regulation

c. regulation and noise d. noise and cost

[P.T.O]

9. Resonant converters are basically used to

a. generate large peak voltages b. reduce the switching losses

c. eliminate harmonics d. none of the above

10. A free wheeling diode across inductive load will provide

a. quick turn-on b. slow turn-off

c. reduced utilization factor d. improved power factor

11. A linear system is described by

a. simultaneous equations

b. differential equation

c. differential equation obeying superposition theorem

d. equations with constant parameters

12. In a mechanical system consisting of mass, spring and dash-pot, the energy is dissipated in

a. mass b. spring

c. dash-pot d. all the above

13. The mass of mechanical system is analogous to the following in a loop system of an electric

circuit

a. capacitance b. reciprocal of capacitance

c. inductance d. resistance

14. In a signal flow graph, the nodes represent

a. system variables b. system gain

c. system parameters d. none of the above

15. The order of a system is determined by

a. the highest degree of ‘s’ in the characteristic polynomial

b. the number of poles in the transfer function

c. the number of zeros in the transfer function

d. could not be defined

16. A magnetic circuit has a linear B-H curve with λ= 1.5 weber-turn at i=10 A. The energy

stored in the field is

a. 15J b. 0.75J

c. 7.5 J d. 30 J

17. Equalizer rings are required in a lap wounded DC machine:

a. to improve commutation

b. to filter out harmonics

c. to prevent flow of circulating currents through brushes

d. to reduce armature reaction

18. Synchronous machine can operate at :

a. lagging power factor b. leading power factor

c. unity power factor d. all the above

19. During blocked-rotor test on an induction motor the power is drawn mainly for:

a. copper loss and core loss b. copper loss

c. core loss d. copper loss, core loss, windage and friction loss [P.T.O]

20. A linear servo motor must have:

a. high rotor reactance b. high rotor resistance

c. a large air gap d. both high rotor resistance and reactance

21. No load current in transformer:

a. lags the applied voltage by 90o

b. lags the applied voltage by somewhat less than 90o

c. leads the applied voltage by 90o

d. leads the applied voltage by somewhat less than 90o

22. The most commonly used material for insulators of overhead lines is

a. porcelain b. glass

c. wood d. steatite

23. The distribution transformer is generally connected in

a. delta/delta b. delta/star

c. star/star d. star/delta

24. When the transmission voltage is increased, the line losses are

a. decreased b. increased

c. same d. none of the above

25. A magnet is kept in a non-uniform magnetic field. It experiences

a. a force and a torque

b. a force but not a torque

c. a torque but not a force

d. neither a force nor a torque

26. If the number of turns of a coil is increased two times, its inductance is

a. increased two times b. decreased two times

c. decreased four times d. increased four times

27. The brush voltage drop in a DC machine is about

a. 0.1 V b. 10 V

c. 2 V d. 20 V

28. The breakdown voltage of insulation depends upon

a. average value of AC b. RMS value of AC

c. peak value of AC d. twice the peak value of AC

29. The algebraic sum of instantaneous phase voltages in a three phase circuit is equal to

a. zero b. line voltage

c. phase voltage d. none of the above

30. A transformer is so designed that primary and secondary have

a. high leakage reactance

b. large resistance

c. tight magnetic coupling

d. good electric coupling [P.T.O]

PART – B (10 x 2 = 20 MARKS)

31. What is meant by stringing chart?

32. Why is negative feedback used in control systems?

33. Mention the drawbacks of transfer function

34. How is three phase reactive power measured using one wattmeter? 35. Why is magnetic field preferred over electric field as a medium for electromechanical energy

conversion? 36. What is meant by DC chopper?

37. Write down the relation between holding current and latching current.

38. Mention the use of synchronous phase modifiers.

39. What is meant by stranded conductor?

40. Write down the advantages of mho relay.



prior notice.

Name: ………………………………………. Date:……………

Karunya University



Branch:ENGLISH



PART – A (30 x 1 = 30 MARKS) 1. ____________ is the tragic flaw in Macbeth.

a. Ambitious b. Jealousy

c. Gullibility d. Procrastination

2. “Life is a tale told by an idiot”… from which play are these words quoted?

a. Hamlet b. The Tempest

c. Macbeth d. None of these

3. If Malgudi is for R.K. Narayan, then __________ for Thomas Hardy.

a. Essex b. Sussex

c. Wessex d. Middlesex

4. Bacon has written his works in _____________________.

a. Latin and English b. French and English

c. Latin and French d. Greek and Latin

5. A Tale of a Tub is a _______________________

a. Religious Allegory b. Political Satire

c. Religious treatise d. children’s book

6. Origin of Species was written by

a. Macaulay b. Freud

c. Darwin d. James Nixon

7. T.S.Eliot’s The Waste Land concludes with _______________ words.

a. Latin b. English

c. French d. Sanskrit

8. Background of Chaman Nahal’s Azadi is ___________________

a. Slavery b. Politics

c. Romance d. Partition of India

9. The Twice-born Fiction is a critical work on the Indo-Anglian novel, written by

a. Srinivasa Iyengar b. Meenakshi Mukherji

c. R.K. Dhawan d. Kiran Desai

[P.T.O]

10. V.S. Naipal was awarded The Noble prize for his novel ________________

a. A House for Mr Biswas b. A Bend in a river

c. Miguel Street d. None of these

11. Who introduced the poetic form ‘Sonnet’ to England?

a. Spencer b. Shakespeare

c. Milton d. Wyatt and Surrey

12. R.K.Narayan used Bhasmasura Myth in his novel ____________________

a. Tiger for Malgudi b. The Man-Eater of Malgudi

c. The Guide d. Mr. Sampath

13. Milton’s Paradise Lost consists of _____________ books.

a. ten b. six

c. twelve d. eight

14. Milton’s Lycidas is ________________

a. elegy b. Epic

c. ode d. lyric

15. John Evelyn and Samuel Pepys are famous for their ____________________

a. kingdom b. knowledge

c. diaries d. poetry

16. Who wrote Life and Death of Mr.Badman?

a. Bunyan b. Dryden

c. Congreve d. Sheridan

17. The Age of Pope is also called as ___________________

a. Restoration b. Augustan

c. classical d. None of these

18. Who is the writer of The Begger’s Opera.

a. Pope b. Defoe

c. John Gray d. Thomas Gray

19. Thelabe the destroyer was written by__________________

a. Byron b. southey

c. Shelley d. Scott.

20. History of Brazil was written by ________________

a. Byron b. Scott

c. southey d. None of these

21. From whom do we get the phrase ‘Negative Capability’?

a. Hazilitt b. Keats

c. Coleridge d. Shelley

22. On Liberty written by J.S. Mill is a ___________________

a. play b. Poem

c. Essay d. None of these

[P.T.O]

23. William Blake is a critical work written by ____________________

a. Arnold b. Walter Pater

c. Swinburne d. Eliot

24. Rudyard Kipling’s novel Kim makes use of many of his childhood memories of _____

a. China b. India

c. England d. Ireland

25. Who is the central figure in Emily Bronte’s Wuthering Heights

a. Hindley b. Lockwood

c. Hareton d. Heathcliff

26. Foster’s novel A Room with a view is set in ____________

a. England b. Italy

c. France d. Germany

27. Which of these poems has been written by John Masefield?

a. Listeners b. Everlasting Mercy

c. crow d. candle

28. Which of novel of D.H. Lawrence was banned?

a. The Rainbow b. Women in Love

c. Kangaroo d. Lady Chatterley’s Lover

29. The Affair is a novel written by ______________________

a. Evelyn Waugh b. Joyce Cary

c. C.P.Snow d. William Sleeve

30. Complete the title of the book - MLA Handbook____________________________

a. for thesis and Assignment writing

b. for Research Paper Writers

c. for Writers of Research Papers

d. for writing Research Papers

PART – B (10 x 2 = 20 MARKS)

31. What is Metaphor? Give an example.

32. What is Hamartia?

33. Write a short note on Narrative Technique.

34. What are the major themes focused in Indian English Novels?

35. What is meant by Remedial Teaching?

36. What are the three unities in Shakespearean plays?

37. Poetic Justice – Write a short note.

38. What are the details available in a bibliography?

39. Explain Source Language and Target Language with example.

40. Mention any four parameters to select research topic / area.



prior notice.

Name: ………………………………………. Date:……………

Karunya University



Branch: INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY



PART – A (30 x 1 = 30 MARKS) 1. How many digits of the DNIC (Data Network Identification Code) identify the country?

a. First three b. First four

c. First five d. First six

2. The probability that a single bit will be in error on a typical public telephone line using 4800 bps modem is 10 to the power -3. If no error detection mechanism is used, the residual error rate for a communication line using 9-bit frames is approximately equal to

a. 0.003 b. 0.009

c. 0.991 d. 0.999

3. You have a class A network address 10.0.0.0 with 40 subnets, but are required to add 60 new

subnets very soon. You would like to still allow for the largest possible number of host IDs per subnet. Which subnet mask should you assign? a. 255.240.0.0 b. 255.248.0.0

c. 255.252.0.0 d. 255.254.0.0

4. What is the default subnet mask for a class C network?

a. 127.0.0.1 b. 255.0.0.0

c. 255.255.0.0 d. 255.255.255.0

5. The Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)

a. allows gateways to send error a control messages to other gateways or hosts b. provides communication between the Internet Protocol Software on one machine and the

Internet Protocol Software on another c. reports error conditions to the original source, the source must relate errors to individual

application programs and take action to correct the problem d. All of the above

6. The ascending order or a data Hierarchy is

a. bit - bytes - fields - record - file – database

b. bit - bytes - record - field - file – database

c. bytes - bit- field - record - file – database

d. bytes -bit - record - field - file – database [P.T.O]

7. When the RET instruction at the end of subroutine is executed,

a. the information where the stack is initialized is transferred to the stack pointer

b. the memory address of the RET instruction is transferred to the program counter c. two data bytes stored in the top two locations of the stack are transferred to the program

counter d. two data bytes stored in the top two locations of the stack are transferred to the stack

pointer

8. Parallel programs: Which speedup could be achieved according to Amdahl´s law for infinite

number of processors if 5% of a program is sequential and the remaining part is ideally parallel?

a. Infinite speedup b. 5

c. 20 d. 50

9. Itanium processor: Which hazard can be circumvented by register rotation?

a. Control hazards b. Data hazards

c. Structural hazards d. None

10. Workload driven evaluation of parallel systems, memory constrained scaling: A matrix factorization with complexity n³ takes 2 hours for a square matrix which requires 8*108 bytes on one processor (8 bytes per element). Which time would it need on 100 processors (ideal speedup)?

a. 1 hour b. 2 hours

c. 10 hours d. 20 hours

11. In the blocked state

a. the processes waiting for I/O are found

b. the process which is running is found

c. the processes waiting for the processor are found

d. none of the above

12. Which technique was introduced because a single job could not keep both the CPU and the I/O devices busy? a. Time-sharing b. SPOOLing

c. Preemptive scheduling d. Multiprogramming

13. If the Disk head is located initially at 32, find the number of disk moves required with FCFS if the disk queue of I/O blocks requests are 98,37,14,124,65,67. a. 1 310 b. 2 324

c. 3 315 d. 4 321

14. Using Priority Scheduling algorithm, find the average waiting time for the following set of processes given with their priorities in the order: Process : Burst Time : Priority respectively P1 : 10 : 3 , P2 : 1 : 1 ,

P3 : 2 : 4 ,

P4 : 1 : 5 ,

P5 : 5 : 2.

a. 1 8 milliseconds b. 2 8.2 milliseconds

c. 3 7.75 milliseconds d. 4 3 milliseconds

[P.T.O]

15. The problem of thrashing is affected scientifically by ________.

a. Program structure b. Program size

c. Primary storage size d. None of the above

16. In which of the following the keyword "inverse" is used?

a. Class b. Attribute

c. Relationship d. All of the above

17. Which of the following is true concerning an ODBMS?

a. They have the ability to store complex data types on the Web.

b. They are overtaking RDBMS for all applications.

c. They are most useful for traditional, two-dimensional database table applications.

d. All of the above

18. A relation is in this form if it is in BCNF and has no multivalued dependencies:

a. second normal form b. third normal form

c. fourth normal form d. domain/key normal form

19. The primary key is selected from the:

a. composite keys b. determinants

c. candidate keys d. foreign keys

20. For some relations, changing the data can have undesirable consequences called:

a. referential integrity constraints b. modification anomalies

c. normal forms d. transitive dependencies

21. One solution to the multivalued dependency constraint problem is to:

a. split the relation into two relations, each with a single theme

b. change the theme

c. create a new theme

d. add a composite key

22. Which of the following is not a limitation of binary search algorithm?

a. must use a sorted array

b. requirement of sorted array is expensive when a lot of insertion and deletions are needed

c. there must be a mechanism to access middle element directly

d. binary search algorithm is not efficient when the data elements are more than 1000.

23. When new data are to be inserted into a data structure, but there is no available space; this situation is usually called a. Underflow b. Overflow

c. Housefull d. Saturated

24. When inorder traversing a tree resulted E A C K F H D B G; the preorder traversal would return a. FAEKCDBHG b. FAEKCDHGB

c. EAFKHDCBG d. FEAKDCHBG

25. The depth of a complete binary tree is given by

a. Dn = n log2n b. Dn = n log2n+1

c. Dn = log2n d. Dn = log2n+1

[P.T.O]

26. Which of the following sorting algorithm is of divide-and-conquer type?

a. Bubble sort b. Insertion sort

c. Quick sort d. All of above

27. What will be output if you will compile and execute the following c code? #include<stdio.h> int main()

int i=320; char *ptr=(char *)&i;

printf("%d",*ptr);

return 0;

a. 320 b. 1

c. 64 d. Compile error

28. What will be output if you will compile and execute the following C code? #include<stdio.h> #define x 5+2 int

main() int i;

i=x*x*x; printf("%d",i);

return 0;

a. 343 b. 27


29. What will be output if you will compile and execute the following c code? #include<stdio.h> int main()

int i=4,x; x=++i + ++i + ++i;

printf("%d",x);

return 0;

a. 21 b. 18


30. What will be output if you will compile and execute the following c code? #include<stdio.h> int main() char *str="Hello world";

printf("%d",printf("%s",str));

return 0;

a. 11Hello world b. 10Hello world

c. Hello world10 d. Hello world11

[P.T.O]

PART – B (10 x 2 = 20 MARKS)

31. What are the major data structures used in the following areas : RDBMS, Network data model and Hierarchical data model?

32. What are the advantages of Distributed Processing?

33. Whether Linked List is linear or Non-linear data structure? 34. Does the minimum spanning tree of a graph give the shortest distance between any 2 specified

nodes? 35. What is difference between ARP and RARP?

36. Define semaphore.

37. What is meant by demand paging?

38. What is Link State Packet?

39. What is a bit slice? 40. Assume 6 devices are arranged in a mesh topology. How many cables are needed? How

many ports are needed for each device?



prior notice.

Name: ………………………………………. Date:……………

Karunya University



Branch: MATHEMATICS



PART – A (30 x 1 = 30 MARKS) 1. The set of vectors under scalar dot product is not a group owing to the failure of

a. Closure axiom b. Associative axiom

c. Identity axiom d. Inverse axiom

2. A generator of the cyclic group formed by the set of nth

roots of unity is

a. cos

i sin

b. cos 2

i sin 2

n n n n

c. cos 3

i sin 3

d. cos 4

i sin 4

n

n n n

3. A matrix A aij n x n is said to be upper triangular if

a. aij=0 for i<j b. aij=0 for i>j

c. aij=0 for i j d. aij=0 for i j 4. If f(x) = (x-2)(x-2)(x-3), a = 0 b = 4 find c of Lagrange’s mean value theorem

a. c 1

2

c. c 2 2

3

5. The series 2+4+6+9+10+…… is a. divergent c. Unbounded

6. The sequence n

1

is

n

b. c

23

d. None of these

b. Convergent

d. Oscillating

a. Increasing sequence b. Decreasing sequence

c. Unbounded d. Neither increasing nor decreasing

7. The function f(x) = ex is

a. an odd function b. an even function c. neither even nor odd function d. None of these

[P.T.O]

8. The value of x3 x dx is

a. ∞ b. 1

c. 0 d. -∞

9. Duplication formula for the Gamma function is

1 = 2 2 p 1 1

a.2 p p p 2

2

1 = 2 2 p 1 1

b.2 p (P) p

2 2

c. 2 p (2) = 2 2 p 2 1

p p

2

d. 2 p P 1/ 2 = 22 p ( p) p

1 2

10. Find the basic feasible solutions to the given system. The linear equations are x1+2x2+x3 =

4, 2x1+x2+5x3=5

a. (0,5/3,2/3) b. (2,1,0)

c. (0,5/3,1/3) d. Non of these

11. The algebraic sym of gains and losses of all the players is zero is known as

a. Zero sum game b. non – zero sum game

c. data inadequate d. None of these

12. Dynamic Programming is a

a. Single sage programming b. Multistage programming

c. Two stage programming d. None of these

13. If X any Y are tow vectors in Hilbert space, then

a.

(x, y)

x

y

b.

(x, y)

x

y

c.

(x, y)

x

y

d.

(x, y)

x

y

14. (sin i cos )6 is equal to

a. sin 6 i cos 6 c. - cos 6 i sin 6

15. The conjugate of (1+i)2 is given by

a. (1-i)-2

c. -2i

16. General solution of (D4-1)y = 0 is

a. y= (A+Bx+CX2+Ex)e

x

c. y = (Aex+Be

-x+Ccosx+Esinx

17. If X and Y are independent variables

a. COV(X,Y) = 1

c. COV(X,Y)>1

b. cos 6 i sin 6 d. sin 6 i cos 6

b. (1+i)-1

d. 2i

b. y = (A+Bx)ex + (C+Ex)e

-x

d. y = (Acosx + Bsinx)ex +(Ccosx+Esinx)e

-x

b. COV(X,Y)<1

d. COV(X,Y)=0

18. The normal distribution is the limiting form of the

a. gamma distribution b. binomial distribution (or) poisson distribution

c. uniform distribution d. Erlang distribution. [P.T.O]

19. Limits of correlation coefficient are

a. (-∞,∞) b. (0,1)

c. (-1,1) d. (1,-1)

20. Type – II error is

a. rejecting the hypothesis when it is false

b. accepting the hypothesis when it is true

c. reflecting the hypothesis when it is true

d. accepting the hypothesis when it is false

21. In a binomial distribution all the trials are

a. independent b. dependent

c. either dependent (or) un dependent d. none of these

22. The calculated value of 2 is

a. always –ve b. can either be +ve or –ve

c. always +ve d. None of these

23. The probability of getting atleast one head in tossing of n coins is

a. 1

b. 1

n

2n

c. 1 1 d. 1 1

2n 2n

n

24. The expectation of the number of heads in 17 tosses of a coin is

a. 17

b. 1

2

c. 17

d. 15

2

2

25. The empirical relation between the mean, median and mode is

a. mode = 3 median – 2mean b. median = 3 mean – 2 mode

c. mode = 2 median – 3 mean d. mean = 3 median – 2 mode

26. The geometric series 1+Z+Z2+Z

3+……. Converges to

a.

(z 1)

if

z

1 b. (1 z) 1 if

z

1

b. 1

if

z

1 d. 1

if

z

1

1 z

(1 z)

27. If E1, E2,E3 are mutually exclusive events then P(E1 E2 E3) a. P(E1) P(E2)P(E3)

b. P(E1) + P(E2) + P(E3)

c. P(E1) + P(E2) + P(E3) – P(E1 E2) – P(E2 E3)

d. P(E1)P(E1/E2) 28. Every probability is a conditional probability wrt given sample space is

a. always true b. always false

c. true if the events are independent d. true if the events are mutually exclusive [P.T.O]

29. The probability density function of a standard normal variate is (-∞, <z<∞)

a. (z) 1 ez

2 / 2 b. (z)

1 e z2 / 2

2 2

b. (z) 1 e z

2 / 2

2

30. Co-efficient of variation

is a. x X 100

c. x

d. (z) 1

e z2

/ 2

b. x X 1000

d. x

X100

PART – B (10 x 2 = 20 MARKS)

31. Solve the equations, for x

2

1 x 1 0

0

1 i

32. If A 0

0 0

3 2 1

5 1

1

0

3 2

x

i

2 prove that A3 = I where I, ,

2 are the cube roots of unity.

2

then

cos sin n cos n sin n

33. If A then prove by the method of induction that A =

sin

sin n

cos cos n

Z 1

34. Find the locus of the point z satisfying the condition arg

Z 1 3

35. Solve dy

y sin x

dx

36. Evaluate the mean of the following probability distribution

X=x 2 3 4

P(x) 1/4 1/2 1/4

37. Six dice are thrown 729 times. How many times do you expect atleast three dice to show a five

or six.

1

f (x) 2 x , 0 x 1

38. If 0 , elsewhere is the PDF of a random variable x find Var(x)

39. Solve (D2+D+1)y= 0

40. (y+z)dx+dy+dz =0



prior notice.

Name: ………………………………………. Date:……………

Karunya University



Branch: MANAGEMENT SCIENCES



PART – A (30 x 1 = 30 MARKS) 1. In demand forecasting, important method used in trend projection is

a. Scientific method b. Bax-Jenkin Method

c. Delphi Method d. Logistics method

2. Union function arises as a result of Employees

a. Problem of Communication b. Abundance of Capital

c. Expansion of Industry d. Shortage of Labor

3. The principle of organization that no employee should report to more than one superior is called a. Scalar principle b. Span of control

c. Unity of command d. Unity of direction

4. In __________ the behavior that one should engage in are stipulated by and directed towards

organizational goals:

a. Formal Group b. Reference Group

c. Secondary Group d. Informal Group

5. Identify the Top Management goal of Human resource Management

a. Attracting applicants b. Separating employees

c. Retaining Employees d. Motivating Employees

6. While considering promotion of an employee, the following is the most important consideration : a. Seniority b. Competence

c. Loyalty d. Only (A) and (B)

7. Responding to employees and involving them in Decision making is refer to as

a. Quality of Work life b. Autonomy

c. Empowering d. Proactive

8. Skimming pricing for a new product is

a. Low initial Price b. Average price

c. High Initial Price d. Moderate Price

9. Personality tests includes __________

a. Objective test b. Objective test

c. Training method d. Both A and B

[P.T.O]

10. The basic goal of the financial management is __________

a. Maximizing the profit b. Maximizing shareholders wealth in the Long run

c. Maximizing th rate of Dividend d. Minimizing the Business risk

11. Which ratio reveals how profitability of the owners fund has been utilized by the firm?

a. Return on Equity b. Current ratio

c. Fixed Asset ratio d. Debt Equity ratio

12. Additional revenue generated by selling an additional unit is

a. Incremental revenue b. Marginal revenue

c. Total revenue d. Average revenue

13. Extranets are a Blend of the __________

a. Public Internet and Intranets b. Risk Internet

c. Open Internet d. Common Internet

14. Classical conditioning is associated with __________

a. Repetition b. Generalization

c. Discrimination d. All

15. Which of the Following statement is true?

a. Brand means a name term and symbol or a mix thereof used to identify the product of one firm and to distinguish.

b. A Brand is usually composed of a name and a mark of a product.

c. A Brand name is a part of a Brand which can be vocalized.

d. All the Above

16. SQC requires determination of __________

a. Quality tolerance limit b. Quality measurement

c. Production lead time d. Inventory Carrying Cost

17. Mutual Cooperation in Networking is

a. Win – Win Strategy b. Networking Strategy

c. franchise d. Competitive

18. Synthesis is a technique of __________

a. Work Measurement b. Accounting Control

c. Product Planning d. Inventory Control

17. Dramatic reduction of Manpower is called

a. Termination b. Retrenchment

c. Downsizing d. Rightsizing

20. Mode of process in Decision Support System is

a. Batch b. Online

c. Offline d. Real Time

[P.T.O]

21. If two or more quantities vary in Sympathy so that movement in the one tend to be accompanied by corresponding movements in the other then they are said to be __________ a. Uncorrelated b. Correlated

c. Motivated d. Computed

22. Ethical challenges may arise on account of

a. Failure of personal character, conflict of personal value & organisational goals and conflict of organizational goals and social values

b. Hazardous but popular products

c. Both A and B


23. Strategic Management begins with __________

a. Mission b. A plan

c. A product d. Building and Employees

24. What is the term used if a market is divided into distinct groups of buyers who might require

separate products or marketing mixes? a. Market Targeting

b. Market Positioning

c. Market Segmentation

d. Market Co-ordination

25. Sick Enterprise refers to

a. World bank b. SIDBI

c. RBI d. BIFR

26. Capital means……

a. Resource to start the Enterprise b. Price

c. Image d. Worth and Value

27. ______________ is thought of as a creative capital which is exercised to perform economic functions different from other Investment vehicles which primarily serve as a expansion capital. a. Share capital b. Venture capital

c. bond d. Loan

28. Control denotes __________

a. Measurement of performance in accordance with objective

b. Disciplinary actions against employees

c. Curtailment in undesirable activities

d. Curtailment in Expenses

29. Which one of the following is principle of Organization?

a. Principle of Objective b. Principle of Responsibility

c. Principle of Definition d. Principle of Equity

30. Modern advertising exerts such a corrupting influence on cultural and social life that is not only

wasteful but __________

a. Moral b. Improper and illegal

c. Immoral d. Responsible

[P.T.O]

PART – B (10 x 2 = 20 MARKS)

31. Define market structure.

32. State any 4 Fayal’s Principles of management.

33. What is by Performance Appraisal?

34. State Long term Source of Finance.

35. What is mean by market segmentation?

36. What is production scheduling?

37. What is mean by Probability?

38. What are the functions of Central Bank?

39. Define Plant Layout.

40. What is Business Ethics?



prior notice.

Name: ………………………………………. Date:……………

Karunya University



Branch: COMPUTER APPLICATIONS



PART – A (30 x 1 = 30 MARKS) 1. The advantage of CMOS technology over nMOS is

a. Lower power dissipation b. Smaller chip size

c. Greater speed d. Fewer masks for fabrication

2. How many flip-flop circuits are required to divide by 16?

a. Two b. Four

c. Eight d. Sixteen

3. Convert 1000 0000 0000 1111 (signed binary number) to decimal number

a. +15 b. -30

c. -15 d. +30

4. A combinational logic circuit which is used to send data coming from a single source to two or

more separate destinations is called as: a. Decoder b. Encoder

c. Multiplexer d. Demultiplexer

5. An expression contains relational, assignment and arithmetic operators. In the absence of parenthesis, the order of evaluation will be a. assignment, relational, arithmetic

b. arithmetic, relational, assignment

c. relational, arithmetic, assignment


6. The link between member of a structure and a variable is established using the member

operator

a. : b. ;

c. & d. None of the above

7. What is the output of the following program?

# include <stdio.h> int c[10] = 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,0; main( )

int a,b = 0;

for (a = 0; a<10; ++a) if ((c[a] % 2) = = 1) b + = c[a];

printf (“%d”, b);

a. 20 b. 25 c. 30 d. 45 [P.T.O]

8. In a relational schema, each tuple is divided into fields called

a. Relations b. Attributes

c. Queries d. All of the above

9. The modify operation is likely to be done after

a. Delete b. Look-up

c. Insert d. All of the above

10. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a relational database model?

a. table b. treelike structure

c. Complex logical relationships d. None of the above

11. The minimum number of edges in a connected cyclic graph on n vertices is

a. n-1 b. n

c. n+1 d. None of the above

12. The average number of key comparisons done in a successful sequential search in a list of length n is

a. log n b. n 1

2

c. n

d. n 1

2 2

13. Database Management systems are intended to

a. Eliminate data redundancy

b. Establish relationships among records in different files

c. Manage file access

d. Maintain data integrity

14. Which two files are used during the operation of the DBMS?

a. Query language and utilities

b. Data Manipulation language and query language

c. Data dictionary and transaction log

d. Data dictionary

15. The number of elements in the power set P(S) of the set S = , 1 , 2, 3 is

a. 2 b. 4

c. 8 d. None of the above

16. Let R be a symmetric and transitive relation on a set A. Then

a. R is reflexive and hence an equivalence relation

b. R is reflexive and hence a partial order

c. R is not reflexive and hence not an equivalence relation


17. Which of the following statement is correct?

a. B-trees are for storing data on disk and B+ trees are for main memory

b. Range queries are faster on B+ trees

c. B-trees are for primary indexes and B+ trees are for secondary indexes

d. The height of a B+ tree is independent of the number of records

[P.T.O]

18. Let G be a graph with 100 vertices numbered 1 to 100. Two vertices i and j are adjacent if | i – j | = 8 or | i – j | = 12. The number of connected components of G is a. 8 b. 4

c. 12 d. 25

19. The application layer of a network

a. establishes, maintains and terminates virtual circuits

b. consists of software being run on the computer connected to the network

c. defines the user’s port into the network

d. All of the above

20. Devices on one network can communicate with devices on another network via a

a. file server b. router

c. bridge d. gateway

21. In OSI network architecture, the routing is performed by

a. network layer b. data link layer

c. transport layer d. session layer

22. The X.25 specifies a

a. technique for start / stop data b. technique for dial access

c. DTE / DCE interface d. data bit rate

23. Error detection at the data link level is achieved by

a. Bit stuffing b. Hamming codes

c. Cyclic Redundancy Codes d. Equalization

24. Which of the following is not a function of Pass-I of an assembler?

a. Generate data b. Keep track of LC

c. Remember literals d. Remember values of symbols until Pass-II

25. A self-relocating program is one which

a. cannot be made to execute in any area of storage other than the one designated for it at the time of its coding or translation

b. consists of a program and relevant information for its relocation

c. can itself perform the relocation of its address-sensitive portions

d. All of the above

26. Banker’s algorithm for resource allocation deals with

a. deadlock recovery b. deadlock avoidance

c. deadlock prevention d. mutual exclusion

27. Which of the following signs is used to erase or kill an entire line you have typed and start a new line in Unix? a. @ b. $

c. # d. !

28. Which of the following commands is used to display the filenames in multiple columns in Unix ? a. ls b. ls – x

c. ls –l d. lc

[P.T.O]

29. Cyclomatic complexity in software testing is achieved by V(G) =

a. E-N+2 b. E-N

c. E+N-2 d. E+N

30. Which of the following is a software project estimation technique?

a. LOC method b. COCOMO

c. Both (a) and (b) d. None of the above

PART – B (10 x 2 = 20 MARKS)

31. Find the Octal equivalent of the binary number 10110011.

32. Draw the NFA for a*/b* .

33. What is halftoning in computer graphics? 34. Consider the following set of processes with the length of the CPU-burst time given

in milliseconds: Process Burst Time Priority

P1 10 3

P2 1 1

P3 2 3

P4 1 4

P5 5 2

The processes are assumed to have arrived in the order P1, P2, P3, P4 , P5 all at time 0. Draw Gantt charts that illustrate the execution of these processes using : a. First Come, First Served Scheduling

b. Shortest Job first Scheduling

35. What are the various asymptotic notations? List them according to their classes.

36. What are the different levels RAID?

37. What do you mean by balance factor of a node in AVL tree?

38. List the process maturity levels in SEIs CMM.

39. Explain the life cycle of Java Applet.

40. What is a firewall?



prior notice.

Name: ………………………………………. Date:……………

Karunya University



Branch: NANOTECHNOLOGY



PART – A (30 x 1 = 30 MARKS) 1. The most important property of nanomaterial is

a. Force b. Friction

c. Pressure d. Temperature

2. The cut-off limit of human eye to see is –nm

a. 10 b. 100

c. 1000 d. 10000 3. The size of a quantum dot is

a. 5m b. 5 x 10-9

m

c. 5 x 10-10

m d. 5 x 10-11

m 4. The hardest material found in nature is

a. Steel b. Topaz

c. Diamond d. Quartz

5. The size of red and white blood cell is

a. 2-5µm b. 5-7µm

c. 7-10µm d. 10-15µm

6. The size of E-coli bacteria is

a. 75000nm b. 2000nm

c. 200nm d. 5nm

7. Which one of these statements is not true?

a. Gold at the nanoscale is red

b. Copper at the nanoscale is transparent

c. Silicon at the nanoscale is an insulator

d. Aluminum at the nanoscale is highly combustible

8. Plasmonics is a. A field of nanophotonics that holds the promise of molecules-size optical

device technology b. The science of fluorescent nanoparticles used in modern fireworks

c. A hypothetical science used in science fiction weaponry d. The technology used to design and build the laser guided photonic gyroscopes used in

aviation

[P.T.O]

9. Nanosense coden takes part is

a. Terminating message of gene controlled protein synthesis

b. Formation of unspecified amino acids

c. Conversion of sense DNA into non-sense one

d. Releasing tRNA from polypeptide chairs

10. Introduction of foreign genes from improving genotype is

a. Tissue culture b. Immunisation

c. Biotechnology d. Genetic engineering

11. In DNA, adenine pairs with

a. Guanine b. Thyamine

c. Cytosine d. Uracil

12. In tissue/bacterial culture glass-ware and nutrients are sterilized through

a. Water bath at 2000C b. Dry air oven at 200

0C

c. Dehumidifire d. Autoclave 13. A technique of using very small metal particles coated with desired gene in the gene transfer

is called a. Electroporation b. Microinjection

c. Liposome d. Biolistics

14. The raising of plants from a small tissue in culture is known as

a. Macroproduction b. Micropropagation

c. Tissue culture d. Mass production

15. A nucleotide is formed of

a. Purine, Pyrimidine and phosphate

b. Purine, Sugar and Phosphate

c. Nitrogen base, Sugar and Phosphate

d. Pyrimidine, Sugar and Phosphate

16. Gene is a segment of

a. RNA b. DNA

c. RNA or DNA d. Both DNA and RNA

17. Genetically engineered bacteria are being used in commercial production of

a. Melatonin b. Testoteron

c. Human insulin d. Thyroxine

18. Pomato is somatic

a. Poppy and Potato b. Potato and Tomoto

c. Poppy and Tamarind d. Poppy and Tomato

19. Similarity between DNA and RNA is that both have

a. Similar sugars b. Similar mode of replication

c. Similar Pyrimidines d. Polymers of mecleotides

[P.T.O]

20. One type of chip already being implanted in human beings as means ofJ verifying a person’s identity is called as

a. RFID chip b. Implant chip

c. Verichip d. Dog Tag

21. Technology no longer protected by copyright to every one is considered to

a. Experimental b. Open

c. In the public domain d. Proprietary

22. Which technique does the pharmaceutical industry routinely use to screen for polymorphs of a

compound

a. Powder XRD b. Mass spectrometry

c. Solution NMR spectroscopy d. Solution electronic absorption spectroscopy

23. Which of the molecules in non polar?

a. H2S b. BCl3

c. OF2 d. SO2 24. Which statement is incorrect about crossing the period from Li to F?

a. Electronegativity of the element increase from Li to F

b. Energy of the 2P orbital increase

c. the s-p separation increases

d. the effective nuclear charge increases

25. Which statements is incorrect about a cubic close-packed lattice

a. All atoms have a co-rodination number of 12

b. the lattice contains both tetrahedral and octalodral holes

c. layers of close packed atoms are stacked in an ABABAB…. Pattern

d. the packing is more efficient than is a body centered cubic lattice

26. Which statement is true?

a. The electrical conductivity of a metal increase with temperature

` b. The electrical conductivity of a semiconductor increases with temperature

c. The resistivity of a semiconductor increase with temperature

d. Metals and semiconductors have similar electrical conducting properties

27. Graphene is a

a. Wide band-gap semiconductor

b. gapless – band semiconductor

c. Not a semiconductor but behaves like graphite

d. a narrow bandgap semiconductor

28. In what form in iron stored in the body?

a. As transferin b. As ferritin

c. As haemoglobin d. As a siderophore

29. Thioneins are rich in which of the following amino acid residues

a. Cysteine b. Histidine

c. Glycine d. Threonine

[P.T.O]

30. Which statement about a catalyst is incorrect?

a. The presence of a catalyst speeds up the rate of forward reaction

b. the presence of a catalyst changes the rate of a reaction

c. In some reactions, one of the products acts as a catalyst for the forward reaction

d. During use, catalyst may be poisoned.

PART – B (10 x 2 = 20 MARKS)

31. What is atomic engineering?

32. Which two types of fundamental carbon molecules find wide application in nanotechnology?

33. Why do carbon nanotubes have very high tensile strength?

34. How can the melting point of materials be tuned using nanotechnology?

35. What is the use of nanocrystals?

36. What is grey goo?

37. Define class 10 clean room.

38. What is quantum confinement?

39. Mention four types of nanostructures based on dimensions with example.

40. What are top down and bottom up techniques?



prior notice.

Name: ………………………………………. Date:……………

Karunya University



Branch: PHYSICS



PART – A (30 x 1 = 30 MARKS) 1. “There is plenty of room at the bottom” was the title of the lecture delivered at American

Physical Society meeting at Caltech on December 29, 1959 by the famous scientist a. Albert Einstein b. Albert Hibbs

c. Richard Feynman d. Robert A.Heinlein

2. A black hole is a

a. hole in the ozone layer of atmosphere

b. hole in earths centre

c. highly dense matter available in the atmosphere

d. hole in troposphere

3. In a nuclear reaction, there is conservation of

a. mass only b. energy only c. momentum only d. mass, energy and momentum

4. With increasing quantum number, the energy difference between adjacent levels in atoms

a. decreases b. increases

c. remains constant d. decreases for low z and increases for high z

5. The input signal given to a common emitter amplifier having a voltage gain of 150

is Vi = 2 cos (15t +10°). The corresponding output signal is

a. Vo = 300 cos (15t +190°) b. Vo = 300 cos (15t +90°)

c. Vo = 75 cos (15t +10°) d. Vo = 2 cos (15t +190°) 6. The bond between molecules of ice is

a. covalent bond b. metallic bond

c. ionic bond d. hydrogen bond

7. The slope of the straight line obtained in the graph drawn between maximum photoelectron kinetic energy and photon frequency is equal to a. Photon frequency b. Kinetic energy of photon

c. Planck’s constant c. Stopping potential

8. Recrysatllization temperature for alloys is approximately equal to(Tm- melting point)

a. 0.2Tm b. 0.3Tm

c. 0.5Tm d. 0.8Tm [P.T.O]

9. Which of the following material is viscoelastic in nature? a. rubber b. graphite

c. glass d. cast iron 10. For the equation

a. sin3x

c. -9sin3x

d

2 (sin3x) = -9 sin3x, the eigen function is

dx2

b. d 2

dx2

d. d

2 (sin3x)

dx2

11. A proton traveling with a speed Vp and an particle traveling with a speed V have the same

kinetic energy, then their speeds can be related as a. Vp = V b. 2Vp = V

c. Vp = 3V d. Vp = 2V

In the L-S coupling scheme, J=L+S, L is always an integer including zero and S is a. an integer for even number of electrons and odd multiple of ½ for an odd number of

electrons b. an integer for all electrons

c. an integer for odd number of electrons and odd multiple of ½ for an even number of

electrons

d. zero

13. Sodium atom exhibits more pronounced chemical activity than sodium ions because

a. sodium ions have closed shells while sodium atoms each have a outer single electron

b. sodium atoms are neutral in nature

c. sodium atoms are alkaline

d. sodium ions are charged

14. According to BCS theory of superconductivity, superconductivity is due to

a. electron – proton interaction through phonon

b. electron – electron interaction through phonon

c. electron – phonon interaction through phonon

d. electron – phonon interaction through electron

15. Josephson’s effect is used in

a. SQUID b. cryotron

c. Auger spectroscopy d. SIMS

16. Metallic glasses are

a. a type of glass

b. silica based materials

c. metal alloys with amorphous structure

d. glass doped with metal atoms

17. The active medium in a semiconductor laser is

a. p-material b. n-material

c. p-n junction d. both p and n materials

[P.T.O]

18. The zero point energy of harmonic oscillator is

a. zero b. maximum

c. ħω/2 d. one

19. The transmission of signals having a frequency greater than giga hertz frequency is almost impossible through an ordinary solid metal conductor because of a. induced emf b. magnetoresistance

c. Skin effect d. Stark effect

20. For the statistics of electrons in the conduction band of a semiconductor, the generally used statistics is

a. Fermi-Dirac statistics b. Maxwell statistics

c. Fermi statistics d. Boltzmann statistics

21. The effect which is used in thermocouples for the measurement of temperature is

a. Peltier effect b. Seebeck effect

c. Thomson’s effect d. Skin effect

22. The process by which light is emitted from a material when it is bombarded with

electrons is known as

a. cathodoluminescence b. photoluminescence

c. electroluminescence d. mechanoluminescence

23. The principle used in strain gauge is

a. piezoelectric effect b. inverse piezoelectric effect

c. piezoresistive effect d. pyroelectric effect

24. The maximum frequency limit of the continuous x-ray spectrum depends on

a. nature of target material b. kinetic energy of incident electron

c. intensity of electrons d. atomic weight of target material

25. The DeBroglie wavelength of the electron in the first orbit of hydrogen atom is

a. equal to diameter of first orbit

b. equal to circumference of first orbit

c. independent of the size of orbit

d. equal to half the circumference of first orbit

26. A micro canonical ensemble represents

a. a system in contact with a heat reservoir

b. an isolated system in equilibrium

c. a system that can exchange particles with its surroundings

d. a system under constant external pressure.

27. Iodine 131, radio isotope of iodine has a half life of 8 days. If a hospital orders 20mg of this radio isotope and stores it for 48 days, the amount of isotope left after 48 days is a. 0.317 mg b. 2.5mg

c. 5 mg d. 1 mg

28. Which one of the following is not a reversible process?

a. isothermal expansion of gas b. adiabatic expansion of gas

c. melting of ice d. conduction of heat

[P.T.O]

29. Current in a circuit is wattles, if

a. current is alternating b. resistance in the circuit is zero

c. inductance in the circuit is zero d. resistance and inductance both are zero

30. A machine performs 8J of work in 2 seconds. How much power is delivered by this machine?

a. 4 Watts b. 4 Joules

c. 16 Watts d. 8 Joules

PART – B (10 x 2 = 20 MARKS)

31. Why is two energy level laser system not possible? 32. What is binding energy of a nucleus?

33. What is the use of choke coil in a circuit?

34. State first law of thermodynamics.

35. What is quantum dot?

36. What are complementary colours? 37. In beta decay it appeared that momentum was not conserved. How did Fermi’s theory of

radioactive decay resolve this? 38. What are Bravais lattices?

39. What are ferri magnetic materials?

40. What is dielectric loss?



prior notice.

Name: ………………………………………. Date:……………

Karunya University



Branch: WATER RESOURCES



PART – A (30 x 1 = 30 MARKS) 1. National Water Policy, announced by the National Water Resource Committee (NWRC) in

India, gives the top priority to: a. Hydro power b. Drinking Water

c. Irrigation water d. none of the above

2. An Isohyet is a line joining points of

a. Equal rainfall depth b. Equal humidity

c. Equal temperature d. Equal atmospheric pressure

3. The average annual rainfall of three stations A, B, C are 160, 180, 200 cm respectively. In 2003, the station B becomes inoperative, and stations A and C recorded annual rainfall of 170 and 180 cm respectively. The annual rainfall of station B for the year 2003 would then be estimated as: a. 175 cm b. 176 cm

c. 178.6 cm d. 180 cm

4. Hydrograph obtained as the difference between total runoff hydrograph and base flow separation line is called as a. Unit hydrograph b. Synthetic hydrograph

c. Direct runoff hydrograph d. S-curve hydrograph

5. Orographic precipitation occurs in

a. Coastal areas b. Mountainous areas

c. Plain areas d. Deserts

6. If 4.75 litre of water is removed from an evaporation pan of diameter 1.22 m and the simultaneous rainfall measurement is 8.8 mm on that day, then the actual evaporation from pan is: a. 8.64 mm/day b. 7.24 mm/day

c. 5.34 mm/day d. 4.74 mm/day

7. As per the recommendations of the ISI, the shape of a lined canal has to be

a. Circular b. Trapezoidal

c. Rectangular d. Parabolic

8. Current meter is used to measure the

a. Velocity at a point b. Average velocity

c. Surface velocity d. none of these

[P.T.O]

9. The discharge in an open channel corresponding to critical depth is

a. Zero b. Average

d. Minimum d. Maximum

10. Darcy’s law is valid only for

a. Laminar flow b. Turbulent flow

b. Uniform flow d. Steady flow

11. A geological formation which has good porosity but very less permeability is

a. Aquifer b. Aquifuge

c. Aquitard d. Aquiclude

12. Specific yield (Sy) of a soil is given by b. (W/V) x 100 b. (V/W) x 100 c. (V+1) x 100/ W d. (W+1) x 100/V

Where W is volume of water drained and V is bulk volume of soil or rock

13. Water surface in a well located in an unconfined aquifer is termed as

a. Water table b. Piezometric surface

c. Line of influence d. ineament

14. The discharge per unit of drawdown, of a well is called its

a. Specific yield b. Efficiency

c. Well loss d. Yield

15. For a flood control reservoir, the effective storage is equal to

a. Useful storage + Valley storage

b. Useful storage + surcharge storage – valley storage

c. Useful storage + surcharge storage + valley storage

d. Useful storage – valley storage

16. A canal aligned along the natural watershed is known as

a. Contour canal b. Ridge canal

c. Side slope canal d. None of the above

17. Commonly used chemical to suppress evaporation in a reservoir is

a. Hexadecanol b. Methyl alcohol

c. Hexa-methylene d. Butane

18. “Economical height of the dam” is that height, for which the:

a. Cost per unit storage is minimum

b. Benefit cost ratio is maximum

c. Net benefits are maximum


19. Linear Programming can be used for solving

a. Maximization problem b. minimization problem

c. Both of the above d. None of the above

[P.T.O]

20. The standard project flood is

a. The same as the probable maximum flood

b. The same as the design flood

c. Smaller than the probable maximum flood

d. Larger than the probable maximum flood by factor of safety

21. The peak discharges in 4 hr and 8 hr unit hydrographs of a basin occurs at t1 and t2 then

a. t1 = t2 b. t1 > t2

c. t1 < t2 d. difficult to answer

22. In the channel routing by the muskingum method, the value of the routing coefficients C0 and C1 are estimated as –0.2 and 0.5 respectively. The value of the third coefficient c2 would be: a. 0.2 b. – 0.5

c. 0.3 d. 0.7

23. DPAP refers to

a. District Permanently Available Plan

b. Drought Permanently Availing Plan

c. Drought Prone Areas Programme

d. Drought Prone Areas Plan

24. The test used to measure dissolved oxygen content in water is

a. BOD b. COD

c. a and b d. None of the above

25. The TDS limit under moderate range for the irrigation water as per FAO irrigation standard is

a. 250 – 500 ppm b. 1500 – 2500 ppm

c. 500 – 1500 ppm d. Less than 250 ppm

26. Continuity equation is based on law of conservation of

a. Mass b. Energy

c. Momentum d. Newton

27. The Reynolds number for a 25 mm diameter sphere moving with velocity of 3 m/s through an

oil of specific gravity 0.90 and μ = 0.1 Pa.s is a. 675 b. 6622

c. 66220 d. 0.675

28. Flow of water in a river is governed by

a. Reynold’s law b. Froude’s law

c. Euler’s law d. Weber law

29. The water hammer in the penstocks of a turbine are reduced by providing

a. Surge tank b. Trash rack

c. Forebay d. Outlet structure

30. Prandtl’s mixing length is

a. zero at pipe wall b. Maximum at pipe wall

c. Independent of shear stress c. none of the above

[P.T.O]

PART – B (10 x 2 = 20 MARKS)

31. State the objectives of Indian National Water Policy.

32. What do you understand by watershed leakage? Under what circumstances will it occur?

33. Define Instantaneous Unit Hydrograph. 34. What are meant by Dupuit – Forcheimer assumptions? State its uses in groundwater hydrology. 35. What do you mean by “Pseudo – Steady State” in pumping test analysis?

36. Define firm and secondary yield of reservoir.

37. What is meant by NDVI? And state its use in drought analysis.

38. What is the aim of master plan in water resources development?

39. Distinguish between Simulation and Optimization.

40. When is the flow regarded as unsteady? Give an example for unsteady flow.



prior notice.

Answer ALL questions PART A (50 x 1 = 50 MARKS)web.karunya.edu/exam/Model QP.pdf · 2013-10-10 · 24. Rani is fifth from the left and Peter is twelth from the right end in a row.

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