1. The cells that fight disease is known as: a. Nerve cell b.
Epithelial cell c. Fibroblast d. MacrophagesA phagocytic cell or
macrophages are cells that crawl through tissue to reach infection
sites. Epithelial cells are the ones that cover and lines body
organs. Fibroblast connects body parts while nerve cells or neurons
are for gathering information and controlling body function.2. A
patient is complaining of pain in the region at the right side of
the hypogastric region. This area of the abdomen is also known as:
a. Right Hypochondriac region b. Right iliac region c. Right lumbar
region d. Umbilical regionRight iliac region is located at the
right side of the hypogastric region. Right hypochondriac lies
beside the epigastric region while the right lumbar lies beside the
umbilical area.3. The substance present in the largest amount in a
solution is which of the following? a. Solutes b. Solvent c.
Solution d. Interstitial fluida. Solutes tiny components present in
small amounts. b. Solvent the substance present in the largest
amount. c. Solution - A homogeneous mixture of two or more
components d. Interstitial fluid the fluid that continuously bathes
the exterior of the cells.4. A clinical instructor is discussing
about the body planes and sections. When a section is made along a
horizontal plane the body is divided into: a. Anterior and
posterior parts b. Right and left parts c. Midsagittal and median
section d. Superior and inferior partsWhen a section is made along
a horizontal plane (transverse section) the body is divided into
superior and inferior parts. If a sagittal section is done
(lengthwise/longitudinal plane) the body is divided into right and
left parts. A frontal section is a cut made along a lengthwise
plane dividing the body into anterior and posterior parts.5. A
frontal section divides the body into: a. Anterior and posterior
parts b. Right and left parts c. Midsagittal and median section d.
Superior and inferior partsA frontal section is a cut made along a
lengthwise plane dividing the body into anterior and posterior
parts.6. The process by which molecules are moving from an area of
higher concentration to an area of lower concentration to become
evenly distributed is called: a. Filtration b. Diffusion c. Passive
transport process d. Active transport processDiffusion is the
process by which molecules are moving from an area of higher
concentration to an area of lower concentration to become evenly
distributed. Filtration is the process by which water and solutes
are forced through a membrane or capillary wall by fluid or
hydrostatic pressure. Passive transport processes substances are
transported across the membrane without energy input from the cell.
In active transport processes, the cell provides the metabolic
energy ATP that drives the transport process.7. Knowledge on body
landmarks is essential to learn about anatomy and physiology. The
posterior surface of the lower leg is known as: a. Sural b.
Olecranal c. Crural d. Fibulara. Sural - the posterior surface of
the lower leg b. Olecranal posterior surface of the elbow c. Crucal
anterior leg area/region d. Fibular lateral part of the leg8. The
genetic material , deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is contained in: a.
Nucleus b. Nucleoli c. Chromatin d. ChromosomeThe gene-containing
nucleus acts as the control center for cells. It is the specific
part of the cell where the DNA is found. Nucleoli, chromatin and
chromosome are all found inside the nucleus.9. While on duty, the
student nurse notices that the clients crural area has lesions and
abrasions. Crural area is also known as the: a. Posterior surface
of the lower leg b. Posterior surface of the elbow c. Anterior leg
area d. Lateral part of the lega. Posterior surface of the lower
leg - sural b. Posterior surface of the elbow - olecranal c.
Anterior leg area - crural d. Lateral part of the leg fibular10. A
correct anatomical position is best exemplified by which of the
following? a. Standing up with palms held unnaturally forward with
thumbs pointing towards the body. b. Standing up with palms held
backward with thumbs pointing towards the body. c. Standing up with
palms held unnaturally forward with thumbs pointing away from the
body. d. Standing up with palms held unnaturally forward with
thumbs pointing towards the body.A correct anatomical position is
similar to a standing at attention but is less comfortable because
the palms held unnaturally forward with thumbs pointing away from
the body.11. The knee in relation to the thigh is termed as: a.
Distal b. Proximal c. Ventral d. DorsalThe knee is distal (farther
from the origin of a body part or the point of attachment of a limb
to the body trunk) to the thigh. Proximal means closer to the
origin of a body part or the point of attachment of a limb to the
body trunk. Ventral means anterior or toward or at the front of a
body. Dorsal means posterior or toward or at the backside of the
body.12. If the located area is at pointing away from the midline
of the body it is termed as: a. Caudal b. Distal c. Proximal d.
Laterala. Caudal inferior; away from the head end or toward the
lower part of a structure or the body. b. Distal - farther from the
origin of a body part or the point of attachment of a limb to the
body trunk c. Proximal closer to the origin of a body part or the
point of attachment of a limb to the body trunk. d. Lateral -
pointing away from the midline of the body13. An adolescent has
been participating in a competitive sport game. Accidentally, he
fell off and complains of pain in his coxal area. The adolescent
has pain on: a. Posterior knee area b. Hip area c. Thigh area d.
Point of shouldera. Posterior knee area popliteal b. Hip area coxal
c. Thigh area femoral d. Point of shoulder acromial14. The cellular
material outside the nucleus but is located inside the cell
membrane is called: a. Nucleoli b. Chromatin c. Cytoplasm d. Plasma
membraneCytoplasm is the cellular material outside the nucleus but
inside the plasma membrane. a. Nucleoli - dark-staining, round
bodies in the nucleus. b. Chromatin loose network of bumpy threads
that is scattered throughout the nucleus. c. Cytoplasm d. Plasma
membrane - (or cell membrane) contains all cell contents and
separates them from the surrounding environment.15. The dorsal
cavity of the body has two subdivisions. Select all dorsal body
cavity. A. Thoracic B. Cranial C. Spinal D. Adbominopelvic a. A and
B b. B and C c. C and D d. B and DDorsal (posterior) body cavities
are well protected by bones and consist of the cranial and spinal
cavities. Ventral cavities are less protected and consist of
thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities.16. To maintain homeostasis
the body function interacts. The homeostatic control mechanism that
responds to environmental changes is called: a. Effector b.
Receptor c. Control center d. Stimulia. Effector produces the
response b. Receptor responds to environmental change c. Control
center assesses the changes present d. Stimuli the change itself17.
When the body is divided into right and left parts the cut is a: a.
Frontal section b. Sagittal section c. Coronal section d. Cross
sectiona. Frontal section divides the body into anterior and
posterior parts b. Sagittal section divides the body into right and
left parts c. Coronal section other term for frontal section d.
Cross section divides the body into superior and inferior parts18.
Which membrane junction is responsible for preventing the skin
cells from pulling apart during a mechanical stress such as someone
pulling a persons extremity? a. Gap junctions b. Desosomes c. Tight
junctions d. Microvillia. Gap junctions commonly seen in the heart
and embryonic cells that functions mainly to allow communication.
b. Desosomes anchoring junctions that prevent the skin cells from
pulling apart during a mechanical stress c. Tight junctions
impermeable junctions that bind cells together into leakproof
sheets that prevent substances from passing through the
extracellular space between cells. d. Microvilli tiny fingerlike
projections that increases the cells surface area for
absorption.19. To sustain life an individual must be able to
function properly. Survival needs include the following apart from:
a. Atmospheric pressure b. Oxygen c. Gravity d. None of
theseSurvival needs include water, food, oxygen, appropriate
temperature, atmospheric pressure. Because of the word apart from
the correct answer is letter D. (Source: Essentials of Anatomy and
Physiology by Marieb 8th Ed. P 9)20. The abdominal region located
at the left side of the umbilical area is called: a. Left
Hypochondriac region b. Left iliac region c. Left lumbar region d.
Epigastric areaLeft lumbar lies beside the umbilical area. Left
hypochondriac lies beside the epigastric region. Left iliac region
is located at the left side of the hypogastric region.21. Most
school age children are having cuts or wounds at the anterior knee
region because of the tendency to fall during extreme activity
involvement. The anterior knee region is also known as: a.
Popliteal b. Patellar c. Antecubital d. Tarsala. Popliteal
posterior knee area b. Patellar anterior knee c. Antecubital
anterior surface of the elbow d. Tarsal ankle region22. The
fragile, transparent barrier that contains the cell contents is
called: a. Nuclear membrane b. Cytoplasm c. Nucleoli d. Plasma
membranePlasma membrane (or cell membrane) contains all cell
contents and separates them from the surrounding environment. a.
Nuclear membrane a double membrane barrier that binds the nucleus
b. Cytoplasm the cellular material outside the nucleus but inside
the plasma membrane. c. Nucleoli dark-staining, round bodies in the
nucleus.23. The process by which water and solutes are forced
through a membrane or capillary wall by fluid or hydrostatic
pressure is called: a. Filtration b. Diffusion c. Passive transport
process d. Active transport processFiltration is the process by
which water and solutes are forced through a membrane or capillary
wall by fluid or hydrostatic pressure. Diffusion is the process by
which molecules are moving from an area of higher concentration to
an area of lower concentration to become evenly distributed.
Passive transport processes substances are transported across the
membrane without energy input from the cell. In active transport
processes, the cell provides the metabolic energy ATP that drives
the transport process.24. A homogeneous mixture of two or more
components is known as: a. Solutes b. Solvent c. Solution d.
Interstitial fluida. Solutes tiny components present in small
amounts. b. Solvent the substance present in the largest amount. c.
Solution - A homogeneous mixture of two or more components d.
Interstitial fluid the fluid that continuously bathes the exterior
of the cells.25. The plasma membrane in the body allows some
substances to pass through it while excluding others. This type of
barrier is termed as: a. Passive transport process b. Selective
permeability c. Filtration d. Active transport processesThe plasma
membrane is a selective permeable barrier. Passive transport
processes substances are transported across the membrane without
energy input from the cell. In active transport processes, the cell
provides the metabolic energy ATP that drives the transport
process. Filtration is the process by which water and solutes are
forced through a membrane or capillary wall by fluid or hydrostatic
pressure.FORM-A2. All meninges surrounding the spinal cord are
structurally the same as the meninges surrounding the brain
EXCEPTA. the pia mater.B. the dura mater.C. the arachnoid mater8.
Which part of the brain contains the nuclei for the accessory,
glossopharyngeal, vagus, hypoglossal, and vestibulocochlear
nerves?A. ThalamusB. Medulla C. PonsD. Midbrain
9. If your doctor taps your patellar tendon, trying to elicit
the patellar reflex, why might the reflex NOT work?A. The stimulus
may not have been strong enough to trigger an action potential in
the sensory neuron.B. The synapse between the sensory neuron and
the interneuron is not working.C. You have a defect in your
cervical spinal cord.D. The axons crossing in the gray commissure
are broken.12. Cerebrospinal fluid is found in theA. subdural
space.B. epidural space.C. subarachnoid space.D. pia mater.
13. Spinal nerves L3-L5 and S1-S5 form theA. conus medullaris.B.
filum terminale.C. cauda equina.D. lower part of the vertebral
column.20. What structure is important for keeping unwanted
hydrophilic materials from entering the brain but allowing
necessary nutrients into the brain?A. The spinal cord.B. The
blood-brain barrier.C. The circumventricular organs.D. The
arachnoid villi.The endocrine system: a. Releases chemicals into
the bloodstream for distribution throughout the body b. Releases
hormones that can alter the metabolic activities of many different
tissues and organs c. Produces effects that can last for hours,
days, or even longer d. Can alter the gene activity of cells e. All
of the above Which of the following is a function of
glucocorticoids? a. Increased inflammatory response b. Increased
blood [glucose] c. Decreased lipolysis d. Increased creatinine
hydrolysis by osteocytes e. Increased osteoclast activity A tumor
in the adrenal zona glomerulosa may cause hypersecretion of the
hormones in that region. Which of the following might you expect to
find in a patient with such a tumor? a. Increased blood sodium
levels b. Increased blood glucose levels c. Decreased blood calcium
levels d. Increased dehydration 35. The thickest layer of the wall
of veins is the:a. Tunica media b. Tunica externa c. Subendothelial
connective tissue d. Tunica interna 36. The site of production of
cholecystokinin and secretin is the: a. Stomach b. Pancreas c.
Small Intestine d. Large Intestine 37. High doses of antibiotics
can destroy the bacterial flora of the large intestine. This can
result in impaired: a. Absorption of protein b. Blood coagulation
c. Bone resorption d. Respiratory control 38. The term that refers
to the percentage of packed erythrocytes per unit volume of blood
is the:a. Differential Count b. Hemoglobin c. Hematocrit d.
Hemopoiesis 39. Plasma is:a. Blood that has no red blood cells b.
The liquid portion of blood including the clotting factors c. The
liquid portion of blood minus the clotting factors d. The proteins
of blood 40. Excessive destruction of erythrocytes is
characteristic of:a. Thalassemia b. Aplastic anemia c. Pernicious
anemia d. Hemolytic anemia 41. Which of the following activates
platelets during hemostasis? a. Eosinophil degranulation b. Exposed
collagen or endothelial basement membrane c. Fibrin thread
formation d. Thromboplastin 42 The space in the middle of the
thoracic cavity where the heart resides is the:a. Pericardial
cavity b. Pericardium c. Pleural Cavity d. Mediastinum 43. If
communication between the SA node and the AV node became blocked,
which will most likely occur?a. The rate of ventricular contraction
will decrease b. Afterload will increase c. The rate of atrial
contraction will decrease d. Stroke volume will increase to 5L/beat
44. A valve damaged by rheumatic fever fails to open completely.
This is known as:a. Stenosis b. Heart Block c. Ischemia d. MI 45.
The left ventricular wall is thicker than the right ventricular
wall in order to: a. Accommodate a greater volume of blood b.
Expand the thoracic cage during diastole c. Pump a greater volume
of blood d. Pump blood with greater pressure 46. Podocytes make up
the: a. Visceral layer of the nephron b. Visceral layer of the
glomerulus c. Visceral layer of the renal capsule d. Visceral layer
of the Bowman's Capsule 47. Which of the following is NOT a
function of atrial natriuretic peptide? a. It acts to decrease
aldosterone release from the adrenal cortex b. It acts to increase
urine output c. It acts to increase blood pressure d. It acts to
decrease ADH release 48. Which of the following landmarks is the
corect one for obtaining an apical pulse?a. Left intercostal space,
midaxillary lineb. Left fifth intercostal space, midclavicular
linec. Left second intercostal space, midclavicular lined. Left
seventh intercostal space, midclavicular line
The correct landmark for obtaining an apical pulse is the left
intercostal space in the midclavicular line. This is the point of
maximum impulse and the location of the left ventricular apex. The
left second intercostal space in the midclavicular line is where
the pulmonic sounds are auscultated. Normally, heart sounds aren't
heard in the midaxillary line or the seventh intercostal space in
the midclavicular line.
49. Which of the following could cause excessive urine output?
a. Hyperaldosteronism b. Hypersecretion of ADH c. Hyperventilation
d. Severe hypoinsulinemia (as associated with Type I Diabetes
Mellitus) 50. Which of the following is INCORRECT? a. Aldosterone
stimulates the reabsorption of Na+ b. Aldosterone stimulates the
secretion of K+ c. Aldosterone affects water reabsorption d.
Aldosterone is made in the hypothalamus and released from the
anterior pituitary 1. This gland secretes hormones that regulate a
wide range of bodily activities from growth to reproductiona.
Anterior pituitary glandb. Posterior pituitary glandc.
Neurohypophysisd. Thyroid gland
Answer: A- The anterior pituitary gland accounts for about 75%
of the total weight of the pituitary gland. The release of the
anterior pituitary hormones is stimulated by releasing hormones and
suppressed by the inhibiting hormones from the hypothalamus.
2. This anterior pituitary cell secretes human growth hormone or
somatotropin?a. b. Thyrotrophs c. Somatotrophsd. Corticotrophse.
Gonadotrophs
Answer: B- Somatotrophs secrete human growth hormone (hcg) or
somatotrophin. Human growth hormone in turn stimulates several
tissues to secrete insulin-like growth factors hormones that
stimulate general body growth and regulate aspects of
metabolism.
3. This anterior pituitary cell secretes follicle-stimulating
hormone and luteinizing hormone?a. b. Thyrotrophs c. Somatotrophsd.
Corticotrophse. Gonadotrophs
Answer: D- FSH and LSH both act on the gonads. They stimulate
secretion of estrogen and progesterone and the maturation of
oocytes in the ovaries and they stimulate secretion of testosterone
and sperm production in the testes.
4. This hormone of the anterior pituitary gland controls the
production and secretion of cortisol and other glucocorticoids by
the cortex of the adrenal glands?a. b. Corticotrophin-releasing
hormonec. Adrenocorticotropic hormoned. Melanocyte-stimulating
hormonee. Thyroid-stimulating hormone
Answer: B- The other term for adrenocorticotropic hormone is
corticotrophin.
5. The different neurosecretory cells of the posterior pituitary
gland produces the following hormones. Which one is not included?a.
b. Oxytocinc. Vasopressind. Luteinizing hormonee. Antidiuretic
hormone
Answer: C- This is a hormone released by the anterior pituitary
gland by gonadotrophs.
6. What is the substance that decreases the urine production?a.
b. Oxytocinc. Antidiuretic hormoned. Luteinizing hormonee. Thyroid
hormone Answer: B- Antidiuretic hormone decreases the urine
production. ADH causes the kidneys to return more water to the
blood, thus decreasing urine volume. In the absence of ADH, urine
output increases more than tenfold. ADH also decreases the water
lost through sweating and causes constriction of arterioles.
7. The exact location of the thyroid gland in ones body is?a. b.
Just inferior to the larynxc. Just posterior to the larynxd. Just
inferior to the kidneyse. Just posterior to the kidneys
Answer: A- The butterfly-shaped thyroid gland is located just
inferior to the larynx. It is composed of right and left lateral
lobes, one on either side of the trachea, that are connected by an
isthmus anterior to the trachea. The normal mass of the thyroid is
30g.
8. The hormone that regulates oxygen use and basal metabolic
rate, cellular metabolism and growth and development is?a. b.
Parathyroid hormonesc. Thyroid hormonesd. Oxytocine. Antidiuretic
hormone
Answer: B- Thyroid hormones increase basal metabolic rate, the
rate of oxygen at rest after an overnight fast, by stimulating the
use of cellular oxygen to produce ATP. A second major effect of
thyroid hormones is to stimulate synthesis of additional sodium
potassium pumps, which then use more ATP. As cells produce and use
more ATP, more heat is given off, and body temperature rises.
9. It is the major mineralocorticoid and it regulates
homeostasis of sodium and potassium ions.a. b. Reninc. Angiotensin
d. Aldosteronee. Cortisol
Answer: C- It also promotes the excretion of hydrogen in the
urine, this removal of acid in the body helps prevent acidosis.
10. The inner region of the adrenal gland and is a modified
sympathetic ganglion of the autonomic nervous system is the?a. b.
Adrenal medullac. Adrenal cortexd. Androgene. Pancreatic islet
Answer: A- This develops from the same embryonic tissue as all
other sympathetic ganglia, but its cells lack axons and forms
clusters around large blood vessels. Rather than releasing a
neurotransmitter, the cells of the adrenal medulla secrete
hormones.
11. The respiratory system consists of the following:a. nose,
pharynx, trachea, larynx, bronchi, lungs b. nose, larynx, pharynx,
trachea, bronchi, lungsc. nose, trachea, bronchi, pharynx, larynx,
lungsd. nose, throat, voice box, windpipe, bronchi, lungs
Answer: D The respiratory system consists of the (upper
respiratory system): nose, pharynx (throat); (lower respiratory
system): larynx (voice box), trachea (windpipe), bronchi and lungs.
They act with the cardiovascular system to supply oxygen and remove
carbon dioxide from the blood.12. Which type of alveoli is
responsible for maintaining a desirable surface tension, preventing
lung collapse?a. Type 1, Simple Alveolib. Type 2,
Surfactant-secreting Alveolic. Type 3, Alveloar Macrophaged. None
of the above
Answer: B surfactant is a chemical secreted by the type 2
alveoli, and is needed to prevent the breakage of the surface of
the alveoli upon its expansionA-responsible for gas
exchangeC-responsible for engulfing microbes and foreign
materials
13. What specialized cell is responsible for production of mucus
in the lower respiratory system?a. Cuboidal cells lining the mucus
membraneb. Goblet cells lining the trachea and bronchusc. Squamous
cell lining the serous membraned. Mesothelium lining the visceral
and parietal pleura
Answer: B these cells are columnar in shape and their specific
function is to produce mucus primarily to trap foreign materialsA
produces mucus in the upper airways particularly in the sinusesC
serves as a barrierD for production of fluid in the pleural
space
14. A patient accidentally aspirated a foreign body. Into which
bronchus/bronchi would it more likely lodge?a. b. Left primaryc.
Right primaryb. Bothc. Neither
Answer: B It is shorter than the left primary bronchi and is
more vertical and is therefore the most common site for
aspiration.15. What are the macroscopic hair like structures
located at the nostril area which function to trap foreign
materials as air passes through the nose?a. b. Vibrissaec. Ciliab.
Villic. Parietal cells
Answer: A correct by description anatomicallyB microscopic
located at the nasal turbinate and lining of the lower airwaysC can
be located at the small intestinesD can be located at the
stomach
16. What structure has a protective function of closing the
airway during swallowing, thus preventing food and fluids from
going into the lungs?a. b. Esophagusc. Epiglottisd. Glottise. Voice
box
Answer: B correct be definition. A passageway of food from mouth
to stomachC helps in voice productionD main organ for production of
sounds and facilitates movement of air between the lower and upper
airway
17. One difference between the right and left lung is that the
right lung is composed of ____ lobe/lobes.a. b. 3 c. 2 d. 4 e.
1
Answer: A correct by anatomical decriptionB the left lung is
compsed of 2 lobesC,D incorrect descriptions
18. Which part of the upper respiratory system is highly
vascular and the rupture of blood vessels from the said site
commonly causes epistaxis?a. b. Nostrilc. Tonsilsb. Adenoidsc.
Nasal turbinates
Answer: D Located posteriorly to the nostril, it is a hollow
area which is highly vascularized and is also the site for
filtration, warming and humidification of air.A port of entry of
airB, C site for destruction of foreign materials and microbes
which enter the airway19. Which blood vessel carries oxygenated
blood to the lungs?a. b. Bronchial arteryc. Pulmonary arteryb.
Pulmonary veinc. Pulmonic valve
Answer: A branches out from the aorta, delivers oxygen rich
blood that the lungs need for cell metabolismB Delivers
unoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungsC Delivers oxygenated
blood from the lungs to the heartD prevents the backflow of blood
from the pulmonary artery to the right ventricle.
20. Which component of both lymphatic and respiratory system is
the site for destruction of foreign materials and microbes which
enter the airway?a. a. Adenoids and tonsilsb. Glottis and
epiglottisb. Larynxc. Voice box
Answer: A correct by descriptionB Glottis helps produce sound;
epiglottis closes the airway to prevent aspirationC, D same,
produces sound and helps in the passage of air
21. Which part of the respiratory system is known as the largest
pipe through which air can enter?a. b. Alveolar ductc. Terminal
bronchid. Tracheae. Right primary bronchi
Answer: C correct by descriptionA passageway of air just before
it reaches, and after is exits the alveoliB last macroscopic
structure of the lower resp systemD second largest after the
trachea
22. It is described as the process of exchange of the chemicals
oxygen and carbon dioxide:a. b. Ventilationc. Respirationd.
Inspiratione. Exhalation
Answer: B correct by definitionA movement of air in and out of
the lungsC movement of air into the lungsD movement of air as it
exits the lungs
23. What chemical transport is necessary to allow gas exchange
to occur?a. Diffusionc. Active transportb. Osmosisd. Filtration
Answer: A the movement of solutes from an area of greater to
lower concentration which occur as O2-concentrated alveoli and CO2
concentrated RBC meet at the capillary level.B the movement of
fluid through a semi-permeable membrane from an area of lower to
greater concentration.C the movement of solutes from an area of
greater to lower concentration with the use of energy which occur
in cell metabolismD the movement of fluid and dissolved substances
from an area of higher pressure to an area of lower pressure.
24. A person drowns and stops because of strong current. Fresh
water from the river fills up the lungs and carbon dioxide remains
at the circulation. The persons blood will become:a. b. Alkaloticc.
Acidicd. Neutralizede. None of these
Answer: B if carbon dioxide is retained in the blood, CO2, which
is a component of carbonic acid is increased thereby making the
blood acidic or pH is loweredA if carbon dioxide is on the other
hand is continuously removed, such as if the person is
hyperventilating, CO2 is decreased, lowering levels of carbonic
acid making the blood pH higher or alkalotic. C the blood pH is
neutral if there is a balanced level of carbon dioxide removed and
retained in the blood.25. A baby has low surfactant levels.
Comparing to other babies, the breathing of the baby with low
surfactant levels will be?a. b. More difficultc. Easierd. The
samee. Likely to stop immediately
Answer: A surfactant is a chemical which reduces surface
tension. When surfactant is low in levels, the alveoli does not
expand easily, so the baby will have a difficulty in breathing.B
breathing is easier when there is enough surfactant to reduce the
surface tension.C rationale is explained on option a and bD
breathing will not immediately stop, the lungs will first try to
compensate, but if the condition is not reversed or proper medical
treatment is not done, then breathing may stop.
26. This type of muscle is also called striated muscle:a. b.
Skeletal musclec. Cardiac muscled. Smooth musclee. Involuntary
muscle
Answer: A The skeletal muscle is also known as striated muscle
because of the presence of alternating dark and light bands along
the length of its fibers and voluntary muscle because it is subject
to voluntary control.27. This type of muscle is found in the
digestive and respiratory tracts and other hollow structures, such
as the urinary bladder and blood vesselsa. b. Skeletal musclec.
Smooth muscled. Cardiac musclee. Voluntary muscle
Answer: B The smooth muscle is a type of muscle found in the
digestive and respiratory tracts and other hollow organs. Since the
contraction in smooth muscle is ordinarily not induced at will, it
is called involuntary muscle.28. This type of muscle is
involuntary, possessing the striated appearance of voluntary
musclea. b. Skeletal musclec. Smooth muscled. Cardiac musclee.
Voluntary muscle
Answer: C Cardiac or heart muscle is an involuntary muscle,
possessing the appearance of a voluntary muscle. The striations
result from the same arrangement of thick and thin filaments in the
skeletal muscle.29. The muscle fibers degenerate because of disuse,
as when limbs are placed in casts. This condition is called:a. b.
Myalgiac. Contractured. Atrophye. Hypertrophy
Answer: C In atrophy the muscle fibers degenerate because of
disuse, as when limbs are placed in casts. Muscles can become a
fraction of their normal size; within six months to two years the
fibers are actually replaced by fibrous connective tissue.
30. This condition refers to the increase in size of exercised
muscles:a. b. Myalgiac. Contractured. Atrophye. Hypertrophy
Answer: D Hypertrophy of muscles is a normal event and refers to
the increase in size of exercised muscles due to an increase in
diameters of individual muscle fibers, with an increase in the
number of their myofibrils.31. This term refers to muscular pain:a.
b. Myalgiac. Contractured. Atrophye. Hypertrophy
Answer: A Myalgia refers to muscular pain32. This is a muscle
which serves to rotate the neck and flex the heada. b.
Sternocleidomastoidc. Trapeziusd. Deltoide. Temporalis
Answer: A The sternocleidomastoid has one side that rotates head
to opposite side; both sides flex the head and the neck. The
deltoid muscle is a common site for intramuscular injection which
extends from the clavicle to the deltoid tuberosity of the humerus.
The temporails raises the mandible and closes the jaws. The
trapezius muscles raises and pulls the shoulder backward.33. The
largest and most superficial muscle of the buttock:a. b. Psoas
majorc. Gluteus maximusd. Gluteus minimuse. Quadriceps femoris
Answer: B The gluteus maximus, the largest muscle and most
superficial muscle of the buttock, is an extensor of the hip joint.
The psoas major flexes the thigh or trunk. The gluteus minimus
abducts the thigh. And the quadriceps femoris extends the leg.34.
The following muscles form the abdominal wall. Which one is not
included:a. b. External obliquec. Internal obliqued. Rectus
abdominise. Scaleni
Answer: D Scaleni is a muscle of respiration located in between
the first two ribs. The four flat muscles that from the abdominal
wall are: External oblique, Internal oblique, Rectus abdominis and
Transversus abdominis35. Of the following, which is not true about
muscle contraction:a. Stimulating a muscle before it relaxes will
increase the magnitude of the response.b. Initial length of a
muscle affects the force of contraction.c. The weakest stimulus
that will initiate contraction is called threshold stimulus.d. When
a muscle shortens against a constant load, the contraction is
called istonicAnswer: D When a muscle shortens against a constant
load, the contraction is called isotonic. It is called isometric
when it does not shorten.36. When muscles contract against joints,
movement is accomplished by a system of levers. Which functions as
the lever?a. b. Bonec. Muscled. Jointe. Body parts
Answer: A The bone acts as the lever (a rigid piece) that is
turned about a fulcrum (joint) by a force (contracting muscle or
muscles), therefore moving a load (body parts or added weights)37.
There are three types of cells that exist in a bone, which one is
active in bone formation?a. b. Osteoclastsc. Osteoblastsd.
Osteocytese. Periosteum
Answer: B The osteoblasts are cells originating in the mesoderm
of the embryo that are responsible for bone formation. Osteoclasts
are associated with bone resorption. Osteocytes are the principal
cells of mature bones. The periosteum is the connective tissue
sheath that covers the outer surface of the bone.38. This type of
bone is found wherever there is a need for protection of soft body
parts:a. b. Short bonesc. Sesamoid bonesd. Long bonese. Flat
bones
Answer: D Flat bones are found wherever there is a need for
protection of soft body parts. The ribs, the scapula and the skull
are examples of flat bones.39. These types of bones are generally
considered a separate type, since they are small and rounded:a. b.
Short bonesc. Sesamoid bonesd. Long bonese. Flatbones
Answer: B Sesamoid bones are generally considered a separate
type, since they are small and rounded. A common example is the
patella or the kneecap.40. What is the total number of bones in the
human skeleton?a. b. 302c. 180d. 200e. 206
Answer: D There are 206 bones in the human skeleton.41. A
depression or cavity in or on the bone is called:a. b. Fissurec.
Fossad. Creste. Process
Answer: B a depression or cavity in or on the bone is called a
fossa. A fissure is a narrow slit, often between two bones. A crest
is a narrow ridge of bone. A process is any marked, bony
prominence.42. The two bones that form the sides and roof of the
cranium are the _____________ bones:a. b. Parietalc. Occipitald.
Frontale. Temporal
Answer: A The two parietal bones form the sides and the roof of
the cranium. The occipital bone forms the back and the base of the
cranium. The frontal bone forms the forehead. The paired temporal
bones help to form sides and the base of the cranium.43. This is
the long bone of the upper arma. b. Ulnac. Scapulad. Claviclee.
Humerus
Answer: D The humerus is the long bone of the upper arm. The
ulna / elbow is the longer medial bone of the forearm. The clavicle
is the collar bone and the scapula is a large, flat, triangular
bone located on the dorsal portion of the thorax.44. The pelvic
girdle is formed by two bones namely:a. b. Radius and ulnac. Ilium
and ischiumd. Sacrum and coccyxe. Femur and patella
Answer: C The pelvic girdle, formed by two pelvic bones, the
sacrum and the coccyx, supports the trunk and provides attachment
to the legs.45. The pelvic bone consists of three separate bones.
Which one is not included?a. b. Iliumc. Ischiumd. Sacrume.
Pubis
Answer: C The pelvic bone or hipbone originally consists of
three separate bones, the ilium, ischium and the pubis. The sacrum
and the coccyx form the pelvic girdle.46. The longest and heaviest
bone in the body is the:a. b. Patellac. Tibiad. Fibulae. Femur
Answer: D The longest and heaviest bone in the body is the
femur. It is the bone of the thigh. The patella is the kneecap. The
tibia is the shinbone which forms the lower potion of the leg
together with the fibula or the calfbone.47. What Vitamin increases
the rate of calcium absorption?a. b. Ac. Bd. Ce. D
Answer: D Vitamin D increases the rate of calcium absorption
from the intestine.48. This is a vertebral column disorder wherein
the anterior curvature is accentuated in the lumbar region:a. b.
Kyphosisc. Lordosisd. Scoliosise. Ricketts
Answer: B Lordosis is when the anterior curvature is accentuated
in the lumbar region. Kyphosis is when the posterior curvature is
accentuated in the thoracic area. Scoliosis is when there is a
lateral curvature and rotation of the vertebrae. Ricketts is a
condition in children wherein calcification of bone is
inadequate.49. The epiphyseal plates of the long bones of the
following patients have already closed. Who among them has the
chance to increase his/her height?a. b. A client taking Cheriferc.
A client drinking Calcium rich milk twice a dayd. A client who
jumps ten times every morninge. None of the above
Answer: D Once the epiphyseal plates of the long bones have
closed, the long bones will no longer lengthen or grow.50. You have
noticed that teenagers seem to grow tall so fast. What hormone is
responsible for increasing bone length?a. b. Glucocorticoidsc.
Parathyroid hormoned. Estrogen and androgene. Growth hormone
Answer D The growth hormone secreted by the anterior lobe of the
pituitary gland is responsible for increasing bone length and
determining the amount of bone matrix formed before puberty.
3. The substance present in the largest amount in a solution is
which of the following?a. Solutesb. Solventc. Solutiond.
Interstitial fluida. Solutes tiny components present in small
amounts. b. Solvent the substance present in the largest amount. c.
Solution - A homogeneous mixture of two or more components d.
Interstitial fluid the fluid that continuously bathes the exterior
of the cells.Bottom of Form
FUNDA1. Jake is complaining of shortness of breath. The nurse
assesses his respiratory rate to be 30 breaths per minute and
documents that Jake is tachypneic. The nurse understands that
tachypnea means: a. Pulse rate greater than 100 beats per minute b.
Blood pressure of 140/90 c. Respiratory rate greater than 20
breaths per minute d. Frequent bowel soundsA respiratory rate of
greater than 20 breaths per minute is tachypnea. A blood pressure
of 140/90 is considered hypertension. Pulse greater than 100 beats
per minute is tachycardia. Frequent bowel sounds refer to
hyper-active bowel sounds.2. The nurse listens to Mrs. Sullens
lungs and notes a hissing sound or musical sound. The nurse
documents this as: a. Wheezes b. Rhonchi c. Gurgles d.
VesicularWheezes are indicated by continuous, lengthy, musical;
heard during inspiration or expiration. Rhonchi are usually coarse
breath sounds. Gurgles are loud gurgling, bubbling sound. Vesicular
breath sounds are low pitch, soft intensity on expiration.3. The
nurse in charge measures a patients temperature at 101 degrees F.
What is the equivalent centigrade temperature? a. 36.3 degrees C b.
37.95 degrees C c. 40.03 degrees C d. 38.01 degrees CTo convert F
to C use this formula, ( F 32 ) (0.55). While when converting C to
F use this formula, ( C x 1.8) + 32. Note that 0.55 is 5/9 and 1.8
is 9/5.4. Which approach to problem solving tests any number of
solutions until one is found that works for that particular
problem? a. Intuition b. Routine c. Scientific method d. Trial and
error The trial and error method of problem solving isnt systematic
(as in the scientific method of problem solving) routine, or based
on inner prompting (as in the intuitive method of problem
solving).5. What is the order of the nursing process? a. Assessing,
diagnosing, implementing, evaluating, planning b. Diagnosing,
assessing, planning, implementing, evaluating c. Assessing,
diagnosing, planning, implementing, evaluating d. Planning,
evaluating, diagnosing, assessing, implementingThe correct order of
the nursing process is assessing, diagnosing, planning,
implementing, evaluating.6. During the planning phase of the
nursing process, which of the following is the outcome? a. Nursing
history b. Nursing notes c. Nursing care plan d. Nursing
diagnosisThe outcome, or the product of the planning phase of the
nursing process is a Nursing care plan.7. What is an example of a
subjective data? a. Heart rate of 68 beats per minute b. Yellowish
sputum c. Client verbalized, I feel pain when urinating. d. Noisy
breathingSubjective data are those that can be described only by
the person experiencing it. Therefore, only the patient can
describe or verify whether he is experiencing pain or not.8. Which
expected outcome is correctly written? a. The patient will feel
less nauseated in 24 hours. b. The patient will eat the right
amount of food daily. c. The patient will identify all the
high-salt food from a prepared list by discharge. d. The patient
will have enough sleep. Expected outcomes are specific, measurable,
realistic statements of goal attainment. The phrases right amount,
less nauseated and enough sleep are vague and not measurable.9.
Which of the following behaviors by Nurse Jane Robles demonstrates
that she understands well th elements of effecting charting? a. She
writes in the chart using a no. 2 pencil. b. She noted: appetite is
good this afternoon. c. She signs on the medication sheet after
administering the medication. d. She signs her charting as follow:
J.RA nurse should record a nursing intervention (ex. Giving
medications) after performing the nursing intervention (not
before). Recording should also be done using a pen, be complete,
and signed with the nurses full name and title.10. What is the
disadvantage of computerized documentation of the nursing process?
a. Accuracy b. Legibility c. Concern for privacy d. Rapid
communicationA patients privacy may be violated if security
measures arent used properly or if policies and procedures arent in
place that determines what type of information can be retrieved, by
whom, and for what purpose.11. The theorist who believes that
adaptation and manipulation of stressors are related to foster
change is: a. Dorothea Orem b. Sister Callista Roy c. Imogene King
d. Virginia HendersonSister Roys theory is called the adaptation
theory and she viewed each person as a unified biophysical system
in constant interaction with a changing environment. Orems theory
is called self-care deficit theory and is based on the belief that
individual has a need for self-care actions. Kings theory is the
Goal attainment theory and described nursing as a helping
profession that assists individuals and groups in society to
attain, maintain, and restore health. Henderson introduced the
nature of nursing model and identified the 14 basic needs.12.
Formulating a nursing diagnosis is a joint function of: a. Patient
and relatives b. Nurse and patient c. Doctor and family d. Nurse
and doctorAlthough diagnosing is basically the nurses
responsibility, input from the patient is essential to formulate
the correct nursing diagnosis.13. Mrs. Caperlac has been diagnosed
to have hypertension since 10 years ago. Since then, she had
maintained low sodium, low fat diet, to control her blood pressure.
This practice is viewed as: a. Cultural belief b. Personal belief
c. Health belief d. Superstitious beliefHealth belief of an
individual influences his/her preventive health behavior.14. Becky
is on NPO since midnight as preparation for blood test.
Adreno-cortical response is activated. Which of the following is an
expected response? a. Low blood pressure b. Warm, dry skin c.
Decreased serum sodium levels d. Decreased urine
outputAdreno-cortical response involves release of aldosterone that
leads to retention of sodium and water. This results to decreased
urine output.15. What nursing action is appropriate when obtaining
a sterile urine specimen from an indwelling catheter to prevent
infection? a. Use sterile gloves when obtaining urine. b. Open the
drainage bag and pour out the urine. c. Disconnect the catheter
from the tubing and get urine. d. Aspirate urine from the tubing
port using a sterile syringe.The nurse should aspirate the urine
from the port using a sterile syringe to obtain a urine specimen.
Opening a closed drainage system increase the risk of urinary tract
infection.16. A client is receiving 115 ml/hr of continuous IVF.
The nurse notices that the venipuncture site is red and swollen.
Which of the following interventions would the nurse perform first?
a. Stop the infusion b. Call the attending physician c. Slow that
infusion to 20 ml/hr d. Place a clod towel on the site The sign and
symptoms indicate extravasation so the IVF should be stopped
immediately and put warm not cold towel on the affected site.17.
The nurse enters the room to give a prescribed medication but the
patient is inside the bathroom. What should the nurse do? a. Leave
the medication at the bedside and leave the room. b. After few
minutes, return to that patients room and do not leave until the
patient takes the medication. c. Instruct the patient to take the
medication and leave it at the bedside. d. Wait for the patient to
return to bed and just leave the medication at the bedside.This is
to verify or to make sure that the medication was taken by the
patient as directed.18. Which of the following is inappropriate
nursing action when administering NGT feeding? a. Place the feeding
20 inches above the pint if insertion of NGT. b. Introduce the
feeding slowly. c. Instill 60ml of water into the NGT after
feeding. d. Assist the patient in fowlers position.The height of
the feeding is above 12 inches above the point of insertion, bot 20
inches. If the height of feeding is too high, this results to very
rapid introduction of feeding. This may trigger nausea and
vomiting.19. A female patient is being discharged after
thyroidectomy. After providing the medication teaching. The nurse
asks the patient to repeat the instructions. The nurse is
performing which professional role? a. Manager b. Caregiver c.
Patient advocate d. EducatorWhen teaching a patient about
medications before discharge, the nurse is acting as an educator. A
caregiver provides direct care to the patient. The nurse acts as s
patient advocate when making the patients wishes known to the
doctor.20. Which data would be of greatest concern to the nurse
when completing the nursing assessment of a 68-year-old woman
hospitalized due to Pneumonia? a. Oriented to date, time and place
b. Clear breath sounds c. Capillary refill greater than 3 seconds
and buccal cyanosis d. Hemoglobin of 13 g/dlCapillary refill
greater than 3 seconds and buccal cyanosis indicate decreased
oxygen to the tissues which requires immediate
attention/intervention. Oriented to date, time and place,
hemoglobin of 13 g/dl are normal data.21. During a change-of-shift
report, it would be important for the nurse relinquishing
responsibility for care of the patient to communicate. Which of the
following facts to the nurse assuming responsibility for care of
the patient? a. That the patient verbalized, My headache is gone.
b. That the patients barium enema performed 3 days ago was negative
c. Patients NGT was removed 2 hours ago d. Patients family came for
a visit this morning.The change-of-shift report should indicate
significant recent changes in the patients condition that the nurse
assuming responsibility for care of the patient will need to
monitor. The other options are not critical enough to include in
the report.22. Which statement is the most appropriate goal for a
nursing diagnosis of diarrhea? a. The patient will experience
decreased frequency of bowel elimination. b. The patient will take
anti-diarrheal medication. c. The patient will give a stool
specimen for laboratory examinations. d. The patient will save
urine for inspection by the nurse.The goal is the opposite, healthy
response of the problem statement of the nursing diagnosis. In this
situation, the problem statement is diarrhea.23. Which of the
following is the most important purpose of planning care with this
patient? a. Development of a standardized NCP. b. Expansion of the
current taxonomy of nursing diagnosis c. Making of individualized
patient care d. Incorporation of both nursing and medical diagnoses
in patient careTo be effective, the nursing care plan developed in
the planning phase of the nursing process must reflect the
individualized needs of the patient.24. Using Maslows hierarchy of
basic human needs, which of the following nursing diagnoses has the
highest priority? a. Ineffective breathing pattern related to pain,
as evidenced by shortness of breath. b. Anxiety related to
impending surgery, as evidenced by insomnia. c. Risk of injury
related to autoimmune dysfunction d. Impaired verbal communication
related to tracheostomy, as evidenced by inability to
speak.Physiologic needs (ex. Oxygen, fluids, nutrition) must be met
before lower needs (such as safety and security, love and
belongingness, self-esteem and self-actualization) can be met.
Therefore, physiologic needs have the highest priority.25. When
performing an abdominal examination, the patient should be in a
supine position with the head of the bed at what position? a. 30
degrees b. 90 degrees c. 45 degrees d. 0 degreeThe patient should
be positioned with the head of the bed completely flattened to
perform an abdominal examination. If the head of the bed is
elevated, the abdominal muscles and organs can be bunched up,
altering the findings.1. Nurse Brenda is teaching a patient about a
newly prescribed drug. What could cause a geriatric patient to have
difficulty retaining knowledge about prescribed medications? a.
Decreased plasma drug levels b. Sensory deficits c. Lack of family
support d. History of Tourette syndromeSensory deficits could cause
a geriatric patient to have difficulty retaining knowledge about
prescribed medications. Decreased plasma drug levels do not alter
the patients knowledge about the drug. A lack of family support may
affect compliance, not knowledge retention. Toilette syndrome is
unrelated to knowledge retention.2. When examining a patient with
abdominal pain the nurse in charge should assess: Any quadrant
first The symptomatic quadrant first The symptomatic quadrant last
The symptomatic quadrant either second or thirdThe nurse should
systematically assess all areas of the abdomen, if time and the
patients condition permit, concluding with the symptomatic area.
Otherwise, the nurse may elicit pain in the symptomatic area,
causing the muscles in other areas to tighten. This would interfere
with further assessment.3. The nurse is assessing a postoperative
adult patient. Which of the following should the nurse document as
subjective data? Vital signs Laboratory test result Patients
description of pain Electrocardiographic (ECG) waveformsSubjective
data come directly from the patient and usually are recorded as
direct quotations that reflect the patients opinions or feelings
about a situation. Vital signs, laboratory test result, and ECG
waveforms are examples of objective data.4. A male patient has a
soft wrist-safety device. Which assessment finding should the nurse
consider abnormal? A palpable radial pulse A palpable ulnar pulse
Cool, pale fingers Pink nail bedsA safety device on the wrist may
impair circulation and restrict blood supply to body tissues.
Therefore, the nurse should assess the patient for signs of
impaired circulation, such as cool, pale fingers. A palpable radial
or lunar pulse and pink nail beds are normal findings.5. Which of
the following planes divides the body longitudinally into anterior
and posterior regions? Frontal plane Sagittal plane Midsagittal
plane Transverse planeFrontal or coronal plane runs longitudinally
at a right angle to a sagittal plane dividing the body in anterior
and posterior regions. A sagittal plane runs longitudinally
dividing the body into right and left regions; if exactly midline,
it is called a midsagittal plane. A transverse plane runs
horizontally at a right angle to the vertical axis, dividing the
structure into superior and inferior regions.6. A female patient
with a terminal illness is in denial. Indicators of denial include:
Shock dismay Numbness Stoicism Preparatory griefShock and dismay
are early signs of denial-the first stage of grief. The other
options are associated with depressiona later stage of grief.7. The
nurse in charge is transferring a patient from the bed to a chair.
Which action does the nurse take during this patient transfer?
Position the head of the bed flat Helps the patient dangle the legs
Stands behind the patient Places the chair facing away from the
bedAfter placing the patient in high Fowlers position and moving
the patient to the side of the bed, the nurse helps the patient sit
on the edge of the bed and dangle the legs; the nurse then faces
the patient and places the chair next to and facing the head of the
bed.8. A female patient who speaks a little English has emergency
gallbladder surgery, during discharge preparation, which nursing
action would best help this patient understand wound care
instruction? Asking frequently if the patient understands the
instruction Asking an interpreter to replay the instructions to the
patient. Writing out the instructions and having a family member
read them to the patient Demonstrating the procedure and having the
patient return the demonstrationDemonstrating by the nurse with a
return demonstration by the patient ensures that the patient can
perform wound care correctly. Patients may claim to understand
discharge instruction when they do not. An interpreter of family
member may communicate verbal or written instructions
inaccurately.9. Before administering the evening dose of a
prescribed medication, the nurse on the evening shift finds an
unlabeled, filled syringe in the patients medication drawer. What
should the nurse in charge do? Discard the syringe to avoid a
medication error Obtain a label for the syringe from the pharmacy
Use the syringe because it looks like it contains the same
medication the nurse was prepared to give Call the day nurse to
verify the contents of the syringeAs a safety precaution, the nurse
should discard an unlabeled syringe that contains medication. The
other options are considered unsafe because they promote error.10.
When administering drug therapy to a male geriatric patient, the
nurse must stay especially alert for adverse effects. Which factor
makes geriatric patients to adverse drug effects? Faster drug
clearance Aging-related physiological changes Increased amount of
neurons Enhanced blood flow to the GI tractAging-related
physiological changes account for the increased frequency of
adverse drug reactions in geriatric patients. Renal and hepatic
changes cause drugs to clear more slowly in these patients. With
increasing age, neurons are lost and blood flow to the GI tract
decreases.11. A female patient is being discharged after cataract
surgery. After providing medication teaching, the nurse asks the
patient to repeat the instructions. The nurse is performing which
professional role? Manager Educator Caregiver Patient advocateWhen
teaching a patient about medications before discharge, the nurse is
acting as an educator. The nurse acts as a manager when performing
such activities as scheduling and making patient care assignments.
The nurse performs the care giving role when providing direct care,
including bathing patients and administering medications and
prescribed treatments. The nurse acts as a patient advocate when
making the patients wishes known to the doctor.12. A female patient
exhibits signs of heightened anxiety. Which response by the nurse
is most likely to reduce the patients anxiety? Everything will be
fine. Dont worry. Read this manual and then ask me any questions
you may have. Why dont you listen to the radio? Lets talk about
whats bothering you.Anxiety may result from feeling of
helplessness, isolation, or insecurity. This response helps reduce
anxiety by encouraging the patient to express feelings. The nurse
should be supportive and develop goals together with the patient to
give the patient some control over an anxiety-inducing situation.
Because the other options ignore the patients feeling and block
communication, they would not reduce anxiety.13. A scrub nurse in
the operating room has which responsibility? Positioning the
patient Assisting with gowning and gloving Handling surgical
instruments to the surgeon Applying surgical drapesThe scrub nurse
assist the surgeon by providing appropriate surgical instruments
and supplies, maintaining strict surgical asepsis and, with the
circulating nurse, accounting for all gauze, sponges, needles, and
instruments. The circulating nurse assists the surgeon and scrub
nurse, positions the patient, applies appropriate equipment and
surgical drapes, assists with gowning and gloving, and provides the
surgeon and scrub nurse with supplies.14. A patient is in the
bathroom when the nurse enters to give a prescribed medication.
What should the nurse in charge do? Leave the medication at the
patients bedside Tell the patient to be sure to take the
medication. And then leave it at the bedside Return shortly to the
patients room and remain there until the patient takes the
medication Wait for the patient to return to bed, and then leave
the medication at the bedsideThe nurse should return shortly to the
patients room and remain there until the patient takes the
medication to verify that it was taken as directed. The nurse
should never leave medication at the patients bedside unless
specifically requested to do so.15. The physician orders heparin,
7,500 units, to be administered subcutaneously every 6 hours. The
vial reads 10,000 units per millilitre. The nurse should anticipate
giving how much heparin for each dose? ml ml ml 1 mlThe nurse
solves the problem as follows:10,000 units/7,500 units = 1 ml/X
10,000 X = 7,500 X= 7,500/10,000 or ml16. The nurse in charge
measures a patients temperature at 102 degrees F. what is the
equivalent Centigrade temperature? 39 degrees C 47 degrees C 38.9
degrees C 40.1 degrees CTo convert Fahrenheit degrees to
centigrade, use this formula:C degrees = (F degrees 32) x 5/9 C
degrees = (102 32) 5/9 + 70 x 5/9 38.9 degrees C17. To evaluate a
patient for hypoxia, the physician is most likely to order which
laboratory test? Red blood cell count Sputum culture Total
hemoglobin Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysisAll of these test help
evaluate a patient with respiratory problems. However, ABG analysis
is the only test evaluates gas exchange in the lungs, providing
information about patients oxygenation status.18. The nurse uses a
stethoscope to auscultate a male patients chest. Which statement
about a stethoscope with a bell and diaphragm is true? The bell
detects high-pitched sounds best The diaphragm detects high-pitched
sounds best The bell detects thrills best The diaphragm detects
low-pitched sounds bestThe diaphragm of a stethoscope detects
high-pitched sound best; the bell detects low pitched sounds best.
Palpation detects thrills best.19. A male patient is to be
discharged with a prescription for an analgesic that is a
controlled substance. During discharge teaching, the nurse should
explain that the patient must fill this prescription how soon after
the date on which it was written? Within 1 month Within 3 months
Within 6 months Within 12 monthsIn most cases, an outpatient must
fill a prescription for a controlled substance within 6 months of
the date on which the prescription was written.20. Which human
element considered by the nurse in charge during assessment can
affect drug administration? The patients ability to recover The
patients occupational hazards The patients socioeconomic status The
patients cognitive abilitiesThe nurse must consider the patients
cognitive abilities to understand drug instructions. If not, the
nurse must find a family member or significant other to take on the
responsibility of administering medications in the home setting.
The patients ability to recover, occupational hazards, and
socioeconomic status do not affect drug administration.21. When
explaining the initiation of I.V. therapy to a 2-year-old child,
the nurse should: Ask the child, Do you want me to start the I.V.
now? Give simple directions shortly before the I.V. therapy is to
start Tell the child, This treatment is for your own good Inform
the child that the needle will be in place for 10 daysBecause a
2-year-old child has limited understanding, the nurse should give
simple directions and explanations of what will occur shortly
before the procedure. She should try to avoid frightening the child
with the explanation and allow the child to make simple choices,
such as choosing the I.V. insertion site, if possible. However, she
shouldnt ask the child if he wants the therapy, because the answer
may be No! Telling the child that the treatment is for his own good
is ineffective because a 2-year-old perceives pain as a negative
sensation and cannot understand that a painful procedure can have
position results. Telling the child how long the therapy will last
is ineffective because the 2-year-old doesnt have a good
understanding of time.22. All of the following parts of the syringe
are sterile except the: Barrel Inside of the plunger Needle tip
Barrel tipAll syringes have three parts: a tip, which connects the
needle to the syringe; a barrel, the outer part on which the
measurement scales are printed; and a plunger, which fits inside
the barrel to expel the medication. The external part of the barrel
and the plunger and (flange) must be handled during the preparation
and administration of the injection. However, the inside and trip
of the barrel, the inside (shaft) of the plunger, and the needle
tip must remain sterile until after the injection.23. The best way
to instill eye drops is to: Instruct the patient to lock upward,
and drop the medication into the center of the lower lid Instruct
the patient to look ahead, and drop the medication into the center
of the lower lid Drop the medication into the inner canthus
regardless of eye position Drop the medication into the center of
the canthus regardless of eye positionHaving the patient look
upward reduces blinking and protects the cornea. Instilling drops
in the center of the lower lid promotes absorption because the
drops are less likely to run into the nasolacrimal duct or out of
the eye.24. The difference between an 18G needle and a 25G needle
is the needles: Length Bevel angle Thickness SharpnessGauge is a
measure of the needles thickness: The higher the number the thinner
the shaft. Therefore, an 18G needle is considerably thicker than a
25G needle.25. A patient receiving an anticoagulant should be
assessed for signs of: Hypotension Hypertension An elevated
hemoglobin count An increased number of erythrocytesA major side
effect of anticoagulant therapy is bleeding, which can be
identified by hypotension (a systolic blood pressure under 100 mm
Hg). Anticoagulants do not result in the other three
conditions.