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TOPIC COVERED
PHYSICS
Kinematics-II: Scalar and vector quantities: general vectors, general vectors and notation, equality of vectors,
multiplication of vectors by a real number; addition and subtraction of vectors. Relative velocity. Unit vectors.
Resolution of a vector in a plane-rectangular components. Motion in a plane. Cases of uniform velocity and uniform
acceleration- projectile motion. Uniform circular motion
CHEMISTRY
Structure of Atom & Classification of Elements and Periodicity in properties
BIOLOGY
Salient Features and classification of Protista and Fungi into major groups; Lichens; Viruses and Viroids, Salient
Features and classification of animals-chordate up to classes level
Time : 3 Hrs. MM : 720
All India Aakash Test Series-2017
Online Test – 2
Choose the correct answer :
1. The coordinate of a moving particle at any time t are given by x = t3 and y = t3. The speed of the particle at
time t is given by
(1) 2 23 t
(2) 2 2 23 t
(3) 2 2 2 t
(4) 2 2 2. If a ball is thrown vertically upward with speed u, the distance covered during last t second of its ascent is s.
Now if the speed is doubled to 2u what would be the distance travelled in last t second of its ascent?
(1) s
(2) 2s
(3) 4s
(4) 9s
3. From the top of a tower, a stone is thrown up. It reaches the ground in t1 second. A second stone thrown down
with same speed reaches the ground in t2 second. A third stone released from rest reaches the ground in t
3
second, then
(1)1 2
32
t t
t
(2)3 1 2t t t
(3)3 1 2
1 1 1 t t t
(4) t3
2 = t1
2 + t2
2
[ PHYSICS ]
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4. A point moves along a circle with speed v = at. The tangential acceleration of the point at time, when it has
travelled 1th
8 of the circumference is
(1)8
v
a
(2)2
2 4 a
(3) a
(4)2
42
a
5. For a particle in uniform circular motion with speed v, the acceleration �
a at a point P(R, ) on the circle of radius
R is (Here is measured from the x-axis)
P
X
R
(1)
2 2
ˆ ˆv vi j
R R
(2)
2 2
ˆ ˆcos sin v v
i jR R
(3)
2 2
ˆ ˆsin cos v v
i jR R
(4)
2 2
ˆ ˆcos cos v v
i jR R
6. A parachutist steps from an aircraft falls freely for two second and then opens his parachute. Which of the following
acceleration-time (a - t) graph best represent his downward acceleration a during the first t second?
(1)
a
t
(2)
a
t
(3)
a
t
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(4)
a
t
7. A particle is thrown with the speed u at an angle with the horizontal. When the particle makes an angle with
the horizontal, its speed will be
(1) u cos
(2) u cos sec
(3) u cos cos
(4) u sec cos
8. A car is moving at a constant speed of 40 km/h along a straight road which heads towards a large vertical wall
and makes a sharp 90º turn by the side of the wall. A fly flying at a constant speed of 100 km/h, starts from
the wall towards the car at an instant when the car is 20 km away, flies untill it reaches the glass plane of the
car and return to the wall at same speed. It continue to fly between car and the wall till the car makes 90º turn.
The total distance the fly has travelled during this period
(1) 50 km
(2) 100 km
(3) 25 km
(4) 150 km
9. Six particles situated at the corners of a regular hexagon of side a move at a constant speed v. Each particle
maintains a direction towards the particle at the next corner. The time the particle will take to meet each other
(1)v
a
(2)2a
v
(3)2
a
v
(4)3
2
a
v
10. A ball is thrown vertically upward with a velocity u (relative to ground) from the balloon descending with a constant
velocity v. The ball will pass by the balloon after time
(1)2
u v
g
(2)2 u v
g
(3)2 2u v
g
(4)u v
g
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11. Choose the correct statement related to a non- uniform circular motion.
(1) Tangential acceleration =
�
dv
dt
(2) Tangential acceleration = | |�
d v
dt
(3) Centripetal acceleration =
�
dv
dt
(4) Centripetal acceleration = 2v
12. If a car covers 2th
5 of the total distance with speed v
1 and
3th
5
distance with speed v2 then average speed is
(1) 1 2
1
2v v
(2)1 2
2
v v
(3)1 2
1 2
2
v v
v v
(4)1 2
1 2
5
3 2v v
v v
13. The graph between height and KE of particle in projectile motion is
(1) Parabolic
(2) Straight line
(3) Circle
(4) Ellipse
14. When a man walks on a straight road with speed of 5 km/h, rain appears to fall vertically downward. As he stops
the rain appears to fall at angle of 30º with vertical, the speed of rain w.r.t. ground is
(1) 10 km/h
(2) 5 km/h
(3) 5 3 km/h
(4) 10 3 km/h
15. Acceleration of a body is given by the equation a = (4 – 3v) m/s2, speed v is in m/s and t is in second. If initial
velocity is zero, then velocity of the body when acceleration becomes zero is
(1)4
3 m/s
(2)3
4m/s
(3) 4 m/s
(4) Infinite
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16. The equation of trajectory of a projectile is given as
2
22
xy x , the maximum height of projectile is
(1) 4 m
(2) 1 m
(3) 2 m
(4) 10 m
17. A ball is projected horizontally from the top of a tower with a velocity v0. It will be moving at an angle 60º with
the horizontal after time
(1)0
3
v
g
(2)0
3v
g
(3)0
v
g
(4)0
2
v
g
18. If the instantaneous velocity of a projectile is given by ˆ ˆ( ) v ai b ct j where a, b and c are constant, the range
of the projectile will be
(1)2ab
c
(2)ab
c
(3)ac
b
(4)2
a
bc
19. A stone is thrown vertically upward with an initial velocity v0. The distance travelled in time
03
2
v
g is
(1)
2
0
2
v
g
(2)
2
03
8
v
g
(3)
2
05
8
v
g
(4)
2
010
3
v
g
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20. A ship X moving due north with speed v observes that another ship Y is moving due west with same speed v.
The actual velocity of Y is
(1) 2v towards southwest
(2) 2v towards northwest
(3) 2v towards southeast
(4) v towards northwest
21. In CH4 molecule, there are four C–H bonds. If two adjacent bonds are in ˆ ˆ ˆ i j k and ˆ ˆ ˆ i j k direction, then
find the angle between these bonds.
(1)1 1
sin5
⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
(2)1 1
cos3
⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
(3)1 1
sin2
⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
(4)1 1
cos3
⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
22. A pilot is to flag an aircraft with velocity v due east. Wind is blowing due south with a velocity u. Find the time
for a round trip A to B and back : (A and B are l distance away)
(1) 2 2
l
v u
(2) 2 2
2
l
v u
(3)2l
v
(4) 2 2
2
l
v u
23. A vector of magnitude a is rotated through angle . What is the magnitude of the change in the vector?
(1) 2a sin(2) 2a cos
(3) 2 sin2
a
(4) 2 cos2
a
24. The magnitude of a component of ˆ ˆ3 4 �
A i j in the direction of ˆ ˆ �
B i j is
(1) 3
(2)7
5
(3)7
2
(4) 7
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25. A boy standing on a long railroad car throws a ball straight upwards, he is moving on the horizontal road with
an acceleration 1 m/s2 the vertical velocity given is 9.8 m/s. How far behind the boy the ball will fall on the railroad
car?
(1) 1m
(2)3
2m
(3)7
4m
(4) 2 m
26. An elevator is moving with 2.5 ms-1. A bolt in the elevator ceiling 5 m above the elevator falls. How long does it
take for the bolt to fall on the floor of elevator?
(1) 0.5 s
(2) 0.8 s
(3) 1 s
(4) 1.2 s
27. A stone is allowed to fall from the top of a tower and cover half the height of the tower in the last second of its
journey. The time taken by the stone to reach the foot of the tower is
(1) (2 2) s
(2) 4 s
(3) (2 2) s
(4) (2 2) s
28. A particle moves along the x-axis as
x = u(t – 2s) + a(t – 2s)2
(1) Initial velocity of the particle is u
(2) The acceleration of the particle is a
(3) The acceleration of the particle is 2a
(4) At t = 2s particle is at x = 1m
29. A particle is projected upwards. The times corresponding to height h while ascending and while descending are
t1 and t
2 respectively. The velocity of projection will be
(1) gt1
(2) gt2
(3) g(t1 + t
2)
(4) 1 2( )
2
gt t
30. From a tap 10 m high water drops fall at regular intervals. When the first drop reaches the ground, the 5th drop
is about to leave the tap. Find the separation between 2nd and 3rd drops.
(1)35
m8
(2)31
m8
(3)27
8
(4)25
m8
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31. A person is standing on a truck moving with 15 ms–1 on a horizontal road. He throws a ball so that if returns to
him when the truck has moved 60 m. Find the speed of the ball and angle of projection as seen by a man standing
on the road.
(1) 20 ms–1, 53º
(2) 25 ms–1, 53º
(3) 20 ms–1, Vertical
(4) 20 ms–1, Horizontal
32. A particle is thrown from ground with speed u at an angle above horizontal. Radius curvature of its path at the
highest point is
(1)
2 2cosu
g
(2)
2
cos
u
g
(3)
2
2cos
u
g
(4)
2
2
u
g
33. A helicopter is flying at 3564 m above ground. If an angle of 30º is subtended at a ground point by the helicopter
position 100 s apart. What is the speed of the helicopter?
(1) 100 ms–1
(2) 150 ms–1
(3) 20 ms–1
(4) 25 ms–1
34. A boat having a speed of 5 km/h in still water, crosses a river of width 1 km along the shortest possible path in
15 minutes. The speed of the river water in km/h is
(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 41
35. A body starts from rest and moves with a uniform acceleration. The ratio of the distance covered in the nth second
to the distance covered in n seconds is given by
(1)2
2 1n n
(2)2
1 1nn
(3)2
2 1nn
(4)2
2 1n n
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36. When the speed of a car is v, the minimum distance over which it can be stopped is s. If the speed becomes
nv, what will be the minimum distance over which it can be stopped by the same force?
(1)s
n
(2) ns
(3)2
s
n
(4) n2s
37. A bird flies with a speed v = | t – 2 | ms–1 along a straight line, where t is the time in seconds. The distance
travelled by the bird during first four second is equal to
(1) 2 m
(2) 4 m
(3) 6 m
(4) 8 m
38. A ball is thrown up with a certain velocity at angle to the horizontal. The kinetic energy (KE) of the ball varies
with horizontal displacement (x) as
(1)
x
KE
(2)
x
KE
(3)
x
KE
(4)
x
KE
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39. A body of mass 3 kg falls from the multi-storeyed building 100 m high and buries itself 2 m deep in the sand.
The time of penetration is
(1) 5 s
(2)1
5 s
(3)1
5 5 s
(4)1
5 s
40. Two stones are projected with same speed but make different angles with the horizontal. Their ranges are equal.
If the angle of projection of one is 3
and its maximum height is y
1, then the maximum height of other will be
(1) 3y1
(2) 2y1
(3)1
2
y
(4)1
3
y
41. A plane flying horizontally at 100 m/s releases an object which reaches the ground in 10 s. At what angle with
horizontal it hits the ground?
(g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 45º
(2) 30º
(3) 60º
(4) 53º
42. A particle is moving along x-axis whose instantaneous speed is v = (2x + 1) m/s. The acceleration of particle at
x = 0 is
(1) 2 m/s2
(2) 4 m/s2
(3) 5 m/s2
(4) Zero
43. In figure D C�� ��
equals
B
E
C
D
A
(1) A��
(2) A��
(3) B��
(4) B��
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[ CHEMISTRY ]
46. Which of the following sets of elements would have nearly same atomic radii?
(1) Na, K, Rb, Cs
(2) Na, Mg, Al, Si
(3) Fe, Co, Ni, Cu
(4) F, Cl, Br, I
47. Which of the following is smallest in size?
(1) N3–
(2) O2–
(3) F–
(4) Na+
48. Which of the following valence shell configuration has the lowest ionization potential?
(1) 2p3
(2) 3s1
(3) 3p6
(4) 2p6
44. Two particles are simultaneously projected in opposite directions horizontally from a given point in space where
gravity g is uniform. If u1 and u
2 be their initial speeds, then the time t after which their velocities are mutually
perpendicular is given by
(1)1 2
u u
g
(2)
2 2
1 2u u
g
(3)1 1 2( )u u u
g
(4)2 1 2( )u u u
g
45. The equation of motion of a projectile are given by x = 36t m and 2y = 96 t – 9.8 t2 m. The angle of projection is
(1)1 4
sin5
⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
(2)1 3
sin5
⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
(3)1 4
sin3
⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
(4)1 3
sin4
⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
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49. The process requiring the absorption of energy is
(1) F F–
(2) Cl Cl–
(3) O O2–
(4) H H–
50. The correct order of second ionisation potential of carbon, nitrogen, oxygen and fluorine is
(1) C > N > O > F
(2) O > N > F > C
(3) O > F > N > C
(4) F > O > N > C
51. The general electronic configuration of coinage metals is
(1) (n–1)p6ns1
(2) (n–1)p6ns2
(3) (n–1)d6ns2
(4) (n–1)d10ns1
52. Electron affinity of nitrogen is
(1) Higher than that of phosphorus
(2) Lower than that of phosphorus
(3) Comparable to that of phosphorus
(4) Identical to that of phosphorus
53. Which of the following is/are neutral oxide?
(1) NO
(2) N2O
(3) CO
(4) All of these
54. Which of the following has maximum number of unpaired electrons?
(1) Mg2+
(2) Ti3+
(3) V3+
(4) Fe2+
55. An electron is accelerated to one tenth the velocity of light. If its velocity can be measured with a precision of
1%, then the uncertainty in its position is equal to or greater than
(1) 1.93 nm
(2) 19.3 nm
(3) 19.3 pm
(4) 193 pm
56. A light whose frequency is equal to 6 × 1014 Hz is incident on a metal whose work function is
2 eV (h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js, 1eV = 1.6 × 10–19J). The maximum energy of electrons emitted will be
(1) 2.49 eV
(2) 4.49 eV
(3) 0.49 eV
(4) 5.49 eV
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57. Which among the following is correct match of A and B, in normal state?
A B
(1)
2s 2p
: Violation of Hund’s rule
(2) : Violation of Aufbau principle as well as Hund’s rule
(3) : Violation of Pauli’s exclusion principle
(4) : Violation of Aufbau principle
58. The distance between 3rd and 2nd Bohr orbits of hydrogen atom is
(1) 0.529 × 10–8 cm
(2) 2.645 × 10–8 cm
(3) 2.116 × 10–8 cm
(4) 1.058 × 10–8 cm
59. Which transition will give shortest wavelength in H–spectrum?
(1) 2 1
(2) 4 2
(3) 6 3
(4) 8 4
60. Millikan’s oil drop experiment determine which property of electron?
(1) Charge
(2) Mass
(3) Size
(4) Frequency
61. The correct Schrodinger’s wave equation for an electron with E as total energy and V as potential energy is
(1)
2 2 2 2
2 2 2 2
8(E – V) 0
x y z mh
(2)
2 2 2
2 2 2 2
8 m(E – V) 0
x y z h
(3)
2 2 2 2
2 2 2 2
8 m(E – V) 0
x y z h
(4)
2 2 2 2
2 2 2
8( ) 0
hx y z
mE–V
62. What should be the ratio of energies of the fifth orbit of Li+2 and He+?
(1) 4 : 9
(2) 9 : 4
(3) 12 : 16
(4) 7 : 2
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63. Which one of the following sets of quantum numbers represents the highest energy of electron?
(1) n = 3, l = 1, m = 1, s = +1/2
(2) n = 3, l = 2, m = 1, s = +1/2
(3) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2
(4) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2
64. Out of X-rays, visible, ultraviolet rays and radiowaves the largest frequency is of
(1) X-rays
(2) Visible
(3) Ultraviolet
(4) Radiowaves
65. A 3-p orbital has
(1) Two non-spherical nodes
(2) Two spherical nodes
(3) One spherical and one non-spherical node
(4) One spherical and two non-spherical node
66. If a species has 16 protons, 18 electrons and 16 neutrons, find the species and its charge.
(1) S2–
(2) S2
–
(3) S3–
(4) S2
2–
67. The diameter of the second orbit of hydrogen atom should be
(1) 2.12 Å
(2) 4.23 Å
(3) 2.10 Å
(4) 4.01 Å
68. Which is not permissible subshell?
(1) 2 d
(2) 4 f
(3) 6 p
(4) 3 s
69. How many electrons can have the quantum numbers n = 3, l = anything, ml = 1, m
s = anything?
(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 1
(4) 6
70. Number of waves produced by the complete revolution of electron in nth orbit is
(1) n
(2) n2
(3) (n +1)
(4) (2n + 1)
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71. Select the wrong combination among the following.
(1)239 238
92 92U, U (Isotopes)
(2)16 14
8 6O, U (Isotones)
(3)14 14
6 7C, N (Isobar)
(4)77 78
33 34As, Se (Isoelectronic)
72. Which statement is false for cathode rays?
(1) They travel in straight line
(2) They are deflected by electric and magnetic field
(3) These rays affect photographic plate
(4) The cathode rays do not possess kinetic energy
73. Zeeman effect explains splitting of line spectrum in
(1) Magnetic field
(2) Electric field
(3) X-rays
(4) Non-magnetic field
74. Which of the following quantum number is not related to Schrodinger wave equation?
(1) n
(2) l
(3) m
(4) s
75. The hydrogen line spectrum provides evidence for the
(1) Heisenberg uncertainty principle
(2) Wave-like properties of light
(3) Diatomic nature of H2
(4) Quantized nature of atomic energy states
76. Which of the given compound cannot exist?
(1) Cl2O
(2) NCl5
(3) CCl4
(4) PCl5
77. f-block elements are
(1) Metal
(2) Non metal
(3) Semi metal
(4) Metal and semi metal
78. Valence shell electronic configuration of Nitrogen family represented as
(1) ns2 np2
(2) ns2 np3
(3) ns2 np4
(4) ns2 np5
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79. Which of the following element has positive electron gain enthalpy?
(1) B
(2) Cl
(3) Xe
(4) All of these
80. The formula of oxide of an element (X) whose successive ionisation energies are 2.4 eV, 5.4 eV, 36.3eV, 50.2eV
(1) XO
(2) X2O
(3) X2O
3
(4) XO2
81. Which graph shows the energy (E) of a photon related to its wavelength ()?
(1)
E
(2)
E
(3)
E
(4)
E
82. In which of the d-orbitals lobes lies on the x-y axis?
(1) dxz
only
(2) dxy
only
(3) 2 2x y
d only
(4) dxy and 2 2
x yd
83. Assuming same velocity exactly, which particle will have lowest de Broglie wavelength?
(1) Electron
(2) Proton
(3) Neutron
(4) All of these
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84. The order of basic nature of given oxides is
(1) Na2O > MgO > Al
2O
3 > CuO
(2) MgO > Al2O
3 > CuO > Na
2O
(3) Al2O
3 > MgO > CuO > Na
2O
(4) CuO > Na2O > MgO > Al
2O
3
85. The positron is as heavy as a/an
(1) Proton
(2) Neutron
(3) Electron
(4) Deutron
86. IUPAC name of element having atomic number (Z = 109)
(1) Ununnilium
(2) Unnilennium
(3) Ununbium
(4) Unniloctium
87. Which element has lowest ionization energy?
(1) Li
(2) H
(3) He
(4) Cs
88. Elements in Actinides series are according to Atomic number (Z)
(1) Z = 58 to Z = 71
(2) Z = 89 to Z = 103
(3) Z = 90 to Z = 103
(4) Z = 89 to Z = 102
89. If atomic number of an element is 33, it will be placed in the periodic table in the
(1) First group
(2) Group-14
(3) Group-15
(4) Group-17
90. Correct order of electronegativity for given elements
a. Cl
b. O
c. S
d. H
(1) a > b > c > d
(2) b > a > c > d
(3) b > a > d > c
(4) b > c > a > d
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91. The kingdom where boundaries are not well defined have species or organisms which
(1) Are solely multicellular
(2) Are primarily terresterial
(3) Forms a link with other eukaryotic kingdoms
(4) Always possess a cell wall
92. Chrysophytes are mainly
(1) Zooplanktons
(2) Passive floaters
(3) Active swimmers
(4) Nektons
93. Super abundance of which of the following organism causes red tides in warm coastal water?
(1) Trichodesmium
(2) Euglena
(3) Desmids
(4) Gonyaulax
94. Amoeba differ from puffballs in which of the following characteristics?
(1) Cell type
(2) Absence of nuclear membrane
(3) Body organisation
(4) Absence of pseudopodia
95. The cell walls in Diatoms
(1) Form two thick overlapping shells
(2) Are embedded with silica
(3) Are destructible
(4) Are made of cellulose and suberin
96. Select the correct statement w.r.t. Protista
(1) The cell body lacks a well-defined nucleus
(2) Reproduces only asexually
(3) Reproduces sexually by cell fusion and zygote formation
(4) All are single celled eukaryotes and heterotrophs
97. Select the correct option with respect to the following diagram.
(1) They are obligate autotrophs
(2) They have a flexible proteinaceous cell wall
(3) They show flagellar locomotion
(4) These are exclusively marine
[ BIOLOGY ]
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98. How many protistan members mentioned in the box are not photosynthetic autotrophs?
Gymnodinium, Melosira, Fuligo, Physarum, Dictyostelium,
Paramoecium, Chlamydomonas Trypanosoma, Gonyaulax ,
(1) Five
(2) Four
(3) Seven
(4) Six
99. Select the mismatch :
(1) Diatomaceous Earth : Used in polishing
(2) Dinoflagellates : Chief producers in oceans
(3) Euglenoids : Majority found in stagnant water
(4) Protozoans : Heterotrophs
100. Dinoflagellates differ from Euglenoids in having
(1) Two flagella
(2) Pigments identical to higher plants
(3) Flexible body due to protein rich pellicle
(4) A cell wall with stiff cellulosic plates
101. Which of the following statements are correct for all four organisms given in the box?
Entamoeba Trypanosoma Paramoecium Plasmodium, , ,
(a) All are heterotrophs
(b) Capture prey by putting out pseudopodia
(c) Have infectious spore-like stage in their life cycle
(d) Actively moving organisms
(e) Primitive relatives of animals
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (a), (c) and (d)
(3) (a) and (e)
(4) (c), (d) and (e)
102. Select the correct statement for slime moulds:
(1) Form plasmodium in unfavourable conditions
(2) Plasmodium differentiates to form fruiting bodies which bear gametes at tips
(3) Produce spores with true walls which are extremely resistant in adverse conditions
(4) Are chemo-autotrophic saprophytes
103. In Paramoecium, cilia helps in
(1) Active movement
(2) Steering water laden with food into gullet
(3) Protection from predators
(4) More than one option is correct
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104. The protistian cell body
(1) Lack 80 S ribosomes
(2) Contains membrane bound organelles
(3) Lack cilia or flagella always
(4) Contains double stranded circular DNA in cytoplasm
105. Select the incorrect statement:
(1) Protozoans live as predators or chemoautotrophs
(2) Slime moulds move along decaying twigs and leaves engulfing organic material
(3) Most Chrysophytes are photosynthetic
(4) Dinoflagellates show mesokaryotic nucleus
106. In which of the following features the protistans are similar to prokaryotes?
A. Body organisation
B. Cell wall composition
C. Cell type
D. Showing chemosynthetic autotrophic nutrition
E. Presence of nuclear membrane
Mark the correct option:
(1) A and C
(2) A, C and E
(3) Only A
(4) A and D
107. In Paramoecium, the metabolic activities and growth is controlled by
(1) Micronucleus
(2) Macronucleus
(3) Cilia
(4) Mitochondria
108. In which of the following features the saprobic protists resemble fungi?
(a) Mode of nutrition
(b) Fruiting body formation
(c) Spore formation
(d) Similar cell wall composition in vegetative stage
(1) Only (a) & (b)
(2) (a), (c) and (d)
(3) (c) & (d)
(4) (a), (b) and (c)
109. Select the features which is seen in majority of the fungi:
Mycelia type Cell wall Mode of
composition nutrition
(1) Coenocytic Chitin Parasitic
(2) Septate Cellulose Saprobic
(3) Coenocytic Cellulose Parasitic
(4) Septate Chitin Saprobic
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110. Sexual reproduction produces resting diploid zygospore in the life cycle of
(1) Pythium, Claviceps
(2) Mucor, Rhizopus
(3) Aspergillus, Erysiphe
(4) Armillaria, Lycoperdon
111. Oospore, ascospores and basidiospores are
(1) Meiospores
(2) Exogenous asexual spores
(3) Sexual spores
(4) Diploid spores
112. In which of the following features members of Basidiomycetes and Deuteromycetes show similarity?
(1) Presence of perfect stage
(2) Septate and unbranched mycelium
(3) Asexual reproduction by conidia
(4) Absence of sex organs
113. Select the correct statement w.r.t. the following diagram:
A
B
(1) A – represents pileus, B – Annulus
(2) Forms exogenous meiospores
(3) Produces coenocytic mycelium
(4) The fungus is mainly parasitic
114. Which of the following organism shows hallucinating properties similar to LSD and is used by Mexican Indians
during religious ceremonies?
(1) Ustilago nuda
(2) Psilocybe mexicana
(3) Armillaria
(4) Agaricus campestris
115. Select the incorrect match
(1) Morels and Truffles : Edible Basidiocarp
(2) Agaricus : Forms fairy rings
(3) Penicillium : Ascocarp
(4) Alternaria : Early blight of potato
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116. The following life-cycle pattern is associated with which of the following groups of fungi?
Heterothallic hypha (n)
PlasmogamyLong-lived dikaryotic
hypha (n + n)
Karyogamy
SynkaryonMeiosis
Haploidspores
(1) Sac fungi
(2) Club fungi
(3) Conjugation fungi
(4) Egg fungi
117. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. the members of Deuteromycetes
(1) Only asexual or vegetative phases of these fungi are known
(2) Large number of them help in mineral cycling
(3) Their mycelium is septate, branched and dikaryotic
(4) They reproduce by conidia
118. How many features given in the box can be associated with fungi?
Loose tissue organisation, Eukaryotic, Multicellular,
Osmotroph, Holophytic, Gradual degeneration of sex
(1) Five
(2) Four
(3) Six
(4) Three
119. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t.Neurospora.
(1) Forms endogenous sexual spores
(2) Used extensively in biochemical and genetic work
(3) Shows unorderly arrangement of ascospores
(4) Produces flask-shaped ascocarps
120. How many members in the given box produce fruiting bodies which forms exogenous meiospores?
Trichoderma Fusarium Saccharomyces Albugo Agaricus
Aspergillus Pythium Puccinia Peziza Ustilago Pleospora
, , , , ,
, , , , ,
(1) Four
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) One
121. What is the function of capsid in a virus?
(1) Makes the virus infectious
(2) Helps in the crystallisation of virus
(3) Protects the nucleic acid
(4) Significant for replication of genetic material
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122. The recent pandemic Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS) which killed hundreds of people in Saudi Arabia
is caused by
(1) Corona virus (2) Retro virus
(3) DNA virus (4) Hybrid virus
123. Select the correct statement w.r.t. the given figure of the virus.
(1) A zoophagineae with dsRNA
(2) A bacteriophage with dsRNA
(3) A plant virus with dsDNA
(4) T4 bacteriophage with dsDNA
124. Mark the mismatch :
(1) Pasteur : Coined the term virus
(2) W.M. Stanley : Crystallised virus and
found that crystals,
are largely consists of
nucleotides
(3) Beijerinck : Demonstrated that
extract of infectious
plants caused infection
in new tobacco plant
(4) Ivanowsky : Recognised that
microbes causing
mosaic disease of
tobacco are smaller
than bacteria
125. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. virusoids
(1) Sometimes called satellite RNA
(2) Are packaged together with plant viruses
(3) Are pathogenic to animals
(4) Replicates within the host
126. Find the odd one w.r.t. prions.
(1) Cause degenerative neurological diseases in sheep and humans
(2) Contain ribonucleotide protein particles
(3) Are proteinaceous infectious agent
(4) Stanley B. Prusiner introduced the term and got Nobel prize for pioneering work on prions
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127. Fungi grow and multiply preferentially in which of the following conditions?
(1) Cool and dry
(2) Hot and humid
(3) Dry and detritus rich
(4) Warm and dry
128. Select the incorrect statement for viroids.
(1) Discovered by T.O. Diener
(2) Have low molecular weight RNA
(3) Their free DNA lacks a protein coat
(4) Caused potato spindle tuber disease
129. Lichens are dual organisms, which show symbiotic association between
(1) Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic organisms
(2) Autotrophic and heterotrophic organisms
(3) Fungi and roots of higher plants
(4) More than one option is correct
130. In Endomycorrhizal associations
(1) Hartig Net is formed
(2) Fungal hyphae forms network in the intercellular spaces of cortex in stem of plants
(3) VAM (Vesicular Arbuscular Mycorrhiza) is formed
(4) Fungal partner is Boletus
131. Match items from column-I with column-II
Column-I Column-II
a. Lichen (i) Coliphage × 174
b. ss-DNA virus (ii) Usually plant viruses
c. ss-RNA virus (iii) Sub-viral particles
d. Free infectious RNA (iv) Do not grow in polluted area
(1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
(2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
132. Oogamous sexual reproduction is shown by
(1) Agaricus, Rhizopus
(2) Aspergillus, Colletotrichum
(3) Albugo, Pythium
(4) Saprolegnia, Rhizopus
133. In the five kingdom classification of Whitttaker there is no mention of
(1) Lichens, BGA, viroids
(2) Lichens and non-cellular microbes
(3) Mycorrhiza, BGA and viroids
(4) Prions, virus and algae
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134. Select the incorrect option w.r.t site of meiosis
(1) Rhizopus : Zygospore
(2) Penicillium : Ascus
(3) Agaricus : Basidia
(4) Trichoderma : Oospore
135. Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used for the industrial production of
(1) Citric acid
(2) Butyric acid
(3) Ethanol
(4) Butanol
136. Given below is the diagram of a chordate. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and D. Select the right option.
BA
C
D
[A]
(1)
(2)
Nerve cord Notochord Gills slits Post anal tail
[B] [C] [D]
Notochord Nerve cord Gills slits Post anal tail
(3) Notochord Nerve cord Gills slits Tail fin
Nerve cord Notochord Gills cleft(4) Regressing post anal part
137. Which of the following is the correct statement about diagram given below?
(1) Notochord is present only in larval tail
(2) Excretion by protonephridia
(3) Development direct
(4) Both (1) & (2)
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138. Which of the following feature is not true for all vertebrates?
(1) All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates
(2) Vertebrates have ventral heart
(3) In vertebrates, kidneys are for excretion and osmoregulation
(4) All vertebrates have paired appendages
139. Which of the following features is not true for the following diagram?
(1) It is marine but migrates for spawning to fresh water
(2) It has 7 pairs of gill slits
(3) It has a sucking and circular mouth without jaws
(4) Its body is devoid of scales and unpaired fins
140. Which of the following is correct feature for teleosts?
(1) Gills are not covered by an operculum
(2) Air bladders are absent
(3) It includes both marine and fresh water fishes
(4) Sexes are separate and fertilization internal
141. Choose the incorrect match.
(1) Scoliodon – Dog fish
(2) Trygon – Electric ray
(3) Pristis – Saw fish
(4) Carcharodon – White shark
142. Which of the following is angel fish?
(1) Pterophyllum
(2) Coelocanth
(3) Rohu
(4) Hippocampus
143. Which of the following feature is not true for the fish shown below?
(1) It has four pairs of gills
(2) Skin is covered with cycloid scales
(3) It is poikilothermous
(4) It is viviparous and shows parental care
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144. Choose the incorrect match.
(1) Exocoetus – Marine fish
(2) Labeo – Fresh water fish
(3) Clarius – Bhakur
(4) Betta – Fighting fish
145. Petromyzon, Pterophyllum, Psittacula, Testudo, Pteropus, Pristis, Salamandra.
How many of above animals are Poikilotherms?
(1) Three
(2) Five
(3) Four
(4) Six
146. Choose the incorrect match.
(1) Bufo – Toad
(2) Alytes – Midwife toad
(3) Hyla – Flying frog
(4) Ichthyophis – Limbless amphibian
147. Select the incorrect statement about amphibians.
(1) Most of them have two pairs of limbs
(2) Body is divisible into head and trunk
(3) A tympanum represents the ear
(4) The amphibian skin is moist with scales
148. How many of the given characteristics are incorrect for amphibians?
(a) Skull is dicondylic
(b) Alimentary canal opens into cloaca
(c) Development is indirect
(d) These are homeothermous
(e) Body divided into head, neck and trunk
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
149. Ichthyophis differs from snake in possessing
(1) Mesonephric kidney
(2) Glandular skin
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Metanephric kidney
150. Select the incorrect statement about Reptilia
(1) Scales are mesodermal
(2) Mostly oviparous and lay shelled eggs
(3) Heart three chambered
(4) Amnion present around embryo
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151. Choose the incorrect match.
(1) Chameleon – Show camouflage
(2) Calotes – Tree lizard
(3) Hemidactylus – Wall lizard
(4) Ophiosaurus – Glass snake
152. Which of the following is a non-poisonous snake?
(1) Naja
(2) Bungarus
(3) Python
(4) Viper
153. Choose the incorrect match.
(1) Crocodylus – Crocodile
(2) Bungarus – Krait
(3) Chelone – Tortoise
(4) Naja – Cobra
154. Which of the following animals shed their scales as skin cast?
(1) Krait
(2) Calotes
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Testudo
155. Choose the group of animals which show parental care.
(1) Hippocampus, Ichthyophis, Pipa
(2) Hippocampus, Pterophyllum, Ichthyophis
(3) Ichthyophis, Hyla, Pterophyllum
(4) Hippocampus, Hemidactylus, Ichthyophis
156. Pharyngeal gill slits are present only in the embryonic stage of
(1) Ichthyophis
(2) Petromyzon
(3) Carcharodon
(4) Pterophyllum
157. Which of the following is not characteristic feature of Aves?
(1) Presence of feathers
(2) Long bones with air cavity
(3) Hind limbs are modified into wings
(4) Homoiothermous
158. For members of class reptilia, how many statements are correct?
A. Scutes are epidermal
B. Alligators have four chambered heart
C. They are oviparous and development is direct
D. Fertilisation is external
(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Five
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159. Choose the incorrect match.
(1) Columba – Pigeon
(2) Psittacula – Parrot
(3) Aptenodytes – Vulture
(4) Corvus – Crow
160. Which of the following group of animals have crop and gizzard in digestive tract?
(1) Pavo, Chelone, Columba, Corvus
(2) Corvus, Aptenodytes, Pterophyllum, Pavo
(3) Pavo, Aptenodytes, Columba, Corvus
(4) Columba, Chelone, Pavo, Pterophyllum
161. Choose the character common to mammals and reptiles
(1) Hair
(2) Seven cervical vertebrae
(3) Nucleated RBCs
(4) Number of cranial nerves
162. Choose the odd one out.
(1) Testudo
(2) Alligator
(3) Krait
(4) Salamandra
163. Which of the given animal has indirect development?
(1) Salamandra
(2) Hemidactylus
(3) Chameleon
(4) Psittacula
164. Sharks differ from skates and rays by
(1) Gill slits situated on the ventral surface of the body
(2) They are bottom feeders
(3) Pectoral fins are distinctly marked off from their cylindrical body
(4) Body is dorso-ventrally flattened and disc-like
165. Choose the odd one out.
(1) Ornithorhynchus
(2) Balaenoptera
(3) Macropus
(4) Aptenodytes
166. What is correct about the organism shown below?
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(1) Fertilization external
(2) They are oviparous
(3) Mammary glands with nipples
(4) Scrotum is present in male
167. Mark the incorrect match.
(1) Platypus – Ear is devoid of pinna
(2) Macropus – Viviparous
(3) Psittacula – Preen gland present at the base of tail
(4) Ophiosaurus – Clawed digits
168. All of the following characters are correct for mammals, except
(1) Neck generally has seven cervical vertebrae
(2) Development direct
(3) Heterodent teeth present in jaws
(4) Pinna present in all mammals
169. Air sacs connected to lungs for supplementing respiration are present in
(1) Canis
(2) Psittacula
(3) Pteropus
(4) Pterophyllum
170. Which statement w.r.t. mammal is not correct?
(1) They have two pairs of limbs
(2) Skin is unique in possessing hair
(3) All are viviparous
(4) Dicondylic skull
171. What is common between Reptilia, Aves and Mammalia?
(1) They are homoiothermous
(2) Cornified scales present
(3) Heart is four chambered
(4) Paired pharyngeal gill slits present only in embryonic stage
172. Jawed vertebrates possess all the following features, except
(1) Ventral muscular heart
(2) Kidneys for osmoregulation
(3) Hollow dorsal nerve cord
(4) All are tetrapoda
173. Which of the following characters is exclusive to mammals?
(1) Middle ear with three ear ossicles
(2) Heart is 4 chambered
(3) Thecodont teeth
(4) Homoiothermy
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174. Aves share with Mammalia all of the following characters, except
(1) Twelve pairs of cranial nerves
(2) Four chambered heart
(3) Scales present on hindlimbs
(4) Fertilization internal
175. Ornithorhynchus is connecting link between
(1) Reptilia and Mammalia
(2) Aves and Reptilia
(3) Amphibia and Reptila
(4) Aves and Mammalia
176. Choose the odd one out, with respect to habitat
(1) Exocoetus
(2) Labeo
(3) Clarias
(4) Pterophyllum
177. Which of the following animal is sting ray?
(1) Torpedo
(2) Trygon
(3) Pristis
(4) Carcharodon
178. Anadromous migration is shown by
(1) Petromyzon
(2) Salmon
(3) Hilsa
(4) All of these
179. Three chambered heart with direct development are characters of
(1) Naja
(2) Bufo
(3) Salamandra
(4) Hyla
180. Different types of teeth are not in the jaw of
(1) Canis
(2) Equus
(3) Panthera
(4) Hyla
� � �
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Online Test - 2 [Objective (Answers & Hints)] All India Aakash Test Series-2017
ANSWERS
1. (2)
2. (1)
3. (2)
4. (3)
5. (4)
6. (3)
7. (2)
8. (1)
9. (2)
10. (3)
11. (2)
12. (4)
13. (2)
14. (1)
15. (1)
16. (3)
17. (2)
18. (1)
19. (3)
20. (3)
21. (4)
22. (2)
23. (3)
24. (3)
25. (4)
26. (3)
27. (3)
28. (3)
29. (4)
30. (4)
31. (2)
32. (1)
33. (3)
34. (2)
35. (1)
36. (4)
ONLINE TEST – 2
37. (2)
38. (3)
39. (3)
40. (4)
41. (1)
42. (1)
43. (1)
44. (1)
45. (1)
46. (3)
47. (4)
48. (2)
49. (3)
50. (3)
51. (4)
52. (2)
53. (4)
54. (4)
55. (4)
56. (3)
57. (3)
58. (2)
59. (1)
60. (1)
61. (3)
62. (2)
63. (2)
64. (1)
65. (3)
66. (1)
67. (2)
68. (1)
69. (2)
70. (1)
71. (4)
72. (4)
73. (1)
74. (4)
75. (4)
76. (2)
77. (1)
78. (2)
79. (3)
80. (1)
81. (4)
82. (3)
83. (3)
84. (1)
85. (3)
86. (2)
87. (4)
88. (3)
89. (3)
90. (2)
91. (3)
92. (2)
93. (4)
94. (3)
95. (2)
96. (3)
97. (3)
98. (1)
99. (2)
100. (4)
101. (3)
102. (3)
103. (4)
104. (2)
105. (1)
106. (3)
107. (2)
108. (4)
109. (4)
110. (2)
111. (3)
112. (4)
113. (2)
114. (2)
115. (1)
116. (2)
117. (3)
118. (1)
119. (3)
120. (4)
121. (3)
122. (1)
123. (4)
124. (2)
125. (3)
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127. (2)
128. (3)
129. (4)
130. (3)
131. (1)
132. (3)
133. (2)
134. (4)
135. (3)
136. (1)
137. (1)
138. (4)
139. (4)
140. (3)
141. (2)
142. (1)
143. (4)
144. (3)
145. (2)
146 (3)
147. (4)
148. (2)
149. (3)
150. (1)
151. (2)
152. (3)
153. (3)
154. (3)
155. (1)
156. (1)
157. (3)
158. (1)
159. (3)
160. (3)
161. (4)
162. (4)
163. (1)
164. (3)
165. (4)
166. (2)
167. (4)
168. (4)
169. (2)
170. (3)
171. (4)
172. (4)
173. (1)
174. (3)
175. (1)
176. (1)
177. (2)
178. (4)
179. (1)
180. (4)
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Hints to Selected Questions
[ PHYSICS ]
1. Answer (2)
x = t3
y = t3
23
x
dxv t
dt 2
3y
dyv t
dt
2 2 2 2 23
x yv v v t
2. Answer (1)
In last t second of ascent distance travelled is 21
2gt , so it is independent of speed of throw.
3. Answer (2)
2
1 1
1
2h ut gt (i)
2
2 2
1
2h ut gt (ii)
2
3
10
2h gt (iii)
Multiply equation (i) by t2 and (ii) by t
1,
2
2 1 2 1 2
2
1 1 2 2 1
1 2 1 2 1 2
14
2
14
2__________________
1( ) – ( )–
2
ht t t gt t
ht t t gt t
h t t gt t t t
1 2
1
2h gt t
Put value of h in equation (iii),
2
1 2 3
1 1
2 2gt t gt
2
3 1 2t t t
3 1 2t t t
4. Answer (3)
Speed v = at
dvat a
dt
21( )
4 2R a t
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2
Rt
a
aT = a
2
2 2 2( )C
Ra
aV ata
R R R
⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
2
2
2C
Ra
aaa
R
2 2
2 2 2
4T C
aa a a a
=
2
14
a
5. Answer (4)
2
sinV
R
2
cosV
R
2
1
Va
R
2 2
ˆ ˆcos sinV V
a i jR R
6. Answer (3)
7. Answer (2)
Horizontal velocity at any instant
u cos = u cos
coscos sec
cos
uV u
8. Answer (1)
Time taken by car to cover 20 km before turn,
20 1
40 2t h
Distance moved by fly
= 1
1002
50 km
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9. Answer (2)
60º
V c
os 3
0º
x
a/2
2cos60º
a
x
12cos60º2
2
a ax a
2
1cos60º
2
x a at
v vv
10. Answer (3)
Initial velocity of ball w.r.t. ball
u + v
2 2( ) 2 2uv u v u vt
g g g
11. Answer (2)
| |T
d va
dt
�
12. Answer (4)
1 2
2 3
5 5l l
V V
1 2
av
2 1
1 2 1 2
51
2 3 2 3 2 3
5 5 5 5
VVlV
l l V V
V V V V
13. Answer (2)
2 22
v vV u gh
2 21 1
2 2v
mv mu mgh
K = K0
– mgh
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14. Answer (1)
VRM
= VR – V
M
VR = V
RM + V
M
30º
VR
VM
VRM
VM
= VR sin 30º
VR cos 30º = V
RM
VR sin 30º = V
M
1
2R M
V V
VR
= 2VM
= 2 × 5 = 10 km/h
15. Answer (1)
F = 0, a = 0
4 – 3v = 0
4
3v m/s
16. Answer (3)
2
2 02
xx
x = 4 m
when 2
Rx y h
R 4x 2 m
2 2
2(2)2 2
2y h
4
4 2 m2
17. Answer (2)
tanV
H
V gt
V u
0
tan60ºgt
V
0
3gt
V
03V
tg
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18. Answer (1)
Vertical component
b – ct = 0
Vv = 0
b – ct = 0
bt
c Time of flight
22
bt
c
R = (Horizontal component) × t
2abaT
c
19. Answer (3)
0
1
vt
g
0
22
vt
g
Time to reach maximum height
0v
tg
Distance travelled
2
0
2
v
g
in next 0
2
v
g time
Distance travelled =
2
0
2
1
2 4
vg
g
⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
=
2 2
0 01
2 4 8
v v
g g
Total distance =
2 2 2
0 0 05
2 8 8
v v v
g g g
20. Answer (3)
VYX
= VY – V
X
VY = V
YX + V
X
VY
VX
VYX
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21. Answer (4)
1cos
3
22. Answer (2)
v
u
A B
2v u
2 2AB
lt
v u
2 2BA
lt
v u
2 2
2lt
v u
23. Answer (3)
New vector can be written as
ˆ ˆcos sina a i a j �
original vector ˆa i
�
1Da a a ����
� �
ˆ ˆ( cos ) ( sin )Da a i ai a j ����
2 2 2 2 2 2| | cos 2 cos sinDa a a a a ����
= 2 2 22 cosa a a
= 2 22 2 cosa a
= 22 (1 cos )a
= 2 sin2
a
24. Answer (3)
. 3 4 7
2 2
AB
B
⇒
� �
25. Answer (4)
2 9.82 2
9.8 u
T sg
2 21 11 2 2 m
2 2 x at
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26. Answer (3)
215
2gt , t = 1 s
27. Answer (3)
21
2gT H
21( 1)
2 2
Hg T
2
21
T
T
⎛ ⎞ ⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
21
T
T
2 2T T
2 2T T
( 2 1) 2T
2 2 1 2 2
2 12 1 2 1
T
(2 2)T s
28. Answer (3)
29. Answer (4)
T = t1 + t
2
Time to reach maximum height
h
= 1 2
2
t t
1 2
2
t tu g
⎛ ⎞ ⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
30. Answer (4)
2110
2gt
Time interval =2 1
4 2 2
s
2t s
2 2
2 1
1 3 2
2 2 2 2 2x x g
⎡ ⎤⎛ ⎞ ⎛ ⎞⎢ ⎥ ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟⎢ ⎥⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠⎣ ⎦
= 25
8m
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31. Answer (2)
604s
15T
202
y
gTv m/s
2 2
x yv v v
= 25 m/s
1tan
y
x
v
v
⎛ ⎞ ⎜ ⎟
⎝ ⎠
= 53º
32. Answer (1)
u cos
g
u
2( cos )c
ua g
R
2 2cosu
Rg
33. Answer (3)
30º
3564 m
x
100tan30º
3564 3564 3564
x ut u s
1 100
35643
u
3564 3564 356420
1.73 100 1733 100u ⇒
m/s
34. Answer (2)
sinM
dt
V
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1 1km
4 sinM
V
VM
sin = 4 (i)
VR = V
M cos
VM
sin = 4
VM
cos = VR
2 2 24
M RV V
(5)2 = 16 + VR
2
VR = 3 km/hr
35. Answer (1)
2 22
1(2 1)
2 1 2 121
2
n
a nS n
S nn nan
36. Answer (4)
S u2
37. Answer (2)
V = |t – 2|
V = t – 2 or V = 2 – t
t – 2 = 0 a = –1 m/s2
t = 2s
2
0 2
1| | 2 2 1(2) 2 m
2S
2
2 4
1| | 1 2 2m
2S
S = S0 – 2
+ S2 – 4
= 4 m
38. Answer (3)
39. Answer (3)
2 2 10 100V gh
(0)2 – 2 × 10 × 100 = 2a × 2
2 10 100
2 2a
a = – 500 m/s2
= u – at
4 2 10 100
500t
a
10 20 2 5 2 5 5
500 50 5 10 25
0.09 s
Page 42
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40. Answer (4)
2 2 2
1
sin 60º 3
2
u uy
g ug
2 2 2
2
sin 30º
2 4
u uy
g g
1
23
yy
41. Answer (1)
tanv
H
V gT
V u
= 10 10
1100
= 45º
42. Answer (1)
(2 1)(2) 4 2dv
a v x xdx
at h = 0
a = 2 m/s2
43. Answer (1)
lawA
C
D
44. Answer (1)
1 1ˆ ˆ
v u i gtj
2 2ˆ ˆ
v u i gtj
For 1 2
v v
1 2. 0v v
� �
1 2ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ( ).( ) 0u i gtj u i gtj
–u1u
2 + g2
t2 = 0
g2t2 = u
1u
2
1 22 1 2
2,
u uu ut t
gg
Page 43
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45. Answer (1)
4
5
3
x = 36 t y = 48 t – 4.9 t2
vn = 36 v
y = 48 – 9.8 t
at t = 0
48 8 4tan
36 6 3
v Y
H x
v v
v v
4sin
5
1 4sin
5
⎛ ⎞ ⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
[ CHEMISTRY
]
46. Answer (3)
47. Answer (4)
High charge to size ratio.
48. Answer (2)
Groupwise alkali metals have lowest IE.
49. Answer (3)
50. Answer (3)
51. Answer (4)
Coinage metals are Cu, Ag and Au.
52. Answer (2)
Nitrogen has positive electron gain enthalpy.
53. Answer (4)
54. Answer (4)
Fe2+ have 5 unpaired electrons.
55. Answer (4)
hx . v
4 m
56. Answer (3)
h = h0 + KE
57. Answer (3)
58. Answer (2)
2
n
nr
Z
⎛ ⎞ ⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
Page 44
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59. Answer (1)
Lyman series have maximum energy.
60. Answer (1)
61. Answer (3)
62. Answer (2)
2
n 2
ZE
n
⎛ ⎞ ⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
63. Answer (2)
64. Answer (1)
X-rays have minimum frequency in given rays.
65. Answer (3)
Non-spherical node = (n - l - 1)
Spherical node = l
66. Answer (1)
67. Answer (2)
2n
r 0.529Z
⎛ ⎞ ⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟
⎝ ⎠
68. Answer (1)
2nd shell have s and p subshell.
69. Answer (2)
For n = 3, l = 0, 1, 2
70. Answer (1)
71. Answer (4)
72. Answer (4)
73. Answer (1)
74. Answer (4)
s, not related with Schrodinger equation.
75. Answer (4)
76. Answer (2)
77. Answer (1)
f-block elements are inner transition metal.
78. Answer (2)
For nitrogen family = ns2 np3
79. Answer (3)
80. Answer (1)
81. Answer (4)
1E
Page 45
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[ BIOLOGY]
91. Answer (3)
The boundary of protista is not well defined.
92. Answer (2)
Chrysophytes are mainly phytoplanktons.
93. Answer (4)
Gonyaulax causes red tides.
94. Answer (3)
Body organisation of protistans is cellular.
95. Answer (2)
Diatoms have silicified cell wall.
96. Answer (3)
Protists reproduce asexually and sexually by a process involving cell fusion and zygote formation.
97. Answer (3)
Figure shows Euglena.
98. Answer (1)
Fuligo, Physarum, Dictyostelium, Paramoecium and Trypanosoma.
99. Answer (2)
Diatoms are chief producers in the oceans.
100. Answer (4)
Cell wall is absent in Euglenoids.
101. Answer (3)
Protozoans are heterotrophs and primitive relatives of animals.
102. Answer (3)
Slime moulds produce spores having cellulosic cell walls.
82. Answer (3)
2 2x y
d present on X and Y axis.
83. Answer (3)
84. Answer (1)
85. Answer (3)
86. Answer (2)
109 - Unnilenium
87. Answer (4)
Cs have least ionization enthalpy.
88. Answer (3)
89. Answer (3)
90. Answer (2)
Order of EN O > Cl > S > H
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103. Answer (4)
Movement and food intake.
104. Answer (2)
80 S ribosomes are present.
105. Answer (1)
Protozoans live as predators or parasites.
106. Answer (3)
Both cellular.
107. Answer (2)
Micronucleus controls reproduction.
108. Answer (4)
Nutrition, fruiting body and spore formation.
109. Answer (4)
Septate, chitin cell wall and saprophytes.
110. Answer (2)
In Zygomycetes.
111. Answer (3)
They are sexual spores.
112. Answer (4)
Sex organs are absent in both and mycelia is septate and branched.
113. Answer (2)
A is Gills and B is Rhizomorph.
114. Answer (2)
Psilocybe mexicana called sacred mushroom.
115. Answer (1)
Morels and truffles are edible members of Ascomycetes.
116. Answer (2)
Basidiomycetes
117. Answer (3)
Dikaryotic mycelia is absent.
118. Answer (1)
Fungi have absorptive mode of nutrition.
119. Answer (3)
Ascospores are arranged linearly in Neurospora.
120. Answer (4)
Fruiting bodies stage is not formed in Puccinia and Ustilago.
121. Answer (3)
Protects nucleic acid from nucleases.
122. Answer (1)
Corona virus called MERS-CoV. having RNA genome.
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123. Answer (4)
T4 - Bacteriophage.
124. Answer (2)
Crystal is largely protein.
125. Answer (3)
They do not cause infection generally, but can affect plants.
126. Answer (2)
They do not contain nucleic acid.
127. Answer (2)
In hot and humid conditions.
128. Answer (3)
Viroids are free RNA.
129. Answer (4)
Between algae and fungi. Algae can be BGA.
130. Answer (3)
Endomycorrhiza forms VAM.
131. Answer (1)
Plant viruses are usually RNA viruses.
132. Answer (3)
Oomycetes.
133. Answer (2)
Virus, viroids and lichens.
134. Answer (4)
Trichoderma is deuteromycete fungi.
135. Answer (3)
Ethyl alcohol.
136. Answer (1)
137. Answer (1)
138. Answer (4)
Cyclostomes are vertebrates having only unpaired fins.
139. Answer (4)
Petromyzon is devoid of paired fins.
140. Answer (3)
Teleosts are bony fish.
141. Answer (2)
Trygon is sting ray.
142. Answer (1)
143. Answer (4)
144. Answer (3)
Clarias is magur.
145. Answer (2)
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� � �
146. Answer (3)
Hyla is tree frog.
147. Answer (4)
Amphibians lack scales.
148. Answer (2)
149. Answer (3)
150. Answer (1)
Reptilian scales are ectodermal.
151. Answer (2)
Calotes is garden lizard.
152. Answer (3)
153. Answer (3)
154. Answer (3)
155. Answer (1)
156. Answer (1)
In amphibians, embryonic gill slits are closed as metamorphosis completes.
157. Answer (3)
158. Answer (1)
159. Answer (3)
160. Answer (3)
161. Answer (4)
162. Answer (4)
163. Answer (1)
164. Answer (3)
165. Answer (4)
166. Answer (2)
In platypus, the testes are intra-abdominal and hence scrotum is absent.
167. Answer (4)
Ophiosaurus is limbless lizard.
168. Answer (4)
169. Answer (2)
170. Answer (3)
171. Answer (4)
172. Answer (4)
173. Answer (1)
174. Answer (3)
175. Answer (1)
176. Answer (1)
177. Answer (2)
178. Answer (4)
179. Answer (1)
180. Answer (4)