Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014 Path to Success CAREER INSTITUTE KOTA (RAJASTHAN) T M FORM NUMBER CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME (ACADEMIC SESSION 2013-2014) PAPER CODE AIIMS (FULL Syllabus) 01CM213083 DATE : 19 - 02 - 2014 MAJOR TEST # 06 ENTHUSIAST COURSE TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014 1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be alloted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat only. If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them. 2. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall. 3. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge. 4. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing. 5. Each correct answer carries 1 marks, while one third mark will be deducted from the total of individual subject for each incorrect answer. 1 Corporate Office CAREER INSTITUTE “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005 Trin : +91 - 744 - 2436001 Fax : +91-744-2435003 E-Mail: [email protected]Website: www.allen.ac.in Kota | Chandigarh | Ahmedabad Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so / Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to [email protected]within 2 days along with Your Form No. & Complete Test Details. Correction Form No. Test Details [email protected]mail INSTRUCTIONS ( )
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Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014
6/35 Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014 01CM213083
MAJOR TEST : AIIMS
24. The figure shows a combination
4°
µ2
µ1
°
of two thin prism producing
dispersion without deviation
(µ1 = 1.54, µ2 = 1.72).
The value of is
(1) 1° (2) 2°
(3) 3° (4) 4°
25. In the given arrangement, n number of equal
masses are connected by strings of negligible
masses. The tension in the string connected to
nth mass is
m
n
m
3
m
2
m
1
M
4….. m
(1) Mnm
mMg
(2)
nmM
mMg
(3) mg (4) mng
26. A block of wood is floating in water in a closedvessel as shown in the figure. The vessel isconnected to an air pump. When more air ispushed into the vessel, the block of wood floats
with (neglect compressibility of water) :-
(1) larger part in the water
(2) smaller part in the water
(3) same part in the water
(4) at some instant it will sink
27. Two identical batteries, each of emf 2V and
internal resistance r = 1 are connected as shown.
The maximum power that can be developed
across R using these batteries is :-
1
1
R
2V
2V
(1) 3.2 W (2) 8.2 W
(3) 2 W (4) 4W
24.
4°
µ2
µ1
°
gS r ks (µ
1 = 1.54, µ
2 = 1.72).
(1) 1°(2) 2°(3) 3°
(4) 4°
25. n
n
m
n
m
3
m
2
m
1
M
4….. m
(1) Mnm
mMg
(2)
nmM
mMg
(3) mg (4) mng
26.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 27. emf 2V
r = 1 R
:-
1
1
R
2V
2V
(1) 3.2 W (2) 8.2 W
(3) 2 W (4) 4W
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MAJOR TEST : AIIMS
28. An interference is observed due to two coherent
sources ‘A’ & ‘B’ having zero plase difference
separated by a distance 4 along the y-axis where
is the wavelength of the source. A detector D
is moved on the positive x-axis. The number of
points on the x-axis excluding the points x = 0
& x = at which maximum will be observed is.
A
y
B D
x
(1) three (2) four (3) two (4) infinite
29. A block of mass m placed on a rough inclined
plane of inclination = 30° can be just prevented
from sliding down by applying a force F1 up the
plane and it can be made to just slide up the plane
by applying force F2 up the plane. If the
coefficient of friction between the block and the
inclined plane is 1/2 3 , the relation between F1
and F2 is :-
(1) F2 = F1 (2) F2 = 2F1
(3) F2 = 3F
1(4) F
2 = 4F
1
30. A vertical glass capillary tube, open at both ends,
contains some water. Which of the following
shapes may be taken by the water in the tube?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
31. A voltmeter connected in series with a resistanceR
1 to a circuit indicates a voltage V
1 = 198 V.
When a series resistor R2 = 2R1 is used, thevoltmeter indicates a voltage V2 = 180 V. If theresistance of the voltmeter is RV = 900 then, the
applied voltage across A and B is:-
V V198V 180V
B B
A A
R1 R = 2R2 1
(1) 210 V (2) 200 V (3) 220 V (4) 240 V
28. y-4
A B
Dx x = 0
x = x
A
y
B D
x
(1) (2) (3) (4) 29. m = 30°
F1
F2
1/2 3 , F1 F2 :-
(1) F2 = F1 (2) F2 = 2F1
(3) F2 = 3F1 (4) F2 = 4F1
30. ?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
31. R1
V1 = 198 V
R2 = 2R1 V2 = 180 V R
V = 900 A B
:-
V V198V 180V
B B
A A
R1 R = 2R2 1
(1) 210 V (2) 200 V (3) 220 V (4) 240 V
Use stop, look and go method in reading the question
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MAJOR TEST : AIIMS
32. A single slit Fraunhofer diffraction pattern is
formed with white light. For what wavelength of
light the third secondary maximum in the
diffraction pattern coincides with the second
secondary maximum in the pattern for red light
of wavelength 6500 Å :-
(1) 4400 Å (2) 4100 Å
(3) 4642.8 Å (4) 9100 Å
33. A block of mass 3kg is pulled up on a smooth
incline of angle 37° with the horizontal. If the
block moves with an acceleration of 2m/sec2, then
the power delivered by the pulling force at t = 5sec
after the start of motion –
(1) 120 W (2) 240 W
(3) 60 W (4) 480 W
34. Length of a spring of force constant k in its
unstretched condition is . The spring is cut into
two parts which have their unstretched lengths in
the ratio 1 : 2 = q : 1. Force constants of the two
parts k1 and k2 are then:-
(1) k(q + 1), kq
(2) k (q 1)
q
, kq
(3) k(q 1)
q
, k(q + 1)
(4) k(q 1)
q
, k
(q 1)
q
35. A wire cd of length and mass m is sliding
without friction on conducting rails ax and by as
shown. The vertical rails are connected to each
other with a resistance R between a and b. A
uniform magnetic field B is applied perpendicular
to the plane abcd such that cd moves with a
constant velocity of :-
(1) mgR
B
(2) 2 2
mgR
B
Ra b
c d
x y
(3) 3 3
mgR
B
(4) 2
mgR
B
32. (single slit
diffraction pattern )
(third
secondary maxima )6500 Å
:-
(1) 4400 Å (2) 4100 Å
(3) 4642.8 Å (4) 9100 Å
33. 3kg 37° 2m/sec2 t = 5sec –(1) 120 W (2) 240 W
(3) 60 W (4) 480 W
34. k
1 : 2 = q : 1 k1 k2
:-(1) k(q + 1), kq
(2) k (q 1)
q
, kq
(3) k(q 1)
q
, k(q + 1)
(4) k(q 1)
q
, k
(q 1)
q
35. m cd ax by
a b R
abcd
B cd
:-
(1) mgR
B
(2) 2 2
mgR
B
Ra b
c d
x y
(3) 3 3
mgR
B
(4) 2
mgR
B
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MAJOR TEST : AIIMS
36. The binding energies of nuclei X and Y are E1
and E2 respectively. Two atoms of X fuse to give
one atom Y and an energy Q is released then :-
(1) Q = 2E1 – E2 (2) Q = E2 – 2E1
(3) 2E1 + E2 (4) Q = 2E2 + E1
37. If the system is released from rest then speed of
mass m when it has travelled a distance d on a
rough surface is :
m
2m
µ = 1/2
(1) gd (2) gd
2
(3) 2gd (4) gd
2
38. A particle is executing SHM of time period
24 sec and amplitude 20 cm. At t = 0, its
displacement is + 20 cm. Shortest time taken by
the particle in moving from x = + 10 cm to
x = – 10 cm is :-
(1) 4 sec (2) 2 sec (3) 8 sec (4) 3 sec
39. An electric field of 1500 V/m and a magnetic field
of 0.40 weber/metre2 act on a moving electron.
The minimum uniform speed along a straight line
the electron could have is :-
(1) 1.6 × 1015 m/s (2) 6 × 10–16 m/s
(3) 3.75 × 103 m/s (4) 3.75 × 102 m/s
40. The activity of a sample reduces from A0 to 0A
3
is one hour. The activity after 3 hours more
will :-
(1) 0A
3 3(2)
0A
9
(3) 0A
9 3(4)
0A
27
36. X Y E1 E
2
X Y
Q :-
(1) Q = 2E1 – E2 (2) Q = E2 – 2E1
(3) 2E1 + E2 (4) Q = 2E2 + E1
37. m d :
m
2m
µ = 1/2
(1) gd (2) gd
2
(3) 2gd (4) gd
2
38. 24 sec 20 cm
SHM t = 0 + 20 cm.
x = + 10 cm x = – 10 cm
:-
(1) 4 sec (2) 2 sec (3) 8 sec (4) 3 sec
39. 1500 V/m
0.40 /2
:-
(1) 1.6 × 1015 m/s (2) 6 × 10–16 m/s
(3) 3.75 × 103 m/s (4) 3.75 × 102 m/s
40. A0 0A
3
:-
(1) 0A
3 3(2)
0A
9
(3) 0A
9 3(4)
0A
27
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MAJOR TEST : AIIMS
41. For the complete combustion of 0.2 moles of the
sugar, how many moles of oxygen is required ?
(1) 1.2 (2) 0.24 (3) 2.4 (4) 0.12
42. Select the correct order of acidic strength of
oxides :-
(1) SO2 > SO3 > CO2
(2) Cs2O > K2O > Na2O
(3) CO2 > N
2O
5 > B
2O
3
(4) SO3 > CO2 > B2O3
43. The variation of extent of adsorption with
pressure at a given constant temperature is given
in following figure :
Pressure
xm
T3
T2
T1
Which of the following relation between
temperature of isotherms is correct?
(1) T1 = T
2 = T
3(2) T
1 < T
2 < T
3
(3) T3 < T
2 < T
1(4) T
1 < T
2 > T
3
44. Which of the following is an amino acid ?
(1) H2N – COOH (2) CH – CH – COOH3
CONH2
(3)NH – C – COOH2
O
(4) COOHN
H45. 10 g of CaCO
3 contains :-
(1) 6 × 1022 atoms of Ca
(2) 0.1 gm eqv. of Ca
(3) 10 moles of CaCO3
(4) 1 gm. atom of calcium
46. Which alkali metal forms bicarbonate only in
aqueous solution ?
(1) Lithium (2) Sodium
(3) Potassium (4) Caesium
47. Which expansion will produce more change in
entropy during reversible & isothermal process?
(1) 1 mole H2 at 300 K from 2 litre to 20 litre
(2) 1 mole N2 at 400 K from 1 litre to 10 litre
(3) 1 mole O3 at 500 K from 3 litre to 30 litre
(4) All have same S
41. 0.2(1) 1.2 (2) 0.24 (3) 2.4 (4) 0.12
42. :-(1) SO2 > SO3 > CO2
(2) Cs2O > K2O > Na2O
(3) CO2 > N
2O
5 > B
2O
3
(4) SO3 > CO
2 > B
2O
3
43.
Pressure
xm
T3
T2
T1
(1) T
1 = T
2 = T
3
(2) T1 < T
2 < T
3
(3) T3 < T
2 < T
1
(4) T1 < T
2 > T
3
44. ?
(1) H2N – COOH (2) CH – CH – COOH3
CONH2
(3)NH – C – COOH2
O
(4) COOHN
H45. 10 CaCO3 :-
(1) 6 × 1022 (2) 0.1 Ca(3) 10 CaCO
3
(4) 1 Ca 46.
?(1) (2) (3) (4)
47. ?(1) 300 K 1 H
2 2 20
(2) 400 K 1 N2 1 10
(3) 500 K 1 O2 3 30
(4) S
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MAJOR TEST : AIIMS
48. Which of the following is not correctly matched :-
(1) Peracetamole
N 3H – C – CH
O
OH
(2)PHBV—O–C 2H–CH –C–O–CH–CH –C—2
OCH3 CH –CH2 3 On
(3) Peptide bond – C – NH –
O
(4) Anti Histamines Al(OH)3
49. Five valence electrons of nitrogen are shown as :
2p2s
AB C D E
If the spin quantum number of B and E is
–1/2. The group of electrons with three same
quantum numbers are :-
(1) Only AB (2) Only CDE
(3)Both the above (4) None of these
50. Aqueous ammonia can be used to separate which
of the following pair of ions ?
(1) Al3+ and Pb2+ (2) Ni2+ and Cu2+
(3) Zn2+ and Cr3+ (4) Al3+ and Zn2+
51. In any natural process :-
(1) The entropy of the universe remains const.
(2) The entropy of the universe tends towards
maximum
(3) The entropy of the universe tends towards
minimum
(4) Any of the above can happen
52. Wrong data for the first order reaction are :-
(1) t50%
= 100 sec, t75%
= 200 sec
(2) t75%
= 32 min, t50%
= 16 min
(3) Both the above
(4) t50% = 100 sec, t75% = 150 sec
53. Electron moving with a velocity of 'V' has a
certain value of de-Broglie wave length. The
velocity of neutron having the same wavelength
would be ?
(1) 1840
V(2) 1840 V (3)
V
1840 (4) V
48. :-
(1)
N 3H – C – CH
O
OH
(2)PHBV—O–C 2H–CH –C–O–CH–CH –C—2
OCH3 CH –CH2 3 On
(3) – C – NH –
O
(4) Al(OH)3
49.
2p2s
AB C D E
B E –1/2
:-
(1) AB (2) CDE
(3) (4) 50. NH
3 ?(1) Al3+ Pb2+ (2) Ni2+ Cu2+
(3) Zn2+ Cr3+ (4) Al3+ Zn2+
51. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
52. :-(1) t50%
= 100 , t75%
= 200 (2) t
75% = 32 , t
50% = 16
(3) (4) t50% = 100 , t75% = 150
53. 'V'
:-
(1) 1840
V(2) 1840 V (3)
V
1840 (4) V
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MAJOR TEST : AIIMS
54. Cl can be oxidised by :-
(1) MnO2 (2) KMnO4
(3) CuCl2 + O
2(4) All
55. In the following reaction 3A + B 2C + D
Initial mole of B is double of A. At equilibrium
mole of A and C are equal. Hence % dissociation
of B is
(1) 60% (2) 10%
(3) 40% (4) 33.33%
56. For the cell, Mn(s)|Mn+2
(aq)(0.4M)||Sn+2(aq)(0.04)|Sn
(s),
Calculate free energy change (G) at 298 K.
Given : E°Mn+2|Mn = –1.18 V; E°Sn+2|Sn = –0.14 volt
2.303RT
F = 0.06
(1) 180.93 KJ (2) –194.93 KJ
(3) –180.93 KJ (4) None of these
57. Acetic acid exists as dimer in a benzene solution.
vant's Hoff factor was found to be 0.52. What is
the degree of association ?
(1) 0.48 (2) 0.88 (3) 0.96 (4) 0.52
58. Common hydrolysis so products of XeF2 & XeF
4
are :-
(1) Xe (2) O2
(3) HF (4) All
59. For the reaction 2HI(g) H2(g) + I2(g) the
degree of dissociation () of HI(g) is related to
equilibrium constant KP by the expression :–
(1) 1 2
2
KP(2)
1 2
2
KP
(3) 2
1 2
K
KP
P(4)
2
1 2
K
K
P
P
60. If Au / Au
E
is 1.69 volt and 3Au / AuE
is 1.40 volt.
Then 3Au / AuE
will be :-
(1) 0.19 V (2) 1.255 V
(3) – 1.255 V (4) None of these
61. Total number of sulphur atoms in H2S(n)O
6 which
form covalent bond in their ground state :-
(1) n (2) n – 1
(3) n – 2 (4) n + 1
54. Cl :-(1) MnO2 (2) KMnO4
(3) CuCl2 + O
2(4) All
55. 3A + B 2C + D B
A A C
B
(1) 60% (2) 10%
(3) 40% (4) 33.33%
56. Mn(s)
|Mn+2(aq)(0.4M)||Sn+2
(aq)(0.04)|Sn(s)
298 K (G)
: E°Mn+2|Mn
= –1.18 V; E°Sn+2|Sn
= –0.14 volt
2.303RT
F = 0.06
(1) 180.93 KJ (2) –194.93 KJ
(3) –180.93 KJ (4)
57.
0.52
:-(1) 0.48 (2) 0.88 (3) 0.96 (4) 0.52
58. XeF2 XeF
4
:-(1) Xe (2) O2
(3) HF (4) 59. 2HI(g) H2(g) + I2(g) HI(g)
() KP :–
(1) 1 2
2
KP (2) 1 2
2
KP
(3) 2
1 2
K
KP
P(4)
2
1 2
K
K
P
P
60. Au / Au
E
= 1.69 3Au / AuE
= 1.40
3Au / AuE
:-
(1) 0.19 V (2) 1.255 V
(3) – 1.255 V (4) 61. H2S(n)O6 S atom
covalent bonds :-(1) n (2) n – 1
(3) n – 2 (4) n + 1
Take it Easy and Make it Easy
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MAJOR TEST : AIIMS
62. Which of the following will be redox change :-
(1) NaCl + K2Cr2O7 + C.H2SO4 red vapours
(2) KCl + C.H2SO
4 Acid
(3) NaNO3 + C.H
2SO
4 Acid
(4) None
63. In Friedel-Craft's alkylation besides AlCl3, the
other reactants are :-
(1) C6H6 + NH3 (2) C6H6 + CH3COCl
(3) C6H6 + CH3Cl (4) C6H6 + CH4
64. Chromium metal crystallises in body centred
cubic lattice. The edge length of unit cell is found
to be 287 pm. Atomic radius of chromium will
be :-
(1) 87 pm (2) 62.135 pm
(3) 124.27 pm (4) None of these
65.
Strong ligand (octahedral field)
CFSE = x1
Weak ligand (octahedral field) CFSE = x2
(CFSE = Crystal Field stasilisation energy )
dMetal ion
3
The correct relation of x1 and x2 are :-
(1) x1 > x
2(2) x
2 > x
1
(3) x1 = x
2(4) x
2 = 1.6 x
1
66. Which of the following is correct :-
Reaction Product
(1) Cu + C.HNO3 NH3
(2) Zn + dil HNO3 NO2
(3) NaBr + C.H2SO
4 HBr
(4) KI + F2 KF + I2
67. Match the following :
Set I Set II
(a) 2 4Conc. H SO2 5 170ºC
C H OH (i) Methane
(b) 3 Ag (Powder )CHI (ii) Ethylene
(c) Electrolysis3CH COONa(aq) (iii) Benzene
(d) NaOH
3 CaO,CH COONa
(iv) Acetylene
(v) Ethane
The correct match is :-
(1) a - ii, b - iv, c - v, d - i
(2) a - ii, b - iv, c - v, d - iii
(3) a - iv, b - ii, c - v, d - i
(4) a - iv, b - ii, c - v, d - iii
62. redox :-(1) NaCl + K2Cr2O7 + C.H2SO4 red vapours
(2) KCl + C.H2SO
4 Acid
(3) NaNO3 + C.H
2SO
4 Acid
(4) 63. AlCl3
:-(1) C6H6 + NH3 (2) C6H6 + CH3COCl
(3) C6H6 + CH3Cl (4) C6H6 + CH4
64.
287 pm. :-
(1) 87 pm (2) 62.135 pm
(3) 124.27 pm (4)
65.
ligand (
)
CFSE = x1
ligand ( )CFSE = x2
(CFSE = Crystal Field stasilisation energy )
d3
x1 x2 :-
(1) x1 > x
2(2) x
2 > x
1
(3) x1 = x
2(4) x
2 = 1.6 x
1
66. :-
(1) Cu + C.HNO3
NH3
(2) Zn + dil HNO3
NO2
(3) NaBr + C.H2SO
4 HBr
(4) KI + F2 KF + I2
67. :Set I Set II
(a) 2 4Conc. H SO2 5 170ºC
C H OH (i) Methane
(b) 3 Ag (Powder )CHI (ii) Ethylene
(c) Electrolysis3CH COONa(aq) (iii) Benzene
(d) NaOH
3 CaO,CH COONa
(iv) Acetylene
(v) Ethane :-(1) a - ii, b - iv, c - v, d - i
(2) a - ii, b - iv, c - v, d - iii
(3) a - iv, b - ii, c - v, d - i
(4) a - iv, b - ii, c - v, d - iii
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MAJOR TEST : AIIMS
68.–Br
NO2
Mg
Ether A 2 2CO / H O
Dry ice B; B is:-
(1)
–CHO
NO2
(2)
–CH –OH2
NO2
(3) –COOH
NO2
(4) –OH
NO2
69. Correct Match is :-
Attack of ligand on d-orbital of metal
Metal ion having max-energy
(1) Square planar dxz, dyz
(2) Tetrahedral 2zd
(3) Octahedral dxz
, dyz
, dxy
(4) Triagonal 2zd
Bipyramidal
70. Give the correct reaction :-
(a) NaNO2 2 4
4
dil.H SO
FeSONO(g)
(b) HNO3 4 10P O
N2O5
(c) P4 + NaOH PH3 + Na3PO4
(d) (NH4)2Cr
2O
7 D N
2O + Cr
2O
3 + H
2O
Correct option are :-
(1) a & b (2) a & c
(3) b & c (4) b & d
71. 3-phenylpropene on reaction with HBr gives (as
a major product) :-
(1) C6H5CH2CH(Br)CH3
(2) C6H5CH(Br)CH2CH3
(3) C6H5CH2CH2CH2Br
(4) C6H5CH(Br)CH==CH2
72. CH3COOH 3NH
X
NaOBr Y
2NaNO HCl Z . What is Z ?
(1) CH –C–H3
O
(2) CH3–CH2–OH
(3) CH3–O–CH3 (4) CH3–CH2–Cl
68.–Br
NO2
Mg
Ether A 2 2CO / H O
Dry ice B; B :-
(1)
–CHO
NO2
(2)
–CH –OH2
NO2
(3) –COOH
NO2
(4) –OH
NO2
69. :-
ligand
d-
(1) dxz, dyz
(2) 2zd
(3) dxz
, dyz
, dxy
(4) 2zd
70. :-
(a) NaNO2 2 4
4
dil.H SO
FeSONO(g)
(b) HNO3 4 10P O
N2O5
(c) P4 + NaOH PH3 + Na3PO4
(d) (NH4)
2Cr
2O
7 D N
2O + Cr
2O
3 + H
2O
:-(1) a b (2) a c(3) b c (4) b d
71. 3-HBr :-(1) C6H5CH2CH(Br)CH3
(2) C6H5CH(Br)CH2CH3
(3) C6H5CH2CH2CH2Br
(4) C6H5CH(Br)CH==CH2
72. CH3COOH 3NH
X
NaOBr Y
2NaNO HCl Z ; Z ?
(1) CH –C–H3
O
(2) CH3–CH2–OH
(3) CH3–O–CH3 (4) CH3–CH2–Cl
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73. In which molecule all X-O bond length present in
molecule are equal (X = central atom) :-
(1) N2O
5(2) P
4O
6
(3) H2CO
3(4) P
4O
10
74. A gas X diffuses three times faster than another
gas Y. The ratio of their densities is :-
(1)1/3 (2) 1/9
(3) 1/6 (4) 1/12
75. Which of the following carbocations is most
stable?
(1)
NO2
H
X
(2)
NO2
H
X
(3)
O N2
H
X
(4)
NO2
H
X
76. Which of the following will not lose asymmetryon reduction with LiAlH4 :-
(1)
CHO
CH –CH2 3HO–CH2
CH=CH2
(2)
CH3
COOH
C CH
HO–CH2
(3)
CH3
CHO
CH –CH2 3
CH =CH2 –O
(4)
CH3
Cl
CH –CH2 3
H
73. X-O
(X = )
(1) N2O
5(2) P
4O
6
(3) H2CO
3(4) P
4O
10
74. X Y
(1)1/3 (2) 1/9
(3) 1/6 (4) 1/12
75. ?
(1)
NO2
H
X
(2)
NO2
H
X
(3)
O N2
H
X
(4)
NO2
H
X
76. LiAlH4 :-
(1)
CHO
CH –CH2 3HO–CH2
CH=CH2
(2)
CH3
COOH
C CH
HO–CH2
(3)
CH3
CHO
CH –CH2 3
CH =CH2 –O
(4)
CH3
Cl
CH –CH2 3
H
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77. Pb and Sn are extracted from their chief ore
by :
(1) Carbon reduction and self reduction
respectively.
(2) Self reduction and carbon reduction
respectively.
(3) Electrolysis and self reduction respectively.
(4) Self reduction and electrolysis respectively.
78. The volume of gases NH3, CO
2 and H
2 adsorbed by
1 gram charoal at 300 K will lie in the order :
(1) CO2 > NH
3 > H
2
(2) NH3 > CO
2 > H
2
(3) NH3 > H
2 > CO
2
(4) H2 > CO
2 > NH
3
79.
HC – OH
C – OH
HOHOHH
HHO
CH OH2
, The given is enol form of :
(1) D-Sucrose (2) D-Ribose
(3) D-Glucose (4) All of there
80. CH –C–Cl + C H ONa3 2 5
––
CH3
CH3
Major product will be
(1) CH –C–O–C H3 2 5
––
CH3
CH3
(2) CH –C=CH3 2–
CH3
(3) CH –CH–CH –O–C H3 2 2 5–
CH3
(4) None of these
77. Pb Sn
:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
78. 300 K 1 NH3, CO
2 H
2
(1) CO2 > NH
3 > H
2
(2) NH3 > CO
2 > H
2
(3) NH3 > H
2 > CO
2
(4) H2 > CO
2 > NH
3
79.
HC – OH
C – OH
HOHOHH
HHO
CH OH2
,
(1) D- (2) D-
(3) D- (4)
80. CH –C–Cl + C H ONa3 2 5
––
CH3
CH3
:-
(1) CH –C–O–C H3 2 5
––
CH3
CH3
(2) CH –C=CH3 2–
CH3
(3) CH –CH–CH –O–C H3 2 2 5–
CH3
(4)
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81. Consider the following four statements :-
(A) Teichoic acid present in all eubacteria
(B) Mesosomes are analogus to mitochondria
(C) Those organisms which can survive on living
and dead organic matter they are called
facultative.
(D) Rhizobium is found in root nodules of
Non-leguminous plants.
The two wrong statements are
(1) Statements A and B
(2) Statements A and C
(3) Statements A and D
(4) Statements B and C
82. Given below are four statements (A-D) each with
one or two blanks. Select the option which correctly
fill up the blanks in three statement :-
(A) M-phase starts with the.....(i)....and usually
ends with.......(ii)......
(B) In prophase initiation of the assembly of
mitotic spindle occure. In this process
......(i)...... the proteinaceouns components of
cell cytoplasm help in the process.
(C) Cell growth results in disturbing the ratio
between the .....(i)..... and the .....(ii)......
(D) The first two stages of prophase-I are
relatively.....(i)...... compared to next stage
that is ......(ii)......
(1) (A) (i) Protein synthesis, (ii) Karyokinasis
(B) (i) Microfilament
(C) (i) Nucleus, (ii) cytoplams
(2) (B) (i) Microtubules
(C) (i) Nucleus, (ii) cytoplasm
(D) (i) Long lived, (ii) Zygotene
(3) (C) (i) Nucleus, (ii) Cytoplasm
(D) (i) Short lived, (ii) pachytene
(A) (i) Karyokinasis, (ii) cytokinasis
(4) (D) (i) Long lived, (ii) Diplotene
(A) (i) Karyokinasis, (ii) cytokinasis
(B) (i) Microtublules
81. :-
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(1) A B
(2) A C
(3) A D
(4) B C
82. (A-D)
:-
(A) -.....(i)....
.......(ii)......
(B)
......(i)......
(C) . ... .(i).....
.....(ii)......
(D)
.....(i)...... .....(ii)......
(1) (A) (i) (ii)
(B) (i)
(C) (i) (ii)
(2) (B) (i)
(C) (i) (ii)
(D) (i)(ii)
(3) (C) (i) (ii)
(D) (i) (ii)
(A) (i)(i)
(4) (D) (i)(ii)
(A) (i)(ii)
(B) (i)
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MAJOR TEST : AIIMS
83. It is a diagrammatic view of human respiratory
system. Find out the a, b, c and d.
b
c
d
a
a b c d
(1) Larynx Bronchus Alveoli Diaphragm
(2) Epiglottis Larynx Bronchus Bronchiole
(3) Larynx Bronchus Bronchiole Alveoli
(4) Epiglottis Trachea Alveoli Bronchiole
84. I
II
III
1 2 3 4 5 6
What is the genotype of II (3) :-
(1) AA (2) aa
(3) x°y (4) Aa
85. Which one of the following statement correct
about Gymnosperm ?
(1) They show origin of seed habit
(2) Sporophyte are homosporous and Monoecious
(3) Gametophytes are dioecious and short lived
(4) They require water for fertilization.
86. Parbhani Kranti is a new variety of Abelanoschus
esculentm having the resistance to :-
(1) Shoot and fruit borer
(2) Bacterial blight
(3) Yellow mosaic virus
(4) Tabacco mosace virus
83. a, b, c
d
b
c
d
a
a b c d
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
84. I
II
III
1 2 3 4 5 6
II (3) :-
(1) AA (2) aa
(3) x°y (4) Aa
85.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
86.
:-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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87. Match the column-I & column-II :-
Column-I Column-II
(I) Asthma (A) Fibrosis
(II) Bronchitis (B)
Respiratorysurfacedecreased
(III) Emphysema (C)Continuecoufing
(IV)
Occupationalrespiratorydisease
(D) Wheezing
(1) I-D II-C III-A IV-B
(2) I-D II-C III-B IV-A
(3) I-A II-D III-B IV-C
(4) I-B II-C III-A IV-D
88. Select the incorrect statement from the given
statements
(1) Large holes in Swisscheese are due to
production of large amount of CO2
(2) Protease and pectinase is used to clarify the
bottled juices
(3) Penicillin was discovered by Waksman
(4) In mycorrhiza, the fungi helps in absorption
of nutrients
89. Read the following statements -
(A) The sporophyte is not free living but attached
to the photosynthetic gametophyte and derives
nourishment from it.
(B) The female gametophyte in these plants are
retained on the parent sporophyte for variable
periods.
A and B statements are related with which option
respectively.
(1) Algae, Gymnosperm
(2) Gymnosperm, Angiosperm
(3) Pteriodophytes, Bryophytes
(4) Bryophytes, Pteridophytes
90. m-RNA which is formed over DNA templet
is :-
(1) Identical to sens strand of DNA
(2) Complementary to antisense strand
(3) Complementary to sense strand
(4) None
87. -I -II :-
Column-I Column-II
(I) (A)
(II) (B)
(III) (C)
(IV) (D)
(1) I-D II-C III-A IV-B
(2) I-D II-C III-B IV-A
(3) I-A II-D III-B IV-C
(4) I-B II-C III-A IV-D
88. (1) Swiss cheese CO
2
(2) Protease and pectinase bottled juices
(3) (4)
89. (A)
(B)
A B (1) (2) (3) (4) ,
90. m-RNA :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
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MAJOR TEST : AIIMS
91. Which of the following can be used by a surgeon
for keeping a muscle relaxed during
operation :-
(1) Glutamic acid (2) Malathione
(3) Curare (4) None of these
92. A Drosophila heterozygous for both body colour
and eye colour will be :-
(1) Only male
(2) Only female
(3) Mostly male
(4) Either male or female
93. Leucocytes with least DLC are :-
(1) Lymphocyte (2) Eosinophils
(3) Monocytes (4) Basophils
94. Wobble hypothesis establishes :-
(1) Peptide chain formation
(2) Initiation of peptide chain
(3) Termination of peptide chain
(4) Economy in t–RNA molecules
95. Seminal plasma in humans is rich in :-
(1) Fructose and certain enzymes but poor in
calcium
(2) Fructose, calcium and certain enzymes
(3) Fructose and calcium but has no enzymes
(4) Glucose and certain enzymes but has no
calcium
96. RNA interference (RNAi) method is used in
silencing of m-RNA at post transcriptional level
is used in :-
(1) Preventing root knot nematode damage
(2) Preventing leaf gall producing organisms
(3) Synthesis of hirudin
(4) Production of Golden rice
97. Beta-chain of haemoglobin is made up of :-
(1) 141 Amino acids
(2) 147 Amino acids
(3) 145 Amino acids
(4) 146 Amino acids
98. The change in pappered moths support :-
(1)Natural selection acts on favourable variations
which appear among individuals
(2)Environment has no role in evolution
(3)Acquired characters during life of an
individual are inherited
(4)Heritable variations arise due to the changes
is the gene complex
91. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
92. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
93. DLC :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
94. :-(1) (2) (3) (4) t–RNA
95. :-(1)
(2) (3)
(4)
96. m-RNA RNA
:-(1)
(2) (3) (4)
97. (1) 141 Amino acids
(2) 147 Amino acids
(3) 145 Amino acids
(4) 146 Amino acids
98. :–(1)
(2) (3)
(4)
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99. Given below is a diagramatic sketch of a portion
of human male reproductive system. Select the
correct set of the names of the parts labelled A,
B, C, D:-
A
BCD
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) Ureter Seminalvesicle
Prostate Bulbourethralgland
(2) Ureter Prostate Seminalvesicle
Bulbourethralgland
(3) Vasdeferens
Seminalvesicle
Prostate Bulbourethralgland
(4) Vasdeferens
Seminalvesicle
Bulbourethralgland
Prostate
100. Dominant phenotype/trait is produced by :-
(1) Unmodified allele only
(2) Modified alleles only
(3) Both unmodified and equivalent modified
alleles
(4) Every modified and unmodified allele.
101. Which one of the trait is not related to Mammalia
class of Tetrapoda :-
(1) Autostylic suspensorium of jaw
(2) Dicondylic skull
(3) Endothermic
(4) Three ossicles in ear
102. 'Sickle - cell - anaemia' is an example of :-
(1) Natural selection
(2) Balancing selection
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Bottleneck effect
103. Parturition is induced by
(1) A complex neuroendocrine mechanism
(2) A neuro exocrine mechanism
(3) A physio-chemical mechanism
(4) None of the above
99.
A, B, C, D
:
A
BCD
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
100. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
101. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
102. (1) (2) (3) (1) (2) (4)
103. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
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MAJOR TEST : AIIMS
104. Identify A & B :-
Immunity
Innate Acquired
Active Passive
(A) (B)
A B
(1) ATS T. T.
(2) ADS B.C.G.
(3) B.C.G. D.P.T.
(4) T.T. A.T.S.
105. In which type of fruit pappus is found ?
(1) Amphisaraca (2) Balausta
(3) Samara (4) Cypsela
106. Coconut milk is widely used in tissue culture
experiments because :-
(1) It promotes the differentiation of root in callus
(2) It contain natural substances with cytokinin
like activities
(3) It causes the enlargement of cells
(4) It promotes the root hair formation and helps
the plant to increase their absorption surface
107. Which statement is not correct :-
(1) During pregnancy all events of menstrual
cycle stop
(2) The secretion of LH & FSH decreases
gradually during the follicular phase
(3) The menstrual flow results due to breakdown
of endometrial lining
(4) All the above
108. Which of the following technique is based on
piezoelectric effect :-
(1) PET (2) MRI
(3) Sonography (4) CT-Scan
109. Which one of the following is an example of
primary lateral meristem ?
(1) Phellogen
(2) Inter fascicular cambium
(3) Intercalary meristem
(4) Intra fascicular cambium
104. A B :-
(A) (B)
A B
(1) ATS T. T.
(2) ADS B.C.G.
(3) B.C.G. D.P.T.
(4) T.T. A.T.S.
105. ?(1) (2) (3) (4)
106. :-(1) (2)
(3) (4)
107. :-(1)
(2) LH FSH
(3)
(4)
108.
:-
(1) PET (2) MRI
(3) (4) CT-
109.
?(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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110. Deficiency symptoms of some elements are visible
first in the young leaves. How many of the following
elements are related to this type of nature ?
Nitrogen, Calcium, Phosphorus, Potassium,
Magnesium, Sulphur.
(1) Two (2) Five
(3) Three (4) One
111. In Angiosperm, entry of pollen tube through the
funiculus is :-
(1) Porogamy (2) Chalazogamy
(3) Mesogamy (4) Semigamy
112. How many statements are correct regarding
biological oxygen demand :-
(A) Amount of O2 required by microbes to
decompose organic waste.
(B) Amount of O2 produced by microbes on
decomposing organic waste
(C) Amount of O2 required by microbes to survive
(1) A and B (2) Only B
(3) Only A (4) A, B & C
113. Which of the following has not a drupe fruit ?
(1) Mango (2) Guava
(3) Almond (4) Walnut
114. How many sucrose molecules are required for the
gain of 36 ATP by a yeast cell in anaerobic
conditions ?
(1) One (2) Nine
(3) Eighteen (4) Two
115. Development of fruit from unfertilized ovary is:-
(1) Parthenogenesis (2) Apospory
(3) Diplospory (4) Parthenocarpy
116. The reason for prickly pear cactus to spread in
australia is brought by :-
(1) The availability of water
(2) Human activty
(3) Absence of cactus feeding animals
(4) Availability of predator in Australia
117. Which one of the following cellular part is not
correctly described ?
(1) Nucleolus = It is a site for protein synthesis
(2) Heterochromaton = This is dark stained, thick
part of chromation
(3) Nucleoplasm = Contain nucleolus and
chromation
(4) Centriole = Play an important role in cell division
110. (1) (2) (3) (4)
111. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
112. :-(A) O2
(B) O2
(C) O2
(1) A B (2) B
(3) A (4) A, B C113. ?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
114. 36 ?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
115. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
116. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 117.
?
(1) =
(2) =
(3) =
(4) =
Time Management is Life Management
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MAJOR TEST : AIIMS
118. Identify the correct match
(1) PCT - 65 to 75% reabsorption
(2) Henle's loop - ultrafilteration
(3) DCT - 4NH reabsorption
(4) Collecting duct - Glucose
119. How many types of gametes will be produced by
a tryhybrid individual, where last two genes are
completely linked ?
(1) Eight (2) Four
(3) Six (4) Two
120. Choose the correct match :-
(a) Co-evolution - endoparasite and host(b) Mutualism - Relation of plants and BGA
(c) Sexual deciet - shown by opuntia plant(d) Connell's elegant field experiement - competition
Options :-
(1) a, b (2) b, c (3) c, d (4) a, b, d
DIRECTIONS FOR Q. NO. 121 TO 180
These questions consist of two statements each,
printed as Assertion and Reason.Whileanswering these Questions you are required to
choose any one of the following four responses.
A. If both Assertion & Reason are True & theReason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
B. If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.C. If Assertion is True but the Reason is False
D. If both Assertion & Reason are false.
121. Assertion :– A solid material is supplied heat at
constant rate. The temperature of the material is
changing with the heat input as shown in figure.
Specific heat of vapour of substance is three times
of specific heat of liquid of substance.
Reason :– Specific heat 1
slope
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
118. (1) PCT - 65 to 75% (2) (3) DCT -
4NH
(4)
119.
?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
120. :-(a) - (b) - BGA(c) - (d) - (1) a, b (2) b, c (3) c, d (4) a, b, d
121 180
A.
B.
C.
D.
121.
:– 1
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
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122. Assertion :- A wave can be represented byfunction y = f (kx ± t).
Reason :- Because it satisfy the differential
equation.
2 2
2 2 2
y 1 y
x v t where
vk
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
123. Assertion :– When a current flows in the coil of
transformer then its core becomes hot.
Reason :– The core of transformer is made of iron.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
124. Assertion : When temperature of a conductor is
increased its resistacne increases.
Reason : Free electrons collide more frequently
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
125. Assertion :- On a banked curved track, vertical
component of normal reaction provides the
necessary centripetal force.
Reason :- Centripetal force is not always required
for turning.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
126. Assertion : If we see along the axis of a charged
ring, the magnitude of electric field is minimum
at centre and magnitude of electric potential is
maximum.
Reason : Electric field is a vector quantity while
electric potential is scalar
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
127. Assertion :- When a body tends to slide down an
inclined plane, force of friction acts up the plane.
Reason :- Friction always opposes the relative
motion.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
128. Assertion : In an L-R series AC circuit current in
the circuit will decrease with increase in frequency.
Reason : Phase difference between current
function and voltage function will increase with
increase in frequency.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
122. :- y = f (kx ± t)
:-
2 2
2 2 2
y 1 y
x v t
v
k
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
123.
:–
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
124. :
:
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
125. :-
:-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
126. :
:
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
127. :-
:-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
128. : L-R AC
:
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
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129. Assertion :- Two identical spherical balls are
released from two inclined plane. First is
sufficiently rough to allow pure rolling and second
is smooth. Both the balls will have same kinetic
energy on reaching to the bottom.
Reason :- Linear velocity of second ball will be
more.
hh
O O
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
130. Assertion : When unequal and opposite charge
given to two parallel metal plates then complete
charge exist on inner surface of plates.
Reason : Due to attraction complete charge comes
on inner surface of plate
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
131. Assertion :- A body of mass m1 collides head on
elastically with another stationary body of mass
m2. After the collision velocity of mass m2 is
maximum, when m1 >> m2.
Reason :- Velocity of second body is always
maximum, when its mass m2 is greater than the
mass of the hitting body.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
132. Assertion :- Free electrons always keep onmoving in a conductor, even then no magneticforce acts on them in magnetic field unless acurrent is passed through it.Reason :- The average velocity of free electronsis zero.(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
133. Assertion :- Sky wave signals are used for long
distance radio communication. These signals are
in general, less stable than ground wave signals.
Reason :- The state of ionosphere varies from
hour to hour, day to day and season to season.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
134. Assertion : For a prism of refracting angle 60°
and refractive index 2 minimum deviation is
30°.
Reason : At minimum deviation, r1 = r
2 = 30
2
A.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
129. :-
:-
hh
O O
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
130. : : (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
131. :- m1 m2 m1 >> m2 m2 :- m2 m2 (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
132. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
133. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
134. : 60º 2
30º
: r1 = r
2 = 30
2
A
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
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MAJOR TEST : AIIMS
135. Assertion :- NAND & NOR are called universal
gates.
Reason :- By repetetive use of NAND and NOR
any logic gate can be constructed.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
136. Assertion : Water in a container is to be cooled
by putting an ice cube in it. Water will get cooled
fastest in case ‘A’.
A B C
Reason : In ‘A’ water is cooled through
convection only, in ‘B’ partly through convection
and partly through conduction and in ‘C’ through
conduction only.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
137. Assertion :- A needle placed carefully on the
surface of water may float, whereas the ball of the
same material will always sink.
Reason :- The buoyancy of an object depends both
on the material and shape of the object.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
138. Assertion : We cannot get diffraction pattern from
a wide slit illuminated by monochromatic light.
Reason : In diffraction pattern, all the bright
bands are not of the same intensity.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
139. Assertion :- Sound waves cannot be polarised.
Reason :- Polarisation can occur only in
transverse waves.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
140. Assertion : Energy is released when heavy nuclei
undergo fission or light nuclei undergo fussion.
Reason : For heavy nuclei, binding energy per
nucleon increases with increasing A while for
light nuclei it decreases with increasing A.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
141. Assertion :- CO2 obtained either by heating
CaCO3 or by burning carbon. The ratio of carbon
and oxygen is 3 : 8 by mass.
Reason :- This is attributed to the law of constant
proportion.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
135. :- NAND NOR :- NAND NOR (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
136. :
A
A B C
: A B
C
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
137. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
138. : : (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
139. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
140. :- :- A A (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
141. :- CaCO3
CO2
3:8
:- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
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MAJOR TEST : AIIMS
142. Assertion :- An exothermic process,
non-spontaneous at high temperature may
become spontaneous at low temperature.
Reason :- With decrease in temperature,
rendomness (entropy) increases.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
143. Assertion :- 0.1M solution of urea shows the
same depression in f.p. as shown by 0.1 M glucose
solution.
Reason :- Both have same value of Kf
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
144. Assertion :- Enthalpy of graphite is lower than
that of diamond.
Reason :- Entropy of graphite is greater than that
of diamond.
(1) A (2 ) B (3) C (4) D
145. Assertion :- Pb4+ compounds are stronger
oxidizing agents than Sn4+ compounds.
Reason :- The higher oxidation states for the
group 14 elements are more stable of the heavier
members of the group due to 'inert pair effect'.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
146. Assertion : H2O() H2O(g) low pressure is
favourable for increasing boiling point.
Reason :- On increasing pressure liquid will easily
convert into gas.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
147. Assertion :- s-p mixing is observed in N2 but not
in O2.
Reason :- Energy difference between 2s-2p is
much higher in oxygen atom than in nitrogen
atom.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
148. Assertion :- CH3–CHOHCH–OH–CH3 can have
meso form.
Reason :- There are dissimilar chiral carbon.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
149. Assertion :- Zn is produced in gaseous state when
it is extracted by
ZnO + C Zn + CO
Reason :- Reduction of ZnO by carbon is possible
at temperature which is higher than the boiling
point of Zn.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
142. :-
:-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
143. :- 0.1
0.1 M
:- Kf
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
144. :- :- (1) A (2 ) B (3) C (4) D
145. :- Pb4+ Sn4+ :- 14 (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
146. :- H2O() H2O(g) :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
147. :- "s-p mixing" N2 O2
:- O2 2s-2p N2
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
148. :- CH3–CHOHCH–OH–CH3
:-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
149. :- ZnO + C Zn + CO
Zn
:- ZnO C
Zn
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
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MAJOR TEST : AIIMS
150. Assertion :- Diastereoisomers have different
physical properties.
Reason :- They are non-superimposable mirror
images.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
151. Assertion :- SnCl2 produces black precipitate with
Hg2Cl2.
Reason :- HgCl2 does not react with SnCl
2.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
152. Assertion :- Maltose is composed of galactose.
Reason :- Glucose and galactose are differ from
C3-position.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
153. Assertion :- In optically active octahedral
complex [Fe(EDTA)]2–, coordination number of
Fe is 6.
Reason :- EDTA–4 is hexadentate ligand and
contain chiral carbon.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
154. Assertion :- 2CO(g) +
1
2O
2(g) 2CO
2(g) ...(i)
2NO(g) + 1
2O2(g) 2NO2(g) ...(ii)
Reaction (i) is slower than reaction (ii)
Reason :- Activation energy of reaction (i) is
greater than that of (ii).
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
155. Assertion :- [Co(NH3)5NO
2]Cl and PtCl
24NH
3
can be differentiated by addition of AgNO3
quantitatively.
Reason :- [Co(NH3)5NO
2]Cl and PtCl
24NH
3 can
be differentiated by addit ion of AgNO3
qualitatively.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
156. Assertion :– During the electrolysis of water, two
fraday of charge will produce a total of
33.6 litre of gases at S.T.P. at electrodes.
Reason :– In the electrolysis of water, 2 faraday
of charge will produce 1
2 mole of H2 gas and
1
4 mole of O2 gas.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
150. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
151. :- SnCl2, Hg2Cl2 :- HgCl
2, SnCl
2
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
152. :- :- C
3-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
153. :- [Fe(EDTA)]2– Fe
6
:- EDTA–4 hexadentate chiral
carbon
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
154. :- 2CO(g)
+ 1
2O
2(g) 2CO
2(g) ...(i)
2NO(g)
+ 1
2O
2(g) 2NO
2(g) ...(ii)
(i) (ii) :- (i) (ii) (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
155. :- [Co(NH3)5NO2]Cl PtCl24NH3
AgNO3
:- [Co(NH3)
5NO
2]Cl PtCl
24NH
3
AgNO3
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
156. :– 2
33.6
:– 2
1
2 H2
1
4 O2
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
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