ADMISSION INTO CLASS-XI SCIENCE, IGNITE ... - Silicon Tech Lab

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INFORMATION REGARDING ADMISSION INTO CLASS-XI SCIENCE, IGNITE (Engineering/Medical),

COMMERCE & HUMANITIES 2022-23

1. SCHEDULE: Commencement of Online Registration

02 March 2022 (11:00 am)

Last date for Online Registration 27 March 2022 (05:00 pm) Download of Admit Card 28 March 2022 onwards

Date of Aptitude Test 01 April 2022 Science, IGNITE (Engineering/Medical), Commerce & Humanities

Venue

DAV Public School, Unit-VIII, Bhubaneswar and specific centres at Balasore, Berhampur, Rourkela and Bargarh (shall be notified in the Admit Card)

Time of Entry to Exam Hall 09:30 am for Science & IGNITE 12:00 pm for Humanities 02:30 pm for Commerce

Date of Publication of Result 02 April 2022 at 5.00 pm Students/parents have to browse the NOTICE BOARD of the School Website www.davunit8.org to know the result.

Date of Counselling cum Provisional Admission

Will be intimated on the date of publication of result.

Commencement of classes Will be intimated after the publication of result.

2. Scanned copy of passport size photograph and signature of the applicant are to be uploaded at the space provided during the process of registration.

3. Candidates seeking admission into Class XI have to register by paying 1000/-.

Candidates seeking admission into Science, Commerce or Humanities will apply separately.

Candidates applying for IGNITE are also eligible to take admission in Science on the basis of the merit list of the Aptitude Test. No separate application is required for Science.

Candidates qualified for Commerce can take admission in Humanities (if interested) directly.

4. Please refer to the auto-generated Admit Card Id number for all correspondence till admission.

5. Mere registration doesn’t confer any right to claim admission.

6. Under no circumstances, the date and time of Aptitude Test and provisional admission can be extended. For any unforeseen reasons, the same shall be intimated through School Website & SMS.

7. Hostel facilities are available only for outstation boys and girls. Details may be enquired during provisional admission. Mere admission will not confer any right on allotment of a Hostel seat. The seats in the Hostel shall be allotted to the students purely on merit basis on the

date of admission as per the availability of seats.

FOR QUERIES, CONTACT : Technical Support : 9861603247 Help Desk – Science : 9438004400, Commerce : 7978707952, Humanities : 7655038727 IGNITE In-Charge : 9040229129 Hostel in-charge – Boys : 7978835950, Girls : 8249973749 School Phone No. : 0674-2391328 E-mail : [email protected] Website : www.davunit8.org

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APTITUDE TEST – SCIENCE & IGNITE (Engineering/Medical) [Date 01.04.2022]

SCIENCE

Subject No. of

questions (MCQ)

Total Marks

Timing Students Entry to School Premises

Students Entry to Exam Hall

1. Mathematics 25 25 x 3 10:00 am

to 12:00 pm

(2 hrs.)

09:00 am 09:30 am 2. Physics 15 15 x 3 3. Chemistry 15 15 x 3 4. Biology 15 15 x 3

Total 70 210

Only for IGNITE (Engineering/Medical)

Subject No. of

questions (MCQ)

Total Marks

Timing Students Entry

to School Premises

Students Entry to

Exam Hall

PART-A

10:00 am to

01:00 pm (3 hrs.)

09:00 am 09:30 am

1. Mathematics 25 25 x 3 2. Physics 15 15 x 3 3. Chemistry 15 15 x 3 4. Biology 15 15 x 3

Total 70 210 PART-B

1. Mathematics (for Engineering)/ Biology (for Medical)

10 10 x 3

2. Physics 10 10 x 3 3. Chemistry 10 10 x 3

Total 30 90 Grand Total 100 300

APTITUDE TEST – HUMANITIES [Date : 01.04.2022]

Subject No. of

questions (MCQ)

Total Marks


to School Premises

Students Entry to

Exam Hall

1. English 30 30 x 3 02:00 pm to

04:00 pm (2 hrs.)

01:15 pm 01:30 pm 2. Social Science (Hist-15, Geo-15, Eco-10)

40 40 x 3

Total 70 210

APTITUDE TEST – COMMERCE [Date : 01.04.2022]

Subject No. of

questions (MCQ)

Total Marks


to School Premises

Students Entry to

Exam Hall

1. Economics 20 20 x 3 02:00 pm to

04:00 pm (2 hrs.)

01:15 pm 01:30 pm 2. Mathematics 20 20 x 3 3. English 30 30 x 3

Total 70 210

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IMPORTANT INFORMATION for IGNITE (Engineering/Medical) 1. OBJECTIVE –

To prepare the meritorious students for the professional entrance examinations after Class-XII viz, JEE (Main & Advanced), NEET, KVPY & other Medical/Engineering entrances along with CBSE Curriculum.

To instill an aptitude for healthy competition. To ensure holistic development of each learner.

2. FACILITIES –

Classes will be taken by faculties having expertise in CBSE as well as professional curriculum transaction.

School will take entire responsibility of the study materials (unit-wise) consisting of CBSE as well as entrance level.

Fooding facility will be provided to the students during stay hours. Conduct of online tests along with weekly objective as well as subjective tests to

acquaint students with different types of examinations.

INSTRUCTIONS :

1. On the day of Aptitude Test, students must carry Admit Card of Aptitude Test along with the Admit Card of Term-I AISSE 2022 in original for entry into the examination hall.

2. There shall be 4 series of questions viz: (A, B, C, D) and each question of every series has exactly one correct answer which carries 3 marks.

3. 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer / overwriting / scratching / multiple answers.

4. For Class-XI (Science), merit list will be on the basis of marks obtained in PART-A only.

5. For IGNITE (Medical/Engineering), merit list will be on the basis of the sum of Part-A by converting its total mark to 100 & Part-B marks.

FEE STRUCTURE FOR 2022-23 : Exact fee structure of 2022-23 will be notified in the first week of April 2022 in the school website. However, the following is the tentative expenditure to be incurred per annum. Sl. No.

Course Fees for Class XI

(in ) Fees for Class XII

(in ) Charges for Hostel

& Fooding (in )

1 IGNITE

Medical/Engineering 2,18,000 1,70,000 62,000

2 Science 1,13,000 65,000 82,000

3 Commerce & Humanities 1,10,000 62,000 82,000

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DOCUMENTS REQUIRED AT THE TIME OF PROVISIONAL ADMISSION:

1. Bottom portion of the DAV Aptitude Test Admit Card. 2. Self-attested photocopy of Admit Card of Term-I AISSE 2022. NB : Exact admission fee will be notified on the day of the publication of result. During process of counselling, presence of parents is mandatory. Absence in counselling will lead to cancellation of claim for admission.

DOCUMENTS REQUIRED TO BE SUBMITTED AT THE TIME OF FINAL ADMISSION:

1. Original and Attested Photocopy of mark sheet of the Board Examination/ Qualifying

Examination. 2. Original Transfer Certificate / School Leaving Certificate of the school last attended. 3. Original Conduct Certificate from the school last attended. 4. Original Migration Certificate from the concerned Board. NB : 1. In case of failure to take final admission or withdrawal of candidate after

provisional admission, no fee will be refunded.

2. The finalization of admission is subjected to qualifying the Class X Examination 2022.

Sd/- CHAIRMAN

ADMISSION COMMITTEE

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SYLLABI FOR THE APTITUDE TEST-2022

1. MATHEMATICS:

a. Quadratic Equation (Science/IGNITE/Commerce): Standard form of a quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 (a 0), solution of quadratic equations (only real roots) by factorisation, relationship between discriminant and nature of roots, problems related to day to day activities.

b. Trigonometry (Science/IGNITE/Commerce): Trigonometric ratios and identities, height and distances.

c. Probability (Science/IGNITE/Commerce): Elementary ideas of probabilities as measure of uncertainty (for single event only)

d. Co-ordinate geometry (Science/IGNITE): Distance between two points, section formula (internal division) only

e. Mensuration (Science/IGNITE): Problems on finding volumes and surface areas of combinations of right circular cone, right circular cylinder, hemisphere and sphere, perimeter, area of a circle, area of a sector, segment of the circles, area of combined figures.

f. ALGEBRA Polynomial (Science/IGNITE/Commerce): Zeros of a polynomial, relationship between zeros and coefficients of a quadratic polynomial Real number (Science/IGNITE): Fundamental theorem of arithmetic, irrational number and their decimal expansion.

g. Geometry (Science/IGNITE): Similar triangles and its properties, Pythagoras theorem. Arc and chord of a circle, congruence, cyclic quadrilaterals, tangents to circles.

2. PHYSICS: (Science/IGNITE)

a. Motion & Force: Distance and displacement, Velocity (uniform and non uniform), Distance – time and velocity – time graph, Newton’s Laws of motion, Action & reaction force, Inertia of a body, Momentum.

b. Effects of current: Electric current, potential difference and electric current, Ohm’s law, Resistance, Resistivity, Factors on which the resistance of a conductor depends. Series combination of resistors, parallel combination of resistors and its applications in daily life. Heating effect of electric current and its applications in daily life. Electric power, interrelation between P, V. I and R.

c. Magnetic effects of current: Magnetic field, Field lines, field due to current carrying conductor, field due to current carrying coils or solenoid: Force on current carrying conductor. Flemings left hand rule, Electromagnetic induction, induced potential difference, induced current, Fleming's right hand rule

d. Light & Optical Phenomenon: Reflection of light at plane and curved surfaces. Images formed by spherical mirror, centre of curvature, principal axis, principal focus, focal length, mirror formula, magnification. Refraction, Laws of Refraction, Refractive index, Refraction of light by slab and spherical lens, image formed by spherical lens, Lens formula, Magnification, Power of a lens. Refraction of light through a prism, Dispersion of light, scattering of light, application in daily life.

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3. CHEMISTRY: (Science/IGNITE)

a. Atoms and Molecules: Laws of chemical combination, Atoms and atomic theory of matter, Dalton’s Atomic theory, Atoms, Molecules, ions, Rules of writing the chemical formulae, Mole concept

b. Structure of Atom: Discovery of electron, Discovery of proton, Discovery of neutron, Thomson’s model of the atom, Rutherford model of atom, Bohr’s model of atom, Atomic number, Mass number, Electronic configuration, Valence electrons, Valency of elements, Isotopes, Isobars.

c. Chemical Reactions and Equations: Chemical equations, Balanced chemical equations, Types of chemical reactions.

d. Acids, Bases and Salts: Definitions (all modern concepts), Neutralization reactions, pH scale, Acidic salt, basic salt, Properties of acids and bases.

e. Periodic Classification of Elements: History of classification, Periodic law, Mendeleev's Periodic table, Modem periodic table. Periodic properties (atomic size, metallic and non-metal lie nature, valence) and their variation across a period & along a group.

f. Metals and Non Metals: Physical and Chemical properties of metals and non metals, Reactivity series

g. Carbon Compounds: Catenation, Functional group, Structural isomerism (chain and position)

4. BIOLOGY: (Science/IGNITE)

a. Fundamental unit of life: Cell - structure, function, cell membrane, cell components, cell wall, mitochondria, chloroplast etc. Difference between Prokaryotes & Eukaryotes.

b. Life Process: Nutrition-autotrophic and heterotrophic nutrition, Human digestive system, Respiration- respiration in plants and animals, human respiratory system, Transportation-transportation in plants, transpiration, opening and closing of stomata, human circulatory system, Excretion-excretion in plants and animal, human excretory system.

c. Reproduction: Types of reproduction, Types of asexual mode of reproduction, Sexual reproduction in plants and animals, Human reproductive systems and birth control measures.

d. Heredity and evolution: Monohybrid and dihybrid cross, Sex determination

e. Our environment: Structure of ecosystem - abiotic and biotic components, Function of ecosystem - food chain, food web. energy flow and ecological pyramid, Environmental pollution.

5. ECONOMICS (Commerce): Banking Services in India, Economic Reforms in India, Statistics (Mean, Median & Mode), Poverty in India.

6. ENGLISH (Commerce/Humanities): Grammar, Synonyms & Antonyms, One-word substitution, Reading Comprehension

7. SOCIAL SCIENCE (Humanities):

a. HISTORY: The rise of Nationalism in Europe, Nationalism in India

b. GEOGRAPHY: Resources – Utilisation and Development, Agriculture, Manufacturing Industries, Lifelines of National Economy.

c. ECONOMICS: Banking Services in India, Economic Reforms in India, Statistics (Mean, Median & Mode), Poverty in India

* * *

10. The probability of throwing atleast 16 in one throw with 3 dice is

(A) —1 72

(B) 5

(C) 1 5 7

108 216 (D)

216

—1 8

(B) —7 8

(C) 9 — 10

(A)

g E- MATHEMATICS SCIEJ\InE

1. The roots of 5`+I + 52' = 53 + I are (A) 1 and —2 (B) —1 and —2

(C) —1 and 2 (D) 1 and 2

2. If the quadratic equation x2 + bx + c = 0 and x2 + CX + b = 0(b # c) have a common root, then their

uncommon roots are the roots of the equation (A) x2 - X + bc = 0 (B) X2 + X - bc = 0 (C) X2 - - bc = 0 (D) x2 + x + bc = 0

3. If the roots of 5x2 — Px + 1= 0 are real and distinct then

(A) P>2 (B) P < —2Nig (C) —2N/7 < P < (D) P > 2,./g or P <-2Jg

4. A person bought a certain number of books for Rs. 80. If he had bought 4 more books for the same sum, each book would have cost Rs. 1 less. The price of each book is (A) 10 (B) 8 (C) 5 (D) 4

5. If cosec 8 — sin B = a3 and sec 0 — cos° = b3 then a2b2 (a 2 + b2 ) is equal to

(A) 4 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) 2

6. Two posts are ' K' m apart and the height of one is double that of the other. If from the middle point of the line joining their feet, an observer finds the angular elevation of their tops to be complementary then the height (in m) of the shorter post is

(A) Nfi l< (B) (C) 2K (D)

1 + cos 0 . 7. If x= cote + cosece then the value of is

- cos 0

(A) x (B) x2 (C) 1 (D) — 17 X

'8. If tan(A + B), and tan(A —B)= 1 0 < A + B < 90°, A > B then value of sec A + cotA is

(A) 1 (B) ff.

(C) v2 + (D)

9. If A, B, C are interior angles of a AABC,then value of sin B+9 cot1 B+C is \ 2 ) 2 }

(A) sin — 2 A

(B) cos A — 2

(C) tan 4̀ (D) cosec —A

2 2

11. A class has 8 boys. A student is selected at random. The probability of selecting a boy is 5 —1

. The

number of girls in the class who wear glasses is 4 . If a girl is selected at random then the probability that she is not wearing glasses is

DAV Unit-VIII

XI (Sc.) - Aptitude Test 2021-22 (Set-A) Page 2 of 10

(A) 45°,60°,75° (B) 30° ,40° ,50°

Q

(C) 36°,48° ,60° (D) 54°,28° ,18°

12. A black die and a white die is rolled. The probability that the number showing by the black die is more than twice that shown in white die is

(A) 1 (C) (B) (D) 1

6 3 4

AR 1 13. Point R divides the line segment joining A(2,1) and B(5,-8) such that = 3

— . If R lies on the AB

line 2x + y + k = 0 then value of k is

(A) — (B) —4 4

(C) 2 (D) —17 4

14. The values of k for which the points A(k +1,2k) B(3k,2k + 3) C(4k —1,4k) are collinear is

(A) 2,1 (B) 2 (C) 0 —11, 2 4 4

15. The centre of a circle is at (2a,a— 7). If the circle passes through the point (11,-9) and has

diameter 10-ff units then its centre is at (A) (5,3) (B) (10,2) (C) (6,4) (D) (10,-2)

16. If the circumference of a circle is increased by 50% then the area will be increased by (A) 75% (B) 100% (C) 125% (D) 150%

17. Three cubes of a metal whose edges are in the ratio 3:4 : 5 are melted and converted to a single

cube whose diagonal is 12/j cm. The edge of the largest of the three cubes is (A) 2 (B) 5 (C) 20 (D) 10

18. A building is in the form of a cylinder surmounted by hemispherical dome. The base diameter of

the dome equals to —2

of the total height of the building. If it contains 67— 1 nz

3 of air, then the

3 21 height of the building is (A) 12 (B) 18 (C) 6 (D) 7

19. A right circular cone and a right circular cylinder have equal heights and equal bases. Their respective curved surfaces are in the ratio 5:8. The ratio of their base radius to the height is (A) 3:4 (B) 1:2 (C) 2:3 (D) 3:2

x y z 20. In the figure, if — = —

3 4 ' 5 =— then the value of ,x,y and z are

A

(D) none of these

DAV Unit-VIII XI (Sc.) - Aptitude Test 2021-22 (Set-A)

Page 3 of 10

21. In trapezium ABCD AB I DC and DC=2AB • EF drawn parallel to AB cuts AD in F and BC in

3 E such that

BE = . Diagonal DBintersects EF at G . Then FG is equal to

BC 4

(B) L0 AB (A) AB (C) ± AB (D) AB

10 7 7

22. The smallest value of ii for which x2 — 2x — 3 and X3 — 2x2 — lix — 3 have an HCF involving x is

(A) 0 (B) 1

(C) 2 (D) 3

23. The minimum value of .Y2 —6x +10, when x is real is

(A) 10 (B) 3

(C) -1 (D) 1

24. When 16x4 +12x3 —10x2 8x + 20 is divided by 4x — 3, the remainder is k , then value of 2k —1

is (A) 15 (B) 52 (C) 60 (D) 45

25. Among 21/3,31/ 1,61j 8,101/12 , largest one is

(A) 21/3 (B) 31/4 (C) 61/8 (D) 1 01 /12

PHYSICS

26. A ball at rest is dropped from a height of 40m above the ground. The height at which it will attain half of the velocity with which it strikes the ground is (A) 10m from the ground (B) 10m from the top

(C) 15m from the ground (D) 15,n from the top

27. A student goes from his house to his friend's house with speed V1. Finding the door of his

friend's house closed, he returns back to his own house with the speed tie. Then the average

speed of student is:

(A) + V2

(B) VV1172 2

21/1 V2 (D) V1V2 +V2

28. A stone is dropped from a height h. It hits the ground with a certain momentum p . If the same

stone is dropped from a height 100% more than the previous height, the momentum when it hits the ground will change by (A) 68% (B) 41%

(C) 200% (D) 100%

29. Which of the following statement is false? (A) We feel pain in the hand on hitting the wall. It is a consequence of Newton's 3 rd law of

motion. (B) SI unit of impulse is Ns. (C) A table cloth can be pulled from a table without dislodging the dishes. This is due to inertia

of rest. (D) Conservation of linear momentum has no connection with Newton's third law of motion.

(C)

DAV Unit-VIII


30. A constant voltage is applied between two ends of a uniform metallic wire. Some heat is developed in it. The heat developed is doubled if (A) both the length and radius of the wire are halved. (B) both the length and radius of the wire are doubled. (C) the radius of the wire is doubled. (D) the length of the wire is doubled.

31. The total current applied by battery in the circuit shown is:

3 0

(A) 4A

(B) 2A (C) 1A

(D) 6A

32. Which of the following is the TRUE statement: (A) Ohm's law is applicable to all conductors of electricity. (B) In an electrolyte solution, the electric current in mainly due to the movement of electrons. (C) The resistance of an incandescent lamp is lesser when the lamp is switched on. (D) The resistance of carbon decreases with the increase of temperature.

33. Two electric bulbs rated 220V —100W and 220V —60W are connected in series. Find net power when connected across 220V supply. (A) 35.5W (B) 37.5W (C) 36.5W (D) none

34. What is the path of a charged particle moving in a uniform magnetic field with initial velocity at some angle with the direction of magnetic field. (A) A straight line (B) A circular path in a plane perpendicular to the field. (C) A helical path with axis parallel to direction of magnetic field. (D) None of these.

35. Two equal electric currents are flowing perpendicular to each other as shown in the figure. AB and CDare perpendicular to each other and symmetrically placed w.r.t. the currents. Where do we expect the resultant magnetic field to be zero?

(A) On AB (B) On CD (C) On both AB and CD (D) On both OD and OB

36. A man can see objects clearly upto 3m . What type of lens he should use in order to see clearly upto 12m? (A) Convex lens, f = 4m (B) concave lens, f = 4m

(C) convex lens, f = —4m (D) concave lens, f = —4m

DAV Unit-V111


37. A student measures the focal length of a convex lens by putting an object pin at a distance u from the lens and measuring the distance v of the image pin. The graph between if and v plotted by the student should be like (A) (B)

v_L>

11

11

(C) (D)

< A > 11

V

38. The focal length of a concave mirror is f . An object is placed at a distance x from the focus and

forms a real image. Therefore, the magnification (numerically) is

2 (B) (N)

(D)

39. A ray of light passes through an equilateral prism (refractive index 1.5) such that angle of incidence is equal to angle of emergence and later is equal to 3 / 4th of the angle of prism. The

angle of deviation is

(A) 60° (B) 30'

A (C) 35° (D) 40'

40. The refractive index of glass is 1.5 and that of water is 1.3. If the speed of light in water is

2.5 x 108 m/s, what is the speed of light in glass?

(A) 1.35 x 108m/ s (B) 1.95 x 109 m/s

(C) 1.95 x 107 mls (D) 1.95 x 108 mls

CHEMISTRY

41. Select the incorrect relation on the basis of Bohr's theory.

(A) Velocity of electron ac 1 (B) Frequency of revolution x z

(C) Radius of orbit x n2z (D) Force on electron x --T

42. The atomic no of four elements P,Q,R and S are 6,10,12 and17 respectively. A covalent bond is

formed by elements (A) P and Q (B) Rand S (C) Q and R (D) P and S

XI (Sc.) - Aptitude Test 2021-22 (Set-A) Page 6 of 10 DAV Unit-VIII

43. Match the Column I with Column II and mark the Correct choice from the given code. Column I Column II

(1) Transition element (P) Thorium (ii) Noble Gas (Q) Cerium (iii) Lanthanide (R) Krypton (iv) Actinide (S) Potassium (v) Normal element (T) Manganese

Codes: (A) i -T, - R, - Q, iv - P, v - S (B) i -T, - R, - Q, iv - S, v - P (C) i -T, - R, - S, iv - Q, v - P (D) i -R, - T, - Q, iv - P, v - S

44. 3.42g of sucrose are dissolved in 18s of water in a beaker. The number of oxygen atoms in the

solution are

(A) 6.68 x 1023 (B) 6.09 x 1022 (C) 6.022 x 1023 (D) 6.022 x 1021

45. What will be the decreasing relativity order when metals react with dilute mineral acid? (A) Na> Zn> Mg > Fe >Cu (B) Na> Mg > Fe > Zn> Ctt (C) Na> Mg > Zn> Fe >Cu (D) Zn> Na > Mg >Cu> Fe

46. In the following reaction

2C6H6 (/) + 1502 (g)---->12CO2(g) + 6H20(/)

2 mole of C6 H6 (/) reacts with 15 mole 02(g)produces 528g of CO2(g). This is based on which law of chemical combination. (A) Law of definite proportion (B) Law of conservation of mass (C) Law of multiple proportion (D) Dalton's atomic theory

47. An organic compound 'A' is a constituent of anti-freeze and has molecular formula C2H60 . 'A' on reaction with alkaline KMnO 4 forms compound 'B' of molecular formula C2H402 . When compound 'A' reacts with compound 'B' to form compound 'C' in presence of H2SO4 of molecular formula C4H802 . The compound A, B and C are (A) CH3COOH,C2H5OH,CH3COOC 2 H5 (B) CH3CH2OH,CH3C001-1, C2 H5COOCH3 (C) CH3CH2 OH, CH3COOH, CH3COOC 2 H5 (D) CH3CH2COOCH 3 , CH3 C H2 OH,CH3COOH

48. Identify the correct statement in the following. (A) Dimethyl ether and ethanol are chain isomers. (B) Ethanoic acid and methyl methanoate are position isomers. (C) n-Butane and Isobutane are functional isomers. (D) Propanol and propan-2-ol are position isomers.

49. The pH of four substances, such as A, B,C and D are 3,2,5 & 6 . The correct order of their H± ion concentration present in them are (A) B<A<C<D (B) D<C<A<B (C) A<B<C<D (D) D<C<A<B

50. In the double displacement reaction between aqueous potassium iodide and aqueous lead nitrate, a yellow precipitate of lead iodide is formed. While performing the activity if lead nitrate is not available, which of the following can be used in place of lead nitrate? (A) Lead sulphate (in soluble) (B) Lead acetate (C) Ammonium nitrate (D) Potassium sulphate

DAV Unit-VIII


51. The Statue of Liberty in New York was built in 1886. Hundreds of thin copper sheets were used to built is, which gave bright brown appearance. But gradually with time its colour changed to blue green. The blue green colour is due to formation of (A) Copper carbonate layer (B) Copper (I) oxide layer (C) Copper sulphate layer (D) Copper (II) oxide layer

52. The structure of 4-methylpent-2-en-1-ol is (A) (CH3 )2 CH CH = CH CH,OH

(B) CH3CH(OH) — CH = C(CH3 )2

(C) (CH 3 )2 C = CH CH 2CH 2OH

(D) CH3CH2CH = CHCH2OH

53. Under similar conditions of temperature and pressure 1 lit of a hydrocarbon weighs as much as one litre of CO, . Then the molecular formula of the hydrocarbon is

(A) C3H3 (B) C2 H8 (C) C3H4 (D) C3 H6

54. The size of the nucleus is approximately

(A) —1 th of an atom (B)

1 th of an atom

100 1000

(C) 1 1

th of an atom (D) th of an atom 10000 100000

55. Which of the following is(are) true when HC1(g) is passed through water?

i. It does not ionize in the solution as it is a covalent compound. ii. It ionizes in the solution. iii. It gives both hydrogen and hydroxyl ion in the solution. iv It forms hydronium ion in the solution due to the combination of hydrogen ion with water

molecule Codes: (A) (i) only (B) (iii) only (C) (ii) and (iv) (D) (iii) and (iv)

BIOLOGY

56. Due to ozone depletion humans may most likely to suffer from (i) Damage to immune system (ii) Damage to lungs (iii) Skin cancer (iv) Snow blindness cataract Choose the correct option (A) (i), (ii) and (iii) only (B) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only (C) (i), (iii), (iv) only (D) (i), (ii) and (iv) only

57. Water vapour comes out from the plant leaf through the stomatal opening and carbon dioxide diffuses into the plant through the same stomatal opening. Reason out above statements using one of the following options. (A) The above processes happen only during night time. (B) Both processes can happen together as the diffusion coefficient of water and carbon dioxide

is different. (C) One process occurs during day time and the other at night. (D) Both processes cannot happen simultaneously.

DAV Unit-V111

X1 (Sc.) - Aptitude Test 2021-22 (Set-A) Page 8 of 10

58. Fertilization in humans is practically feasible only if (A) The ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampulla region of fallopian tube (B) The ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to uterus of female (C) The sperms are transported into the cervix within 48hrs. of release of ovum in uterus. (D) The sperms are transported into the vagina just after the release of ovum in fallopian tube.

59. Match the following Column I 1. 3-chambered heart 2. Blood filled coelomic cavity 3. Water driven tube system 4. Closed circulatory system

Choose the correct option (A) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii (C) 1-iv, 2-i, 3- ii, 4-iii

Column II i. Arthropoda ii. Echinodermata iii. Annelida iv. Amphibia

(B) 1-iv, 2-i, 3- iii, 4-ii (D) 1-ii, 2-i, 3- iii, 4-iv

60. The cell organelle that does not contain DNA (A) Nucleus (B) Mitochondria (C) Golgi complex (D) Chloroplast

61. When a plant is girdled (ringed) (A) The root and shoot die at the same time. (B) The shoot dies first (C) The root dies first (D) Neither the root not the shoot will die.

62. Which of the following parts of a kidney contains the lowest concentration of urea? (A) Loop of Henle (B) Branches of renal vein (C) Bowman's capsule (D) Glomerulus

63. Presence of large number of alveoli around alveolar ducts opening into bronchioles in mammalian lung is (A) An efficient system of ventilation with no residual air. (B) An efficient system of ventilation with little residual air. (C) Inefficient system of ventilation with little residual air. (D) Inefficient system of ventilation with high percentage of residual air.

64. In a cross between the heterozygous pea plants for two characters, the number of pure homozygous pea plant for both the characters in the progeny would be: (A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 6 (D) 8

65. Read the statements below and choose the correct option. I. Oxygen evolved during photosynthesis comes from CO2 . II. Chlorophyll a and b are the only photosynthetic pigments in plants. III. Photosynthesis doesn't occur in red light. IV. CO2 is reduced to form glucose in light independent reaction.

(A) Only I is true (B) Both I and III are true (C) Both II and III are false (D) I, II and IV are true

66. Grass ---->Grass hopper ---->Frog Snake ---> Eagle In the food chain suppose the amount of energy at fourth tropic level is 2KJ . What will be the

total amount of energy lost when it flows from producer to primary carnivore. (A) 1900KJ (B) 1998KJ (C) 1800KJ (D) 1980KJ

67. A colour blind man marries a woman with normal sight who has no history of colour-blindness in her family. What is the probability of their grandson becoming colour blind? (A) 0.25 (B) 1 (C) 0.5 (D) Nil

DAV Unit-VIII

XI (Sc.) - Aptitude Test 2021-22 (Set-A) Page 9 of ID

68. What type of ecological pyramid would he obtained with the following data? i. Secondary consumer- 120g ii. Primary carnivore- 60g iii. Primary producer- 10g (A) Upright pyramid of number (B) Pyramid of energy (C) Upright pyramid of biomass (D) Inverted pyramid of biomass

69. One couple wants to space between the childbirth. Which of the following method is not appropriate for them to adopt? (A) Use of IUD (B) Vasectomy (C) Hormonal contraceptive pills (D) Condoms

70. Which of the following is not true regarding excretion in plants? (A) Excess water is removed by transpiration. (B) Waste materials are stored in chloroplast and lysosomes in many plants (C) Waste products may be stored as resins and gums. (D) Waste products may be stored in leaves that fall off.

e

DAV Unit-V111

XI (Sc.) — Aptitude Test 2021-22 (Set-A) Page 10 of 10

PART - B LNGIINEERIN61

MATHEMATICS

71. The quadratic equations x2 — 6x + a = 0 and x2 + 6 — cx = 0 have one rot in common. The other roots of the first and second equations are integers in the ratio 4 : 3. Then the common root is (A) 1 (B) 4 (B) —2 (D) 2

72. At a fete, cards bearing numbers 1 to 1000, one number on one card, are put in a box. Each player selects one card at random and that card is not replaced. If the selected card has a perfect square greater than 500, the player wins a prize. Then the probability that the second player wins a prize if the first has won is

9 8 8 (D) 1 (A) (B) (C)

1000 999 1000 111

73. The two opposite vertices of a square are (-1,2)and (3,2) respectively. The co-ordinate of other

two vertices are (A) (1,0) and (4,1) (B) (1,1) and (4,0) (C) (1,0) and (1,4) (D) (— 1,4) and (2,-3)

74. If ax3 + bx + c has a factor of the form x2 + px +1, then

(A) a2 — c2 = ab (B) a2 + c2 = ab (C) a2 + c2 + ab = 0 (D) a2 — c2 + ab = 0

75. The value of M and N, if M39048458N is divisible by 8 and 11 where M and N are single digit

integers is (A) M = 8,N = 4 (B) M = 4,N = 6 (C) M = 6,N = 4 (D) None of these

76. In a circle of radius 5cm, AB and AC are two equal chords such that AB= AC= 6crn . Then the

length of the chord BC is (A) 4.8cm (B) 7.2cm (C) 9.6cm (D) 5.4cm

77. In a AABC , X and Y are points on the segment AB and AC respectively such that AX: XB =1: 2 and AY: YC = 2 :1.1f the area of AAXYis 10 then area of AABCis (A) 30 (B) 45 (C) 60 (D) 27 •

78. A cylindrical pipe has an inner diameter of 7cm . Water flows through it at the rate of 192.5 litres per minute. The rate of flow in km. per hour is (A) 5 km/hr (B) 3 km/hr (C) 30 km/hr (D) 50 km/hr

79. If 15 sin4 a +10 cos4 a = 6 , then the value of sect a is

(A) 2/ 3 (B) —5 (C) 1 (D) —

3

3 4

DAV Unit-VIII XI (Sc.) — Aptitude Test 2021-22 (IGNITE-ENGINEERING) (Set-A)

Page 10 of 13

80. If a + b tan° = sec 0 and b —a tant9 = 3sec , then a2 +b2 is equal to (A) 8 (B) 12 (C) 10

(D) 20

PHYSICS

81. A ball thrown up, reaches the maximum height and then comes down. If t1 and t2 (t2 > ti ) are the times that the ball takes to be at a particular height, then the time taken by the ball to reach the highest point is

(A) tl t2 (B) -t2 — t-1 (t2 — t1) (C) (D) (t2 + ti )/2

2

82. A block is kept on a frictionless inclined surface with angle of inclination 'a' . The incline is given an acceleration 'a' to keep the block stationary. Then a is equal to

(A) g tan a (B) g

(C) g cosec a (D) g/tana

83. A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate a for some time after which it decelerates at a constant rate /3 to come to rest. If the total time elapsed is t , the distance travelled by the car is

1 c a/3 t2

(B) 2 + p

1 a + fl \ 2, afl

1 r a2 fl2

2 afi

1 ( a 2 - p2

2 a,8

(A) t 2 (C) t 2 (D) t 2

84. In the circuit shown in the figure, the resistances R1 and R2 are respectively.

(A) 1452 an d 40f2

(B) 40/2 an d 30/2

(C) 40f2and14.0

(D) 14/2 and30/2

85. An electric current is passed through a circuit containing two wires of the same material, connected in parallel. If the lengths and radii of the wires are in the ratio of 4/3 and 2/3, then the ratio of the currents passing through the wires will be

(A) 3 (B) 1/3

(C) 8/9 (D) 2

86. If voltage across a bulb rated 220V —100watt drops by 2.5% of its rated value, the percentage of the rated value by which the power would decrease is: (A) 20% (B) 2.5% (C) 5% (D) 10%


Page 11 of 13

87. A bar magnet is allowed to fall inside a long hollow cylinder made up of metal as shown in figure. Then after sometime

(A) it moves with constant acceleration (B) it moves with constant velocity (C) it moves with variable acceleration (D) none

88. Considering the arrangement shown in the figure, find the focal length of the lens, so that image is formed at object.

Convex Lens

S

N

Pla

ne M

irro

r

X20 --> - 10->

(A) 10cm (B) 15cm (C) 20cm (D) 25cm

89. A convex lens forms a real image with magnification m1 on a screen. Now, the screen is moved by

a distance x and the object is also moved so as to obtain a real image with magnification m2 on

the screen. Then the focal length of the lens is rr \

mi x (B)

— m2 ) (D)

11/ 2 x (A) \ m2)

(C) x(mi

m1/ x

mi — m2

90. A glass prism of p =1.5 is immersed in water (p = 4/3 ). A light beam incident normally on face

AB is totally reflected to reach the face BC , if

(A) sinC =8/9 (C) sinC = 2/3

CHEMISTRY

91. Atomic wt. of Ne is 20.2. Ne is a mixture of Ne 20 and Ne 22 . Relative abundance of heavier isotope is (A) 90

(B) 20

(C) 40

(D) 10

(B) sinC =9/8 (D) sinC = 3/2

Object II - H

DAV Unit-VIII XI (Sc.) — Aptitude Test 2021-22 (IGNITE-ENGINEERING) (Set-A) Page 12 of 13

Na Na0H+Ca0

(-H2 92. X >Y >Z, if Z is the first homologue of alkane series, then X ) A (A) Methanoic acid (B) Bromo ethane (C) Ethyl alcohol (D) Ethanoic acid

93. X, Y & Z are three metals. X reacts with cold water, Y reacts with steam only and Z reacts with hot water. The order of increasing reactivity of these elements is (A) X<Y<Z (B) Z < X < Y (C) Y < Z < X (D) X < Z < Y

94. Arrange the following in order of increasing radii. N3-, 02-, S2-, F -

(A) N3- < 02- < S2- < F -

(B) F < S2- < 02- < N 3- (C) S2- < F < N 3- < 02-

(D) F < 02- < N 3- < S 2-

95. Match the following: Column-I

p. Cu + dilH 2S0 4 q. CO r. SO2 s. Zn + H2O (steam) t. C + H2O (steam)

(A) p - (v), q - (iv), r - (iii), s - (ii), t - (i) (B) p - (iv), q - (ii), r - (iii), s - (i), t - (v) (C) p - (iv), q - (v), r - (i), s - (iii), t - (ii) (D) p - (iv), q - (i), r - (v), s - (iii), t - (ii)

Column-II Acidic water gas ZnO + H2 No reaction Neutral

96. A sweet smelling compound 'A' with molecular formula C4H802 on hydrolysis with dil H2SO4 gives two compound B and C. 'B' on oxidation with acidified K2Cr207 gives 'C'. identify the compounds A, B &C (A) CH3CH2COOCH 3, CH 3CH 2CH2OH , CH 3COOH (B) CH3C00C2 H5, CH3CH2OH, CH3COOH (C) CH3COOC 2H 5, CH3COOH, CH3CH2OH (D) CH3CH2COOCH 3 , CH3COOH ,CH3CH2OH

97. In the gold foil experiment of Geiger and Marsden, that paved the way for Rutherford's model of an atom, about 1% of the oc - particles were found to deflect an angle of > 50°. If one mole of an cc - particles that would deflect of an angles < 50' would be (A) 6.96 x1023 (B) 5.96 x 1023 (C) 7.96 x 1023 (D) 2.96 x 1023

98. The formula of Mohr's salt is FeS0 4 (NH 4 )2 SO 4 6H 20 . The number of moles Hydrogen molecule present in 0.25 moles of Mohr's salt is (A) 0.25 moles (B) 0.20 mole (C) 2.50 mole (D) 5.00 mole

99. When `P' reacts with caustic soda, the products are PH3 & NaH2P02 . The reaction is an example of (A) oxidation

(B) Reduction (C) Disproportionation

(D) Neutralisation

100. You are given three solutions A, B &C of their pH value 2,4 & 6 respectively. If equal volume of

three solutions are mixed, the pH of the resultant solution is (log 3.367=0.53)

(A) 3.53 (B) 4.53

(C) 6.00

(D) 5.35


Page 13 of 13

PART - B 7C NITE

BIOLOGY

71. In an aquatic food chain in which big fish eats small fishes which feed on water fleas that thrive on phytoplanktons. The concentration of toxic chemicals entering the food chain will be maximum in: (A) Big fish (B) Small fish (C) Water fleas (D) Phytoplankton

72. A hawk eats a snake, which has eaten a frog that thrives on grasshopper, which consumes grasses. In the food chain if the amount of energy at second carnivore level is 6KJ. What will the total solar energy available to the producers. (A) 600000 KJ (B) 60 ICJ (C) 600 KJ (D) 0.6 KJ

73. The following results were obtained by a scientist who crossed the F1 generation of pure breeding parents for round and wrinkled seeds.

Dominant Trait Recessive Trait No of F2 offspring

Round seeds Wrinkled seeds 7524

From these results, it can be concluded that the actual number of round seeds he obtained (A) 1881 (B) 22572 (C) 2508 (D) 5643

74. If a person, living at sea level, migrates to about 8000 feet high hill, his blood after about fifteen days will mainly (A) Have fewer WBCs (B) Have large number of WBCs (C) Have greater number of RBCs and less haemoglobin (D) Have greater number of RBCs and more haemoglobin

75. When a gall bladder of a man is removed (A) Effect of pancreatic juice upon food is impaired (B) Alkalinity continues in duodenum (C) Protein digestion is impaired (D) All of the above

76. Which of the seeds contain more mitochondria? (A) Germinating seeds (B) Dry seeds (C) Dormant seeds (D) Soaked seeds

77. How many times a red blood corpuscle will have to pass through the heart in its journey from hepatic artery to the aorta? (A) Four times (B) Several times (C) Two times (D) Only once

78. This happens if the PCT is removed from nephron. (A) Urine Is not formed (B) Quality and quantity of urine is unaffected (C) Urine is more concentrated (D) Urine is more dilute

DAV Unit-VIII XI (Sc.) - Aptitude Test 21321-22 (IGNITE-MEDICAL) (Set-C)

Page ID of 14

79. Select the correct order of events leading to the opening of stomata i. Decline in guard cell solute ii. Lowering of osmotic potential of guard cells iii. rise in K+ level in guard cells iv. movement of H2O from neighbouring cells into guard cells. v. Guard cells became flaccid Choose the correct option. (A) i, iii and iv only (B) ii, iii and iv only (C) i and v only (D) ii, iv and v only

80. The male gametes of rice plant have 12 chromosomes in their nucleus. The chromosome number in female gametophyte, zygote and the cells of seedling will be respectively (A) 12, 24, 12 (B) 24, 12, 12 (C) 12, 24, 24 (D) 24, 12, 24

PHYSICS

81. A convex lens forms a real image with magnification m1 on a screen. Now, the screen is moved by a distance x and the object is also moved so as to obtain a real image with magnification m2 on the screen. Then the focal length of the lens is

(A)

(C)

r mi x

— m2)

(B)

(D)

M2

rn2

x(mi

\ m1

X

x

m1 — m2

82. If voltage across a bulb rated 220V —100watt drops by 2.5% of its rated value, the percentage of the rated value by which the power would decrease is: (A) 20% (B) 2.5% (C) 5% (D) 10%

83. A bar magnet is allowed to fall inside a long hollow cylinder made up of metal as shown in figure. Then after sometime

S

N

(A) it moves with constant acceleration (B) it moves with constant velocity (C) it moves with variable acceleration (D) none

84. An electric current is passed through a circuit containing two wires of the same material, connected in parallel. If the lengths and radii of the wires are in the ratio of 4/3 and 2/3, then the ratio of the currents passing through the wires will be (A) 3 (B) 1/3 (C) 8/9 (D) 2

DAV Unit-VIII XI (Sc.) — Aptitude Test 2021-22 (IGNITE-MEDICAL) (Set-C) Page 11 of 14

t2

(A)

(C) t2 2 afi

1 ( afi t 2

2 \a + ,8 i

1 (a2 + 182

2 a,8

(B) 1 a +

t2 2 \ afi

(D) 1 1a2 — 2

85. Considering the arrangement shown in the figure, find the focal length of the lens, so that image is formed at object.

Convex Lens

Obiect

Pla

ne M

irro

r

20 --> 10

(B) 15cm (D) 25cm

(A) 10cm (C) 20cm

86. A ball thrown up, reaches the maximum height and then comes down. If t1 and t2 (t2 > t1) are the

times that the ball takes to be at a particular height, then the time taken by the ball to reach the highest point is

(D) + t1)/ 2

87. A glass prism of ,u =1.5 is immersed in water (1u = 4/3 ). A light beam incident normally on face

AB is totally reflected to reach the face B C , if

(A) sinC = 8/9 (C) sinC = 2/ 3

88. A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate a for some time after which it decelerates at a constant rate 13 to come to rest. If the total time elapsed is t , the distance travelled by the car is

(t2 — t1) (A) t1 + t2 (B) t2 — t1 (C)

2

(B) sinC = 9/8 (D) sinC = 3/2

A

89. A block is kept on a frictionless inclined surface with angle of inclination 'a' . The incline is given an acceleration 'a' to keep the block stationary. Then a is equal to

(A) g tan a

(B) g

(C) g cosec a

(D) g/tana

DAV Unit-VW XI (Sc.) — Aptitude Test 2021-22 (IGNITE-MEDICAL) (Set-C) Page 12 of 14

90. In the circuit shown in the figure, the resistances R1 and R2 are respectively. Ri

(A) 1451 an d40S2

(B) 40nand3052 (C) 40S2 an d14f1

(D) 140 an d30C2

CHEMISTRY

91. When `P' reacts with caustic soda, the products are PH3 & NaH2P02 . The reaction is an example

of (A) oxidation

(B) Reduction (C) Disproportionation

(D) Neutralisation

92. A sweet smelling compound 'A' with molecular formula C4H802 on hydrolysis with dil H2SO4

gives two compound B and C. 'B' on oxidation with acidified K2Cr2O7 gives 'C'. identify the

compounds A, B &C (A) CH3CH2COOCH3, CH 3CH2CH2OH, CH3COOH

(B) CH3COOC2H5, CH3CH2OH, CH3COOH

(C) CH3COOC2H5, CH3COOH ,CH3CH2OH

(D) CH3CH2COOCH 3, CH3COOH, CH3CH2OH

93. Match the following: Column-I Column-II

p. Cu + ch7H 2SO4 (i) Acidic

q. CO (ii) water gas r. SO2 (iii) ZnO + H2

S. Zn + H2O (steam) (iv) No reaction

t. C + H2O (steam) (v) Neutral

(A) p - (v), q - (iv), r - (iii), s - (ii), t - (i) (B) p - (iv), q - (ii), r - (iii), s - (i), t - (v) (C) p - (iv), q - (v), r - (i), s - (iii), t - (ii) (D) p - (iv), q - (i), r - (v), s - (iii), t - (ii)

94. The formula of Mohr's salt is FeS0 4 • (NH4)2S0 4 • 6H20. The number of moles Hydrogen

molecule present in 0.25 moles of Mohr's salt is (A) 0.25 moles (B) 0.20 mole (C) 2.50 mole (D) 5.00 mole

95. In the gold foil experiment of Geiger and Marsden, that paved the way for Rutherford's model of

an atom, about 1% of the oc - particles were found to deflect an angle of > 50° . If one mole of an

cc - particles that would deflect of an angles < 50° would be

(A) 6.96 x 1023 (B) 5.96 x1023 (C) 7.96 x 1023 (D) 2.96 x 1023

96. Atomic wt. of Ne is 20.2. Ne is a mixture of Ne20 and Ne22 . Relative abundance of heavier

isotope is (A) 90 (B) 20 (C) 40 (D) 10

DAV Unit-V III XI (Sc.) — Aptitude Test 2021-22 (IGNITE-MEDICAL) (Set-C)

Page 13 of 14

97. You are given three solutions A, B &C of their pH value 2,48z 6 respectively. If equal volume of three solutions are mixed, the pH of the resultant solution is (log 3.367=0.53) (A) 3.53 (B) 4.53 (C) 6.00 (D) 5.35

98. X, Y 8z Z are three metals. X reacts with cold water, Yreacts with steam only and Z reacts with hot water. The order of increasing reactivity of these elements is (A) X<Y<Z (B) Z < X < Y (C) Y<Z<X (D) X<Z<Y

99. X >Y Na 0H+Ca 0

(-H2) A

Na >Z, if Z is the first homologue of alkane series, then X

(A) Methanoic acid (B) Bromo ethane (C) Ethyl alcohol (D) Ethanoic acid

100. Arrange the following in order of increasing radii. N3-,02-,s2-,F -

(A) N3- < 02- < S2- < F

(B) F < S2- < 02- < N 3-

(C) S2- < F < N 3- < 02-

(D) F < 02- < N 3- < S2-

-101 4-1100fima

DAY Unit-11111 XI (Sc.) - Aptitude Test 2021-22 (IGNITE-MEDICAL) (Set-C) Page 14 of 14

V

Ht)iviAN1 Trt12, ENGLISH (HUMANITIES)

Directions (Q1 to Q5): Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:

Nature writing is nonfiction or fiction prose or poetry about the natural environment. Nature writing encompasses a wide variety of works, ranging from those that place primary emphasis on natural history facts (such as field guides) to those in which philosophical interpretation predominate. It includes natural history essays, poetry, essays of solitude or escape, as well as travel and adventure writing.

Nature writing often draws heavily on scientific information and facts about the natural world; at the same time, it is frequently written in the first person and incorporates personal observations of and philosophical reflections upon nature.

Modern nature writing traces its roots to the works of natural history that were popular in the second half of the 18th century and throughout the 19th. And important early figure was the "parson-naturalist" Gilbert White (1750-1899), a pioneering English Naturalist and ornithologist. He is best known for his Natural History and Antiquities of Selborne (1789).

1. Nature writing emphasizes on i. Historical facts about the nature ii. Philosophical interpretations of the nature iii. Scientific information and facts Choose the most appropriate: (A) Only (i) and (ii) (C) None of the above

(B) Only (i) and (iii) (D) All of the above

2. Based on the passage what is the period to which the modern nature writing can be traced to (A) 1850 till 1999 (B) 1850 to 1899 (C) 1750 till 1899 (D) 1750 till 1900

3. Which statement summarizes the above passage (A) The passage talks about the life and lessons of Gilbert White, a profound naturalist and

ornithologist. (B) The passage talks about how the nature writing is missing in the modern era and needs to be

revived. (C) The passage talks about from where the writers draw inspiration for nature writing, and how

its importance is diminishing in the modern era. (D) The passage talks about what nature writing is, the different types of nature writing, its style,

and about the roots and pioneer of modern nature writing.

4. Which word aptly describes the word "reflections" as used in the passage? (A) Opinion (B) Reproduction (C) Images (D) None of these

5. According to the passage, what kind of works are written as part of nature writing? i. Natural history essays and essays of solitude or escape ii. Poetry iii. Travel and adventure writing Choose the correct options. (A) Only (i) (B) Only (i) and (ii) (C) Only (ii) and (iii) (D) All of these

DAV Unit-VI!! XI (Hum.) — Aptitude Test 2021-22 Page 2 of 13

Directions (Q6 to Q9): From the given alternatives chose the word that is the exact ANTONYM of the given words. •

6. She tried hard to control her FRANTIC emotions (A) Active (B) Bitter (C) Hopeful (D) Calm

7. The new officer is a BRASH young man. (A) Arrogant (B) Handsome (C) Kind (D) Polite

8. He has a DELICATE constitution. (A) Rugged (B) Strong (C) Ungainly (D) Fit

9. She is SLENDER in figure. (A) Slim (B) Stout (C) Strong (D) Well-built

Directions (Q10 to Q12): From the given alternatives chose the word that is the exact SYNONYM of the given words.

10. ABDICATE (A) Abandon (B) Search

11. ACCORD (A) Refusal (B) oppose

12. HAGGLE (A) Crisis

(B) Ignore

(C) Join (D) Advance

(C) Confer (D) Dissension

(C) Impeach (D) Bargain

Directions (Q13 to Q16): In questions given below, out of four alternatives, choose the one which

can be substituted for the given word/sentence:

13. A person interested in collecting, studying and selling of old things (A) Antiquarian (B) Junk-dealer (C) Crank

(D) Archaeologist

14. One who does not believe in existence of God (A) Egoist (B) Atheist (C) Stoic (D) Naive

15. A place that provides refuge (A) Asylum (B) Sanatorium (C) Shelter (D) Orphanage

16. One who lost his life in protecting the lives of people of his country (A) Soldier (B) Martyr (C) Revolutionist (D) Philanthropist

Directions (Q17 to Q20): Answer the following as per the directions mentioned.

17. She will teach them music. (change the voice) (A) She will be taught music by them. (B) They will teach music to her. (C) They will be taught music by her. (D) They will teach her music.

18. Ramesh is too good to deceive anyone. (Remove 'too' without changing the meaning) (A) Ramesh is so good that he cannot deceive anyone. (B) Ramesh is good enough not to be deceiving anybody. (C) Anyone cannot be deceived by Ramesh. (D) Ramesh doesn't deceive anyone.

DAV Unit-VIII XI (Hum.) — Aptitude Test 2021-22

Page 3 of B

19. She said. '1 decided to work because hard work is the key to success.' (change the narration) (A) She told she had decided to work hard because hard work is the key to success. (B) She said that she had decided to work hard because hard work is the key to success. (C) She said that she decided to work hard because hard work is the key to success. (D) She said that she had decided to work hard because hard work was the key to success.

20. Your house maybe (big) but mine is (good) than you. (use the comparative degree) (A) Your house may be bigger but mine is good. (B) Your house may be big but mine is better than you. (C) Your house may be the biggest but mine is better than you. (D) Your house may be bigger but mine is better than you.

SOCIAL SCIENCE

21. Victor Emmanuel II was proclaimed the king of Italy in (A) 1860 (B) 1861 (C) 1862

(D) 1863

22. Match the following: List I

(a) Liberalism (b) Treaty of Vienna (c) French Revolution (d) Treaty of Constantinople

Options: (A) a - b - c - d - iv (C) a - b - c - d - iv

List II (i) brought conservative regimes back to power (ii) individual freedom and equality before law

(iii) recognized Greece as an independent nation (iv) transfer of sovereignty from Monarch to citizens

(B) a-i,b-ii,c-iv,d-iii (D) a - b - c - iv, d -

23. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion(A) and the other labelled as Reason(R). Assertion(A): In 1815, representatives of the European powers- Britain, Russia, Prussia and Austria met at Vienna. Reason(R): The European powers met to draw up a settlement for Europe. (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct (D) (R) is correct, but (A) is not correct

24. The term 'Elle' is referred to (A) measure of cloth (B) assessment of custom duties (C) a system of weight (D) None of these

25. Read the following statements regarding the Non-Cooperation Movement in Awadh. i. In Awadh peasants were led by Baba Ramchandra. ii. This movement in Awadh was against talukdars and landlords. iii. In June 1920, Mahatma Gandhi began going around the villages in Awadh, talking to villagers and trying to understand their grievances. iv. By October 1920, the Oudh Kisan Sabha was set up by Jawaharlal Nehru, Baba Ramchandra and few others. Which statement(s) is/are correct? (A) i, ii and iii only (B) i, ii and iv only (C) i, iii and iv only (D) i, ii, iii and iv

26. Ambedkar established the Depressed Classes Association in (A) 1930 (B) 1931 (C) 1932

(D) 1933

DAV Unit-V111 XI (Hum.) — Aptitude Test 2021-22

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27. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason(R). Assertion (A): Civil Disobedience Movement was launched on 6th April 1930. Reason (R): The industrial working class did not participate in the Civil Disobedience Movement. (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct (D) (R) is correct, but (A) is not correct

28. By 1921, Gandhiji had designed the Swaraj flag which was a tricolour with a spinning wheel in the centre. Choose the correct colour combination of this flag. (A) red, green and yellow (B) red, blue and white (C) red, green and white (D) red, green and saffron

29. Which of the following was not a measure adopted by French revolutionaries to create a collective identity? (A) Ideas of la patrie' and 'le citoyen' (B) Tricolour flag (C) Regional dialects composed (D) Hymns composed

30. Pick out the correct definition of the term 'Plebiscite'. (A) Plebiscite is a direct vote by which only the female members of a region are asked to accept or

reject a proposal. (B) Plebiscite is a direct vote by the female members of a matriarchal system to accept or reject a

proposal. (C) Plebiscite is a direct vote by only a chosen few from the total population of a particular region

to accept or reject a proposal. (D) Plebiscite is a direct vote by which all the citizens of a region are asked to accept or reject a

proposal.

31. The term 'Begar' means (A) An act to prevent plantation workers to leave the tea gardens without permission. (B) The forced recruitment of soldiers in rural areas during World war I. (C) Labour that villagers were forced to contribute without any payment. (D) Refusal to deal and associate with people, or participate in activities as a form of protest.

32. The Swaraj Party was mainly formed because it wanted members of congress to (A) return to Council Politics. (B) ask for Poorna Swaraj for Indians. (C) ask Dominion State for India. (D) oppose Simon Commission.

33. Arrange the following in the sequence in which the events occurred: i. Chauri-Chaura ii. Khilafat Movement iii. Second Round Table Conference iv. Civil Disobedience Movement (A) i, ii, iii, iv (B) iii, ii, i, iv (C) ii, i ,iv, iii (D) iv, ii, iii, i

34. Cavour's contribution to Italian unification was: (A) War with Austrians and Bourbons (B) Diplomatic alliance with the enemies of Austria War with Austrians and Bourbons. (C) Diplomatic alliance with France in 1859 and strengthening Sardinia and Piedmont. (D) Defeated the Bourbon kings.

35. Choose the prime factor in the emergence of modern nationalism in India (A) New symbols (B) New ideas (C) Icons (D) Anti-colonial movement


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36. Which of the following soils has self-aeration capacity? (A) Alluvial soil (B) Red soil (C) Black soil

(D) Mountain soil

37. There is enough for everybody's need and not of any body's greed, who among the following has Given the above statement? (A) Vinoba Bhave (B) Mahatma Gandhi (C) Jawaharlal Nehru (D) Atal Behari Vajpayee

38. Which one of the following is not true for pulses? (A) Pulses are grown in both rabi and kharif season. (B) Pulses are leguminous crops. (C) They are grown in rotation with other crops. (D) Pulses require intensive irrigation facilities.

39. Which of the following crops is used both as a food and as a fodder? (A) Jowar (B) Wheat (C) Maize (D) Tea

40. Which one of the following is not true regarding the National Jute Policy of 2005? (A) Creating awareness about the use of biodegradable materials. (B) Ensuring good prices to the jute farmers. (C) Increasing productivity. (D) Improving quality of jute.

41. Which one of the following has been major source of foreign exchange for IT industry? (A) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL) (B) Oil India Limited (OIL) (C) Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL) (D) Business Process Outsourcing (BPO)

42. Which one of the following groups of cities is connected by the National Highway No.1? (A) Kolkata-Amritsar (B) Ranchi-Kolkata (C) Delhi-Punjab (D) Varanasi-Kanyakumari

43. Rural land not available for cultivation is called- (A) Fallow land (B) Barren or waste land (C) Net sown area (D) Grass gapped area

44. The three major cropping seasons of India are- (A) Aus, Aman and Boro (B) Rabi, Khalif, and Zaid (C) Baisakh, Pans and Chait (D) None of the above

45. Which of the following does not influence the industrial location. (A) Raw material (B) Capital and power (C) Market and labour (D) Underground railway line

46. Which of the following sentence is not correct? (A) RBI was nationalised on January 1, 1935. (B) RBI's head quarter is in Delhi. (C) RBI is the custodian of the foreign currency in India. (D) RBI has 4 deputy Governors.

47. The most urgent problem which prompted the introduction of New Economic Policy in 1991 was- (A) Poor performance of Public Sector (B) High tax rate leading to tax evasion (C) Foreign exchange crisis (D) All of these

DAV Unit-VIII XI (Hum.) - Aptitude Test 2021-22

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48. NFWP stands for (A) National federation for work and progress. (B) National forest for wildlife protection. (C) National Food and wheat processing. (D) National Food for work Programme.

49. In which state, land reform measures helped to reduce poverty? (A) Tamil Nadu (B) Punjab (C) West Bengal (D) Kerala

50. The mean of 12 numbers is 24.115 is added in every number, the new mean is: (A) 25 (B) 84 (C) 29 (D) 32

51. If the sum of N observations is 1260 and their mean is 36, then the value of N is: (A) 35 (B) 40 (C) 30 (D) 25

52. Mean of 20 items was found to he 12. On verification, it was found that an item 15 was miscopied as 10. The current mean is (A) 12.10 (B) 12.25 (C) 12.20 (D) 12.45

53. Disinvestment means selling of a public investment to a (A) Private enterprises (B) Public enterprises (C) Capital market (D) Departmental enterprises

54. Who conducts the periodical sample survey for estimating the poverty line in India? (A) Sample Survey Organization (B) National Survey Organization (C) National Sample Survey Organization (D) World Bank

55. Which scheme was started in 1993 to create employment opportunities for educated unemployed youth in rural areas and small towns? (A) Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana (B) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (C) Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozagar Yojana (D) Rural Employment Generation Programme

CURRENT AFFAIRS

56. Which Indian Private bank has launched an API Banking Portal with the highest number of virtual Application Programming Interfaces (API)? (A) HDFC Bank (B) Axis Bank (C) ICICI Bank (D) IDBI Bank

57. Zhong Shanshan, who replaced Mukesh Ambani as Asia's richest person, is from which country? (A) Singapore (B) China (C) Japan (D) Thailand

58. Covishield, the first vaccine to get emergency use nod from DGCI, is being manufactured by which company? (A) Bharat Biotech (B) Biocon (C) Serum Institute of India (D) Dr. Reddys Labs

59. External affairs minister S Jai Shankar proposed Eight guiding principles to repair the strained relations with which country? (A) China (B) Afghanistan (C) Pakistan (D) United States


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60. Who is the chair person of 15th Finance Commission? (A) Raghuram Rajan (B) N K Singh (C) D Subbarao (D) Y V Reddy

61. Which organisation has released the Climate Risk Index (CRI) 2021? (A) Germanwatch (B) UNFCCC (C) WHO (D) FAO

62. As per the Budget 2021-22, what is the estimated Fiscal Deficit for the current financial year? (A) 9.5% (B) 7.0% (C) 4.0% (D) 2.0%

63. 'World Sustainable Development Summit' is organised by which institution? (A) NITI Aayog (B) UNDP (C) The Energy and Resources Institute (D) World Economic Forum

64. Where is the headquarters of the Indian Drugs & Pharmaceuticals Ltd located? (A) Hyderabad (B) Jaipur (C) Gurgaon

(D) Bengaluru

65. Who won the Australian Open 2021 women's title recently? (A) Naomi Osaka (B) Serena Williams (C) Ashleigh Barty (D) Simona Halep

66. Which state government has launched a mobile application called PRAGYAAM to issue e-passes for people involved in essential services amid lock-down? (A) Telangana (B) Odisha (C) Jharkhand (D) Punjab

67. Which Indian wrestler won the Gold medal at the Rome Ranking Series 2020 event, held recently? (A) Geeta Phogat (B) Babita Phogat (C) Vinesh Phogat (D) Sakshi Malik

68. Which Indian Tennis player recently won the 'WTA Hobart International Doubles title' along with partner Nadiia Kichenok? (A) Nirupama Sanjeev (B) Ankita Raina (C) Sania Mirza (D) Rushmi Chakravarthi

69. The highest civilian award in the field of contribution to the unity and integrity of India is named after which Indian leader? (A) Mahatma Gandhi (B) Jawaharlal Nehru (C) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (D) Lal Bahadur Shastri

70. Jio Platform is to partner with which Technology company to develop a new operating system for Smartphone in India? (A) Microsoft (B) Google (C) Xiaomi (D) Facebook

gooft0 ---1,100

1

DAV Unit-VIII XI (Hum.) - Aptitude Test 2021-22 Page 8 of 8

ComivIckce ECONOMICS GOMMERaE

1. GST was implemented in India from (A) 1st Jan 2017 (B) 1st April 2017 (C) 1st March 2017 (D) 1st July 2017

2. Who was the Prime minister of India during the demonetization of 1978? (A) Rajiv Gandhi (B) Morarji Desai (C) Indira Gandhi (D) I K Gujral

4

3. mean change in a set of policies and rules and regulations from one period of time to another to achieve economic growth. (A) Tax reforms (B) Economic reforms (C) Land reforms (D) Both (A) and (B)

4. If a farmer wants to take loan to purchase a tractor, which type of bank he should contact? (A) Commercial banks (B) RBI (C) Regional Rural Bank (D) Both (A) and (C)

5. Which of the following is not the function of the RBI? (A) Banker's Bank (B) Controller of Credit (C) Custodian of Foreign Exchange Reserve (D) Allotting money directly to farmers for agricultural development

6. If there are two groups containing 30 and 20 observations and having 50 and 60 as arithmetic mean, then the combined arithmetic mean is (A) 51 (B) 54 (C) 53 (D) 52

7. Median of 2,5,8,4,9,6,7 is: (A) 9 (B) 8

(C) 0 (D) 6

8. The algebraic sum of deviations of observations from their arithmetic mean is (A) 2 (B) —1 (C) 1 (D) 0

9. Mean of 20 items was found to be 12. On verification, it was found that an item 15 was miscopied as 10. The correct mean is (A) 12.10 (B) 12.25 (C) 12.20 (D) 12.45

10. Which bank was baptised as the State Bank of India? (A) New Bank of India (B) Indian Bank (C) United Bank of India (D) Imperial Bank of India

11. Identify the punishable offence by a Bank Account holder. (A) If a cheque is not crossed (B) If a post dated cheque is issued (C) If a cheque drawn by him is dishonored for insufficiency of funds in his account. (D) Issuing a cheque without signature.

12. While computing mean of grouped data, we assume that frequencies are- (A) evenly distributed over all the classes (B) centred at the classmarks of the classes (C) Centred at the upper limits of the classes (D) Centred at the lower limits of the classes

13. Those who regularly move in and out of poverty like small farmers are called (A) Churning poor (B) Occasionally poor (C) Chronic poor (D) None of the above

DAV Unit-VIII XI (Corn.) - Aptitude Test 2021-22

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14. Human Poverty Index (HPI) measures the deprivation as a composite index of- (A) Longevity, nutrition and knowledge (B) Knowledge, Basic needs and standard of living (C) Longevity, Standard of living and sanitation (D) Longevity, knowledge and standard of living

15. "Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana" has been launched for (A) Providing housing loan to poor people at cheaper interest rates. (B) Promoting women's self-help groups in backward areas. (C) Promoting financial inclusion in the country. (D) Providing financial help to the marginalized communities.

CURRENT AFFAIRS

16. What is India's GDP growth rate for the FY20, as estimated by the World Bank? (A) 6% (B) 5.8% (C) 5.6% (D) 5.4%

17. Which country is the first to develop an antibody test to identify the novel coronavirus (COVID-19)? (A) China (B) United States (C) Singapore (D) South Korea

18. Pragati is a Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) initiative of which technological company in India? (A) Google (B) Microsoft (C) Facebook (D) Amazon

19. The National Safety Day (NSD) is observed annually on which date in India? (A) March 2 (B) March 4 (C) March 6 (D) March 8

20. As per Union Budget 2021-22, what is the new threshold for paid up capital applicable to 'small companies'? (A) Rs. 10 lakh (B) Rs. 1 crore (C) Rs. 20 lakh (D) Rs. 2 crore

21. Which Union Ministry has launched a unified portal for `Gobardhan' scheme? (A) Ministry of Home Affairs (B) Ministry of Power (C) Ministry of Jal Shakti (D) Ministry of Agriculture

22. As per the Monetary Policy Committee decisions, what is the expected Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) by May 2021? (A) 3% (B) 3.5% (C) 4% (D) 4.5%

23. 'The India Toy Fair' was launched in which year? (A) 2018 (B) 2019 (C) 2020 (D) 2021

24. In which state the Chittaura Lake is situated? (A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Odisha (C) Andhra Pradesh (D) Madhya Pradesh

25. Which food-delivery start-up recently acquired Uber's food delivery platform, Uber Eats in India? (A) Swiggy (B) Faasos (C) Zomato (D) Domino's

26. Which country recently became the first in South Asia to introduce e-passports? (A) Bangladesh (B) Cambodia (C) Thailand (D) Vietnam

27. 'Amrut Mahostav' which was seen in the news recently, is the celebration of which event? (A) 125th birth anniversary of Netaji (B) 75th year of India's Independence (C) 50th year of 1971 war (D) 50th year of Kargil War

DAV Unit-11111 XI (Cern.) - Aptitude Test 2021-22 Page 3 of 7

28. ̀ MITRA' scheme, which was announced in the recent Union Budget is related to which sector? (A) Agriculture (B) MSME (C) Textile (D) Banking

29. Pattachitra, which was making news recently, is a popular art form of which state/UT? (A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Odisha (C) Kerala (D) Jammu & Kashmir

30. Which financial institution has launched 'Digital Payments Index (DPI)'? (A) RBI (B) Finance Ministry (C) NPCI (D) State Bank of India

MATHEMATICS

2 n2 31. If a and ig are roots of 3x2 - 4x + 1= 0 then the equation whose roots are

, - L- is ig a

(A) 9x2 + 28x + 3 =0

(B) 5x2 + 3x -1= 0

(C) 5x2 + 2x - 2 = 0

(D) 3x2 - 32x + 3 = 0

32. If a and b are roots of the equation 5x2 - px + 1= 0 and a -b =1, p is equal to

(A) 0 (B) 1

33. If x2 + 5kx +16 = 0 has no real roots then

(A) k > (B) k 5 5

(C) ± 3-N/ (D) ± 5/5

(C) 8 — <k<- 8

(D) -8 5 5

5

34. If the ratio between the roots of the equation /x2 + nx + n = 0 is p : q then the value of

n . -

1

(B) 3 (C) -1 (D) 0

35. If one root of the equation 3x2 =8x + (2k +1) is seven times the other, then the value of k is (A) 5/3

(B) -5/3 (C) 2/3

(D) -2/3

36. If tam9=

cosec20 - sec2 0 i then the value of s cosec 29 + sec2 0

(A) 1 (B) -5 7

(C) 3 4

(D) -3 7

37. If sin 50° - 321 = cos(30 - 50° )then the value of tant9secesin0 - cotesin0cos0 is

4 5 11 (D) —

11 (A)

(B) (C) — 11 11 4 5

38. If a flagstaff of 6in high placed on the top of a tower throws a shadow of 25n along the ground then the angle that the sun makes with the ground is (A) 45' (B) 60° (C) 30° (D) 90°

DAV Unit-VIII XI (Corn.) - Aptitude Test 2021-22

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39. If sin A + cos A =J3, then the value of tarlA + cotA is

(B) 2

V3 (C) (D) 1

40. If sinx + cosecx = 2 then the value of sin 19 X cosecigx is

(A) 2 (B) 1

(C) 219 (D) 22

41. In a single throw of two dice, the probability of neither a doublet nor a total of 8 will appear is

(A) —11

(B) —5

(C) 13 — (D) 3

36 18 18 16

42. The probability that a leap year will have S3 Fridays or 53 Saturdays is

(A) -2 (B) -

3 (C) - (D)

1

7 7 7 7

43. A card is drawn from a pack of 52 cards. The probability that the card drawn is not an ace card and also not a red card is

(A) 1 6 1

(B) 1 (C) (D)

2 4 13 13

44. A die has six faces marked 0,1,1,1,6,6. Two such die are thrown together and total score is recorded. The probability of getting a total of 7 is

(B) -1 1

3 -2- (C) - (D)

6 9

45. A coin is tossed three times. The probability of getting atleast 2 heads is

(A) 1 1 (B) (C) 7 - (D) -3

4 2 8 8

46. a and /3 are zeroes of the polynomial P(x) = 2x2 + 5x + k . The value of k for which

a 2 + /32 + ale, , 21 is 4

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 4

47. Two numbers x and y are such that when divided by 6 , they leave remainders 4 and 5

respectively. Then the remainder when (x2 + y2 ) is divided by 6 is

(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 0

48. If x +1 is a factor of 2x3 + ax2 + 2bx +1, then the values of a and b given that 2a - 3b = 4are (A) -1,-2 (B) 3,5 (C) 5,2 (D) 2,0

49. If a and are roots of the quadratic equation x2 — px + q = 0 then the value of —1 + —1 is a 3 /33

P 2

3 -3 P3 3 p3 —3 3pq 17 3 — 3pq

q q (A) (B) 3

P (C) (D) P

2

50. The product of (I- y2 )(1- y + y2 )(1+ y + y2 )is

(A) 1+ y4 + y6 (B) 1+ y6 (C) 1+ y3 + y6 (D) I- y6

(A) 2 3

DAV Unit-VIII XI (Cam.) - Aptitude Test 2021-22 Page 5 of 7

ENGLISH

Directions (Q51 to Q55): Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:

Crash dieting may help you lose weight in the short-term, but ultimately it can hinder weight loss in the

long term, as most of the weight that you have lost with crash dieting will bounce back, meaning you will

gain all the weight you have lost and more. Crash dieting not only removes fat but also lean muscles and

tissue. Contrary to the belief of many who start this diet, this form of dieting is neither healthy nor

successful, in achieving long-term weight loss as it induces the showing down of the body's basal metabolic

rate. The body seeks to conserve every calorie and so weight loss becomes increasingly difficult.

Most crash diets involve eating low-calorie foods for several weeks or eating the same food or food groups

for several weeks. Even if you're only trying the diet for a week or two, eating such a strict diet of the same

foods can cause nutritional deficiencies which can have multiple immediate side effects such as haggard

look, dark circles under the eyes, dull skin, sloppy posture and loss of stamina. This is also why exercise is

recommended in any weight-loss plan to build muscles and maintain your metabolic rate.

51. Why is crash dieting not a permanent solution?

(A) It helps you lose weight in the long-term.

(B) It leads to many diseases. (C) It can prevent weight loss in the long term. (D) It leads to many complications.

52. In the line " will bounce back", "bounce back" does not refer to (A) Heal (B) Spring back (C) Revive (D) Pick-up

53. Why is exercise recommended in any weight-loss plan? (A) Because it reduces stress (B) Because it maintains your metabolic rate. (C) Because it builds muscles. (D) Both (B) & (C)

54. Which of the following is NOT a problem faced as a result of crash dieting? (A) Nutritional deficiencies (B) Lack of energy (C) Depression (D) lack of vitality

55. Crash diet does not provide long term effect because- (A) The lost weight can easily bounce back. (B) It reduces the basal metabolic rate. (C) It causes nutritional deficiencies that affect digestion. (D) All of the above.

Directions (Q56 to Q58): From the given alternatives chose the word that is the exact ANTONYM of

the given words.

56. HIRSUTE (A) Glorious (B) Erudite (C) Bald (D) Shaggy

57. MORBID (A) Liberal (B) Healthy (C) Progressive (D) Stale

58. DEARTH (A) Shortage (B) Lack (C) Famine (D) Abundance

DAV Unit-VI!! XI (Com.) - Aptitude Test 2021-22

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Directions (Q59 to Q61): From the given alternatives chose the word that is the exact SYNONYM of the given words.

59. FUTILE (A) Unreal (B) Practical (C) Fruitful (D) Useless

60. RECONCILE (A) Accommodate (B) Agitate (C) Upset (D) Scatter

61. PENCHANT (A) Skill (B) Ability (C) Desire (D) Inclination

Directions (Q62 to Q65): In the given questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words:

62. A person who is unable to pay his debts (A) Solvent (B) Banker (C) Insolvent (D) Lender

63. A person coming to a foreign land to settle there (A) Immigrant (B) Emigrant (C) Tourist (D) Settler

64. Anything which is no longer in use (A) Obscure (B) Obsolete (C) Pristine

65. The arrangement of events or dates in the order of their occurrence

(D) Lapsed

(A) Chronology (B) Synchronise (C) Tautology (D) Terminology

Fill in the blanks with the appropriate option (Q66 & Q67):

66. According to the prevailing rate, two dozen of pens rupees one hundred. (A) Costs (B) Cost (C) Costing (D) coasted

67. Jawaharlal spent his childhood Anand Bhawan. (A) at (B) on (C) in

(D) across

Directions (Q68 to Q70): Answer the following as per the directions mentioned.

68. The main skills we seek to develop include analysing, interpreting and evaluating ideas. (change the voice) (A) The main skills sought by us to develop include analysing, interpreting and evaluating ideas. (B) The main skills sought to be developed by us include analysing, interpreting and evaluation ideas. (C) The main skills that we are seeking to be developed include analysing, interpreting and evaluating

ideas. (D) The main skills include analysing, interpreting and evaluation ideas which are sought by us to

develop.

69. They said, 'Let us come in'. (change the narration) (A) They told that let them be allowed to come in. (B) They requested me to let them come in. (C) They said that if they are allowed to come in. (D) They requested that they might be allowed to come in.

70. determination is needed to fulfil the target. (Use the correct determiner) (A) Most (B) Many (C) Much (D) Few

DAV Unit-V111 XI (Corn.) - Aptitude Test 2021-22 Page 7 of 7

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