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Class Candidate Number
Name
ANGLO-CHINESE JUNIOR COLLEGE
Preliminary Examination 2009
BIOLOGY 9747 / 01 HIGHER 2 02 SEPT 2009 Paper 1 Multiple
Choice
1 hour 15 minutes Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer
Sheet INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Write your name, Centre number and
candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet provided.
There are forty questions in this paper. Answer all questions. For
each question there are four possible answers, A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft
pencil on the separate answer sheet. Read very carefully the
instructions on the answer sheet. INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES Each
correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for
a wrong answer. Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Calculators may be used.
This document consists of 19 printed pages and 1 blank page.
Anglo-Chinese Junior College 9747/01/Prelim 09 [Turn over
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2 1 The diagram shows a cell found in an organ in the human
body.
From its structure, what are the functions of this cell?
A Intracellular digestion and storage of granules of product B
Phagocytosis, pinocytosis and secretion C Secretion and transport
of protective mucus D Uptake and transport of ions and
molecules
2 An enzyme is a globular protein held together by several
different types of bonds, giving
the enzyme primary, secondary and tertiary levels of
structure.
Which combination correctly summarises the types of bond
involved in each level of structure?
Disulphide bonds Hydrogen bonds Ionic bonds Peptide bonds
A Primary Tertiary Secondary Tertiary B Primary,
tertiary Primary Secondary,
tertiary Secondary
C Secondary Secondary Tertiary Primary D Tertiary Secondary,
tertiary Tertiary Primary
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3 3 In an experiment using starch and amylase, the
concentrations of starch and maltose
present in the reacting mixture are measured every minute for 20
minutes. 1% hydrochloric acid is added after 10 minutes and the
mixture is heated to 60C at 14 minutes.
Which graph represents the results of this experiment?
4 Which of the following is not a characteristic of cancer
cells?
A Anchorage independence B Contact inhibition C Metastasis D
Stimulate angiogenesis
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4 5 The figure below shows a hypothetical diploid cell with six
chromosomes.
Which of the following statements are true?
I This cell is at prophase I of meiosis as bivalents have formed
and nuclear membrane is disintegrating.
II This cell is at prophase of mitosis as the chromosomes are
distinct and nuclear membrane is disintegrating.
III New combination of alleles may arise between R and S during
meiosis.
IV R and T have the same genes and same number of genes. V R and
S have the same alleles and same number of genes. VI Crossing over
may occur between non-sister chromatids of bivalent Q.
A I and IV only B I, V and VI only C II and III only D II, III
and V only
Anglo-Chinese Junior College 9747/01/Prelim 09 [Turn over
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5 6 The figure below represents the relative amount of DNA per
nucleus during several cell
divisions in a plant tissue.
DNA per nucleus/ arbitrary units
From the graph, when does the cell become haploid?
7 Transcription initiation in eukaryotes requires several
molecules. The diagram below
shows some of the molecules involved in the transcription
process.
Which is the correct combination for labels 1 4?
1
2 3 4
A Enhancer Activator DNA bending protein RNA polymerase B
Promoter Activator DNA bending protein RNA polymerase C Enhancer
Activator DNA bending protein Mediator D Promoter Silencer DNA
bending protein Mediator
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6
Anglo-Chinese Junior College 9747/01/Prelim 09 [Turn over
Analysis of DNA produced the following ratios of nitrogenous
bases.
Source of DNA Ratio of purines to pyrimidines
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bean seeds 0.99 cow heart 1.01
human liver 1.02 rat bone marrow 1.00
Which of the following statements is true?
A Animal DNA contains more purines than pyrimidines.
portions of purines and
C thymine instead of uracil. alytical techniques.
Five different amino acids (numbered 1 to 5 below) form the
following sequence in part
2------3------4------1------3------5------2
Messenger RNA (mRNA) codons which correspond to these amino
acids are:
amino acid 1 UGU
Which one of the following DNA base sequences could provide the
code for the given
A TTACAGTGTTCCTA
B Different parts of an organism contain different
propyrimidines.
DNA contains
D There are variations in the accuracy of an
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of a polypeptide chain:
amino acid 2 GAU amino acid 3 CAC amino acid 4 CAA amino acid 5
AAG section of polypeptide?
CTAGTGG
B CTAGTGGTTACAGTGTTGCTA C CTAGTGGTTTCTGTGTTGCTA D
CTAGTGGTTACAGTGTTCCTT
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7 10 Tamiflu is an antiviral drug used to treat influenza A
(H1N1) patients. It works by preventing progeny virions from
detaching from infected cells. Which of the following components of
the influenza virus does Tamiflu act on?
A Hemagglutinin B Matrix protein C Neuraminidase D
Nucleoproteins
11 The diagram represents the structure of the human
immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
Which combination correctly identifies the functions of the
lettered components?
V W X Z A Attaches virus
to target cells Fuses with membrane of target cells
Protects the viral genetic material
Synthesises single-stranded DNA from viral genetic material
B Attaches virus to target cells
Fuses with membrane of target cells
Protects the viral genetic material
Synthesises double-stranded DNA from viral genetic material
C Attaches virus to target cells
Protects the viral genetic material
Fuses with membrane of target cells
Synthesises single-stranded RNA from viral genetic material
D Fuses with membrane of target cells
Protects the viral genetic material
Attaches virus to target cells
Synthesises double-stranded RNA from viral genetic material
Anglo-Chinese Junior College 9747/01/Prelim 09 [Turn over
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8 12 Two strains of the bacterium Streptococcus pneumoniae were
used in an experiment on mice. The smooth (S) strain is a virulent
strain whereas the rough (R) strain is a non- virulent strain. The
diagram below shows the results of the experiment.
Which of the following accounts for the living S cells in the
mouse blood sample, even though the original injection mixture
contained only heat-killed S cells and living R cells?
A Binary fission B Conjugation C Transduction D
Transformation
13 A scientist inserts the gene for human growth factor into the
Escherichia coli lac operon, replacing the structural genes with
the gene for human growth factor. What substance must be added to
the culture of bacteria in order to cause them to produce the human
growth factor?
A Human growth factor B Lactose C Operator protein D Repressor
protein
Anglo-Chinese Junior College 9747/01/Prelim 09 [Turn over
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9 14 The role of telomerase is to maintain the length of
telomeres in germline cells. Which statement is true about how
telomerase works?
A It has RNA polymerase that can add ribonucleotides to the
parental strand. B It has reverse transcriptase that can add
deoxyribonucleotides to the parental
strand.
C It has a DNA template that acts as a template to add
deoxyribonucleotides to the parental strand.
D It has DNA polymerase that can add deoxyribonucleotides to the
parental strand.
15 The table shows a comparison between the genomes of a
prokaryote and eukaryote.
Which feature of eukaryotes accounts for the differences in the
number of
proteins with roles in protein synthesis?
A The DNA of a eukaryote has histones. B The DNA of a eukaryote
has introns. C The DNA of a eukaryote has more base pairs. D The
DNA of a eukaryote is separated from the ribosomes by
membranes.
16 Which of the following is not a requirement for the mechanism
of RNA splicing?
A Introns B Small nuclear ribonucleoproteins C 5 and 3 splice
sites D 5 modified guanosine cap
Anglo-Chinese Junior College 9747/01/Prelim 09 [Turn over
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10 17 An investigator wanted to determine the function of
protein X. He cloned the gene X into plasmid 1. He then set up
another plasmid (plasmid 2) with a binding site for the product of
gene X plus a reporter gene. A reporter gene codes for the
synthesis of a product that is easily measured. The two plasmids
(shown below) were then introduced into the nucleus of a host
cell.
Anglo-Chinese Junior College 9747/01/Prelim 09 [Turn over
He noted that there was an increase in the number of reporter
gene transcripts. Which of
A Gene X is an enhancer sequence.
r.
8 Which of the following is a method of post-translational
control in eukaryotic cells?
A Inactivation of essential translational factors.
cripts.
they are transported to targeted
the following statements is a valid conclusion regarding gene X
or product X?
B Gene X is the promoter sequence. C Product X is RNA
polymerase. D Product X is a transcription facto
1
B Prevention of ribosome attachment. C Selective degradation of
mRNA transD Selective degradation of the proteins when
destinations.
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11 19 A girl has blood group A and her brother has blood group
B. Which combination of genotypes cannot belong to their parents?
Mother Father
A IA IA IB IO B IA IB IA IB C IO IO IA IB D IB IO IA IO
20 In one of the experiments to test the 3:1 ratio of Mendels
laws, 705 plants are
observed to have red flowers and 224 had white flowers. The P
(probability) value, associated with the calculated chi-square
value of 2.668, is 0.10, under the 95% (P=0.05) confidence level.
The P refers to
A the chance that there is a 10% probability that any deviation
from the expected
result is due to a random event only.
B the chance that there is a 10% probability that any deviation
from the expected result is significant.
C the chance that there is no difference between the expected
and observed results.
D the chance that there is a difference between the expected and
observed results.
21 Fruit flies homozygous for long wings were crossed with flies
homozygous for vestigial wings.
The F1 generation was raised at 3 different temperatures. The F1
flies were then
crossed with each other to produce the F2 generation. The
results of the F1 and F2 generation are shown below.
Temperature F1 result F2 result 21C All long wings 3/4 long
wings, 1/4 vestigial wings 26C All long wings 3/4 long wings, 1/4
intermediate wings 31C All long wings All long wings
Which of the following statements is correct?
A Heterozygous flies have vestigial wings only at 21C and below,
but have long
wings at 31C and above.
B Long wing and vestigial wing alleles show codominance at 26C.
C Long wing allele is dominant at higher temperatures, but
vestigial wing allele is
dominant at lower temperature.
D Vestigial wing allele is recessive but causes a vestigial wing
phenotype only at lower temperatures.
Anglo-Chinese Junior College 9747/01/Prelim 09 [Turn over
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12 22 The coat colour of Labrador retrievers is controlled by
two genes, B and E. Allele B (dominant) codes for black coat, while
allele b (recessive) codes for brown coat. The coat colour of a
Labrador retriever with genotype ee is yellow.
A cross between Labrador retrievers with the genotype EeBb and
EeBB was performed. What is the expected phenotype in the offspring
of this cross?
A 75% yellow, 25% black B 75% black, 25% yellow C 37.5% black,
37.5% brown, 25% yellow D 50% black, 25% brown, 25% yellow
23 Which of the following statements is true?
A Continuous variation shows a normal distribution and is only
influenced by genetic factors.
B Continuous variation is controlled by two or more genes and
the traits are qualitative.
C Discontinuous variation shows traits that follow discrete
distribution and is mostly influenced by environmental factors.
D Discontinuous variation shows traits that are controlled by
one or two genes and is not influenced by environmental
factors.
24 14C-labelled carbon dioxide was supplied to photosynthesising
algae. The relative amounts of three organic compounds were
measured. The diagram shows the results.
Which of the following compounds correspond to the respective
graphs 1, 2 and 3?
1 2 3 A GP RuBP Sugar B GP Sugar RuBP C RuBP GP Sugar D RuBP
Sugar GP
Anglo-Chinese Junior College 9747/01/Prelim 09 [Turn over
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13 25 When cyanide is bound to cytochrome oxidase, the cell can
no longer produce ATP aerobically. Which statement below best
explains this?
A It prevents NADPH from being oxidised to NADP+, hence
preventing electron flow down the electron transport chain.
B It prevents oxygen from accepting electrons and protons to
form water, hence preventing electron flow down the electron
transport chain.
C It prevents photolysis from occurring to produce oxygen. D It
prevents pyruvate from being synthesised in glycolysis, hence
stopping the
Krebs cycle.
26 The diagram represents a cell membrane.
Which structure allows the diffusion of Cl ions between the
outside and inside of the cell?
A A only B B only C A and B D C and D
Anglo-Chinese Junior College 9747/01/Prelim 09 [Turn over
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14 27 The diagram below shows a normal action potential.
Which events are occurring at positions 2 and 4 to produce the
illustrated action potential?
Position 2
Position 4
A Influx of potassium ions Efflux of sodium ions B Influx of
sodium ions Efflux of potassium ions C Influx of sodium ions Influx
of potassium ions D Efflux of potassium ions Influx of sodium
ions
28 Which of the following will stop impulse transmission across
a synapse?
A A mutation of the voltage-gated calcium ion channels. B Enzyme
acetylcholinesterase inhibited by nerve gas DFP. C Increased fusion
of neurotransmitter vesicles with pre-synaptic membrane. D The
accumulation of acetylcholine vesicles in the pre-synaptic
knob.
Anglo-Chinese Junior College 9747/01/Prelim 09 [Turn over
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15 29 Which of the following represents the changes that insulin
brings about in the
appropriate target cells?
Rate of glycogenolysis
Rate of glycogenesis
Level of cAMP
A Increase Decrease Increases B Decrease Increase Increases C
Increase Decrease Decreases D Decrease Increase Decreases
30 The diagram below shows a general signal transduction
pathway.
Cell surface membrane
Intermediate or relay molecules
Activation of cellular
responses
Which one of the following processes deviates from the chain of
events as shown above?
A Epinephrine, released in response to stress, increases the
availability of energy
sources by stimulating glycogen hydrolysis in muscle and the
liver.
B Testosterone, released by the testes, stimulates development
of secondary sex characteristics at target tissues.
C Growth factors, protein molecules released by actively growing
cells, stimulate cell growth and cell division in adjacent
cells.
D Glucagons, released by alpha cells of the islets of
Langerhans, stimulate expression of certain genes to bring about an
increase in rate of gluconeogenesis.
Anglo-Chinese Junior College 9747/01/Prelim 09 [Turn over
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16 31 In which of the following scenarios would allopatric
speciation occur most quickly?
A A population of cheetahs undergoing little or no evolutionary
change. B A population of fishes undergoing directional selection
due to the introduction of
a new predator.
C A population of giraffes free to roam the entire nature
reserve after the artificial removal of all predators.
D A population of snails separated by a new fast-flowing river.
32 The table below shows the number of amino acid differences in
the alpha haemoglobin chains between the crocodile and various
organisms.
Lungfish
Coelacanth
Shark
Goldfish
Crocodile
85
78
77
70
Which organism is most closely related to the crocodile?
A Coelacanth B Goldfish C Lungfish D Shark
Anglo-Chinese Junior College 9747/01/Prelim 09 [Turn over
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17 33 During the drought years on the island of Daphne Major,
small seeds became rare, leaving behind only large seeds as a food
source for birds. In the event of a prolonged drought lasting
several years, which of the following could be a possible
observation?
A Large-beaked birds eating less, leaving food available for the
small-beaked birds. B Small-beaked birds developed large beaks to
feed on the large seeds. C Small-beaked birds dying, with
subsequent generations having a higher percentage
of large-beaked birds.
D Small-beaked birds mutating their genes to grow large beaks.
34 Which of the following characteristics is undesirable in cloning
vectors used in genetic engineering?
A Ability to replicate in the host cell. B Have at least two
gene markers. C Have at least two restriction sites of a particular
restriction enzyme. D Small in size.
35 If the first three nucleotides in a six-nucleotide
restriction site are CTG, what would the next three nucleotides
most likely be?
A CAG B CTG C GAC D GTC
Anglo-Chinese Junior College 9747/01/Prelim 09 [Turn over
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18 36 In an investigation of a gene suspected to be involved in
a genetic disease, separate PCR procedures were done using genomic
DNA and RNA isolated from healthy (wild-type WT) and diseased cells
(mutant). The PCR products were analysed on polyacrylamide gels.
The sizes of the bands in the molecular weight marker (M) are
indicated in base-pairs.
Anglo-Chinese Junior College 9747/01/Prelim 09 [Turn over
Genomic DNA RNA
Which of the following best explains the results obtained?
A Deletion of an exon in the mutant. B Deletion of a splice site
in the mutant. C Deletion of several codons in the mutant. D
Deletion of several introns in the mutant.
37 Which of the following technique does not involve any nucleic
acid hybridisation?
A DNA fingerprinting B Gel electrophoresis C Polymerase Chain
Reaction D Southern blotting
MM
600
468
442
411
368
267
600
468
442
411
368
267
WT mutant WT mutant
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38 Which of the following is not an example of genetically
modified organisms?
A AquaAdvantage Salmon that grow to adult size quickly. B Bt
corn plants that are insect-resistant. C Golden Rice that produce
high levels of beta-carotene. D Milk-producing cows injected with
bovine somatotrophin (BST).
39 Which of the following statements about hematopoietic stem
cells is false?
A They are able to reproduce continually. B They are easy to
isolate and propagate. C They are present in minute quantities in
the human body. D They can be induced to differentiate under
appropriate conditions.
40 Gene therapy is the insertion of a therapeutic gene into a
target cell with non- functional genes. Which of the following are
techniques of gene therapy to treat a genetic disease?
I A therapeutic gene is inserted into a non-specific location
within the genome.
II A therapeutic gene is inserted into a specific location
within the genome.
III A therapeutic gene enters the cell, but is not inserted into
the genome.
IV A therapeutic gene is inserted in reverse orientation with
respect to the promoter (antisense technology).
A I, II and III only B I, II and IV only C I and II only D II
and IV only
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