Anatomy and Physiology 1 Final Exam Review Pro. Dima Darwish, MD. 1) What are the three main parts of a eukaryotic cell? a) plasma membrane, organelles, cytoplasm b) plasma membrane, cytoplasm, organelles c) plasma membrane, cytoplasm, nucleus d) plasma membrane, cytosol, organelles 2) Which of the following types of membrane proteins function by recognizing and binding to hormones and neurotransmitters? a) transporters b) receptors c) enzymes d) linkers 3) Plasma membranes are ________, which means that some chemicals move easily through plasma membrane while other chemicals do not. a) selectively permeable b) concentration graded c) electrically graded d) selectively soluble 4) In this transport process, the energy from hydrolysis of ATP is used to drive substances across the membrane against their own concentration gradients. a) active transport b) facilitated diffusion c) passive diffusion d) osmosis 5) Which of the following transport process uses secretory vesicles formed in Golgi complex to release their contents out of the cell membrane into the extracellular space ? . a) endocytosis
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Anatomy and Physiology 1 Final Exam Review
Pro. Dima Darwish, MD.
1) What are the three main parts of a eukaryotic cell?
a) plasma membrane, organelles, cytoplasm
b) plasma membrane, cytoplasm, organelles
c) plasma membrane, cytoplasm, nucleus
d) plasma membrane, cytosol, organelles
2) Which of the following types of membrane proteins function by recognizing and
binding to hormones and neurotransmitters?
a) transporters
b) receptors
c) enzymes
d) linkers
3) Plasma membranes are ________, which means that some chemicals move
easily through plasma membrane while other chemicals do not.
a) selectively permeable
b) concentration graded
c) electrically graded
d) selectively soluble
4) In this transport process, the energy from hydrolysis of ATP is used to drive
substances across the membrane against their own concentration gradients.
a) active transport
b) facilitated diffusion
c) passive diffusion
d) osmosis
5) Which of the following transport process uses secretory vesicles formed in
Golgi complex to release their contents out of the cell membrane into the
extracellular space ?
.
a) endocytosis
b) exocytosis
c) facilitated diffusion
d) osmosis
6) Spermatozoa is the only type of human cell that contains a ________, which is a
whip-like structure that helps propel the sperm towards an oocyte.
a) cilium
b) flagellum
c) mitochondria
d) centrosome
7) Which of the following membrane-enclosed organelles modifies, sorts, and
packages proteins destined for other regions of the cell?
a) endoplasmic reticulum
b) Golgi complex
c) peroxisomes
d) nucleus
8) The major function of mitochondria is to
a) move the cell.
b) generate ATP.
c) produce proteins.
d) oxidize organelles
9) This structure binds to an amino acid and holds it in place on a ribosome until it
is incorporated into a polypeptide chain during translation.
a) mRNA
b) rRNA
c) tRNA
d) DNA
10) During this phase of cell division, the centromeres split leading to separation
and subsequent migration of the two members of a chromatid pair to opposite poles
of the cells. The cleavage furrow also begins to develop during this phase.
a) interphase
b) prophase
c) metaphase
d) anaphase
11) Which of the following does NOT influence the rate of diffusion of a chemical
across a plasma membrane?
a) concentration gradient of the chemical across the membrane
b) mass of the diffusing chemical
c) distance that the chemical has to diffuse
d) amount of ATP available
e) temperature
12) A patient would be infused with a _______ solution in order to ultimately
relieve excess interstitial fluid in the brain.
a) tonicity
b) isotonic
c) hypertonic
d) hemolytic
13) What other organelle besides the nucleus contain DNA?
a) Golgi complex
b) lysosome
c) ribosomes
d) mitochondrion
14) Which of the following membrane-enclosed organelles contains several
oxidases that are involved in oxidation of fatty acids and amino acids during
normal metabolism and in detoxification of chemicals like alcohol in the liver?
a) peroxisomes
b) mitochondria
c) proteasome
d) ribosomes
15) During this phase of cell division, organelles duplicate and centrosome
replication begins.
a) interphase
b) prophase
c) metaphase
d) anaphase
e) telophase
16)Mitosis is:
a) somatic cell division
b) produces two identical cells
c) with the same number (diploid) and kinds of chromosomes as the original cell.
d) reproductive cell (gametes) division that produces cells in which the number of
chromosomes in the nucleus is reduced in half (haploid)
17)Phagocytosis is the mechanism of action of this cell of the immune system to
protect from microbes:
a)Natural killers
b)B lymphocytes
c) T lymphocytes
d) Macrophages
18) The three types of subatomic particles that are important for understanding
chemical reactions in the human body are
a) neutrons, quarks, and muons.
b) protons, neutrons, and electrons.
c) muons, positons, and neutrons.
d) electrons, quarks, and protons.
19) This is the name given to a positively charged atom.
a) superoxide
b) isotope
c) anion
d) cation
20) This type of chemical reaction will release more energy than it absorbes.
a) exergonic
b) endergonic
c) potential
d) kinetic
21) An enzyme acts to
a) raise the activation energy needed to start the reaction.
b) lower the activation energy needed to start the reaction.
c) convert the activation energy into potential energy.
d) convert the activation energy into kinetic energy
22) The human blood is
a) neutral.
b) acidic.
c) alkaline.
23) Which of the following is a polysaccharide that serves as a storage form of
energy in muscle and liver cells?
a) glucose
b) sucrose
c) lactose
d) glycogen
24) Which of the following is the major function of DNA?
a) catalyzes metabolic reactions
b) storage of energy
c) transfer information for protein synthesis
d) long-term storage of information for protein synthesis
25) Loss of protein structure as in fried eggs is called:
a) emulsification.
b) denaturation.
c) hydrogenation.
d) hydrolysis.
26) Na + Cl → Nacl is a general example of a(n) _____ reaction.
a) decomposition
b) synthesis
c) exchange
d) reversible
27)The basic units of nucleic acids are nucleotides, composed of
a) nitrogenous base
b)deoxyribose is the pentose sugar in RNA
c) phosphate.
d) pentose sugar
28) This is the study of the body structures.
a) anatomy
b) physiology
c) endocrinology
d) histology
29) This is the sum of all chemical processes that occur in the body.
a) metabolism
b) anabolism
c) catabolism
d) auscultation
30) The two organ systems that regulate and maintain homeostasis are the
a) cardiovascular and integumentary systems.
b) nervous and endocrine systems.
c) cardiovascular and respiratory systems.
d) respiratory and muscular systems.
31) The composition of this body fluid, which fills the narrow spaces between cells
and tissues.
a) lymph
b) blood plasma
c) interstitial fluid
d) intracellular fluid
32) This is the structure of a feedback system that sends input to the control center.
a) receptor
b) stimulus
c) response
d) effector
33) Objective changes in a patient’s normal body function that can be directly
observed or measured by a clinician are referred to as
a) symptoms.
b) disorders.
c) disturbance.
d) signs.
34) This plane divides the body into equal right and left portions.
a) frontal
b) sagittal
c) transverse
d) oblique
35) Which of the following anatomical terms refers to the groin?
a) pelvic
b) umbilical
c) iguinal
d) otic
36) Which of the following is a safe non-invasive imaging technique that uses the
reflection of high frequency sound waves off of body tissues to visualize a fetus
during pregnancy?
a) computed tomography
b) magnetic resonance imaging
c) ultrasound scanning
d) radionuclide scanning
37) Which of these regions contains the gall bladder?
a) Right lumbar
b) Right hypochondriac
c) Left inguinal
d) Epigastric
38) Epithelial tissue
a) is used as a covering of body surfaces.
b) is used as a lining of body cavities and hollow organs.
c) is used to form glands.
d) usually has a free surface that interacts with external environment.
e) All of these Answer choices are correct.
39) This type of epithelial tissue forms the most superficial layer of the skin.
a) Simple squamous epithelium
b) Simple cuboidal epithelium
c) Stratified squamous epithelium
d) Stratified cuboidal epithelium
e) Simple columnar epithelium
40) Which of the following is NOT a connective tissue?
a) Bone
b) Blood
c) Cartilage
d) Tendons
e) Muscle
41) The pubic symphysis and intervertebral discs are composed of this type of
connective tissue.
a) Adipose tissue
b) Elastic cartilage
c) Fibrocartilage
d) Dense irregular connective tissue
42) Which following types of cells are able to produce electrical signals?
a) myofibers and neurons
b) myofibers and connective tissue cells
c) neuroglial cells and neurons
d) neurons and epithelial cells
43) Which of the following is a term used to describe a decrease in the size of a
tissue that is the result of an decrease in the size, not number, of cells in that tissue?
a) atrophy
b) hyperplasia
c) hypertrophy
d) anaplasia
44) These cells found distributed among different types of connective tissue that
produce collagen fibers are called
a) fibroblasts.
b) macrophages.
c) goblet cells.
d) mast cells.
45) Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of epithelial tissues?
a) Cells are tightly packed together.
b) Large amount of extracellular matrix.
c) Contains no blood vessels within tissue.
d) Found on the exposed surfaces of the body.
46) The thin extracellular layer, consisting of the basal and reticular lamina, that
anchors epithelial cells to underlying connective tissue is called the
a) basement membrane.
b) tunica adventitia.
c) tight junction.
d) adherens junctions.
47) These type of cell junctions anchor adjacent cells together and keeps material
from leaking out of the stomach:
a) tight junctions
b) gap junctions
c) adherens junctions
d) desmosomes
48) In which of the following locations would you most likely find transitional
epithelial cells?
a) Lining of the esophagus
b) Outer layer of skin
c) Lining of the urinary bladder
d) On the surface of the heart
49) This type of multicellular exocrine gland has a branched rounded secretory part
attached to a single unbranched duct and is found mainly in sebaceous glands.
a) Simple coiled tubular gland
b) Compound tubular gland
c) Compound tuboloacinar gland
d) Simple branched acinar gland
50) This type of exocrine gland bud their secretion off the plasma membrane such
as mammelary glands.
a) Apocrine
b) Exocrine
c) Holocrine
d) All of these Answer choices are correct.
51) Which of the following is classified as loose connective tissue?
a) Blood
b) trabecular bone
c) Areolar connective tissue
d) Elastic connective tissue
52) Which of the following types of tissues is striated and moves under voluntary
control?
a) skeletal muscle
b) smooth muscle
c) cardiac muscle
d) transitional epithelium
53) Mucus-secreting cells found distributed among the simple columnar epithelial
linings of the gastrointestinal and respiratory system are called
a) fibroblasts.
b) macrophages.
c) goblet cells.
d) mast cells.
54) The extracellular matrix of connective tissue consists of
a) enzymes and membranous organelles.
b) plasma membranes and ground substance.
c) keratinized cells and protein fibers.
d) protein fibers and ground substance.
55) Which of the following types of fibers are commonly found in the extracellular
matrix of connective tissue?
a) Elastic
b) Reticular
c) Collagen
d) All of these Answer choices are correct.
56) A neuron’s function is:
a) pumping of blood
b) propulsion of food
c) contraction of bladder
d) conduct nerve impulses to muscle fibers
57)This muscle is an example of nonstriated involuntary muscle :
a) biceps
b) stomache
c) heart
d) all of the above
58) Electrical signals called ________ travel along the plasma membrane of a
neuron and stimulate the release of chemicals called ___________ that are then
used to communicate with other cells.
a) action potentials; neurotransmitters
b) action potentials; hormones
c) action potentials; cytokines
d) threshold potentials; cytokines
59)Langerhans cell
a) is a protein.
b) is secreted by plasma cells to help protect the body from viruses.
c) is made by melanocytes only.
d) participate in immune response against microbes
e) All of these choices are correct.
60) This pigment secreted by specialized cells in the skin is capable of absorbing
ultraviolet light.
a) Keratin
b) Melanin
c) Melatonin
d) Carotene
e) Collagen
61) Constant exposure of skin to friction stimulates the formation of a callus,
which is the thickening of the ________ of the epidermis.
a) stratum basale
b) stratum spinosum
c) stratum granulosum
d) stratum lucidum
e) stratum corneum
62) Which of the following structures found in the skin help prevent water loss and
inhibit bacterial growth on the surface of the skin?
a) Arrector pili
b) Lunula
c) Sweat glands
d) Hair follicles
e) Oil glands
63) Which of the following substances is responsible for the yellowing of the skin
a) hirsutism
b) pallor
c) jaundice
d) bilirubin
e) erythema
64) You stepped on a nail. List the sequential layers (or strata) of the epidermis
that the nail penetrated through to finally reach the dermis.
a) basale, spinosum, granulosom, corneum
b) granulosom, spinosum, lucidum, corneum, basale
c) corneum, lucidum, granulosom, spinosum, basale
d) corneum, granulosom, spinosum, basale
e) corneum, granulosom, lucidum, spinosum, basale
65) the skin contributes to:
a)Regulation of body temperature
b)Sensory perceptions
c)Synthesis of vitamin C
d) It also serves as an important reservoir of blood.
66) The process of keratinization involves
a) synthesizing new pigment in the skin.
b) cells accumulating a tough fibrous protein that helps protect the skin.
c) changes occurring in thin skin only.
d) both synthesizing new pigment in the skin and cells accumulating a tough
fibrous protein that helps protect the skin.
67) Characteristics of thick skin include:
a) Found in the palms, soles of the feet and fingertips.
b) Does not contain hair follicles.
c) Contains more sweat glands than thin skin.
d) Contain epidermal ridges.
e) All of these choices are correct
68) This is fine nonpigmented hair that covers the body of the fetus.
a) Alopecia
b) Vellus
c) Lanugo
d) Papilla
69) This type of exocrine gland is a simple, branched acinar gland connected to a
hair follicle.
a) Sebaceous gland
b) Sudoriferous gland
c) Both sebaceous gland and sudoriferous gland
d) None of these answers are correct
70) Which of the following terms refers to redness of the skin such as seen in
patients with inflammation, infection or heat exposure?
a) hirsutism
b) pallor
c) jaundice
d) erythema
71) Which of the following skin disorders involves inflammation of sebaceous
glands caused by bacteria which thrive in the lipid-rich sebum?
a) alopecia
b) acne
c) vitiligo
d) pressure ulcer
72) “Goose bumps” are caused by
a) contraction of arrector pili muscles.
b) secretions from the sudoriferous glands.
c) contraction of dermal papillae.
d) stimulation of hair root plexus.
73) Which of the following is a common characteristic of thin skin?
a) Hairless.
b) Contains a stratum lucidum.
c) High density of sensory receptors.
d) Presence of sebaceous glands.
e) Contains epidermal ridges.
74) Which of the primary germ layers of the embryo does the epidermis of the skin
develop from?
a) Endoderm
b) Ectoderm
c) Mesoderm
d) All of these choices are correct.
75) Which of the following about the deep wound healing is NOT true ?
a) Blood clot is forming.
b). New collagen fibers are forming
c) Epithelium is migrating across wound.
d) This process is limited by the epithelium
76) Which of following is a function of the skeletal system?
A) body support
B) calcium homeostasis
C) protection of internal organs
D) blood cell production
E) All of the answers are correct.
77) ________ prevents damaging bone-to-bone contact within movable joints.
A) A synovial membrane
B) Elastic cartilage
C) A serous membrane
D) Articular cartilage
E) Serous fluid
78) The narrow passageways that contain cytoplasmic extensions of osteocytes are
called
A) central canals.
B) lacunae.
C) canaliculi.
D) medullary cavities.
E) foramina.
79) The structural units of mature compact bone are called
A) trabeculae.
B) osteocytes.
C) osteons.
D) canaliculi.
E) lamellae.
80) The superficial membrane of a bone is called the
A) endosteum.
B) ectosteum.
C) cortical membrane.
D) periosteum.
E) osteoid collar
81) This is a layer of hyaline cartilage that allows the diaphysis to grow in length.
a) periosteum
b) distal epiphysis
c) nutrient foramen
d) articular cartilage
e) epiphyseal plate
82) Which of following selections lists bone cells in the order from unspecialized
stem cell to highly specialized mature bone cell?
a) osteogenic cells, osteoclasts, osteocytes
b) osteogenic cells, osteoblasts, osteocytes
c) osteogenic cells, osteocytes, osteoblasts
d) osteoblasts, osteogenic cells, osteocytes
83) Cells that secrete protein fibers in bone are called
A) osteolytic cells.
B) osteoclasts.
C) osteoblasts.
D) osteocytes.
E) osteogenic cells.
84) This type of fracture is considered a partial fracture and is only seen in
children.
a) open
b) comminuted
c) impacted
d) greenstick
85) An increase in bone growth is promoted by which hormones?
a) calcitriol and parathyroid hormone
b) calcitonin and calcitriol
c) human growth hormone and parathyroid hormone
d) parathyroid hormone and insulin
86) The general process by which bones form is called
a) ossification.
b) osteomalacia.
c) calcification.
d) apposition.
87) These are considered bone-breaking cells.
a) fibroblasts
b) osteoclasts
c) osteocytes
d) osteoblasts
e) all of these choices
88) Which of the following selections correctly lists the sequence of events that
occur during intramembranous ossification?
a) Ossification center develops > Calcification > Formation of trabeculae >
Development of new periosteum.
b) Calcification > Cartilage model > Formation of trabeculae > Development of
new periosteum.
c) Ossification center develops > Formation of trabeculae > Calcification >
Development of new cartilage.
d) Cartilage model > Ossification center develops > Calcification > Formation of
trabeculae.
89) The process of new bone tissue formation.
A) phosphorylation
B) resorption
C) ossification
D) osteopropagation
E) remodeling
90) The ongoing process of tearing down and rebuilding bone matrix is called
A) restoration.
B) osteolysis.
C) resorption.
D) ossification.
E) remodeling.
91) What is the correct sequence of steps in bone repair?
1. Cartilage in the external callus is replaced by bone.
2. A hematoma occurs.
3. An internal callus forms at the site of injury.
4. Osteoclasts and osteoblasts remodel the bone at the site of repair.
A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 2, 1, 3, 4
C) 3, 1, 4, 2
D) 4, 2, 3, 1
E) 2, 3, 1, 4
92) A lack of exercise could
A) cause bones to become thicker.
B) cause bones to store more calcium.
C) result in porous and weak bones.
D) cause bones to become longer.
E) cause bones to lose their medullary cavity
93) Hundreds of years ago, explorers often died of scurvy. How can this bone-
related disease be prevented?
A) Supplement the diet with more calcium from meat.
B) Increase levels of testosterone to stimulate bone repair.
C) Supplement the diet with fresh fruit rich in vitamin C.
D) Drink more water to promote bone remodeling and repair.
E) Amputate fractured limbs to prevent the spread of scurvy.
94) Which of the following is a function of the axial skeleton?
A) provides an attachment for muscles that move the appendicular skeleton
B) provides an attachment for muscles that move the head, neck, and trunk
C) provides an attachment for muscles involved in respiration
D) provides protection for the brain and spinal cord
E) All of the answers are correct.
95) The external auditory meatus is located in which bone?
A) occipital
B) maxillary
C) sphenoid
D) temporal
E) parietal
96) The zygomatic arch is formed by the union of processes from which two
bones?
A) temporal and maxilla
B) frontal and temporal
C) sphenoid and temporal
D) zygomatic and maxilla
E) temporal and zygomatic
97) Which of these is not one of the facial bones?
A) frontal
B) maxilla
C) vomer
D) mandible
E) zygomatic
98) The keystone of the skull bone is the
A) maxilla.
B) crista galli.
C) sphenoid.
D) ethmoid.
E) cribriform
99) Premature closure of the sagittal suture would result in
A) a long and narrow head.
B) a very broad head.
C) an unusually small head.
D) a distorted head with one side being longer than the other.
E) death.
100) Your friend Greg is hit in the jaw and when looking at him, his face looks
misaligned. You immediately take him to the emergency room and are not
surprised to learn that he has a broken
A) temporal bone.
B) zygomatic bone.
C) mandible.
D) external auditory meatus.
E) clavicle.
101) The large foramen that is surrounded by the occipital bone and serves as a
passageway for the medulla of the brain and the accessory nerve (XI) is the
A) foramen lacerum.
B) foramen rotundum.
C) carotid canal.
D) jugular foramen.
E) foramen magnum.
102) The paranasal sinuses are located in all of the following bones except the
A) frontal.
B) ethmoid.
C) sphenoid.
D) maxillae.
E) zygomatic.
103) The role(s) of the sinuses include(s)
A) making the skull lighter.
B) production of mucus that moistens and cleans the air.
C) increasing surface area for gas exchange.
D) extra source of air and increasing surface area for gas exchange.
E) making the skull lighter and production of mucus that moistens and cleans the
air.
104) Sutures can be found at all of the joints of an adult skull except between
A) the mandible and the cranium.
B) the zygomatic bone and the maxillary bone.
C) the occipital bone and the parietal bone.
D) the vomer and the zygomatic bone.
E) the sphenoid bone and the ethmoid bone.
105) While volunteering in an outpatient clinic for underprivileged families in your
neighborhood, you observe the nurse assessing an infant. The mother had
complained about the baby not eating and having several episodes of diarrhea
lasting 3 days. You know the nurse suspects possible dehydration when she
A) checks the anterior fontanel for depression.
B) points out the dryness of the infant's diaper.
C) checks the infant's reflexes.
D) questions the mother about normal feeding habits.
E) weighs the infant.
106) An exaggerated lateral curvature is termed
A) kyphosis.
B) lordosis.
C) scoliosis.
D) gomphosis.
E) mentosis.
107) Vertebrae of which regions are fused in the adult?
A) lumbar region
B) sacral region
C) coccygeal region
D) thoracic
E) sacral and coccygeal regions
108) Thoracic vertebrae can be distinguished from other vertebrae by the presence
of
A) transverse processes.
B) transverse foramina.
C) facets for the articulation of ribs.
D) notched spinous processes.
E) costal cartilages.
109) All of the following are true of the sacrum except that it
A) provides protection for reproductive, digestive, and excretory organs.
B) provides a point of attachment for leg muscles.
C) articulates with the pelvic bones.
D) articulates with the second and third lumbar vertebrae.
E) articulates with the coccyx.
110) Gesturing "no" with the head depends on the structure(s) of which cervical
vertebrae?
A) atlas
B) axis
C) vertebra prominens
D) both the atlas and the axis
E) both the atlas and the vertebra prominens
111) Sinus inflammation is called
A) sinusitis.
B) asthma.
C) congestion.
D) postnasal drip.
E) All of the above.
112) The only direct connection between the pectoral girdle and the axial skeleton
is where the
A) clavicle articulates with the humerus.
B) clavicle articulates with the manubrium of the sternum.
C) coxal bones articulate with the femur.
D) vertebral column articulates with the sacrum.
E) clavicle articulates with the xiphoid process.
113) The clavicle articulates with the scapula
A) laterally with the coracoid process.
B) laterally with the glenoid cavity.
C) laterally with the acromion.
D) laterally with the manubrium.
E) medially with the coracoid cavity.
114) Which of the following constitutes the pectoral girdle?
A) clavicles only
B) clavicles and scapulae
C) clavicles, scapulae, and humerus
D) clavicles, scapulae, humerus, radius, and ulna
E) clavicle, scapula, humerus, radius, ulna, and carpal bones
115) The glenohumeral joint, or shoulder joint, is an articulation between which
two bones?
A) humerus and ulna
B) scapula and humerus
C) clavicle and scapula
D) clavicle and humerus
E) clavicle and sternum
116) In the anatomical position, the ulna is located ________ to the radius.
A) distal
B) proximal
C) medial
D) superior
E) lateral
117) The condyle of the humerus consists of the
A) medial and lateral epicondyles.
B) trochlea and olecranon fossa.
C) capitulum and trochlea.
D) head and neck.
E) capitulum and coronoid process
118) Which of the following surface features occur on the ulna?
A) olecranon
B) styloid process
C) trochlear notch
D) radial notch
E) All of the answers are correct.
119) The head of the radius articulates with the
A) trochlea.
B) capitulum.
C) carpals.
D) olecranon process.
E) styloid process.
120)The distal end of the ulna articulates with:
A) lunate
B) hamate
C) humerus
D) metatarsals
E) phalanges
121) Which of the following is not a part of the pelvis?
A) sacrum
B) coccyx
C) coxal bone
D) lumbar vertebrae
E) pubic symphysis
122) What bone articulates with the coxal bone at the acetabulum?
A) sacrum
B) femur
C) humerus
D) tibia
E) fibula
123) When seated, the weight of the body is borne by the
A) ischial tuberosities.
B) posterior inferior iliac spines.
C) iliac crests.
D) obturator foramina.
E) inferior rami of the pubis.
124) The largest component of the coxal bone is the
A) pubis.
B) ischium.
C) ilium.
D) femur.
E) tibia.
125) Each coxal bone consists of which of the following three fused bones?
A) ulna, radius, and humerus
B) ilium, ischium, and pubis
C) femur, tibia, and fibula
D) hamate, capitate, and trapezium
E) femur, patella, and tibia
126) The sacrum articulates with the
A) ilium.
B) ischium.
C) pubis.
D) ilium and ischium.
E) ischium and pubis.
127) The distal end of the tibia articulates with the
A) talus.
B) fibula.
C) patella.
D) calcaneus.
E) coxal bone.
128) The lateral malleolus is found on the
A) femur.
B) tibia.
C) fibula.
D) patella.
E) calcaneus.
129) When standing normally, most of your weight is transmitted to the ground by
the
A) tibia, talus, and calcaneus.
B) talus and proximal metatarsals.
C) calcaneus and talus.
D) talus and cuneiforms.
E) calcaneus and proximal metatarsals.
130) The condition known as "flat feet" is due to a lower-than-normal longitudinal
arch in the foot. A problem with which of the following would most likely
contribute to this condition?
A) a loose calcaneal tendon
B) weak tarsometatarsal joints
C) weakness in the ligaments that attach the calcaneus to the distal ends of the
metatarsals
D) weakness in the ligaments that attach the talus to the tibia
E) poor alignment of the phalanges with the metatarsals
131) On a field trip you discover a skeleton with the following characteristics: the
acetabulum is directed laterally, the ischial spine points medially, and the angle
inferior to the pubic symphysis is less than 90 degrees. The long bones of the arms
and legs are relatively light and show epiphyseal plates. This skeleton is probably
from
A) a young male.
B) a young female.
C) an elderly male.
D) an elderly female.
E) It is impossible to determine based on this information.
132) A suture is an example of a(n)
A) synarthrosis.
B) syndesmosis.
C) symphysis.
D) diarthrosis.
E) amphiarthrosis.
133) Degenerative changes in a joint can be the result of all of the following
except A) bursitis.
B) bacterial infection.
C) mechanical stress.
D) immobilization of the joint.
E) inflammation.
134) Mike falls off his skateboard and sprains his ankle. Which of the following
most likely occurs with this type of accident?
A) A bursa is damaged and leaks synovial fluid.
B) A ligament is stretched and collagen fibers in the ligament are damaged
C) Articulating bones are forced out of position and ligaments are torn.
D) Dislocation of the ankle occurs.
E) The tibia is broken and must be set in a cast.
135) Protraction is defined as
A) a rolling of the distal epiphysis of the radius over the ulna.
B) a twisting of the ulna medially.
C) twisting the forearm so that the palms face anteriorly.
D) the shortening of the angle between the radius and the humerus.
E) movement of the mandible anteriorly, as seen when biting the upper lip.
136) To pinch with a thumb and finger involves a movement called
A) rotation.
B) opposition.
C) circumduction.
D) eversion.
E) retraction.
137) A twisting motion of the foot that turns the sole of the foot outward is known
as
A) inversion.
B) plantar flexion.
C) eversion.
D) dorsiflexion.
E) pronation.
138) The movement of the forearm while twisting a doorknob is
A) protraction and retraction.
B) abduction and adduction.
C) flexion and extension.
D) lateral rotation and medial rotation.
E) supination and pronation.
139) The elbow joint is extremely stable because
A) the ulna and humerus interlock.
B) the articular capsule is thin.
C) the capsule lacks ligaments.
D) several muscles support the joint capsule.
E) the joint lacks bursae.
140) Which of the following is false?
A) The rotator cuff functions to limit the range of movements of the shoulder joint.
B) The shapes of the articulating surfaces within the joint help prevent movement
in a particular direction and strengthen and stabilize the joint.
C) The tighter two bones are held together within a joint, the stronger the joint.
D) The more movement a joint allows, the stronger the joint.
E) The tension produced by muscle tendons surrounding a joint help stabilize the
joint.
141) The ligaments that limit the anterior-posterior movement of the tibia and
maintain the alignment of the femoral and tibial condyles are the ________
ligaments.
A) cruciate
B) fibular collateral
C) patellar
D) popliteal
E) tibial collateral
142) In the knee joint, the medial and lateral menisci
A) are cartilages that bind the knee to the tibia.
B) act as cushions between the articulating surfaces.
C) take the place of bursae.
D) are found between the patella and femur.
E) are prominent fat pads to protect the articulating bones.
143) Arthritis always involves damage to the ________ cartilages, but the specific
cause can vary.
A) articular
B) intervertebral
C) costal
D) elastic
E) fibrous
144) The coxal bones articulate with the sacrum at the ________ joint.
A) vertebrocoxal
B) coxosacral
C) iliocoxal
D) vertebroilial
E) sacroiliac
145) Which of the following is a recognized function of skeletal muscle?
A) produce movement
B) maintain posture
C) maintain body temperature
D) guard body entrances and exits
E) All of the answers are correct.
146) Interactions between actin and myosin filaments of the sarcomere are
responsible for
A) muscle fatigue.
B) the conduction of neural stimulation to the muscle fiber.
C) muscle contraction.
D) muscle relaxation.
E) the striped appearance of skeletal muscle.
147) The advantage of having many nuclei in a skeletal muscle fiber is the ability
to
A) contract much more forcefully.
B) produce more ATP with little oxygen.
C) store extra DNA for metabolism.
D) produce large amounts of muscle proteins.
E) produce nutrients for muscle contraction.
148) Which of the following best describes the term sarcomere?
A) protein that accounts for elasticity of resting muscle
B) repeating unit of striated myofibrils
C) storage site for calcium ions
D) thin filaments are anchored here
E) largely made of myosin molecules
149) At rest, active sites on the actin are blocked by
A) myosin molecules.
B) troponin molecules.
C) tropomyosin molecules.
D) calcium ions.
E) ATP molecules.
150) In response to action potentials arriving along the transverse tubules, the
sarcoplasmic reticulum releases
A) acetylcholine.
B) sodium ions.
C) potassium ions.
D) calcium ions.
E) hydrogen ions.
151) Active sites on the actin become available for binding after
A) actin binds to troponin.
B) troponin binds to tropomyosin.
C) calcium binds to troponin.
D) calcium binds to tropomyosin.
E) myosin binds to troponin.
152) The action potential is conducted into a skeletal muscle fiber by
A) motor end plates.
B) neuromuscular junctions.
C) transverse tubules.
D) triads.
E) sarcoplasmic reticulum.
153) Triggering of the muscle action potential occurs after
A) acetylcholine binds to chemically-gated channels in the motor end plate.
B) acetylcholinesterase is released from synaptic vesicles into the synaptic cleft.
C) calcium ion binds to channels on the motor end plate.
D) the action potential jumps across the neuromuscular junction.
E) Any of these can produce an action potential in the muscle cell.
154) After death, muscle fibers run out of ATP and calcium begins to leak from the
sarcoplasmic reticulum into the sarcoplasm. This results in a condition known as
A) tetany.
B) treppe.
C) depolarization.
D) rigor mortis.
E) oxygen debt.
155) The following is a list of the events that occur during a muscle contraction.
What is the correct sequence of these events?
1. Myosin cross-bridges bind to the actin.
2. The free myosin head splits ATP.
3. Calcium ion is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
4. The myosin head pivots toward the center of the sarcomere.
5. Calcium ion binds to troponin.
6. The myosin head binds an ATP molecule and detaches from the actin.
A) 1, 3, 5, 4, 6, 2
B) 5, 1, 4, 6, 2, 3
C) 3, 5, 1, 2, 4, 6
D) 3, 5, 1, 4, 6, 2
E) 1, 4, 6, 2, 3, 5
156) The muscle weakness of myasthenia gravis results from
A) insufficient acetylcholine release from presynaptic vesicles.
B) loss of acetylcholine receptors in the end-plate membrane.
C) the motor neuron action potential being too small to stimulate the muscle fibers.
D) excessive acetylcholinesterase that destroys the neurotransmitter.
E) inability of the muscle fiber to produce ATP.
157) A weight-lifter strains to lift a heavy weight and there is no movement of the
person's arms holding on to the weight. This type of contraction is called a(n)
________ contraction.
A) isometric
B) tetanus
C) isotonic
D) treppe
E) concentric
158) Creatine phosphate
A) is produced by the process of anaerobic respiration.
B) can replace ATP in binding to myosin molecules during contraction.
C) acts as an energy reserve in muscle tissue.
D) is only formed during strenuous exercise.
E) cannot transfer its phosphate group to ADP.
159) Fast fibers
A) have low resistance to fatigue.
B) rely on aerobic metabolism.
C) have many mitochondria.
D) have twitches with a very brief contraction phase.
E) have low resistance to fatigue and quick twitches.
160) Muscles that move the eyeball have ________ fibers.
A) fast
B) slow
C) intermediate
D) circular
E) All of the answers are correct.
161) Which of the following is not characteristic of smooth muscle?
A) The striations are due to the orderly arrangement of actin and myosin.
B) Neurons that innervate smooth muscles are under involuntary control.
C) Smooth muscle cells are uninucleate.
D) Smooth muscles do not contain sarcomeres.
E) The thin filaments of smooth muscle fibers are attached to dense bodies.
162) Cross bridge detachment is caused by ________ binding to the myosin head.
A) ATP
B) calcium
C) magnesium
D) acetylcholine
E) acetylcholinesterase
163) An infection by the bacterium Clostridium tetani can cause the disease called
A) cholera.
B) polio.
C) botulism.
D) tetanus.
E) muscular dystrophy.
164) The attachment of a muscle’s tendon to the stationary bone is called the
______; the attachment of the muscle’s other tendon to the movable bone is called
the ______.
a) origin, action
b) insertion, action
c) origin, insertion
d) insertion, origin
e) insertion, action
165) This type of muscle works by stabilizing the origin of the agonist so that it
can act more efficiently.
a) synergist
b) agonist
c) antagonist
d) fixator
e) secondary mover
166) The names of the muscles can indicate all of the following except
A) the angle of the muscle relative to the long axis of the body.
B) the action of the muscle.
C) the location of the muscle.
D) structural characteristics of the muscle.
E) the collagen content of the muscle.
167) If one is stabbed on the lateral side of the abdomen, what abdominal muscles,
in order from superior to deep, will the knife go through?
a) rectus abdominis, external oblique, internal oblique
b) external oblique, internal oblique, transversus abdominis
c) transversus abdominis, rectus abdominis, external oblique