4106626 Pharmacology Question Bank

DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACOLOGY

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MULTIPLE CHOICE:

1. The prodrug, dipivalyl epinephrine (dipiverin), is used for the therapy of glaucoma and isadministered locally. The local site of its conversion to its active metabolite is

a. Retinal ganglion cellsb. Plasmac. Retinal photoreceptorsd. Sclerae. Cornea

2. Administration of this drug or class of drugs might produce cataracts upon chronicadministration

a. Chloramphenicolb. Penicillinsc. Cephalosporinsd. Corticosteroidse. Aminoglycosides

3. This drug of class of drugs is indicated for use against cytomegalovirus retinitis inimmunocompromised individuals, including patients with acquired immunodeficiencysyndrome

a. Ganciclovirb. Cortisolc. Dexamethasoned. Cephalosporinse. Penicillins

4. This drug reduces the formation of aqueous by the nonpigmented cells of the ciliary processes

a. Mannitolb. Ureac. Isosorbided. Glycerine. Acetazolamide

HOWARD UNIVERSITY

1996 FINAL EXAMINATION IN PHARMACOLOGY

HOWARD UNIVERSITY COLLEGE OF MEDICINE


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5. During which phase of the drug development process are we most likely to observe a higherincidence of serious, unexpected adverse drug reactions

a. phase Ib. phase IIc. phase IIId. phase IVe. phase V

6. The FDA “medwatch” program relies on health professional reporting of serious adverse drugreactions. These include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Intervention to prevent permanent disabilityb. Expected but prolonged hospitalization due to ADRc. Excess pharmacological effectsd. Deathe. Congenital abnormality

7. Which of the following are mechanisms that might result in a serious ADR or drug interaction?

a. allergic reactionb. idio syneratic reactionc. excess pharmacologic (toxic) effectd. genetic abnormalities of cytodrome P450e. All of the above

8. All of the following patient factors markedly increase the risks of have an ADR EXCEPT:

a. renal functionb. agec. number of other drugs co-administeredd. outpatient statuse. serum protein concentrations

9. Which of the following agents are know to induce allergic reactions?

a. Bariumb. Tartrazine yellow #5c. Latexd. Metabisulfitese. All of the above


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10. A complicated surgical procedure is scheduled for your patient who is being treated withwarfarin for recurrent pulmonary embolus. Which of the following statement would providethe best care for this patient?

a. stop warfarin on the morning of surgery, but add heparin during the procedureb. stop warfarin 3-5 days prior to surgery and restart warfarin 3 days after surgeryc. stop warfarin 3-5 days prior to surgery and give heparin instead until the morning ofsurgeryd. stop warfarin on the morning of surgery, and give no anticoagulation during surgerye. warfarin can be continued during the intraoperative period; no additional anticoagulationis required

11. Heparin

a. dissolves clotsb. interferes with the hepatic synthesis of factor II, VII, IX and Xc. blocks hepatic vitamin K regenerationd. is anticoagulant in vivo and in vitroe. none of the above

12. Warfarin:

a. activity measured by the activated PTTb. can be given orally, IV, IM or SCc. action can be reversed by giving vitamin Kd. inhibits the biosynthesis of factors V, VII, XI and XIIe. all of the above

13. Which one of the following medications acts by enhancing gastric mucosal protection whengiven at low doses; and is currently approved by the FDA to be used to prevent ulcers inpatients taking non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medications?

a. Omeprazoleb. Sucralfatec. Propulsidd. Ranitidinee. Misoprostol

14. Which one of the following medications is best for treating patients with erosive esophagitis?

a. Misoprostolb. Sucralfatec. Omeprazoled. Ranitidinee. Cimetidine



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15. Which one of the following medication - major side effect combinations is NOT correct?

a. Misoprostol - Diarrheab. Sucralfate - Constipationc. Omeprazole - ECL cell hyperplasia (enterochromaffin cell hyperplasia)d. Ranitidine & Cimetidine - altered metabolism of warfarin & theophylline throughcytochrome p450 enzymese. Aluminum Hydroxide (amphojel) - Diarrhea

16. H2 receptor antagonists inhibit acid secretion stimulated by histamine and gastrin but not acidsecretion stimulated by the vagus nerve.

a. Trueb. False

17. Nephrotoxicity is a major adverse effect of which of the following immunosuppressive agents?

a. Corticosteriodsb. Azathioprinec. Cyclophosphamided. Methotrexatee. Cyclosporine

18. Which of the following immunosuppressive agents is LEAST likely to suppress bone marrowfunction?

a. Corticosteriodsb. Azathioprinec. Cyclophosphamided. Methotrexatee. OKT3 (Muromonoab-CD3)

19. Cyclosporine

a. Must be given after proliferative response of T cells to antigen in order to be an effectiveimmune suppressive agentb. Significantly impairs B cell activityc. Produces significant bone marrow suppressiond. Inhibits the early stages of T cell differentiatione. Enhances the production and release of IL-2


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20. All of the following agents are useful in treating autoimmune disease EXCEPT:

a. Azathioprineb. Cyclosporinec. Glucocorticoidsd. Cyclophosphamidee. Interferons

21. Maternal physiological changes occur during pregnancy that can alter drug pharmacokinetics.These include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. prolonged transit in the gutb. increased volume of distribution of both water and fat soluble drugsc. inhibition of glucuronic conjugationd. increase in renal blood flowe. increase in the tubular reabsorption of sodium

22. Select the TRUE statement with respect to the function of the human placenta.

a. Most drug cross the placenta by an active transport mechanism.b. It contains enzymes responsible for drug oxidation, reduction and glucuronidation.c. It is the major site of steroid biosynthesis and degradation during gestation.d. Drug transfer is greater during the first and second trimesters that during the third.e. Genetic predisposition determines the amount of drug that crosses the placenta.

23. Factors influencing the effect that a drug has on the fetus include

a. the duration of exposure to a drugb. the stage of fetal development at the time of exposurec. the amount of drug reaching the fetusd. the distribution of drug in fetal tissuee. all of the above

24. Choose the FALSE statement with respect to fetal pharmacokinetics.

a. In early embryonic development, drug tend accumulate in neural tissue.b. The size of the fetal water compartment decreases with increasing gestational age.c. Biotransforming enzyme systems are first detectable at 5 to 8 weeks of gestation.d. The liver is the major site of drug metabolism in the fetus.e. The placenta is the major excretory organ for the fetus.



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25. Naltrexone has been used to treat all of the following EXCEPT:

a. opiate addictionb. alcohol cravingc. bulimiad. depressione. infertility in women

26. Neurochemicals altered by alcohol include

a. dopamineb. serotoninc. GABAd. endorphins/opioidse. all of the above

27. A 29 year old anxious woman has diabetes and is taking cimetidine for her ulcer. A blood testshows considerable elevation in her plasma prolactin level. Before suggesting the possibility ofa tumor you may suspect any one of the following EXCEPT:

a. She could be pregnantb. The elevated prolactin could be induced by cimetidinec. The elevated prolactin could be due to hyperglycemiad. She could have been anxious when blood sample was collectede. She could have hypothyroidism

28. All of the following may be true about growth hormone (GH) therapy EXCEPT:

a. Growth hormone (GH) might aggravate diabetesb. The claimed restoration of vigor by GH is exaggeratedc. GH might cause nerve entrapment (carpal tunnel) syndromed. GH would elevate body fate. Its actions are mediated by somatomedin C (IGF 1)

29. A patient is manifesting symptoms of polyuria and polydipsia following an accident. All of thefollowing may confirm the presence of a central diabetes insipidus EXCEPT:

a. High serum osmolalityb. High serum sodiumc. Low urine osmolalityd. Elevated vasopressin levels following a water deprivation teste. The patient responds well to Desmopressin


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30. The preferred route of Desmopressin administration is:

a. Oralb. Sublingualc. I.V.d. Subcutaneouse. Nasal insufflation

31. Growth hormone secretion may be increased in all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Hypoglycemiab. REM sleepc. L-dopa in a normal individuald. L-dopa in an acromegalic individuale. Arginine administration

32. Select the False statement on vasopressin (ADH) .

a. Clofibrate stimulates its releaseb. Ethanol inhibits its releasec. It may be used in intractable gastrointestinal bleedingd. It may be used in post-operative abdominal distensione. It should never be given in conjunction with a local anesthetic

33. Select the False statement about octreotide (Sandostatin).

a. It has a longer half life than somatostatinb. Its mechanism of action is suppression of growth hormone releasec. It may be used in certain carcinoid tumorsd. It is contraindicated for acromegalye. It s adverse effect may include gallbladder abnormality

34. Hyperprolactinemia may be associated with all of the following medications EXCEPT:

a. Haloperidolb. Chlorpromazinec. Pergolided. Reserpinee. Metoclopromide



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35. Select the false statement about gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH).

a. It may be used in advanced prostatic cancerb. It may be used in diagnostic evaluation of the pituitary-gonadal axisc. Its release may be inhibited by prolactind. Its release may be stimulated by cortisole. Its side effects may include nausea and headache

36. Estrogenic compounds may be used in all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Oral contraceptivesb. First trimester of pregnancyc. Menopaused. Some breast cancerse. Osteoporosis

37. Which of the following may NOT be a side effect of oral contraceptives?

a. Hypertensionb. Impaired hepatic functionc. Dizziness and headached. Cervical and vaginal cancere. Endometriosis

38. Danazol

a. Is an inhibitor of 5-alpha reductaseb. May be used in treatment of endometriosisc. May act as an abortifacientd. Is a very potent androgenic compounde. May stimulate the release of gonadotropins

39. Side effects of androgens may include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Acneb. Jaundicec. Increased spermatogenesisd. Hepatic carcinomae. Increased risk of atherosclerosis


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40. Which of the following is a 5-alpha-reductase inhibitor that may be used in benign prostatichyperplasia?

a. Cyproteroneb. Flutamidec. Ketoconazoled. Finasteridee. Fluoxymesterone

41. CORTICOTROPIN-RELEASING HORMONE (CRH)

a. Should not be used diagnostically because of short half-lifeb. Is found only in the hypothalamusc. May inhibit the release of gonadotropin-releasing hormoned. Its release may be stimulated by cortisole. Its release may be stimulated by ACTH

42. Select the False statement

a. Cosyntropin is a synthetic compound with ACTH activityb. Side effect of ACTH may include hypertensionc. Side effect of ACTH may include pigmentationd. Cosyntropin administration may induce multiple sclerosise. ACTH would not be effective orally

43. Which of the following is the longest acting and most potent anti-inflammatory glucocorticoid?

a. Cortisolb. Corticosteronec. Prednisoloned. Dexamethasonee. Triamcinolone

44. Excess glucocorticoid levels may be associated with all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Hypertensionb. Diabetes insipidusc. Diabetes mellitusd. Peptic ulcere. Amenorrhea



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45. Glucocorticoids may exert the following effects EXCEPT:

a. Inhibit protein synthesisb. Accelerate protein breakdownc. Activate the thymus glandd. Stimulate platelet productione. Inactivate lymphoid tissues

46. Side effects of glucocorticoids may include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Hypertensionb. Diabetesc. Ulcerd. Osteoporosise. Allergic reactions

47. Select the FALSE statement

a. Cortisol formation may be blocked by metyraponeb. Cortisol formation may be blocked by aminoglutethamidec. Cortisol formation may be blocked by ketoconazoled. Cortisol levels in plasma is remarkably low in depressione. Cortisol secretion is reduced with dexamethasone administration

48. The least important consideration in therapeutic applications of glucocorticoids is:

a. Duration of therapyb. Dosagec. Termination of therapyd. Suppression of the HPA axise. Intracellular localization of receptors

48. Indicate the unit below which determines who may prescribe legend medications

a. The FDAb. The DEAc. The Federal Governmentd. The Statee. The County


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49. To write a prescription for a controlled substance the following statements are true EXCEPT:

a. The prescriber must be registered with the DEAb. Schedule I drugs must be written in ink and presented to the pharmacistc. Schedule II drugs must be written in ink and presented to the pharmacistd. Schedule III and IV can be ordered by written prescription or by phonee. Schedules III and IV may have five refills, but must have a new prescription beyond sixmonths

50. To write a prescription the following facts must be known EXCEPT:

a. The name of the drug for the conditionb. The trade name of the drugc. The size and strength of the drug to be prescribedd. The frequency of the drug administratione. The duration of the therapy or the total amount of the drug needed

51. The following drugs are oxytocic drugs EXCEPT:

a. oxytocinb. Ergotaminec. Ritodrined. Ergonovinee. Prostaglandin PGF2

52. A patient with distal ulcerative colitis is started on oral sulfasalazine. After three weeks oftreatment, she has not improved, and flexible sigmoidoscopy reveals active inflammation atthe distal 25cm. Which of the following would be an appropriate response or responses?

a. Increase the dose at sulfasalazine onlyb. Add steroid enemasc. Add oral prednisoned. Add Imuran (Azathiaprine)

53. In the treatment of a patient with malabsorption associated with intestinal scleroderma(systemic sclerosis). Which of the following would most probably be effective?

a. Diphenoxylate hydrochloride and atropine sulfate (Lomotil)b. Pancreatic extractc. Anticholinergic drugsd. Broad spectrum - antibioticse. A gluten - free diet



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54. The drug prescribed for the maintenance of remission in ulcerative colitis is:

a. Prednisoneb. Sulfasalazinec. Metronidazoled. Methotrexatee. Diphenoxylate

55. Specifically indicated for the treatment of some secretory diarrheas are:

a. Anticholergicsb. Oral rehydration solutionsc. Obiate analogues, such as diphenoxylated. Bismuth compounds

56. The hypothyroid state MAY BE satisfactorily reversed using which of the followingpreparations?

a. Dessicated thyroid extractb. Liotrixc. Levothyroxine sodiumd. All of the abovee. None of the above

57. Which one of the following is the most PRACTICAL drug to use as replacement therapy forhypothyroidism?

a. Dessicated thyroid extractb. Thyroglobulinc. Levothyroxine sodiumd. Liothyronine sodiume. Liotrix

58. Which one of the following drugs would you expect to produce a form of “mumps” as one of itsadverse effects?

a. Propylthiouracilb. Methimazolec. Potassium perchlorated. Saturated solution of potassium iodidee. None of the above


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59. Concerning the mechanism of action of the antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil, which one of thefollowing statements is most correct?

a. It blocks intestinal absorption of iodineb. It blocks thyroid gland trapping of iodinec. It blocks organization of iodine and coupling of tyrosyl radicles in the thyroid glandd. It blocks thyroid hormone release

60. You are managing a patient with hyperthyroidism for which you prescribe propylthiouracil.After four weeks of taking the drug , the patient complains of sore throat and a fever.Examination reveals a body temperature of 102 degrees F. and a pharynx which is fiery red butlacking exudate. You might reasonably conclude that the patient is experiencing which one ofthe following?

a. Acute streptococcal pharyngitisb. Acute viral mumps (parototis)c. Agranulocytosis from propylthiouracild. Acute toxic hepatitis from prophylthiouracile. Acute viral upper respiratory infection

61. Which of the following statements concerning the autonomic nervous system is/are correct?

a. The autonomic nervous system is composed afferent and efferent neurons.b. The cholinergic division is activated in response to stressful situations.c. The parasympathetic division of originates from cell bodies in the peripheral nervoussystem.d. The control of blood pressure is mainly a sympathetic activity, with essentially noparticipation by the parasympathetic system.e. The sympathetic division contains , and delta receptors.

62. Which of the following statements concerning the parasympathetic nervous system is/arecorrect?

a. The actions of the parasympathetic division similar to the effects of the sympatheticdivisionb. The parasympathetic system often discharges as a single, functional systemc. The parasympathetic division is involved in accommodation of near vision, movement offood, and urination.d. The postganglionic fibers of the parasympathetic division are long, compared to those ofthe sympathetic nervous system.



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For questions 63 and 64 use the diagram shown on the next, which represents the parasympathetic,sympathetic and somatic nervous systems.

63. Norepinephrine acts as a neurotransmitter at which of the following?

a. Site Ab. Site Bc. Site C and Dd. Site De. Sites D and E.

64. Acetycholine acts as a neurotransmitter at which of the following?

a. Site A onlyb. Site B onlyc. Sites C and D onlyd. Sites D and B onlye. Sites A, C, D and E only

65. Acetycholine acts as a neurotransmitter at which of the following sites?

a. Site A onlyb. Site B onlyc. Sites C and D onlyd. Sites D and B onlye. Sites A, C, D and E only

66. Which of the following correctly match a cholinergic agonist with its pharmacological actions?

a. Bethanechol: Stimulates atonic bladderb. Carbachol: Induces release of epinephrine from the adrenal medullac. Acetylcholine: Decrease heart rate and cardiac outputd. Pilocarpine: Reduces intraocular pressuree. All of the above

67. Physostigmine:

a. Acts at peripheral muscarinic and nicotinic receptorsb. Produces CNS effectsc. Can be used to treat an overdose of atropined. Is not hydrolyzed by acetylcholinesterasee. All of the above


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68. Which of the following are useful in treating poisoning with an organophosphate poison, suchas parathion?

a. Atropine and pralidoxime, when administered within hours of exposure to poisonb. neostigminec. Pilocarpined. Carbachol

69. Dopamine cause which of the following actions:

a. Increase cardiac outputb. Dilates renal vasculaturec. Increases production of urined. Increases blood pressuree. All of the above

Answer question 70 by using the following diagram.

70. The administration of three sympathomimetic agents has produced curves A, B, and C. Curve Cis produced by which one of the following agents?

a. Amphetamineb. Epinephrinec. Isoproterenold. Norephinephrinee. Phenylephrine



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71. A 17-year old person was brought to the emergency room by the police because of “actingcrazy”. The person was found nude, incoherent, wandering about aimlessly and had troubleseeing. On examination the person’s skin was flushed and drug and hot to the touch; moreover,the pupils were dilated with minimal response to light. What is the most probable drugingested?

a. an organophosphate-containing insecticideb. a nicotine-containing insecticidec. amphetamine-containing diet pillsd. phenylephrine-containing cold medicatione. atropine-containing medication

72. Signs of atropine poisoning include:

a. salivationb. constriction of pupilsc. blurred visiond. bradycardiae. hypopyrexia

73. Which of the following is effect of epinephrine?

a. contraction of bronchial smooth muscleb. contraction of detrusor muscle of bladderc. reduction of intestinal tone and motilityd. decreased glycogenolysise. release of histamine

74. When used chronically to treat hypertension, thiazide diuretics have all of the followingproperties or effects EXCEPT:

a. reduce blood volume or vascular resistance or bothb. have maximal effects on blood pressure at doses below the maximal diuretic dosec. may cause an elevation of plasma uric acid and triglyceride levelsd. decrease the urinary excretion of calciume. cause ototoxicity

75. Which of the following agents would be least harmful in a patient with severe hyperkalemia?

a. amilorideb. captoprilc. hydrochlorothiazided. spironolactonee. triamterene


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76. Which of the following would be most useful in a patient with cerebral edema?

a. acetazolamideb. amiloridec. ethacrynic acidd. furosemidee. mannitol

77. In a hypertensive patient who is taking insulin to treat diabetes mellitus, which of the followingdrugs is to be used with extra caution and advice to the patient?

a. hydralazineb. prazosin (Minipress)c. guanethidine (Ismelin)d. propranolol (Inderal)e. methyldopa (Aldomet)

78. Verapamil exerts its effects through which of the following actions?

a. preventing entry of calcium through slow channelsb. preventing depolarization of the cell membranec. increasing sodium entryd. antagonizing the opening of the fast sodium channele. enhancing potassium efflux

79. Drugs that block the catecholamine uptake process - such as cocaine, tricyclic antidepressants,and phenothiazines - are apt to block the antihypertensive action of which of the followingdrugs:

a. propranololb. guanethidinec. prazosind. hydralazinee. diazoxide

80. For the monotherapy of mild-to-moderate hypertension, all the following drugs would besuitable EXCEPT:

a. metoprololb. minoxidilc. verapamild. enalaprile. nifedipine



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81. Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are associated with a high incidence of whichof the following adverse reactions?

a. hepatitisb. hypokalemiac. agranulocytosisd. proteinuriae. hirsutism

82. Each of the following can cause bradycardia EXCEPT:

a. clonidineb. propranololc. reserpined. hydralazinee. guanethidine

83. In comparing methyldopa and guanethidine, which of the following is CORRECT:

a. guanethidine, but not methyldopa, results in salt and water retention if used without adiureticb. guanethidine is less efficacious than methyldopa in severe hypertensionc. guanethidine causes fewer central nervous system adverse effects (such as sedation) thanmethyldopad. methyldopa causes more orthostatic hypotension than guanethidinee. guanethidine causes more immunologic adverse effects than methyldopa (e.g., hemolyticanemia)

84. Captopril and enalapril do all of the following EXCEPT:

a. increase renin concentration in the bloodb. inhibit an enzymec. competitively block angiotensin II at its receptord. decrease angiotensin II concentration in the bloode. increase sodium and decrease potassium in the urine

85. After several weeks of treatment, which of the following reduces the release of norepinephrinefrom the sympathetic nerve terminal in response to vasomotor center discharge:

a. hydralazineb. prazosinc. minoxidild. guanethidinee. propranolol


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86. Postural hypotension is a common adverse effect of all of the following types of drugs EXCEPT:

a. those that cause venodilationb. those that cause ganglionic blockadec. those that cause alpha-receptor blockaded. those that cause beta-receptor blockadee. those that cause excessive diuresis and decreased blood volume

87. Important (through uncommon) adverse effects of vasodilators include all of the followingEXCEPT:

a. lupus erythematosus with hydralazineb. reduced cardiac output or atrioventricular block with verapamilc. precipitation of gout with prazosind. pericardial abnormalities with minoxidile. cyanide toxicity with nitroprusside

88. Comparison of guanethidine and propranolol shows that:

a. both increase heart rateb. both diminish central sympathetic outflowc. both decrease cardiac outputd. both produce orthostatic hypotension

90. Which of the following would rule out the use of hemodialysis?

a. comatose patientb. poison with a large volume of distributionc. poison with a small volume of distributiond. pediatric patiente. patient with hyperthermia

91. A comatose poisoned patient is brought into the emergency room. Which of the followingactions is inappropriate?

a. monitoring of respiratory statusb. collection of blood samplesc. administration of oxygend. placement of an i.v. cathetere. measurement of blood pressure and heart rate



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92. In the treatment of a patient in which time of ingestion and type of poison is known, the use ofthe Henderson-Hasselbalch equation is most useful in determining which of the followingparameters about the poison:

a. ratio of ionized to nonionized concentrationb. dissociation constantc. pHd. solubilitye. blood concentration

93. If a poison has already passed the pyloric valve, which of the following therapies would mostprobably be ineffective?

a. administration of osmotic diureticsb. urinary alkalinizationc. hemodialysisd. administration of activated charcoale. use of a chelator

94. The term plumbism refers to toxic symptoms produced by chronic ingestion of which of thefollowing metals?

a. Zincb. Leadc. Irond. Arsenice. Cadmium

95. Lead poisoning can be positively identified by determining the urinary concentrations forprecursors to heme synthesis. A positive indication for lead intoxication would be:

a. Increased delta-aminolevulinic acid (ALA) ; increased co-proporphyrinsb. Increased delta- ALA; decreased co-proporphyrinsc. Decreased delta-ALA; decreased co-proporphyrinsd. decreased delta-ALA; increased co-proporphyrins

96. Which of the following is the chelator of first choice for treating a toxic ingestion of lead?

a. Succimerb. Penicillaminec. Calcium Disodium Edetated. Deferoxaminee. Dimercaprol


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MATCHING:

Use once/more than once/ or not at all. Match the drug with the process which might induce anADR.

A. TerfenadineB. MethotrexateC. TobramycinD. Radiocontrast MediaE. Heparin

97. Cytochrome P4503A4 deficiency98. Prolonged AT interval and ventricular arrthymias99. Nephro-and oto-toxicity100. Erythromycin101. Toxicity seen if trough levels consistently above 2 g/ml102. Iodine allergy103. Quinine104. Thromboaytopenia and thrombosis

A. Activated P.T.T.B. INR (International Normalized Ratio)C. StreptokinaseD. WarfarinE. Vitamin K

105. Used to monitor warfarin therapy106. Used to monitor heparin therapy107. A fibrinolytic agent108. Cannot be used in pregnancy

Match the proper treatment for each case scenario.

A. ErythropoietinB. DesferrioxamineC. Red blood cell transfusionD. Ferrous sulfate

109. A 44 year old man with bleeding esophageal varices

110. A 33 year old woman with fibroids whose hematocrit is 25% and whose mean corpuscular redcell volume is 65 microns

111. A 50 year old man with a blood urea nitrogen of 150 mg/ dl and a creatinine of 10 mg/dl



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112. An 18 year old man with Cooley’s anemia (beta-thalassemia) who has received over 100 redblood cell transfusions

Match the proper treatment with each case scenario.

A. Vitamin B12B. Folic acidC. PrednisoneD. Daunorubrincin and Cytosine Arabinoside

113. A 50 year old woman with a white blood cell count of 62,000/mm3, with 80% myeloblasts114. A 44 year old woman with a hemoglobin of 6 g/dl, reticulocyte count of 15%, and a positive

Coombs’ test115. A 56 year old woman with a hemoglobin of 7 g/dl, mean corpuscular red cell volume of 115

microns, and who had an illectomy for Crohns’ disease116. A 32 year old man with a hemoglobin of 8 g/dl, mean corpuscular red cell volume of 112

microns and who has sickle cell (SS) disease

Match each drug with the MOST CORRECT statement pertaining to its use in an 85 year old woman.

A. DigoxinB. DiazepamC. PenicillinD. Propanolol

117. Pharmacodynamic effect may be less intense118. No dose adjustment necessary119. Dose adjustment required in accordance with liver function120. Dose adjustment required in accordance with renal function

A. LEVONOGESTRELB. CLOMIPHENEC. TAMOXIFEND. MIFEPRISTONE (RU486)E. AMINOGLUTETHAMIDE

121. An estrogenic antagonist that may be used in treatment of disseminated breast cancer122. A progestinic compound in implanted contraceptives


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MATCHING:

A. OxytocinB. BromcriptineC. ErgonovineD. MethysergideE. Dihydroergotamine

123. 5HT antagonist used in prophylaxis of migraine headache124. Sustained contracture of uterus in last trimester of pregnancy125. Contraction followed by relaxed of uterus in third trimester of pregnancy126. Use to decrease secretion of Prolactin127. Effective in treatment of severe migraine headache

For each numbered word, phrase, or statement select the one lettered heading that is most closelyassociated with it. Each lettered heading may be selected once, more than once, or not at all.

Concerning thyroid drug preparations ...

A. Used as an ancillary antithyroid drugB. Used as an only drug to treat post-operative hypothyroidismC. May have atypical “mumps” as a complication of useD. May have fatal agranulocytosis as a complication of use

128. Lugol’s Solution (iodine)129. Propylthiouracil130. Methimazole131. Levothyroxine sodium132. Propranolol

Concerning the following hypolipidemic drugs ...

A. LovastatinB. GemfibrozilC. Cholestyramine

133. Lowers LDL cholesterol primarily by interfering with entero-hepatic circulation of bile acids134. Lowers triglyceride & VLDL primarily135. Has constipation as major side effect136. Lowers LDL cholesterol primarily by interfering with synthesis of cholesterol



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Concerning the side effects of the hypolipidemic drugs ...

A. MyalgiaB. Prolongation of Q-T interval on ECG with serious cardiac arrhythmiasC. Drug interaction with anticoagulantsD. Flushing & PruritusE. May cause malabsorption of digoxin

137. Nicotinic acid138. Lovastatin139. Cholestyramine140. Gemfibrozil141. Probucol

4106626 Pharmacology Question Bank

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