PassGuide.CSCP 350,qa - GRATIS EXAM...2015/03/27 · CSCP Certified Supply Chain Professional Modified few questions, fixed few spelling mistakes and typos. I have correct many of

PassGuide.CSCP_350,qa

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CSCPCertified Supply Chain Professional

Modified few questions, fixed few spelling mistakes and typos.

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Got this vce from my friend who passed with 98% , each and every stuff in it. I am sharing with youguys.

Nicely written Questions with many corrections inside.

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Exam A

QUESTION 1What does the "C" in PDCA stand for?

A. capacityB. capitalC. changeD. checkE. collaborate

Correct Answer: DSection: (none)Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2What method is used to justify a strategic project?

A. making changes to management structureB. incorporation of new technologyC. develop strategic capabilityD. financial discounted cash flow methods

Correct Answer: CSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 3Which of the following is one of the five common barriers companies face when implementing a project?

A. competitionB. confusionC. cash flowD. research and developmentE. performance

Correct Answer: BSection: (none)Explanation

Explanation/Reference:answer is verified.

QUESTION 4All of the following are major factors for describing customer buying patterns EXCEPT:

A. product volumeB. order frequencyC. product mixD. transportation modeE. product lot size

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)Explanation

Explanation/Reference:Explanation:

QUESTION 5The top 20% of customers often account for what percentage of sales?


A. 20%B. 40%C. 60%D. 80%E. almost 100%



QUESTION 6Which of the following does research indicate to be true about setting objectives?

A. most companies set too fewB. most companies set too manyC. most companies don't have any objectivesD. most companies actually set an appropriate number of objectives



QUESTION 7Which of the following intrinsic product qualities concern the "density" of the product?

A. weight-to-volume ratioII. value-to-weight ratioIII. solid vs. liquid vs. gas state

B. IIC. I and IID. I and IIIE. II and IIIF. I, II and III

Correct Answer: BSection: (none)

Explanation


QUESTION 8Which of these supply chain types correspond to the phrase "source centrally, bought locally"?

A. customer-centricB. functional-centricC. product-centricD. process-centric



QUESTION 9Which of these supply chain types would copier toner probably be distributed using?

A. customer-centricB. functional-centricC. product-centricD. process-centric



QUESTION 10All of the following are situations where a product-centric supply chain would be preferred EXCEPT:

A. varied customer base with differing requirementsB. multiple products with differing production technologiesC. cost-driven businessD. homogeneous customer baseE. capital-intensive production technology

Correct Answer: ASection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 11All of the following are intangible assets EXCEPT:

A. human capitalB. informationC. financial assetsD. organization capital


Explanation/Reference:valid and updated.

QUESTION 12All of following are benefits of S&OP EXCEPT:

A. creates a common set of numbers and assumptionsB. creates a detailed production and purchase planC. adds visibility for both sales and operationsD. facilitates team building between sales and operations



QUESTION 13All of the following are typically contributed exclusively by operations during an S&OP meeting EXCEPT:

A. direct-shipment customersB. replenishment policiesC. supplier sourcing strategyD. new product supply chain setupE. cost reductions



QUESTION 14All of the following are contributed by sales during an S&OP meeting EXCEPT:

A. competitive response time requirementsB. new product plans and requirementsC. stocking strategy by echelonD. metrics for customer serviceE. market trends



QUESTION 15All of the following are typically contributed exclusively by operations during an S&OP meeting EXCEPT:

A. new product plans and requirementsB. production locations and third party sources

C. methods for information exchangeD. capacity constraints and plans for addressing themE. alternate paths to end-users



QUESTION 16Which of the following corresponds to the lead logistics provider?

A. 3PLB. 4PLC. LLPD. SCORE. TCP



QUESTION 17What does the "P" in 3PL stand for?

A. packageB. partnerC. partyD. performanceE. planning



QUESTION 18Which of the following partnership agreement articles corresponds to "hierarchy of individuals or positionson both sides of the partnership who will resolve issues"?

A. organization process boundariesB. nonexclusive provisionC. mediation and conflict resolutionD. intellectual propertyE. decision escalation

Correct Answer: ESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 19Which of the following partnership agreement articles corresponds to "each partner's rights to tradesecrets, trademarks, copyrights, and patents arising from the partnership"?

A. organization process boundariesB. nonexclusive provisionC. mediation and conflict resolutionD. intellectual propertyE. decision escalation



QUESTION 20What type of partnership is it when a company joins forces with another who has complementary,nonoverlapping skills?

A. complementaryB. horizontalC. verticalD. enablingE. collaboratory



QUESTION 21All of the following are true of SCOR EXCEPT:

A. developed by the Supply Chain CouncilB. based on four broad processes: PLAN, SOURCE, MAKE and DELIVERC. applies to all industriesD. incorporates supply chain architectures, performance measures and best practicesE. consists of 5 levels



QUESTION 22All of the following are level 1 processes EXCEPT:

A. sourceB. makeC. enableD. deliver

E. return



QUESTION 23What type of partnership results when partners are at different echelons, probably adjoining, of the supplychain?

A. complementaryB. compositeC. horizontalD. verticalE. reinforcing



QUESTION 24QS-9000 is a quality standard for which industry?

A. automotiveB. groceryC. retailD. aerospaceE. pharmaceuticals


Explanation/Reference:verified.

QUESTION 25Which of the following are criteria for a core competency?

A. provides access to a wide variety of marketsII. contributes to perceived customer benefitsIII. is difficult to imitate

B. IIC. I and IID. I and IIIE. II and IIIF. I, II and III



appropriate answer.

QUESTION 26Which of the following is a document issued by a carrier, acknowledging that specified goods have beenreceived for transport to a named place of delivery to a designated person?

A. advance shipping noticeB. bill of ladingC. bill of materialsD. invoiceE. packing slip



QUESTION 27Which of the following documents govern all the legal aspects of physical carriage ?




QUESTION 28Which of the following is a document that itemizes in detail the contents of a shipment to a customer butthat is not used for governing the shipment's transportation?




QUESTION 29Which of the following documents is sent by a supplier to the customer indicating when an order will beshipped?

A. advance shipping noticeB. bill of ladingC. bill of materials

D. invoice E. packing slip



QUESTION 30Which statement concerning supply chains is most often true?

A. Most supply chains are designed.B. Most supply chains evolve over time through a series of independent decisions.C. Most supply chain flows are linked in relatively simple and straight-forward ways.D. Most supply chains are replacing information with inventory.



QUESTION 31All of the following are parameters of the EOQ EXCEPT:

A. demandB. ordering costC. order quantityD. holding costE. item purchase price



QUESTION 32Which of the following is not one of the five management processes in the SCOR model?

A. planB. controlC. sourceD. makeE. deliver



QUESTION 33All of the following are management processes in the SCOR model EXCEPT:

A. planB. sourceC. manageD. makeE. deliver



QUESTION 34Which of the following refers to the flow of products returned for repairs, recycles, or disposal?

A. forward supply chainB. reverse supply chainC. repairs supply chainD. recycling supply chainE. returns supply chain



QUESTION 35All of the following are basic flows within supply chains EXCEPT:

A. flow of physical materials and servicesB. flow of cash upstream toward raw materialC. vertical flow of knowledge between product development partnersD. reverse flow of productsE. flow of information back and forth along the chain



QUESTION 36All of the following are examples of services within the supply chain EXCEPT:

A. warehousingB. transportationC. janitorialD. productionE. utilities



QUESTION 37Non-communist governments impact supply chains in all of the following ways EXCEPT:

A. build infrastructureB. provide pricing structure for products and servicesC. enforce regulationsD. levy or forgive taxesE. create a business friendly climate or not



QUESTION 38A significant impact on the supply chain can be made by all of the following stake holders EXCEPT:

A. governmentB. universitiesC. trade associationsD. competitorsE. consumers



QUESTION 39All of the following flow through the reverse supply chain EXCEPT:

A. remanufactured goodsB. obsolete goodsC. information flowsD. cash or creditsE. components for replacement or repair



QUESTION 40Which of the following organizations developed the Supply-Chain Operations Reference (SCOR) model?

A. Association for Operations Management ()B. Global Supply Chain Forum (GSCF)C. Supply Chain Council (SCC)D. Institute of Supply Management (ISM)

E. Council of Supply Chain Management Professional (CSCMP)



QUESTION 41All of the following are characteristics of functional products EXCEPT:

A. relatively low contribution marginsB. stable demandC. very few stockoutsD. end-of-season markdownsE. little variety



QUESTION 42Which of the following is true about a periodic review policy?

A. fixed quantity at fixed intervalsB. fixed quantity at variable intervalsC. variable quantities at fixed intervalsD. variable quantities at variable intervals


Explanation/Reference:valid.

QUESTION 43Which replenishment policy tends to have the greatest safety stock?

A. just-in-time policyB. continuous review policyC. periodic review policyD. risk pooling policy



QUESTION 44What is missing from the economic order quantity formula?

A. purchase price per item

B. quantity discountC. demand per periodD. order quantityE. inspection costs per order



QUESTION 45All of the following are reasons why inventory is subject to shrinkage EXCEPT:

A. theftB. deteriorationC. reworkD. scrapE. evaporation



QUESTION 46All of the following are components of ordering cost EXCEPT:

A. clerical work of preparing and releasing ordersB. taxes and insuranceC. receiving ordersD. incoming inspectionsE. physical handling of goods



QUESTION 47All of the following are components of holding cost EXCEPT:

A. cost of capital investedB. clerical work of receiving ordersC. obsolescenceD. taxes and insuranceE. spoilage



QUESTION 48All of the following are components of stockout costs EXCEPT:

A. lost salesB. backorder costsC. expeditingD. additional production and purchasing costsE. backlog cost



QUESTION 49What action has members of supply chains historically taken to protect themselves against variability insupply and demand?

A. improving qualityB. holding inventoryC. sharing informationD. shortening lead timesE. decreasing costs



QUESTION 50What action has typically been taken over the last decade or so by members of supply chains to decreasevariability in supply and demand?

A. improving qualityB. holding inventoryC. sharing informationD. shortening lead timesE. decreasing costs



QUESTION 51What initiative has members of supply chains taken recently to decrease variability in supply and demand?

A. improving qualityB. holding inventoryC. sharing informationD. shortening lead times

E. decreasing costs



QUESTION 52What does the "P" in CPFR stand for?

A. packageB. partnershipC. performanceD. planningE. process



QUESTION 53What does the "R" in CPFR stand for?

A. rapidB. reengineeringC. replenishmentD. researchE. risk



QUESTION 54What does the "C" in CPFR stand for?

A. capacityB. collaborativeC. cross-functionalD. customerE. cooperative



QUESTION 55What does the "F" in CPFR stand for?

A. forecastingB. freightC. fulfillmentD. functionalE. fuzzy



QUESTION 56All of the following processes are excluded from SCOR v.7.0 EXCEPT:

A. sales and marketingB. research and technology developmentC. product developmentD. product transactionsE. information technology



QUESTION 57SCOR applies to all of the following activities EXCEPT:

A. all customer interactions from order entry through paid invoiceB. all product transactionsC. all market interactions from understanding aggregate demand throughorderfulfillmentD. sales and marketing (defined as demand generation)



QUESTION 58Supply chains and supply chain processes exist in which of the following organizations?

A. for-profit organizationsII. non-profit organizationsIII. charitable organizations

B. IC. IID. I and IIE. I and IIIF. I, II and III

Correct Answer: E




A. for-profit organizationsII. military organizationsIII. charitable organizations





A. for-profit organizationsII. governmental organizationsIII. military organizations




QUESTION 61Which of the following is a type of value that supply chains can and must create?

A. financial valueII. customer valueIII. social value

B. IC. IID. I and IIE. II and IIIF. I, II and III



QUESTION 62Which of the following planning systems deal exclusively with independent demand items?

A. DRPII. MPSIII. MRP

B. IC. IID. IIIE. I and IIF. II and III



QUESTION 63Which of the following planning systems examine both independent and dependent demand items:

A. DRPII. MPSIII. MRP

B. IC. II C. IIID. I and IIE. II and III



QUESTION 64What other term is sometimes substituted for "Check" of the PDCA?

A. analyzeB. controlC. changeD. documentE. study



QUESTION 65Which of the following best corresponds to the definition of throughput time?

A. Throughput time is the time between completion of two discrete units of production.B. Throughput time is the length of time from when materials enter a production facility until itexits.C. Throughput time is the time from when raw materials are paid for to the time payment offinished goods

is received.D. Throughput time is the time from receipt of a customer's order to the delivery of theproduct.



QUESTION 66Which of the following are components of a perfect order?

A. right quantityII. right placeIII. right price




QUESTION 67Which of the following are components of a perfect order?

A. right productII. right timeIII. right quantity



Explanation/Reference:Explanation:Article 1: what is the right supply chain management product for u

QUESTION 68Which statement concerning physical cost and mediation costs is most often true?

A. The physical and market mediation costs are approximately the same for supply chains,independent ofwhether the chain supports innovative or functional products.

B. The physical cost exceeds the market mediation costs for the supply chain of a functionalproduct.

C. The market mediation costs exceed the physical costs for the supply chain of a functionalproduct.D. Neither cost is taken into consideration when designing and managing a supply chain.Product?




A. product life cycle is greater than 2 yearsB. the contribution margin is between 5 and 20%C. it has only 10 to 20 products in each product categoryD. its average stock out rate is between 10 and 40 %




QUESTION 70Which of the following is a characteristic of a market responsive supply chain?

A. maintains high utilization rate with regards to manufacturingB. suppliers are selected primarily to reduce costC. its product design strategy utilizes modular design to allow for postponement ofdifferentiation in

productsD. meets predictable demand efficiently at the lowest possible cost



QUESTION 71All of the following are examples of functional products that have become innovative products over timeEXCEPT:

A. Colgate toothpasteB. Ben & Jerry's ice creamC. Starbucks CoffeeD. Mrs. Field's cookies

Correct Answer: A



QUESTION 72In a recent study of the U.S. food industry it was estimated that ____________was/were wasting $30 billionannually.

A. upper managementB. logistic operationsC. poor partner coordinationD. price wars between companies



QUESTION 73Out of the following, which of these would most likely be the first step in devising an effective supply chainstrategy?

A. analyze the demand for the company's productB. introduce new productsC. decrease product pricesD. analyze competitors' products



QUESTION 74What distinct function/s does a supply chain perform?

A. market mediationII. indirectIII. physical

B. IC. IID. II and IIIE. I and IIIF. I, II, and III



QUESTION 75Which of the following is true regarding functional products?

A. Functional products have unstable & unpredictable demand, and high profit margins.B. Functional products satisfy basic needs, have stable & predictable demand, and long lifecycles.C. Functional products have unstable & unpredictable demand, and low profit margins.D. Functional products satisfy basic needs, have unstable and unpredictable demand, and longlife cycles.



QUESTION 76Which of the following is NOT a coordinated strategy to manage uncertainty of demand?

A. continue to strive to reduce uncertaintyB. avoid uncertainty by cutting lead timesC. decrease supply chain flexibilityD. hedge against uncertainty with buffers of inventory



QUESTION 77What are the main functions of the supply chain?

A. Physical FunctionII. Marketing FunctionIII. Market Mediation Function

B. I onlyC. II onlyD. III onlyE. I & IIIF. I, II, & III



QUESTION 78Match the product type (functional and innovative. and the supply chain type (efficient and responsive).

A. Functional-Responsive, Innovative-ResponsiveB. Functional-Responsive, Innovative-EfficientC. Functional-Efficient, Innovative-ResponsiveD. Functional-Efficient, Innovative-Efficient



Explanation:

QUESTION 79All of the following are part of a physically efficient supply chain EXCEPT:

A. manufacturing focus is maintain high average utilization rateB. select suppliers primarily for cost and qualityC. high number of inventory turnsD. supply predictable demand efficientlyE. aggressively reduce lead-times Product?



QUESTION 80What has caused dysfunctional industry practices that have caused supply chain costs to rise?

A. price promotionB. new technology implementationsC. mass customizationD. ISO standards



QUESTION 81All of the following are reasons why companies introduce innovation to traditionally functional productcategories EXCEPT:

A. increase in the number of competitorsB. increase in the rate of new product introductions in the marketC. a move towards cost reduction practices in industryD. increase in the efforts of current competitors to protect or increase their profit margins



QUESTION 82For functional products, what is the average margin of error in the forecast at the time production iscommitted?

A. 5%B. 40%C. 15%D. 10%E. None of the above



QUESTION 83What practice corresponds to stocking up in response to a product price cut?

A. demand lumpingB. forward buyingC. sell-throughD. turn-and-earnE. none of the above



QUESTION 84What is the primary purpose of a market-responsive supply chain?

A. supply predictable demand efficiently at the lowest possible costB. shorten lead times as long as it doesn't increase costC. respond quickly to unpredictable demandD. maintain high average utilization rate



QUESTION 85Which of the following is a major reason why the cost of supply chains have risen to unprecedented levels?

A. adversarial relations between supply chain partners


B. mass-customizationC. lean principles have not been effectively appliedD. lack of technologyE. b and c are correct



QUESTION 86What is the first step in devising an effective supply chain strategy ?

A. analyze the product life cycleB. consider the nature of demand for productsC. make demand predictableD. increase product varietyE. decrease market standard for lead time



QUESTION 87Which of the following is most likely a root cause of problems plaguing many supply chains?

A. high number of suppliersB. product life cycleC. demand unpredictabilityD. mismatch between type of product and the type of supply chain



QUESTION 88What is/are the distinct types of supply chain functions?

A. physical functionII. demand predictability functionIII. market mediation function

B. IC. IID. I & IIIE. II & IIIF. I, II & III



QUESTION 89All of the following are primary purposes of a market responsive supply chain process EXCEPT:

A. respond quickly to unpredictable demandB. minimize stockoutC. maintain high average utilization rate

D. minimize forced markdowns



QUESTION 90Innovative products have all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:

A. unpredictable demandB. product life cycle of 3 months to 1 yearC. high product varietyD. average stock-out rates of 1% to 2%E. 1 day to 2 weeks lead time required for made- to-order products



QUESTION 91Functional products have all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:

A. predictable demandB. product life cycle of more than 2 yearsC. average forced end-of-season markdown of 10% to 25% of full priceD. low product varietyE. average stockout rates of 1% to 2%



QUESTION 92Which of the following are correct matches of supply chain types with product types?

A. I & IVB. II & IIIC. I, II, & IVD. I, II, III, & IV



QUESTION 93Physically efficient supply chains have all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:

A. supply predictable demand efficiently at the lowest possible costB. suppliers are selected primarily for speed, flexibility, and qualityC. generate high turns and minimize inventoryD. maintain high average utilization rateE. maximize performance and minimize cost



QUESTION 94Market responsive supply chains have all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:

A. suppliers selected primarily for speed, flexibility, and qualityB. deploy excess buffer capacityC. shorten lead time as long as it doesn't increase costD. respond quickly to unpredictable demand in order to minimize stockout, forcedmarkdowns,and obsolete

inventoryE. use modular design in order to postpone product differentiation for as long as possibleProduct?


Explanation/Reference:answer is updated.


A. stable demandB. predictable demandC. 10% to 25% forced end-of-season markdownD. long product life cyclesE. lower profit margins



QUESTION 96All of the following are characteristics of innovative products EXCEPT:

A. higher profit marginsB. demand is stableC. life cycle is shortD. demand is unpredictableE. product variety is high



QUESTION 97All of the following are important aspects to consider when evaluating the nature of demand for productsEXCEPT:

A. product life cycleB. demand predictabilityC. product varietyD. production requirementsE. market standards for lead times




A. stable demandB. long life cyclesC. higher profit marginsD. demand is predictableE. product variety is low



QUESTION 99All of the following are typical of functional products EXCEPT:

A. product life cyle is more than 2 yearsB. contribution margins of 5% to 20%C. product variety is highD. 10% average margin of error in the forecastE. 1% to 2% average stockout rate



QUESTION 100For innovative products, what is the typical average margin of forecast error at the time production iscommitted?

A. 1%B. 10%

C. 25%D. 40% to 100%E. 200%



QUESTION 101For functional products, what is the typical average margin of forecast error at the time production iscommitted?

A. 1%B. 10%C. 25%D. 40% to 100%E. 200%

Correct Answer: BCSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 102For innovative products, what is the typical average forced end-of-season markdown as percentage of fullprice?

A. less than 1%B. 5%C. 10% to 25%D. 25% to 50%E. greater than 50%



QUESTION 103For functional products, what is the typical average forced end-of-season markdown as percentage of fullprice?

A. less than 1%B. 5%C. 10% to 25%D. 25% to 50%E. greater than 50%



QUESTION 104What two distinct types of functions does supply chains perform?

A. physical and market mediationB. physical and logisticsC. logistics and market mediationD. purchasing and market mediationE. purchasing and logistics



QUESTION 105All of the following are typical of innovative products EXCEPT:

A. 3 month to 1 year product life cyclesB. contribution margins of 5% to 20%C. high product varietyD. 10% to 40% average stockoutE. 10% to 25% average forced end-of-season markdowns


Explanation/Reference:Explanation:Article .. What every one needs to know abt SCM ?

QUESTION 106The ___________ nature of supply chain management demands ___________ support before companiescan create a world-class supply chain.

A. cross-functional, functionalB. functional, cross-functionalC. unstable, stableD. stable, unstable



QUESTION 107While everyone in the same organization works in the _______, not everyone within the organization worksin the _______.

A. value chain, supply chainB. supply chain, value chainC. supply chain, supply room

D. value chain, supply room



QUESTION 108All of the following are broad objectives of effective supply chain management EXCEPT:

A. management of riskB. management of relationshipsC. management of trade-offsD. management of inventory



QUESTION 109All of the following are one of the Four Pillars of Supply Chain Excellence EXCEPT:

A. human resourcesB. organizational designC. organizational measurementD. inventory managementE. information technology



QUESTION 110All of the following are non-supply groups that support supply chain activities EXCEPT:

A. engineeringB. marketingC. human resourcesD. operationsE. information technology



QUESTION 111Which of the following reasons for viewing supply chains as a set of systematic processes is typicallyconsidered to be the most important?

A. processes usually move across functional boundariesB. a well-defined and communicated process provides everybody with a standardizedworkflow and

eliminates the need to reinvent procedures every time the company develops aproducts, fulfills anorder, or evaluates a supplier

C. having a systematic process makes it easier to incorporate best practices and knowledgeD. with formal and defined processes, a company can document and measure them, whichfacilitates

supply chain improvementsE. viewing the supply chain in terms of a globally aligned set of processes makes it possible toimplement

consistency across geographic units



QUESTION 112All of the following are parts of the physical distribution activities, EXCEPT:

A. outbound logisticsB. inbound logisticsC. customer serviceD. marketing and sales



QUESTION 113In terms of segmenting supply chain relationships and approaches in effective management of supplychain relationships, strategic items which include goods and services that consume a large portion of totalpurchase dollars require __________value, and _________ qualified suppliers in order to achieve the bestresults.

A. high; manyB. high; fewC. low; manyD. low; few



QUESTION 114Which of the following pillars of supply chain excellence refers to the process of assessing and selectingthe structure and formal system of communication, division of labor, coordination, control, authority, andresponsibility required to achieve company and supply chain-wide goals and objectives?

A. human resourcesB. information technologyC. organizational measurementD. organizational design



QUESTION 115All of the following are cost effective ways to mitigate or minimize risk, EXCEPT:

A. quality certificationB. multiple suppliersC. supplier developmentD. information sharingE. improved forecasting


Explanation/Reference:answer is corrected.

QUESTION 116How do supply chain professionals create value for goods with a lower total value and a limited supplymarket?

A. relying on competitive biddingB. short term contractingC. blanket purchase ordersD. reducing the transaction cost of the purchaseE. collaborative efforts



QUESTION 117All of the following are pillars of supply chain excellence, EXCEPT:

A. human resourcesB. marketing information systemC. organizational designD. information technologyE. organizational measurement



QUESTION 118Which of the following are ways to manage risk?

A. Hold Safety StockII. Improved ForecastingIII. Use Multiple Suppliers

B. I onlyC. I & IID. II & IIIE. I & IIIF. I, II & III



QUESTION 119Which type of relationship below between a manufacturer and their suppliers is a win/win situation?

A. price-driven relationshipB. competitive relationshipC. collaborative relationshipD. transactional relationship



QUESTION 120All of the following are pillars of supply chain excellence, EXCEPT:

A. human resourcesB. organizational designC. information technologyD. financial performanceE. organizational measurement



QUESTION 121Of the following common supply chain management trade-offs, which most appropriately addressesdecisions concerning aggregating materials movement?

A. Lot-Size & InventoryB. Inventory & Transportation CostC. Lead-Time & Transportation CostD. Product Variety & InventoryE. Cost & Customer Service

Correct Answer: B



QUESTION 122What trade-off most effects forecasting complexity?

A. Lead Time & Transportation CostB. Product Variety & InventoryC. Inventory & Transportation CostD. Cost & Customer ServiceE. Lot Size & Inventory



QUESTION 123What type of item would be of high value to a company and the company would benefit from a collaborativerelationship?

A. leverage itemsB. market itemsC. transaction itemsD. strategic items


Explanation/Reference:Explanation:Article --- The Eight Essential Supply chain management processes

QUESTION 124What process provides the structure for how relationships with customers are developed and maintained?

A. customer relationship managementB. customer service managementC. supplier relationship managementD. customer channel management



QUESTION 125What system uses point of sale and key customer data to reduce uncertainty and provide efficient flowsthrough the supply chain?

A. demand managementB. supply management

C. CRMD. SRM



QUESTION 126What process includes all activities necessary to obtain, implement, and manage manufacturing flexibility inthe supply chain and to move products through the plant?

A. demand managementB. manufacturing flow managementC. product development and commercializationD. supplier relationship management



QUESTION 127All of the following are business functions EXCEPT?

A. Marketing and SalesB. Research and DevelopmentC. ProductionD. Customer Service Management



QUESTION 128All of the following are business processes EXCEPT?

A. demand managementB. returns managementC. order fulfillmentD. purchasing



QUESTION 129Which of the following focuses on identifying key customers and developing relationships with thosecustomers?

A. SRMB. CRMC. ERPD. FTL



QUESTION 130To what point in the supply chain does most executives tend to focus their efforts on when managing theirsupply chain?

A. point of supplyB. point of manufacturingC. point of consumptionD. point of purchase



QUESTION 131For each supplier and customer, what is the ultimate measure of success in the CRM and SRMprocesses?

A. CSLB. profitabilityC. lead timeD. order fulfillment



QUESTION 132Why do most executives struggle at managing the supply chain?

A. not enough resources are allocatedB. SCM is a low priority for most executivesC. supply chain business processes and the linkages are not fully understoodD. there is not enough labor to move product through the supply chain



QUESTION 133Who should maintain overall managerial control over both the SRM and CRM processes?

A. CEOB. account managerC. SRM and CRM team membersD. IT department



QUESTION 134Customer Relationship Management (CRM) provides all of the following EXCEPT:

A. structure how relationships with customers are developed and maintainedB. represent the company's face to the customerC. increase customer loyaltyD. segment customers based on their value over time



QUESTION 135Which of the following two provides the critical linkages throughout the supply chain?

A. demand management & order fulfillmentB. supplier relationship management & customer service managementC. manufacturing flow management & product development & commercializationD. customer relationship management & supplier relationship managementE. customer relationship management & returns management



QUESTION 136All of the following are key supply chain management processes identified by the Global Supply ChainForum EXCEPT:

A. Customer Relationship ManagementB. Information Systems SupportC. Order FulfillmentD. Product Development and Commercialization



QUESTION 137What two of the eight processes provide the linkages required to facilitate integration among supply chainmembers to coordinate the other six processes?

A. demand management and order fulfillmentB. customer service management and customer relationship managementC. supplier relationship management and customer relationship managementD. order fulfillment and manufacturing flow management



QUESTION 138What should customer requirements be balanced with from a demand management perspective?

A. supply chain capabilitiesB. order quantitiesC. product mixD. customer support



QUESTION 139Returns management involves all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. return avoidanceB. reverse logisticsC. "gatekeeping"D. proactively matching supply with demandE. returns



QUESTION 140Which of the following pairs of supply chain management processes provide the linkages required tofacilitate the integration of the supply chain?

A. Customer Relationship Management and Customer Service ManagementB. Demand Management and Manufacturing Flow ManagementC. Demand Management and Order FulfillmentD. Customer Relationship Management and Supplier Relationship ManagementE. Supplier Relationship Management and Customer Service Management



QUESTION 141Which of the following supply chain management processes is responsible for balancing customerrequirements with supply chain capabilities?

A. Order FulfillmentB. Demand ManagementC. Manufacturing Flow ManagementD. Product Development and CommercializationE. Returns Management



QUESTION 142Which of the following supply chain management processes deals with flexibility and variability to achievesupply chain synchronization?

A. Manufacturing Flow ManagementB. Returns ManagementC. Order FulfillmentD. Demand Management



QUESTION 143Which of the following supply chain management processes includes activities necessary to definecustomer requirements and to enhance a firm's ability to meet customer requests while minimizing the totaldelivered cost?

A. Order FulfillmentB. Customer Relationship ManagementC. Customer Service ManagementD. Product Design and Commercialization



QUESTION 144Avoidance is part of which of the following supply chain management processes?

A. Demand ManagementB. Order FulfillmentC. Manufacturing Flow ManagementD. Returns Management



QUESTION 145All of the following are part of the eight Supply Chain Management Processes suggested by The GlobalSupply Chain Forum EXCEPT:

A. Customer Relationship Management (CRM)B. Suppliers Relationship Management (SRM)C. Human Resource Management (HRM)D. Product Development and CommercializationE. Returns Management



QUESTION 146Which of these SCM processes are critical linkages?

A. Customer Relationship Management (CRM)B. Demand ManagementC. Supplier Relationship Management (SRM)D. I and IIE. I and III



QUESTION 147In the customer relationship management process, what input is provided by the production function?

A. manufacturing capabilitiesB. material specificationsC. remanufacturingD. production planningE. integrated planning



QUESTION 148Which statement best corresponds to Customer Relationship Management?

A. company's face to the customerB. balance customer requirements with supply chain capabilitiesC. structure for how relationships with customers are developed and maintainedD. structure for working with customers and suppliers to develop products and bring them tomarket



QUESTION 149In the Customer Relationship Management process, what is the functional input from Finance?

A. distribution costB. manufacturing costC. cost to serveD. customer profitability



QUESTION 150Why are profitability reports that capture all of the costs and revenue implications of a relationshipimportant to an organization?

A. it allows the company to see who is getting the largest amount of profitB. it tracks supply chain process improvements over timeC. it ensures that management is not reporting false numbersD. profitability reports do not have to capture both costs and revenues



QUESTION 151Which of the following correspond to the process that provides the structure for working with customersand suppliers to develop products and bring them to the market?

A. demand managementB. order fulfillmentC. CRMD. SRME. product development and commercialization



QUESTION 152In the Customer Relationship Management arena, what does PSA stand for?

A. Professional Services AssociationB. Products and Services AgreementsC. Production Services AssociatesD. Pricing Sales Agreement


Explanation/Reference:Explanation:Article a Tax Aligned approach to SCM

QUESTION 153What are the key supply chain activities that present the greatest opportunity for reducing cost by includingtax planning in supply chain initiatives?

A. procurement & supply chain technologyB. R&D and manufacturingC. product life cycle management & logisticsD. A&CE. A&B



QUESTION 154Which formula is used to calculate a company's global effective tax rate?

A. worldwide pretax net income divided by worldwide provision for income taxesB. worldwide provision for income taxes divided by worldwide pretax net incomeC. total tax obligation for the period divided by worldwide pretax net incomeD. worldwide post tax net income multiplied by average national tax rate



QUESTION 155Which of the following circumstances should trigger a company to consider tax implications from a supplychain perspective?

A. multi-national supply chain operations

II. pursuing aggressive cost-reduction goalsIII. merger, acquisition or restructuring

B. IIC. I and IID. II and IIIE. I and IIIF. I, II and III



QUESTION 156In order to form a "procurement company" what variable or variables must be isolated to specific entitieswithin its corporate group?

A. functions they performB. risks they takeC. incomeD. assets they own or have developedE. all of the above



QUESTION 157What is the name of a centralized legal entity established by a global company to act as the commercialcenter for a geographic region?


A. regional distribution centerB. tax shelterC. keiretsuD. hubco


Explanation/Reference:answer is modified.

QUESTION 158All of the following are steps that companies can take to implement their supply chain systems in a tax-efficient way EXCEPT:

A. structure their hardware and software purchases in tax-efficient mannerB. consider tax implications when choosing entity and locationC. understand which GAAP to avoidD. identify elements of an implementation that are innovative



QUESTION 159When tax planning is performed independently from supply chain planning, what does tax planning oftentend to take into consideration?

A. how planned supply chain initiatives reduce operating costsB. historic levels of income and expense within a companyC. if supply chain initiatives will create additional tax burdensD. will operating costs be impacted



QUESTION 160Which of the following best corresponds to PLM?

A. control and management of product dataB. productive lean measurementC. product evolution from raw material to disposalD. productive life-cycle maintenance



QUESTION 161In reference to optimizing manufacturing and distribution networks, what purpose does a Hubco serve?

A. PLM based agency for tax jurisdiction benefitB. central cross-docking distribution and cross-docking hubC. procurement centerD. centralized legal entity for creating tax benefit



QUESTION 162When are discrete operating units or so called procurement companies particularly beneficial for global-procurement initiatives?

A. communication between trading partners is difficultB. transactions cross bordersC. centralized procurement initiatives focus on consolidation of the supplier baseD. companies competitively bid against multiple suppliers



QUESTION 163Which of the following are advantages of a centralized procurement organization?

A. creates tax reduction opportunitiesII. can optimize staffing and systems costsIII. should result in increased buying power

B. IC. IID. IIIE. II & IIIF. I & II & III


Explanation/Reference:Explanation:Article : Capacity Planning : The Antidote to Supply chain constraints Empty Article: supply chain vs supplychain

QUESTION 164What is the nature of competition and the supply network?

A. Competing as Supply Chain vs. Supply ChainII. Competing on Supply Network CapabilitiesIII. Competing on Supply Network Capabilities Led by a Channel Master

B. I & IIC. I & IIID. II & IIIE. I, II, & III



QUESTION 165Which statement best describes competing on supply network capabilities led by a channel master?

A. The nature of competition will center on the single, most powerful company of a supplynetwork, whichwill determine the terms of trade across the entire supply network.

B. The nature of competition will center on the most powerful product within a company'ssupply chain.C. The nature of competition is determined by one person within the company, who decideshow to

compete, with what products, and in what industry.D. There is no such thing as a channel master.



QUESTION 166Realistically, how many tiers upstream and downstream can data be utilized effectively?

A. 1B. 2C. 3D. 5E. Data is not difficult to use across the entire supply chain.



QUESTION 167Which statement best defines "competing on supply network capabilities"?

A. The nature of competition will center on the single, most powerful company of a supplynetwork, whichwill determine the terms of trade across the entire supply network.

B. The nature of competition will be between individual companies competing on their internalsupplynetwork capabilities.

C. The nature of competition will be shared among the capabilities of the supply network,making use ofcollaboration.

D. None of the above.



QUESTION 168Which of the following is a situation where a supply chain competes against another supply chain?

A. suppliers that are also competitorsB. PC manufacturers like Dell and CompaqC. Airbus and BoeingD. Poultry vs. Poultry e.g. Perdue Farms and Tyson FoodsE. U.S. automotive industry



QUESTION 169All of the following are examples of collaborative initiatives, EXCEPT:

A. JITB. consignmentC. VMID. CPFRE. joint product development programs



QUESTION 170Which of the following is a good example of a completely disconnected supply networks?

A. Perdue Farms vs. Tyson FoodsB. Compaq vs. HPC. Airbus vs. BoeingD. PC vs. Mac



QUESTION 171What are some compelling advantages of integrating capabilities?

A. The benefits of one-to-one or next-tier coordination are quantifiable.B. Successful one-to-one relationships add value.C. Data and information sharing is more immediate and useful.D. A & BE. A, B, & C


Explanation/Reference:Explanation:Module 1: supply chain management fundamentals

QUESTION 172What is the Japanese term for continuous improvement?

A. keiretsuB. kaizenC. hoshinD. heijunkaE. jidoka



QUESTION 173All of the following are characteristics of continuous improvement EXCEPT:

A. making revolutionary steps towards perfectionB. meeting customer needsC. constantly analyzing and improving business processesD. involving employees in change initiatives



QUESTION 174Which U.S. quality expert originally helped Japanese firms apply total quality principles after WWII?

A. Philip CrosbyB. Edwards DemingC. Joseph JuranD. Michael Porter



QUESTION 175All of the following are reasons for adopting a continuous process improvement approach to supply chainmanagement EXCEPT:

A. SCM is process-oriented.B. Supply chains are dynamic.C. Supply chains support functional products.D. Supply chains evolve.



QUESTION 176All of the following are broad types of benchmarking EXCEPT:

A. competitive benchmarkingB. best-in-class benchmarkingC. personal benchmarking

D. process benchmarking



QUESTION 177All of the following are key lean concepts EXCEPT:

A. banish waste and strive for perfectionB. eliminate inventoriesC. orderly, safe workplaceD. empowered teamsE. no more than 3.4 defects per million opportunities



QUESTION 178\All of the following are key just-in-time concepts EXCEPT:

A. total quality managementB. plant maintenanceC. vendor schedulingD. orderly, safe workplaceE. move from work order to continuous flow



QUESTION 179All of the following are key six sigma concepts EXCEPT:

A. defects defined by customersB. move from work orders to continuous flowC. no more than 3.4 defects per million opportunitiesD. train at all levelsE. keep process variability within six sigma of target value



QUESTION 180All of the following are used to signal in a JIT environment that more work is needed by the next work

station EXCEPT:

A. lightB. empty binC. empty space on floorD. master scheduleE. card


Explanation/Reference:answer is valid.

QUESTION 181What is takt time for widgets if customer demand is 900, available production time is 450 minutes,utilization is 90% and efficiency is 120%?

A. 0.5 secondsB. 30 secondsC. 32.4 secondsD. 36 secondsE. 120 seconds



QUESTION 182Which of the following brings together stakeholders of a relatively small process to substantially improve it?

A. kaizen blitzB. keiretsuC. hoshin eventD. CPFRE. quick response program



QUESTION 183Which measure is used during the synchronization of a system?

A. efficiencyB. effectivenessC. takt timeD. throughput timeE. utilization

Correct Answer: C



QUESTION 184JIT uses what method to move items through the system?

A. pushB. pullC. backward schedulingD. forward schedulingE. available to promise



QUESTION 185Which of the following is waste?

A. storageII. inspectionsIII. queues

B. IC. I and IID. I and IIIE. IIIF. I, II and III



QUESTION 186Which product category is required by U.S. regulations to document the "chain of custody" or create apedigree?

A. shoesB. drugsC. automobilesD. food & beveragesE. toys



QUESTION 187

All of the following are benefits to businesses of instituting C-TPAT security guidelines EXCEPT:

A. fewer inspections for reduced border timeB. an assigned customs account managerC. use of C-TPAT certified providers requiredD. eligibility for account-based processesE. emphasis on self-policing rather than customs verification



QUESTION 188To participate in C-TPAT, companies must agree to do all of the following EXCEPT:

A. submit a supply chain security profile questionnaireB. develop and implement a program to enhance supply chain securityC. communicate C-TPAT guidelines to supply chain partnersD. assess the firm's own supply chain securityE. companies don't have an option since participation by businesses is mandatory



QUESTION 189Which of the following is a joint U.S. government and business endeavor to increase the security of supplychains and the U.S. borders?

A. C-TPATB. GRIC. Safe Harbor AgreementD. Data Protection ActE. SOX



QUESTION 190What does the second T in C-TPAT stand for?

A. tariffB. terrorismC. timeD. tradeE. trade-off

Correct Answer: B



QUESTION 191Which attribute refers to the supply chain's ability to respond to unplanned orders in larger or smalleramounts than expected or earlier than expected?

A. reliabilityB. responsivenessC. flexibilityD. costsE. asset management



QUESTION 192Which attribute refers to the amount of time required to complete a delivery?




QUESTION 193Which attribute is defined as the percentage of orders that are filled perfectly?




QUESTION 194Which SCOR performance attribute corresponds to the speed at which a supply chain provides products tothe customer?

A. supply chain reliabilityB. supply chain responsivenessC. supply chain flexibilityD. supply chain costsE. supply chain asset management



QUESTION 195All of the following are advantages of the SCOR model EXCEPT:

A. measures cross-functional, cross company supply chain processesB. formulas to calculate numerical values existC. metrics can be used to benchmark against industry-best or best-in-class performanceD. incorporates a balance scorecard perspectiveE. developed and refined by major firms



QUESTION 196What "cost" includes all those related expenses that must be added to the purchase price of materials tomake a fair comparison among similar components made in different locations?

A. supply chain costsB. full priceC. landed priceD. saturated priceE. transport price



QUESTION 197All of the following would typically be included in the "landed cost" EXCEPT:

A. purchase priceB. duties and taxesC. insuranceD. special packaging costE. incoming inspection



QUESTION 198How many broad perspectives does the balanced scorecard provide?

A. 2B. 4C. 8D. 16E. 25



QUESTION 199Which of the following formulas calculates "Perfect Order Fulfillment"?

A. total number of orders divided by total perfect ordersB. total perfect orders divided by total number of ordersC. order fulfillment process time divided by order fulfillment dwell timeD. order fulfillment dwell time divided by order fulfillment process timeE. total perfect orders divided by order fulfillment process time



QUESTION 200With respect to a perfect order, which of the following are true?

A. The product is considered perfect if the product ordered is the product provided II. A quantity isconsidered perfect if the product ordered is provided in the ordered quantity III. A delivery is consideredperfect if the location and delivery time ordered are met upon receipt

B. IC. IID. I and IIE. II and IIIF. I, II and III



QUESTION 201With respect to a perfect order, which of the following are true?

A. A customer is considered perfect if the product is delivered to the specified entity II. Documentation

supporting the order is considered perfect if it is all accurate, complete, and on-time III. A quantity isconsidered perfect if the product ordered is provided in the ordered quantity

B. IC. IID. IIIE. II and IIIF. I, II and III



QUESTION 202Upside supply chain flexibility is defined as the number of days required to achieve an unplannedsustainable _____ percent increase in quantities delivered.

A. 10B. 20C. 50D. 100E. 200



QUESTION 203Which of the following is defined as the time it takes for an investment made to flow back into a companyafter it has been spent for raw materials?

A. average actual cycle timeB. order fulfillment cycle timeC. cost of goods soldD. cash-to-cash cycle timeE. return on supply chain fixed assets



QUESTION 204What is the return on fixed assets if the supply revenue is $10,000,000, cost of goods sold is $8,000,000,supply chain management costs are $1,000,000 and supply chain fixed assets cost in $5,000,000?

A. 20%B. 40%C. 67.7%D. 100%E. 200%



QUESTION 205All of the following are used to calculate the Return on Supply Chain Fixed Assets EXCEPT:

A. supply chain revenueB. days of payables outstandingC. cost of goods soldD. supply chain management costsE. supply chain fixed assets



QUESTION 206What is the Cash-to-Cash Cycle Time if a supply chain has 50 days of supply, 30 days of salesoutstanding, and 35 days of payables?

A. 30 daysB. 40 daysC. 45 daysD. 50 daysE. 80 days



QUESTION 207All of the following are used to calculate the cost of goods sold EXCEPT:

A. direct materialB. direct laborC. contribution marginD. overhead


Explanation/Reference:answer is updated.

QUESTION 208What should be the primary driver of supply chain decisions?

A. aligning with the strategies of a channel master

B. serving the end-user customerC. serving the needs of the nucleus firmD. serving your own needs



QUESTION 209All of the following are significant changes required in supply chain processes to build a demand- drivenenterprise EXCEPT:

A. agilityB. access to real demand data (visibility)C. trust and collaboration among supply chain partnersD. creation of independent monthly forecasts for each supply chain partner



QUESTION 210All of the following are appropriate supply chain strategies for functional products EXCEPT:

A. high average utilization rate in manufacturingB. minimal inventory with high inventory turnsC. short lead time (consistent with low cost)D. suppliers chosen for cost and qualityE. modular design that postpones differentiation as long as possible



QUESTION 211White gym socks are what type of item?

A. staplesB. seasonalC. fashionD. innovativeE. none of the above



QUESTION 212All of the following are predictable obstacles to building a successful collaborative supply chain EXCEPT:

A. suboptimizationB. conflicting individual incentives and organizational goalsC. bottlenecks caused by weaker partnersD. trust-based relationshipsE. technology barriers



QUESTION 213All of the following are different levels of communication between partners EXCEPT:

A. transactional with information sharingB. shared processes and partnershipC. integrated ERP system within nucleus firmD. linked competitive vision and strategic allianceE. backward integration (mergers and acquisitions)



QUESTION 214The level of collaborative intensity of supply chain relationships is strongly influenced by all of these factorsrelated to the product or service EXCEPT:

A. postponementB. strategic importanceC. complexityD. number of suppliersE. uncertainty



QUESTION 215All of the following are common reasons to alter a supply chain strategy EXCEPT:

A. change in the marketB. change in the business directionC. anticipated change in the marketD. change in 3PL

Correct Answer: DSection: (none)

Explanation


QUESTION 216All of the following are components of the "three Vs" of supply chain management EXCEPT:

A. visibilityB. vitalityC. velocityD. variability



QUESTION 217Which of the following is true about supply chain management (SCM)?

A. no organizations have a SCM departmentB. few organizations have a SCM departmentC. most organizations have a SCM departmentD. all organizations have a SCM department



QUESTION 218Which of the following corresponds to an item of high strategic importance that is difficult to obtain?

A. commodity materialsB. leveragable materialsC. bottleneck materialsD. direct or core competency materials



QUESTION 219All of the following are predictable obstacles to building a successful collaborative supply chain EXCEPT:

A. culture conflictsB. partners underestimate benefitsC. individual incentives naturally aligned with organizational goalsD. technology barriersE. power-based relationships



QUESTION 220Which type of collaboration below entails partners collaborating in specific processes such as design,typically defined by long term contracts?

A. transactional with information sharingB. shared processes and partnershipC. linked competitive vision and strategic allianceD. backward integration (mergers and acquisitions)



QUESTION 221Which of the following is most often the primary sourcing consideration for products or services?

A. strategic importance of the product or serviceB. complexity of the itemC. number of suppliersD. uncertainty


Explanation/Reference:Explanation:Module 2: Building Operations , Planning and Logiustics Empty Module 2: Managing Customer andSupplier Relationship

QUESTION 222What is the typical downstream order of supply chain partners?

A. manufacturers, wholesalers, distributors, retailersB. manufacturers, distributors, wholesalers, retailersC. distributors, manufacturers, wholesalers, retailersD. distributors, wholesalers, manufacturers, retailers



QUESTION 223What marketing philosophy puts the customer first?

A. Lean Six SigmaB. 4Ps

C. Customer Relationship ManagementD. Customer Service Management



QUESTION 224What approach involves the collection and analysis of information designed for sales and marketingdecision support to understand and serve existing and potential customer needs?

A. Lean Six SigmaB. 4PsC. Customer Relationship ManagementD. Customer Service Management



QUESTION 225SRM is applicable to which supply chain partners?

A. all of a business' suppliersB. some of a business' suppliersC. all of a business' customersD. some of a business' customersE. all of a business' customers and suppliers


Explanation/Reference:updated.

QUESTION 226Which of the following are shifts in today's business culture resulting from a greater emphasis onrelationships with customers and suppliers?

A. Greater focus on customersII. Greater emphasis on integration both internally and externally III. Greater focus on mass marketing

B. I onlyC. II onlyD. I and IIE. I and IIIF. I, II and III



Explanation:

QUESTION 227For many products and services, what is the main differentiator given consumers' expectations areconsistently high, and the market in general meets these expectations?

A. serviceB. priceC. qualityD. speed



QUESTION 228When can value be added to a product or service?

A. during the design phaseB. prior to the start of manufacturing or providing the serviceC. anywhere in the supply chainD. depends on service offered after purchase



QUESTION 229What is a short-term alliance between independent organizations called that may potentially define a long-term relationship to design, produce, and distribute a product?

A. agile organizationB. product-driven organizationC. strategic allianceD. virtual organization



QUESTION 230Which of the following defines the values of the new CRM/SRM culture?

A. new business organizationB. new job definitionsC. new management structureD. new business vision and mission statement

Correct Answer: DSection: (none)

Explanation


QUESTION 231As business organizations shift from task-focused centers to more collaborative virtual organizations,information systems need to do all of the following EXCEPT:

A. communicate with other partner systemsB. be accessible 100% of the timeC. be more flexibleD. do more in general



QUESTION 232All of the following are one of marketing's 4Ps EXCEPT:

A. productB. priceC. placementD. promotionE. purchase



QUESTION 233All of the following are types of customers EXCEPT:

A. noncustomerB. vulnerable customerC. loyal customerD. past due customerE. lost customer



QUESTION 234What typically happens to the expenses of marketing and sales as the relationship of a lifetime customerdevelops?

A. increasesB. decreases

C. remains constantD. it depends



QUESTION 235What typically happens with respect to satisfying a lifetime customer as the relationship develops?

A. it becomes easier to satisfy a lifetime customerB. it becomes harder to satisfy a lifetime customerC. it requires about the same effortD. it is hard to tell



QUESTION 236What typically happens to revenue and profit opportunities as the relationship of a lifetime customerdevelops?

A. increasesB. decreasesC. remains constantD. it is hard to predict



QUESTION 237Lifetime customer relationships enhance profit in all of the following ways EXCEPT:

A. lifetime customers lower total marketing costsB. it becomes increasingly easier to satisfy lifetime customersC. lifetime customers buy a narrower product lineD. lifetime customers increase revenue and profit opportunities



QUESTION 238All of the following are characteristics of a customer-focused business EXCEPT:

A. are easy to do business with

B. add value to their products or servicesC. are innovative in all aspects of their businessD. design all business contact points from the perspective of the customerE. protect detailed insights about customers as highly valued trade secrets



QUESTION 239What is one of the goals and benefits of CRM?

A. customer visibilityB. customer velocityC. greater operating efficienciesD. increased brand awareness in the market



QUESTION 240Creating a customer-focused business includes all of the following steps EXCEPT:

A. implement CRM programB. align business to customer focusC. redefine company missionD. create customer mapE. identify customer needs



QUESTION 241What does cross-selling involve?

A. increasing the volume of the customer's purchasesB. increasing the value of the customer's purchasesC. transferring the customer to more expensive and more profitable itemsD. encouraging a customer to purchase additional, often complimentary, products and services



QUESTION 242

What does up-selling involve?

A. increasing the volume of the customer's purchasesB. increasing the value of the customer's purchasesC. transferring the customer to more expensive and more profitable itemsD. encouraging a customer to purchase additional, often complimentary products and services



QUESTION 243What is the starting point of a product when a customer-focused strategy is pursued?

A. customer needB. technologyC. marketing drivenD. product development



QUESTION 244Customer service management is comprised of four steps which include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. developing response proceduresB. developing core competenciesC. developing customer service management strategyD. developing metricsE. developing infrastructure for implementing response procedures



QUESTION 245Strategically determined pricing is based on all of the following EXCEPT:

A. appearanceB. perceived valueC. competitionD. brand identity



QUESTION 246All of the following are the customer's perspective of an effective channel EXCEPT:

A. completeB. secure and error freeC. dispersedD. accessibleE. flexible



QUESTION 247From a CRM perspective, which of marketing's four Ps would correspond to call centers, websites thatincorporate live chat or email and online libraries?

A. productB. priceC. promotionD. placement



QUESTION 248From the customer's perspective, all of the following are characteristics of an effective channel EXCEPT:

A. directB. convenientC. control and consistencyD. fastE. flexible



QUESTION 249All of the following are marketing activities related to promotion EXCEPT:

A. consumer research and market analysisB. segmentation of customersC. call centersD. planning, creation, and placement of advertisingE. creation of brand image

Correct Answer: C



QUESTION 250The product life cycle begins with which step?

A. declineB. developmentC. growthD. introductionE. maturity



QUESTION 251During the introduction stage, sales of the product are ________ and advertising costs are ________.

A. low, lowB. low, highC. high, highD. high, low



QUESTION 252All of the following are reasons why sales begin to decline EXCEPT:

A. customers become aware of the product and its benefitsB. market becomes saturatedC. product becomes technologically outdatedD. customers' tastes change



QUESTION 253Which phase of the product life cycle is typically most profitable?

A. developmentB. introductionC. growthD. maturity



QUESTION 254Which of the following is not a CRM activity related to prospective customers?

A. market researchB. manage customer information to improve customer careC. audience segmentationD. identify the right promotional messageE. identifying the right contact channel for each segment



QUESTION 255After a customer has discontinued service, how long should the company wait to re- establishcommunication?

A. less than a weekB. 2 weeksC. 4 weeksD. never contact again



QUESTION 256What is the process called of customers changing their buying preferences because they find better and/orcheaper products and services elsewhere?

A. churnB. vulnerability analysisC. win-back programD. fickle



QUESTION 257CRM loyalty programs are designed with all of the following considerations in mind EXCEPT:

A. customer segments and their corresponding needs

B. structure of program offeringC. communication concerning program offeringD. maximize short-term profits



QUESTION 258CRM loyalty programs are designed with all of the following considerations in mind EXCEPT:

A. desired customer behaviorB. positioning -- implications of loyalty programsC. cost and benefit structure of program elementsD. service requirements of offering



QUESTION 259Companies are beginning to define customers by actual buying behaviors. This has led to segmentation ofcustomers into all of the following strategies EXCEPT:

A. customer awarenessB. customer needsC. customer technical expertiseD. customer value to the business



QUESTION 260With respect to the purchase of commodities, what typically is the order winner?

A. priceB. qualityC. deliveryD. serviceE. flexibility



QUESTION 261

As reported by retail customers, what is the most influential factor affecting their decision to purchase aproduct?

A. actual priceB. bundle of services surrounding the productC. product qualityD. anticipated product life



QUESTION 262Which source would most likely be best for determining purchase frequency and volume?

A. distribution pointsB. purchased dataC. sales representativesD. service representativesE. transaction records



QUESTION 263Which source would most likely be best for determining how purchases are financed?




QUESTION 264Which source would most likely be best for identifying concerns customers have on making a purchase?




QUESTION 265Which source would most likely be more useful in identifying and acquiring new customers than inmanaging relationships with existing customers?




QUESTION 266Which source would most likely provide information about how customers would like to use currentproducts?




QUESTION 267Which source would most likely provide information about how products or services are being usedcurrently?




QUESTION 268Which source would most likely be helpful in gauging customer attitudes toward the company?

A. distribution points

B. purchased dataC. sales representativesD. service representativesE. transaction records



QUESTION 269Data concerning customers can be derived from all of the following sources EXCEPT:

A. transaction recordsB. service representativesC. purchased dataD. distribution pointsE. shipping and receiving


Explanation/Reference:Explanation:Module 4: Using Information Technology to Enable Supply chain management

QUESTION 270What is the primary goal of utilizing technology in the supply chain?

A. decreased costsB. improved coordinationC. increased revenueD. decreased lead timeE. improved quality



QUESTION 271Which U.S. Customs regulation gives priority customs clearance to businesses that have tighter supplychain security?

A. Priority Clearance ActB. C-TPATC. EDIFACTD. Safe Harbor Act E. AIDC



Explanation:


QUESTION 272What types of tasks does a client perform in a client/server architecture?

A. local, low data demand tasksB. centralized, low data demand tasksC. local, high data demand tasksD. centralized, high data demand tasks



QUESTION 273What types of tasks does a server perform in a client/server architecture?

A. local, low data demand tasksB. centralized, low data demand tasksC. local, high data demand tasksD. centralized, high data demand tasks



QUESTION 274Which type of network is the least expensive to setup?

A. LANB. WANC. wireless networkD. VPNE. Intranet/Extranet



QUESTION 275Which type of network provides a low-cost Internet-based secure transmission method?

A. LANB. WANC. wireless networkD. VPNE. Intranet/Extranet



QUESTION 276Which language is used to design a database?

A. data manipulation languageB. data definition languageC. structured query languageD. java programming languageE. data dictionary



QUESTION 277What is the most common language used by end users to access the contents of a database?




QUESTION 278What is used to track all of the properties of each data element in a database?




QUESTION 279What is the most common type of database?

A. hierarchical databasesB. network databasesC. relational databasesD. object-oriented databases


Explanation/Reference:Explanation:Managing the Supply Chain: The Definitive Guide for the Business professional

QUESTION 280What is the process of finding the best system-wide strategy called?

A. heuristic suboptimizationB. global optimizationC. supply chain managementD. theory of constraints



QUESTION 281Designing the best system-wide or globally optimal, integrated supply chain solution is difficult for all of thefollowing reasons EXCEPT:

A. monthly forecasts are always wrongB. supply chains are dynamic, evolving over timeC. systems vary over time in response to environmental changesD. supply chains are complex networks of facilities dispersed over a large geographyE. different facilities in the supply chain frequently have conflicting objectives



QUESTION 282Which of the following decisions falls under the strategic level?

A. Inventory policiesII. Lead time quotationsIII. Number of warehouses

B. I, II and IIIC. I and III

D. IIE. IIIF. I and II



QUESTION 283Forecasts are most accurate for _______?

A. aggregate demandB. dependent demandC. independent demandD. individual end items



QUESTION 284Which pricing strategy will help diminish the bullwhip effect?

A. everyday low pricing strategyB. seasonal promotionsC. periodic price promotionsD. quarterly sales quotasE. variable pricing



QUESTION 285Which phase of the product life cycle would most benefit from causal forecasting methods?

A. developmentB. introductionC. growthD. maturityE. decline



QUESTION 286

All of the following are suggestions for reducing the bullwhip effect EXCEPT:

A. reducing uncertaintyB. increasing customer demand variabilityC. reducing lead timesD. engaging in strategic partnerships



QUESTION 287What impact does the bullwhip effect have on safety stock if the same service level is desired?

A. It forces an organization to carry more safety stock.B. It allows an organization to reduce safety stock.C. The bullwhip effect has no impact on safety stock.D. The impact of the bullwhip effect depends on the industry.



QUESTION 288Timely, accurate supply chain information helps accomplish all of the following EXCEPT:

A. reduce variabilityB. improved forecastingC. better coordinationD. improved product designsE. react to supply chain problems quickly



QUESTION 289All of the following are reasons why firms use batch ordering EXCEPT:

A. firms facing fixed ordering costs may need to order in batches to minimize these costsB. firms may need to order in batches to minimize transportation costsC. firms may need to order in batches to achieve quarterly or yearly sales quotasD. firms may need to order in batches to minimize raw material inventories



QUESTION 290Supply chain management revolves around the efficient integration of all of the following EXCEPT:

A. warehousesB. employeesC. suppliersD. storesE. manufacturers



QUESTION 291All of the following are effects of a pull-based supply chain EXCEPT:

A. decreased inventory at retailersB. larger and more variably sized production batchesC. decreased lead timesD. decreased variability



QUESTION 292A higher demand uncertainty leads to a preference for managing the supply chain based on ______.

A. long-term forecastsB. realized demandC. materials requirement planningD. master schedulingE. project management



QUESTION 293Which of the following is associated with products in the grocery industry?

A. high demand uncertainty and economies of scale importantB. high demand uncertainty and economies of scale unimportantC. low demand uncertainty and economies of scale importantD. low demand uncertainty and economies of scale unimportant



QUESTION 294Which of the following is a reason why optimizing supply chain performance is difficult?

A. trading partners have similar objectivesB. tradeoffs are practically non-existentC. inherent certainty of demandD. inherent certainty of supplyE. dynamic nature of the supply chain



QUESTION 295Which of the following is a reason why optimizing supply chain performance is difficult?

A. trading partners have similar objectivesB. tradeoffs must be taken into accountC. inherent certainty of demandD. inherent certainty of supplyE. static nature of the supply chain



QUESTION 296The design of the supply chain typically needs to be reevaluated when changes occur in any of thefollowing EXCEPT:

A. demand patternsB. product mixC. production processesD. employee schedulingE. sourcing strategies



QUESTION 297Various researchers report that aggregating data into about 150 to 200 data points results in no more thanwhat percent error in the estimation of total transportation costs?

A. 1 percentB. 5 percent

C. 10 percentD. 20 percentE. 25 percent


Explanation/Reference:answer is up-to-date.

QUESTION 298Which of the following freight rate types represents standard rates that can be found for almost all productsor commodities shipped?

A. classB. commodityC. exceptionD. long haul



QUESTION 299With respect to LTL, all of the following are basic types of freight rates EXCEPT:

A. classB. commodityC. exceptionD. long haul



QUESTION 300Which of the following ratings or classes result in the highest relative charge for transporting a commodity?

A. 35B. 100C. 150D. 400



QUESTION 301All of the factors are used to determine a product''s specific class EXCEPT:

A. product densityB. ease or difficulty of handling and transporting productC. mileage traveledD. liability for damage



QUESTION 302If for a product, the annual flow through the warehouse is 1000 units, the inventory turnover ratio is 10.0and each unit takes 10 square feet of floor space, what is the required space in the warehouse devoted tothis product?

A. 10 square feetB. 100 square feetC. 1000 square feetD. 2000 square feetE. 6000 square feet




QUESTION 303Which type of model is useful for characterizing the performance of a particular configuration but not fordetermining an effective configuration from a large set of potential configuration?

A. exact mathematical optimization modelB. heuristic algorithmC. simulation modelD. conceptual modelE. graphical model



QUESTION 304How is the amount of variability in customer demand most often measured?

A. sample mean

B. sample standard deviationC. trimmed meanD. proportion of on-time deliveryE. range



QUESTION 305What portion of the supply chain predominantly focuses on service level?

A. pushB. pullC. push-pullD. pull-pushE. pull-push boundary



QUESTION 306In the process of cross-docking, warehouses rarely keep items for more than______.

A. an hourB. 10-15 hoursC. 40 hoursD. 100 hours



QUESTION 307What typically happens to safety stock, if a higher service level is desired?

A. safety stock decreasesB. safety stock remains constantC. safety stock increasesD. there is no relationship between safety stock and service level



QUESTION 308

Forecasts for which of the following would tend to be most accurate?

A. Goodyear model P205/65R-15 T VSBB. all Goodyear passenger tiresC. Goodyear touring tiresD. Goodyear tires for BuicksE. rubber needed to make Goodyear tires



QUESTION 309A survey of 3PL providers identified characteristics critical to the success of a 3PL agreement. What wasthe most important characteristic identified?

A. customer orientation of the providerB. reliability of the providerC. flexibility of the providerD. cost savings generated from the relationship



QUESTION 310The variation in orders placed by retailers to suppliers in traditional retailer-supplier relationship is typically__________ the variation in demand seen by retailers.

A. far greater thanB. far less thanC. equal toD. alternating between being less than and greater than



QUESTION 311When establishing a retailer-supplier partnership, what typically happens to the float period?

A. decreasesB. increasesC. remains constantD. initially decreases, then increases


Explanation/Reference:corrected.

QUESTION 312All of the following are challenges associated with a retailer-supplier partnership (RSP) EXCEPT:

A. RSPs typically necessitates deployment of advanced technology.B. RSPs require a great deal of trust.C. RSPs often demand the supplier take less responsibility.D. RSPs often increase the expenses of suppliers.



QUESTION 313What should happen to service levels when demand information is shared with trading partners to reduceforecast uncertainties?

A. service levels should decreaseB. service levels should increaseC. service levels should be unaffectedD. service levels should initially increase, then decrease



QUESTION 314Under what condition does the costs associated with the market mediation function occur?

A. when supply is greater than demandB. when supply equals demandC. when supply is less than demandD. when supply does not equal to demand



QUESTION 315Thinking in terms of which of the following promotes the broadest look at a company's offerings and itscustomers?

A. qualityB. costC. perceived valueD. speedE. value



QUESTION 316What impact does the proliferation of product and service options have on forecasting customer demandfor a specific model?

A. it makes forecasting easierB. it has no impact on forecasting since the volume remains unchangedC. it makes forecasting more difficultD. the demand for a specific model has no impact on forecasting



QUESTION 317All of the following are reasons why companies are adding more services around their products EXCEPT:

A. commoditization of productsB. need to get closer to the customerC. desire of companies to compete on priceD. increase in IT capabilities that make this offering possible



QUESTION 318If there are 400 units available for sale and the relationship between demand and price can be expressedby the equation: Demand = 1000 - 0.5* Price which of the following revenue management strategies willtypically yield the greatest total revenue?

A. set price at a single valueB. have a two tier pricing strategyC. have a three tier pricing strategyD. have a pricing strategy with as many tiers as there are market segments that are price ortime sensitive



QUESTION 319Which formula below is used to calculate cash-to-cash cycle time?

A. days of outstanding salesB. inventory days of supply plus days of sales outstanding

C. inventory days of supply plus days of sales outstanding minus average payment period formaterialsD. inventory days of supply minus average payment period for materialsE. days of sales outstanding minus inventory days of supply



QUESTION 320Which measure below defines the number of days required to achieve an unplanned, sustainable 20percent increase in production?

A. delivery performance to requestB. upside production flexibilityC. supply chain response timeD. order fulfillment lead timeE. total inventory days of supply



QUESTION 321All of the following are effects of e-markets on suppliers EXCEPT:

A. allow suppliers to reduce marketing and sales costsB. allow relatively large suppliers to expand their horizonsC. allow suppliers in fragmented industries to access spot marketsD. allow suppliers to better use their available capacities and inventories



QUESTION 322Many startup e-markets offer all of the following EXCEPT:

A. serving as an intermediary between buyers and suppliersB. conducting the auctionC. identifying, qualifying, and supporting suppliersD. decreasing the number of suppliers involved in the bidding eventE. identifying saving opportunities



QUESTION 323What type of e-market would involve a single, typically large, buyer?

A. publicB. consortiumC. privateD. A or BE. all of the above



QUESTION 324All of the following are ways e-markets have affected buyers EXCEPT:

A. increased market reachB. better collaboration with suppliersC. clear direction about the type of marketplace a firm should compete withinD. remove inefficiencies from their supply chains



QUESTION 325All of the following describe indirect materials EXCEPT:

A. referred to as MROB. part of finished productC. not part of the manufacturing processD. essential for the business to operate



QUESTION 326Which production scheduling technique is used with the third stage of SAP's Stages of Excellence (i.e.,integrated internally)?

A. basic MRPB. no planningC. advanced planning systems (APS)D. constraint-based planning



QUESTION 327Which production scheduling technique is used with the fourth stage of SAP's Stages of Excellence (i.e.,multi-enterprise integrated)?

A. basic MRPB. no planningC. advanced planning systems (APS)D. constraint-based planning



QUESTION 328Which group of users are most impacted by a DSS?

A. all end-usersB. small group of decision makersC. most middle managersD. executives



QUESTION 329Which group of users are most impacted by an ERP system?

A. all end-usersB. small group of decision makersC. most middle managersD. executives



QUESTION 330Which of the following do many practitioners associate with the term "collaboration" as applied to supplychains?

A. information sharingB. collaborative planningC. joint decision makingD. supply chain restructuring

Correct Answer: A



QUESTION 331All of the following are dimensions of flexibility EXCEPT:

A. product mixB. design changeoverC. product pricingD. product volumeE. rerouting



QUESTION 332All of the following are reasons why a top-down approach is a necessity to be effective at the supply chainlevel EXCEPT:

A. avoiding local optimumsB. interdependence of departments and businessesC. one-way information sharingD. knowledge sharing needed to solve problems



QUESTION 333What term is used to describe the basic product or service, the supply chain that delivers it, plus otherfeatures and factors that go along with the product or service?

A. chain productB. extended productC. functional productD. mature productE. global product



QUESTION 334Which of the following are extended product factors?

A. dealer qualityII. after sale service

III. warrantyB. IC. IID. IIIE. II and IIIF. I, II and III



QUESTION 335Which of the following are extended product factors?

A. financing for purchaseII. ease of doing businessIII. product returns

B. IC. IID. IIIE. II and IIIF. I, II and III



QUESTION 336Which of the following terms emphasizes financial success and strategic positioning?

A. supply chainB. value chainC. product chainD. profit chain



QUESTION 337If a company targets cost reduction across the supply chain with benefits shared among partners, whichstage of supply chain management capability would it be at with respect to removing cost from the supplychain?

A. dysfunctionalB. infrastructureC. cost reductionD. collaborationE. strategic contribution



QUESTION 338All of the following are tasks required to better manage supply chains EXCEPT:

A. designing supply chains for strategic advantageB. implementing collaborative relationshipsC. develop software systemsD. manage supply chain informationE. removing cost from the supply chain



QUESTION 339What type of supply chain is required for innovative products?

A. responsiveB. efficientC. availableD. strategicE. collaborative



QUESTION 340All of the following are attributes of economic difference factors EXCEPT:

A. per capita income differencesB. different financial capabilitiesC. inadequate skills and number of workersD. no common currencyE. missing natural resource requirements



QUESTION 341All of the following are attributes of geographic difference factors EXCEPT:

A. trading blocsB. physical distanceC. poor access/transportationD. adverse or different climate



QUESTION 342What does the "A" in the CAGE framework stand for?

A. administrativeB. accountableC. activityD. applicationE. automated



QUESTION 343What does the "G" in the CAGE framework stand for?

A. generalB. gainC. geographicD. globalizationE. growth



QUESTION 344All of the following are independent demand items EXCEPT:

A. component partsB. finished goodsC. parts for testingD. service parts



QUESTION 345Which of the following corresponds to the area labeled "A" in the House of Quality shown below?

A. "how" or product/service featuresB. "how much"C. "what" or customer requirementsD. "why" or competitive assessmentE. correlation matrix



QUESTION 346Which of the following corresponds to the area labeled "D" in the House of Quality shown below?




QUESTION 347Which of the following corresponds to the area labeled "E" in the House of Quality shown below?




QUESTION 348Which type of product or process development project is it when Subway introduces a new sandwich withham and turkey?

A. enhanced existing or derivative productsB. next generation product or new platformC. radical breakthroughD. research/advanced developmentE. partnership projects



QUESTION 349What does the "I" in DMAIC stand for?

A. implementB. improveC. independentD. informationE. integrate



QUESTION 350What does the "P" in PDCA stand for?

A. partnershipB. performanceC. phasedD. planE. process




PassGuide.CSCP 350,qa - GRATIS EXAM...2015/03/27 · CSCP Certified Supply Chain Professional Modified few questions, fixed few spelling mistakes and typos. I have correct many of

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