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SECTION ONE GENERAL KNOWLEDGE AND CURRENT AFFAIRS) 1. Which of the following Acts formally introduced the principle of elections for the first time in

India? a) The Indian Councils Act, 1909 b) Government of India Act, 1919 c) The Government of India Act, 1935 d) India’s Independence Act, 1947 2. Which of the following pairs is correct? Committee Commissions Related to 1. P. Rama Rao Committee : To suggest measure for improving the

functioning of DRDO 2. RC Bhargava Committee : Recommend measures to tighten government

control cover the IIM and their board of governor 3. Lingdoh Committee : Recommendations on students’ union

elections a) Only 1 and 2 b) Only 2 and 3 c) Only 3 and 1 d) 1, 2 and 3 3. Who among the following persons has been appointed as the Deputy Speaker of 15th Lok

Sabha? a) Meira Kumar b) Charanjit Singh Atwal c) Karia Munda d) None of these 4. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code give below the lists: List-I (Organization) List-II (Head) A. NASSCOM 1. Ashwani Kumar B. RBI 2. Mr. Venu Srinivasan C. CII 3. Dr. Ganesh Natarajan D. CBI 4. Duvvuri Sabbarao Codes: A B C D a) 4 3 2 1 b) 4 3 1 2 c) 3 4 1 2 d) 3 4 2 1 5. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code give below the lists

List-I (Organization/Centers) List-II (Locations) A. High Altitude Warfare School 1. Chennai B. Indian Air force Training Center 2. Gulmarg C. Indian Defence College 3. New Delhi D. Institute of National Integration 4. Pune Codes: A B C D a) 2 1 4 3 b) 1 2 3 4 c) 1 2 3 4 d) 2 1 4 3 6. Recently two leading banks have sought permission from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to

buy gold from retail investors. Which are those two banks? a) ICICI & HDFC b) SBI & HDFC c) SBI & HSBC d) None of these 7. Which among the following state became India’s Ist Carbon Free State? a) Himanchal Pradesh b) Uttarakhand c) Pondicherry d) Andaman Nicobar 8. Which of the following is also ‘philosopher wool’? a) Zinc sulphide b) Zinc oxide c) Calcium carbide d) Cupric chloride 9. The Government of India has decided to declare the Ganga river a “national river” and set up a

high power Ganga River Basin Authority (GRBA) to stop pollution and degradation. The Authority will be chaired by:

a) President of India b) Prime Minister of India c) Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission d) Chief Justice of India 10. How many women Member of Parliaments got elected in the 15th Lok Sabha? a) 59 b) 79 c) 48 d) 69 11. The flight test of ASTRA Beyond Visual Range Air to Air missile was recently carried out

successfully. What does Beyond Visual Range means here? a) capable of engaging at ranges beyond 37 Kilometers b) capable of engaging at ranges beyond 20 Kilometers c) capable of engaging at ranges beyond 39 Kilometers d) None of these 12. Which one of the following is not correctly matched? Law Schools of India Vice Chancellor/Director a) NLSIU, Bangalore : Dr. R. Venkata Rao b) NLIU, Bhopal : S. S. Singh c) NALSAR, Hyderabad : M. P. Singh d) RGNUL : Dr. Gurjeet Singh 13. Which among the following countries recently approved a law to allow voting through mobile

Phone? a) Switzeland b) Sweden c) Finland d) Estonia 14. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List-I (Sportsperson) List-II (Games) A. Gaganjeet Bhullar 1. Golf B. Neha Agrawal 2. Table Tennis C. Yuki Bhamri 3. Tennis D. Baskaran Adhiban 4. Chess Codes: A B C D a) 2 1 4 3 b) 2 1 3 4 c) 1 2 4 3 d) 1 2 3 4 15. Author of the book, “The Clash of civilization” recently died. Identify him. a) Jim Collin b) Michael Hammer c) Peter Sense d) Samuel Huntington

16. Which of the following monuments is the first monument in the country to be documented by the high definition survey technology, involving laser scanner (With this, archeologists will be able to record every stone, artifact, design of the complex for good)?

a) Kutub Minar b) Taj Mahal c) India Gate d) Humayun’s Tomb 17. In which of the following State, first Coastal Police Station is set up? a) Kerala b) Gujrat c) Tamil Nadu d) Maharashtra 18. Which of the following Parliamentary committee was probing the cash-for-votes scandal related

to the trust vote in the Lok Sabha? a) V. Kishore Chandra Deo Parliamentary Committee b) Ramkrishnan Rao Parliamentry Committee c) Samir Dutta parliamentary Committee d) K. Swami parliamentary committee 19. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List-I (Moon Mission) List-II (Country) A. SMART-1 1. China B. Chandrayaan-1 2. United State C. Selene 3. India D. Apolllo 4. European space Agency E. Chang’e-1 5. Japan Codes: A B C D E a) 4 3 1 2 5 b) 2 3 1 4 5 c) 2 3 5 4 1 d) 4 3 5 2 1 20. Consider the following pairs related to the theme of World Development Report. World

Development Report Theme 1. World Development Report 2008: Reshaping Economic Geography 2. World Development Report 2009: Agriculture for Development Which of the above pairs is/are correct? a) Only 1 b) Only 2 c) both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 21. Which of the following kings of the Slave dynasty breathed his last as a result of a fall from his

horse while playing polo at Lahore? a) Qutb-ud-din Aibak b) Iltutmish c) Balban d) Bahramshah 22. The Central Government has recently accorded classical language status to which of the

following languages? a) Kannada and Telugu b) Kannada and Malayalam c) Tamil and Malayalam d) Tamil and Telgu 23. Which of the following is the oldest Stock market in India? a) Bombay b) Madras c) Calcutta d) Delhi 24. Consider the following statements regarding The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA):

1. The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) is an international organization that seeks to promote the peaceful use of nuclear energy and to inhibit its use for military purposes. 2. The IAEA has its headquarters in Vienna, Austria. 3. The organization and its Director General, Mohamed ElBaradei, were jointly awarded the

Nobel Peace Prize 2005. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 and 3 (c) Both 3 and 1 (d) 1, 2 and 3 25. Kudankulam Nuclear Plant is a nuclear power station currently under construction in

Kudankulam in the Tirunelveli district of the southern Indian state of Tamil Nadu. Which of the following countries is supporting in this nuclear power plant project?

(a) France (b) Germany (c) United Kingdom (d) Russia 26. Which of the following cities will be the first city in India to get Compact Fluorescent Lamp

(CFLs) at Rs., 15- arguably the cheapest in the world under the Bachat Lamp Yojana: (a) Vishakapatnam (b) Surat (c) Hydrabad (d) Chennai

27. In which year the Youth Parliament competition was launched at national level? (a) 1973 (b) 1982 (c) 1988 (d) 1968 28. Who among the following computer scientists is popular as ‘the father of the Internet’? (a) Robert Kahn (b) Vint Cerf (c) Gary Hamel (d) Gerald Estrin 29. What is the minimum age required to avail the benefits of reverse mortgage loan? (a) Above 60 years (b) Above 62 years (c) Above 58 years (d) No age limit 30. What is the principle behind the operation of magnifying glass? (a) Reflection (b) Refraction (c) Total internal reflection (d) Scattering 31. The country’s first poly silicon solar project, which also happens to be the largest integrated

solar Power complex of the world will be located at: (a) Haldia (b) Mumbai (c) Chennai (d) Kerala 32. Consider the following statements about Ramon Magsaysay Award: 1. The Ramon Magsaysay Award was established by the trustees of the Rockefeller

Brothers Fund based in New York City. 2. The Ramon Magsaysay Award is often considered Asia’s Nobel Prize. 3. This award is given in six categories. 4. Praksh Amte along with his wife Mandakini has been chosen for this award in the

category of community leader in this year. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only 1, 2, 3 (b) Only 2, 3, 4 (c) Only 1, 3, 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 33. Choose the correct sequence of oil produced countries in the descending order: (a) Saudi Arabia, United States, Russia, Iran (b) Saudi Arabia, Russia, United States, Iran (c) Saudi Arabia, Iran, United States, Russia (d) Saudi Arabia, Russia, Iran, United State 34. In India, Tuberculosis Research Center (TRC) has successfully completed the first phase of

clinical trials for a Vaccine to prevent AIDS under the support of National AIDS Control Organisation (NACO) and ICMR, Tuberculosis Research Center TRC is located at:

(a) Delhi (b) Mumbai (c) Chennai (d) Hyderabad 35. Recently ‘Great Prophet III’ is in the news for: (a) an Iranian missile test and war games exercise (b) a Pakistan missle test and war game exercise (c) a counter terrorist operation in Afganistan (d) a counter terrorist operation in Iraq 36. In which of the following, FDI up to 100% is allowed in India? (a) In Greenfield airport projects (b) In power trading and processing (c) Coal and lignite mining for captive Consumption (d) All the above 37. Who among the following persons is the country’s longest serving Chief Justice of India? (a) Y.V. Chandarachud (b) A.S.Anand (c) P.N. Bhagwati (d) MN Venkatachaliah 38. “Knol – Unit of Knowledge” is created by: (a) Google (b) Microsoft (c) Wikipedia (d) Apple 39. The pillar like structure of Banyan tree is a modification of which root? (a) Parasitic Root (b) Assimilator Root (c) Stilt Root (d) Prop Root 40. Which among the following covers the highest percentage of forest area in the world? (a) Temperate Coniferous forests (b) Temperate Deciduous forests (c) Tropical Monsoon forests (d) Tropical Rain forests 41. A hydrogen-inflated polythene balloon is released from the surface of the earth. As the balloon

rises to an altitude up in the atmosphere, it will (a) decrease in size (b) flatten into disc-like shape

(c) increase in size (d) maintain the same size and shape 42. Diffusion of light in the atmosphere takes place due to (a) Carbon dioxide (b) Dust Particles (c) Helium (d) Water Vapors 43. Only three Vedas were considered canonical. Point the odd one out. (a) Rigveda (b) Atharva Veda (c) Sama Veda (d) Yajurveda 44. Ms. Neerja Chaudhary (b) business journalism (c) sports journalism (d) None of these 45. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? Railway Zone Headquarters (a) North Eastern Railway Gorakhpur (b) South Eastern Railway Bhudaneshwar (c) Eastern Railway Kolkata (d) South East Central Railway Bilaspur 46. Recently Bangladesh elected a new Prime Minister. She belongs to which party? (a) Bangladesh National Party (b) Bangladesh Congress Party (c) Awami League (d) Sheikh Mujbur Rahman Party 47. Consider the following statements regarding “Malabar 2009”. Which among the following

statements is true? (a) Malabar 2009 is a bilateral exercise of US and Indian Navy taking place on US Coast line. (b) Malabar 2009 is a trilateral exercise of US, Indian Navy and Japan at east of Okinawa

islands Japan (c) Malabar 2009 is scheduled to be held in September 2009 (d) None of these 48. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? Portfolio Name of the Cabinet Minister (15th Lock Sabha) (a) Minister of Power Sri Virbhadra Singh (b) Minister of External Affairs Sri S.M. Krishna (c) Minister of Urban Development Sri S. Jaipal Reddy (d) Minister of Defense Sri A.K. Antony 49. Which of the following metals was not known to the Indus Valley people? (a) tin (b) copper (c) iron (d) lead 50. Who was the Greek Ambassador to India who has written Indica? (a) Antiochus Theos (b) Antigonus Gonatus (c) Seleucus Nikator (d) Megasthenese

Section Two 51. The cost price of 8 books is equal to the selling price of 6 books. Find the gain % (a) 33 1/3 (b) 30% (c) 33% (d) 32% 52. 18 buckets of water fill a tank when the capacity of each bucket is 9 litres. How many buckets

will be needed to fill same tank if the capacity of the bucket si 13.5 litres? (a) 13.5 (b) 24 (c) 12 (d) 26 53. Three men start together to travel the same way around a circle track of 11 km. Their speed are

4, 5 ½ and 8 km per hour respectively. When will they meet at the starting point? (a) 22 hrs (b) 12 hrs (c) 11 hrs (d) 44 hrs 54. In a factory, the average salary of the employees is Rs. 70. If the average salary of 12 officers

is Rs. 400 and that of the remaining employees is Rs. 60, then the number of employees are: (a) 396 (b) 408 (c) 400 (d) 416 55. Rs. 2,100 was divided between 3,000 men and women so that each man got Rs. 1 and each

woman 50 paise. How many men were there? (a) 700 (b) 1200 (c) 1800 (d) 1500

56. The scale of a mai si ¾ of cm = 1 km. If the distance on the map between two towns is 60 cm. The actual distance is:

(a) 80 km (b) 60 km (c) 75 km (d) 50 km 57. X and Y put in Rs. 3,000 and Rs. 4,000 respectively into a business. X reinvests his share of

the first year’s profit of Rs. 21,00 into the business where Y does not reinvest. In what ratio should they share the second year’s profit?

(a) 39 : 40 (b) 3 : 4 (c) 40 : 79 (d) 3 : 7 58. A, B, C can do a work in 6 days. A and C together can do it in 10 days. In how many days can

B alone do the work? (a) 3 ¾ days (b) 12 days (c) 20 days (d) 15 days Directions for questions 59 and 60: Refer to the data below and answer the questions. Selling price of a shirt depends on the content of cotton in it. Normal cotton content is 80% and normal selling price is Rs. 200 per piece. If the cotton content falls below 72% then the selling price decreases by 20%. A trader purchases the shirt as Rs. 160 per piece. 59. How much nylone fabric as a percent of fabric content of a shirt can be added so that selling

price of the shirt is not affected? (a) 25% (b) 11 1/9% (c) 6 1/9 % (d) 9% 60. What percent of nylon should be added to the fabric so that even if the selling price decreases

the profit percentage is not affected? (a) 25% (b) 11 1/9% (c) 12 ½% (d) 20% 61. Cars C1 and C2 travel to a place at a speed of 30 and 45 km/h respectively. If car C2 take 2 ½

hour less time than C1 for the journey, the distance of the place is: (a) 300 km (b) 400 km (c) 175 km (d) 225 km 61. Rajdhani Express train traveling at a uniform speed clears a platform 200 meters long in 10

seconds and passes a telegraph post in 6 seconds. The speed of the train is: (a) 150 km/h (b) 200 km/h (c) 180 km/h (d) 220 km/h 62. X runs 1 ½ times as fast as Y. If X gives Y a start of 300 meters, how far must X run before he

catches up with Y? (a) 900 meters (b) 1 km (c) 800 meters (d) 450 meters Directions for questions 63 to 67: Study the following table and answer the questions given below. Projected Population of Light Motor Vehicles (LMVs) (Figures in millions) Country 1975 2030 United States 141 382 Japan 120 238 France 67 164 China 63 117 Italy 18 61 Germany 21 58 UK 15 47 Canada 5 17 Switzerland 1.5 3 63. The average population of LMVs of the middle three countries in 1975 bears to the average

population of last three countries, is nearly: (a) 11 : 3 (b) 7 : 2 (c) 19 : 4 (d) 5 : 1

64. The percentage growth of the average population of LMVs for the last three countries between the years 1975 and 2030 is approximately:

(a) 162 (b) 212 (c) 221 (d) 71 65. For China, assuming a linear growth in LMVs population, extrapolate nearly, the year beyond

2030 when the growth in population will be 108%? (a) 2048 (b) 2050 (c) 2032 (d) 2039 66. For Canada, assuming a linear growth in population, interpolate approximately, the year when

the growth in LMVs population will reach 150%? (a) 2064 (b) 2009 (c) 2034 (d) 1996 67. The percentage growth of the projected LMVs population between 1975 and 2030 among last

five countries is maximum in: (a) Italy (b) Canada (c) Germany (d) China 68. The probabilities of two events are 0.25 and 0.50. The probability of both happening together is

0.14. Which of the following is the probability of NONE of the events happening? (a) 0.39 (b) 0.25 (c) 0.61 (d) 0.125 69. If A = x – 2–1, B = x + 2–1 and A2 – B2 > 0, then (a) x > 0 (b) x < 0 (c) x = 0 (d) x is not defined 70. In how many ways can 5 rings be worn on four fingers on one hand? (a) 20 (b) 625 (c) 624 (d) 1024

SECTION THREE (ENGLISH)

Directions for Question No. 71 to 76: The passage given below is followed by questions. Choose the best answers for each question. Modern birds evolved from ground-dwelling reptiles as their increasingly refined parenting skills led them into trees, where they could better protect their young, proposes a researcher at the University of California, Davis. This new theory, contradicts the two leading theories on the evolution of avian flight. “The evidence indicates that a whole site of behavioral and physical traits, including feathers and wings evolved along with improved parenting and brood-care traits,” said James Carey, a UC Davis demographer and ecologist. Once the precursor to birds began to fly, the ecological interplay of flight and parental care may have been mutual, facilitating the evolution of both traits and accelerating the rate at which the physical features of modern bird were acquired. The origin of bird flight is a fundamental issue in biology and in overall evolutionary theory. Many scientists point to the fossilized specimens of Archaeopteryx as evidence that there was a transitional vertebrate species that developed during the evolution from reptilian dinosaurs to bird. Furthermore, they suggest that the development of flight may explain why bird-like dinosaurs avoided extinction. Until now, there have been two basic theories on the origins of bird flight. The first, the arboreal theory, is a tree to ground model, suggesting that bird’s primitive ancestors were tree dwellers that leapt for branches. Through the ages, the ability to glide and later fly developed because gliding slowed their fall to earth when they missed a branch. The second, the cursorial theory, is a ground up model that suggest that birds evolved from four legged reptiles. According to the theory, scales on these creatures gradually developed into front limbs with features that gave them upward thrust when they ran and eventually enabled them to fly. On the other hand, the parental care theory is consistent with both the physical and behavioral changes that appeared to have occurred as reptiles evolved into modern birds. Researchers suggest that modern birds’ very early ancestors were reptiles that established and guarded their nests on the ground, much like crocodiles. Over time these creatures developed hard-shelled rather than leathery eggs and the ability to modulate their own body temperature in order to provide a more constant environment for their young ones’ development. Scales evolved into feathers better camouflaging and insulating the parents. In time these early ancestors of birds developed more advanced techniques to care for their young. They started to feed their young in the nest, pumping liquid food or placing small food items in their mouths. They also began to produce fewer and more dependent offspring and smaller eggs, and began nesting in bushes. Some of these creatures became feathered and even more

elongated, enabling them to better manipulate their eggs and to ‘parachute’ from their tree nests to a soft landing. Later they would develop the ability to glide and eventually fly by flapping their wings. Cairy hypothesizes that bird beaks also developed in the context of parental care. The beak, he suggests, serves both as a point souce of food for small hatchlings in the same way the nipple is used to feed mammalian young and also as tool for sophisticated use because they weigh less than teeth and are better adapted for flight. He points out that flight provided these pre historic ancestors of birds with numerous advantages, including the ability to safely place their young-high in trees and cliffs, maximize the food sources through seasonal migrations, and supply more and better quality food by expanding their foraging range. He adds that fossil record, specifically Archaeopteryx, provides ample evidence that the evolution of parental care was the main driving force behind the evolution of avian flight. 71. According to the parental care theory, which of the following is true about the very early

ancestors of present day birds? (a) They laid their eggs on the ground and tended to their young there. (b) They stayed only on the ground and laid their eggs there. (c) They stayed on the ground but migrated to the trees to lay their eggs. (d) They stayed on the trees but laid their eggs on the ground. 72. Carey is least likely to agree with which of the following views?

(a) The scales in birds evolved into feathers to provide better insulation. (b) Development of flight increased the catchments are of the birds thereby increasing the

quality and quantity of food available. (c) Birds evolved beaks to serve both as point source of food for small hatchlings and as a tool

for nest construction. (d) Evolutionary advancement led to an increase in the progeny of the ancestor’s of the

modern day birds. 73. Which of the following is the most suitable title for the given passage? (a) Conflicting Theories on Evolution of Avian Flight (b) Improved Parenting and Brood-Care Traits in Birds (c) Evolution of Bird Flight Linked to Parental Care (d) Evolution of Birds from Reptiles 74. Carey is likely to agree with which of the following views?

(a) Bird-like dinosaurs may have avoided extinction because of the development of flight. (b) The intermediate stages between the four legged reptile are the birds with developed

feathers. (c) Early ancestors of birds developed more advanced techniques to increase their changes of

survival. (d) None of the above.

75. Flight was advantageous for the ancestor of birds in which of the following cases?

(a) It enabled them to modulate their own body temperature in order to provide a more constant environment for their developing young.

(b) Flights enabled the birds to better guard and manipulate their eggs. (c) Flight gave them the ability to increase their sources of food and the ability of seasonal

migration. (d) None of the above.

76. It can be inferred from the passage that an ecologist is one who studies: (a) the natural environment. (b) the relations of organisms with one another and their surroundings. (c) living organisms. (d) Both (a) and (b) Directions for Questions 77 to 79: In each of the following sentences, four options are given. You are required to identify the best way of writing the sentence in the context of the correct usage of standard written English. While doing so, you have to ensure that the message being conveyed remains the same in all cases.

77. When one reads the Hindi literature of the twentieth century, you find a striking contrast between the writings of Munshi Premchand and later day writers of popular Hindi fiction. (a) When one reads the Hindi literature of twentieth century, you find a striking contrast

between the writings of Munshi Premchand and later day writers of popular Hindi fiction. (b) When you read the Hindi literature of the twentieth century, one finds a striking contrast

between the writings of Munshi Premchand and later day writers of popular Hindi fiction. (c) When one reads the Hindi literature of the twentieth century, he find a striking contrast

between the writings of Munshi Premchand and later day writers of popular Hindi fiction. (d) If one reads the Hindi literature of twentieth century, you find a striking contrast between

the writings of Munshi Premchand and later day writers of popular Hindi fiction. 78. My grandmother seldom ever wants to try and facethe facts. (a) My grandmother seldom ever wants to try and face the facts. (b) My grandmother seldom if ever wants to try and face the facts. (c) My grandmother seldom ever wants to try to face the facts. (d) My grandmother seldom wants to try to face the facts. 79. Crossing the street, a bus almost crushed us to death. (a) Crossing the street, a bus almost crushed us to death. (b) A bus almost crushed us, crossing the street. (c) As we crossed the street, a bus almost crushed us. (d) A bus, crossing the street, almost crushed us. Directions for Questions 80 to 81: For each of the following questions, a part of the original sentence has been underlined. You have to find the best way of writing the underlined part of the sentence. 80. The world today is totally different than, we have seen in the last century. (a) than, we have seen (b) from what we have seen (c) from what we seen (d) than what we seen 81. Start the engine, and then you should press the accelerator. (a) Start the engine, and then you should press (b) Start the engine and then press (c) Start the engine, then go on pressing (d) Start the engine, then pressing 82. Oligopoly is the state where there are many competitors within a single market. The Pepsi

Company realizes that its operations are in competitive industries. Which of the following conclusion may be inferred from the above? (a) Pepsi’s market is not oligopolistic. (b) Monopoly is defined as one seller in a market. (c) The Pepsi Company has a lot of domestic competition. (d) The Pepsi Company is operating in an oligopolistic market. 83. Ram is a terrible driver. He has had at least five traffic violations in the past year. Which of the following can be said about the above claim? (a) This is an example of an argument that is directed against the person making an argument

rather than the argument itself. (b) The argument is fallacious because it contains an illegitimate parallelism. (c) The above argument obtains its strength from a similarity of two compared situations. (d) The argument is built upon an assumption that is not stated but is concealed. Directions for Questions 84 to 88: Find the answer that is closest in meaning to the Capitalzied word: 84. SNIPE (a) to move stealthily (b) cut with scissors (c) criticize slyly (d) borrow

85. REND (a) to present or submit (b) take over (c) describe or portray (d) rip 86. KITSCH (a) unusual attitude (b) humorous response (c) stylish clothing (d) tawdry art 87. DOUCE (a) Wet (b) Gentle (c) Angry (d) Colorful 88. FROND (a) Type of cheese (b) Frill (c) Leaf (d) Bubbles Directions for Questions 89 to 96: Fill in the blanks with the appropriate words: In a century marked by________[89]______________, Gnadhi perfected a different method of bringing about change, one that would turn out (surprisingly) to have more_________[90]_________ impact. The_________[90]_________ he used to describe it do not translate_________[90]_________ into English: Satyagraha (holding firmly onto the deepest truth and soul force) and________[93]_________ (the love that remains when all thoughts of violence are dispelled). They formed the basis for civil disobedience and nonviolent_________[94]__________. “Nonviolence is the greatest force at the_________[95]___________of mankind,” he said. “It is mightier than the mightiest weapon of destruction devised by the________[96]__________ of man.” Options 89. (a) kindness (b) brutality (c) integrity (d) ingenuity 90. (a) fasting (b) devastating (c) lasting (d) interesting 91. (a) words (b) phrase (c) methods (d) servitude 92. (a) easily (b) hardly (c) readily (d) willingly 93. (a) nonviolence (b) ahimsa (c) desperation (d) violence 94. (a) persistence (b) impudence (c) resistance (d) allegory 95. (a) proposal (b) insinuation (c) vituperation (d) disposition 96. (a) veracity (b) tenacity (c) protagonist (d) ingenuity Directions for Questions 97 to 101: Choose the pair that best expresses the relationship. 97. Nibble : Bite :: (a) Swallow : Gulp (b) Jog : Walk (c) Swift : Breathe (d) Open : Tear 98. Desiccated : Anhydrous :: (a) Water : Drought (b) Salt : Stone (c) Starved : Famished (d) Umbrage : Scold 99. Fox : Vixen :: (a) Duck : Drake (b) Dog : Bitch (c) Wolf : Wolverine (d) Gander : Goose 100. Jester : Clowning :: (a) Coquette : Flirtation (b) Neophyte : Mentoring (c) Termagant : Encomium (d) Precocious : Innocuous 101. Squander : Money :: (a) Shirk : Task (b) Dally : Time (c) Achieve : Victory (d) Trespass : Land

Directions for Questions 102 to 104: The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph. 102. A. Realists believe that there is an objective reality out there independent of ourselves.

B. This reality exists solely by virtue of how the world is, and it is in principle discoverable by application of the methods of science.

C. They believe in the possibility of determining whether or not a theory is indeed really true or false.

D. I think it is fair to say that this is the position to which most working scientists subscribe. (a) ABCD (b) CDBA (c) DCBA (d) BCAD 103. A. Such expression and our perception of it operate according to the same principles in

simulated figures of art as in real life. B. Artists have been praised for their success in depicting accurately and unambiguously, the

outward manifestations of emotions in the figures which their pictures displayed. C. The depiction or description of external emotional expression (physiognomic qualities) has

been a prominent feature of the much of the world’s art, particularly art produced in the tradition of naturalism.

D. A person with a delicate sensibility for emotional expression in life, one who can read them with more than ordinary perceptivity and sympathy, will be for that reason, better qualified to appreciate this kind of art.

(a) BACD (b) DABC (c) BCAD (d) CBAD 104. A. This tendency to over-stress the contribution of character, and to put it in an altogether

misleading antithesis to intellect, is also probably the characteristic of equalitarian societies. B. Differences in intellectual capacity are particularly distasteful to the equalitarian, who can

with comfort fall back on a vague mystique of character as the principal attribute of such leadership as he will allow, and which he may decide is very widely defused.

C. Whereas high intelligence is not usually a spectacular quality to the majority of people, courage, tenacity, and dominance are.

D. The contribution of intelligence to leadership is underestimated, perhaps, because in the popular picture of the leader, attributes of character are far more obvious than those of intellect.

(a) DCAB (b) BCAD (c) ACDB (d) CADB Directions for Questions 105 to 106: Arrange the sentences A, B, C and D to form a logical sequence between sentences 1 and 6. 105. 1. The market mechanism is the natural coordinator of private sector activities.

A. It is also linked to the centrality of the notion of a free contract for both the operation of the market mechanism and the safeguarding to private property.

B. This is linked to the autonomy of the decision maker under the market mechanism. C. It is futile to expect the State to behave as if it were privately owned. D. It is time to get rid of this vain hope once and for all. 6. There is no reason to be astonished by the fact that State ownership permanently recreates

the bureaucracy because it is but an organic part of the bureaucratic hierarchy. (a) BADC (b) ACDB (c) DCBA (d) BACD 106. 1. A manager is faced with innumerable situations in which he has to make a choice.

A. These are not the only kind of decisions that managers take. B. As a seller, he has to decide what to sell. C. As a producer, he has to decide what to produce, how much to produce and where to

produce. D. As a buyer, he has to decide what to buy. 6. They generally face a wide range of situations involving choice.

(a) ABCD (b) DCBA (c) CDAB (d) BDAC Directions for questions 107 to 110: Pick the odd man out from the options: 107. (a) Haughty (b) Reticent (c) Sociable (d) Aloof 108. (a) Augury (b) Aural (c) Potent (d) Omen 109. (a) Engross (b) Pasty (c) Swallow (d) Wan

110. (a) Circumvent (b) Thwart (c) Foil (d) Foist

SECTION FOUR (LOGICAL REASONING)

Directions for Questions 111 to 118: Study the following paragraph and answer the questions given below. W, X, Y, and Z are four friends who do not mind exchanging items. X has two chessboards each costing Rs. 500, and a record player. Z originally had a cycle and a walkman. Each cricket bat costs Rs. 700. Both W and Z got a cricket bat from Y. X gave his record player costing Rs. 2000 to Y. Z gets a camera costing Rs. 1500 from W. The cycle of Z costs Rs. 1000 and the walkman is for Rs. 700. Y had three cricket bats at the beginning and W had two cameras’ the total cost of which is Rs. 5000. X gave one of his chessboards to Z and took Z’s cycle. Z gave his walkman to W. 111. Total cost of materials Z had at the beginning was (a) Rs. 1500 (b) Rs. 1700 (c) Rs. 1000 (d) Rs. 2000 112. At the beginning who had the costliest items? (a) W (b) X (c) Y (d) Z 113. Who did not have a cricket bat after the exchange of items was over? (a) W (b) X (c) Y (d) Z 114. Who gained the most through the exchange? (a) W (b) X (c) Y (d) Z 115. The person incurring the highest amount of financial loss through exchange lost an amount of (a) Rs. 600 (b) Rs. 1000 (c) None (d) Rs. 500 116. The amount of price of all the things remaining with the four persons lie between: (a) Rs. 800-Rs. 900 (b) Rs. 10000-12000 (c) Rs. 9000-Rs. 10000 (d) Rs. 10000-Rs. 11000 117. Even after the exchanges, the item of highest value remained in possession of: (a) W (b) X (c) Y (d) Z 118. Among the things exchanged, which one faced the highest exchange value in percentage term. (a) Cricket bat (b) Record Player (c) Camera (d) Cycle Directions for Questions 119 to 120: Study the following condition and answer the questions given below. P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are seven positive integers. PQRS + TUV is odd. 119. How many integers (out of the above) are, at the least, odd? (a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 1 120. How many integers (out of the above) are, at the most, odd? (a) 1 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 5 Directions for Questions 121 to 124: Refer to the following information and answer the questions given below. A top brass of a political party has to address public meetings at seven major cities—A, B, C, D, E, F, and G as a part of election campaign during a certain week. Only nine appointment slots are available during that week: one on Monday, three on Tuesday, one on Wednesday, two on Thursday, and two on Friday. Two addresses of meetings must be held on Thursday and at least one on each of the other days. (i) B and E must be fixed on the same day. (ii) City A must be fixed on Monday. (iii) C cannot be fixed on Friday. (iv) G must be fixed for Thursday. 121. Which of the following is not an acceptable appointment for two addresses mentioned? (a) D and G on Thursday (b) E and B on Tuesday (c) F and G on Thursday (d) C and D on Wednesday

122. Which of the following must be true of the appointment slot for address? (a) F on Tuesday (b) C on Tuesday (c) E and B on Thursday (d) Three days have each one public address 123. If B and E are fixed on Tuesday, how many different appointment combinations are possible on

Thursday? (a) 5 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 4 124. In a row of boys facing North, Yogesh is 5th to the left of Pinaki. Mukil is 3rd to the right of

Yogesh. Kartikey is 3rd to the left of Pinaki. Which of the following describes the position of Kartikey?

(a) To the immediate right of Yogesh. (b) To the immediate left of Mukil (c) To the immediate right of Mukil (d) 3rd to the right of Yogesh. Directions for Questions 125 to 130: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow: (i) ‘A × B’ means ‘A is father of B’. (ii) ‘A + B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’. (iii) ‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is mother of B’. (iv) ‘A – B’ means ‘A is brother of B’. 125. If ‘P + Q – R ÷ T’, how is T related to P? (a) Aunt (b) Father (c) Grandmother (d) None of these 126. Which of the following means that R is wife of P? (a) P × R – Q – T (b) P ÷ T + R – Q (c) P ÷ R – Q + T (d) P × T – Q + R 127. If ‘P × T ÷ Q + R’ how is R related to P? (a) Daughter (b) Husband (c) Son-in-law (d) None of these 128. If ‘P ÷ R – Q × T’, how is P related to T? (a) Grandmother (b) Mother-in-law (c) Sister (d) Grandfather 129. If ‘R ÷ Q + R × T’, how is T related to Q? (a) Aunt (b) Sister (c) Brother (d) Grandson 130. If ‘R – P ÷ J × Q’, how is J related to R? (a) Son (b) Nephew (c) Niece (d) Grandson Directions for Questions 131 to 135: In each of the questions given below, a group of digits are given followed by four combinations of letters. You have to find out which of the four combinations correctly represents the group of digits below. Digits: 9 2 1 7 5 3 6 4 8 Letters: B V M L D P A F R

(i) If the first as well as the last digits are even, both are to be coded by the code for the first digit.

(ii) If the first as well as the last digit are odd, both are to be coded by the code for the last digit.

131. 397416 (a) PBLFMP (b) ABLFMA (c) PVLFMA (d) PBDFMA 132. 562183 (a) PAVMRP (b) DAVMRD (c) PAVMRD (d) DAVMRP 133. 734192 (a) DPFMBV (b) LPAMBV (c) PAVMRD (d) LPFMBV 134. 812354 (a) RLVPDF (b) FMVPDF (c) RMVPDR (d) RMVADF 135. 627851

(a) PULRDM (b) AVLRDM (c) AVLFDM (d) ABLRDM 136. A watch showed a time of fourteen minutes past nine (9 hrs and 14 minutes). The positions of

the hour-hand and the minute-hand of the watch are exactly interchanged. The new time shown by the watch is closes to which one of the following?

(a) Twelve minutes to three (b) Thirteen minutes to three (c) Fourteen minutes to three (d) Fifteen minutes to three 137. A person stands at the middle point of a wooden ladder which starts slipping between a vertical

wall and the floor of a room, while plane. The path traced by a person standing at the middle point of the slipping ladder is:

(a) A straight line (b) An elliptical path (c) A circular path (d) A parabolic path 138. In the series: AABABCABCDABCDE……….which letter occupies the 100th position? (a) H (b) I (c) J (d) K 139. What is the number of terms in the series, 117, 120, 123, 126, …….333? (a) 72 (b) 73 (c) 76 (d) 79 140. Choose the wrong number in the given series: 105, 85, 60, 30, 0, -45, -90 (a) 0 (b) -45 (c) 60 (d) 105 141. March 1, 2008 was Saturday, which day was it on March 1, 2002? (a) Thursday (b) Friday (c) Saturday (d) Sunday 142. A is the widow of B. B & C were the only children of E. C is unmarried and is a doctor. D is the

granddaughter of E and studies science. How is A related to D? (a) Aunt (b) daughter (c) sister (d) sister-in-law Directions for Question 143-145: Three men (Tom, Peter and Jack) and three women (Eliza, Anne and Karen) are spending a few months at a hillside. They are to stay in a row of nine cottages, each one living in his or her own cottage. There are no others staying in the same row of houses. 1. Anne, Tom and jack do not want to stay in any cottage, which is at the end of the row. 2. Eliza and Anne are unwilling to stay besides any occupied cottage. 3. Karen is next to Peter and Jack. 4. Between Anne and Jack’s cottage there is just one vacant house. 5. None of the girls occupy adjacent cottages. 6. The house occupied by tom is next to an end cottage. 143. Which of the above statements can be said to have been derived from two other statements? (a) Statement I (b) Statement 2 (c) Statement 3 (d) Statement 5 144. How many of them occupy cottages next to a vacant cottage? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 145. Which among these statement(s) are true? i. Anne is between Eliza and Jack. ii. At the most four persons can have occupied cottages on either side of them. iii. Tom stays besides Peter. (a) I only (b) II only (c) I and III only (d) II and III only Directions for the Questions 146 to 149: Read the information and answer the questions given below. Ram, Shyam, Suresh, Satish and Mahesh have Ahemdabad, Bhopal, Cuttack, Lucknow and Pune as their home towns. They are studying at Engineering, Medical, Law, Economics and Bio-Technology Schools. None of the five boys is studying in his home town but each of them studies in one of the cities given above. Some of the additional facts are as follows: i. Ram’s home town is Pune. ii. Shyam is not studying in Ahemdabad and Bhopal. iii. Economics College is in Bhopal iv. Suresh’s home town in Cuttack

v. Mahesh is studying in Lucknow vi. Satish is studying in Pune and the Bio-tech School is in his home town Ahemdabad vii. Engineering College is situated in Pune. 146. Which is Mahesh’s home town? (a) Ahemdabad (b) Cuttack (c) Bhopal (d) Cannot be determined. 147. Which college is situated in Suresh’s home town? (a) Law (b) Medical (c) Economics (d) Law or Medical 148. Who Studies in Bhopal? (a) Ram (b) Shyam (c) Ram or Suresh (d) Suresh or Shyam 149. If Suresh studies in Ahmadabad then which one of the following is correct combination of

person-home town-place of study? (a) Ram-Pune-Lucknow (b) Satish-Ahmedabad-Pune (c) Mahesh-Lucknow-Pune (d) Shyam-Bhopal-Lucknow 150. If in a sign language “35 8” means- “buy butter bread” and ‘367’ means- ‘eat one bread’, then

what is the code of ‘eat’? (a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 7 (d) 3 151. Fill in the blanks: 107 93 7 151 111 ? 153 19 67 (a) 19 (b) 20 (c) 17 (d) 51 152. In a sign language ‘GARIMA’ is written as ‘725432’ and ‘TINA’ is written as ‘6482’. How will

‘MARTINA’ be written in the same sign language? (a) 3265842 (b) 3645862 (c) 3256482 (d) 3658426 153. Rashmi’s height is 5’ 2”. Anjali is taller than Rashmi but she is not taller than Pooja. Pooja is

shorter than her cousin Rajan but she is not shorter than Rashmi. Who is the tallest in the group?

(a) Anjali (b) Rajan (c) Pooja (d) Rashmi 154. A square piece of paper of four inches each side has been folded four times in such a way that

its final shape is also a square. Then three of its corners have been cut with one of them being the double folded corner. How many outer corners will it finally have when the paper is unfolded?

(a) 8 (b) 12 (c) 16 (d) 20 155. If Venus is brighter than Mercury, Mercury is not brighter than Jupiter, Jupiter is brighter than

Venus but not brighter than Pluto, then which of these is the brightest? (a) Jupiter (b) Mercury (c) Venue (d) Pluto

SECTION FIVE (LEGAL APTITUDE)

Directions for Questions 156 to 169: Apply the Principles to the given facts and choose the appropriate option. 156. PRINCIPLE: No person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of a law in force

at the time of the commission of the Act charged as an offence, nor be subjected to a penalty greater than that which might have been inflicted under the law in force at the time of the commission of the offence.

FACTS: A boy of 16 years of age was convicted for committing an offence of house trespass

and outraging the modesty of a girl aged 7 years. The magistrate sentenced him for 6 months rigorous imprisonment and also imposed fine. After judgement, the Probation of Offenders Act,

1958 came into force. It provided that a person below 21 years of age should not ordinarily be sentenced to imprisonment. Now the boy claims the benefit of the Probation of Offenders Act. (a) He should not get the benefit of Probation of Offenders Act. (b) The rule of beneficial interpretation required that ex post facto law could be applied to

reduce the punishment. (c) A boy below the age of 21 years in treated as minor and so he should not be punished. (d) None of these.

157. PRINCIPLE: When a criminal act is done by several persons, in furtherance of the

common intention of all, each of such persons is liable for the act in the same manner as if it were done by him alone.

FACTS: A, B, C and D went armed to commit a robbery at a post-office. The Postmaster

was counting money at the table. A was watching the gate, C was with the vehicle. B and D entered into the post office and asked the post master to hand over the money. On refusal they had a quarrel and B shot the post master and he died. B and D got away in their vehicle without taking the money. A was caught while B, C and D managed to escape. A was sentenced to death by the sessions court, which was affirmed by the High Court. Now appeal is before the Supreme Court. What would you submit before the court as a friend of the court? (a) A cannot be held liable for murder because he was only standing and he did not fire.

Therefore the sessions court and High Court were wrong. (b) A can be held liable only for conspiracy. (c) A will be responsible in the same manner as B and other members of the team

because they were acting in furtherance of common intention of all. (d) None of above.

158. PRINCIPLE: Malicious prosecution is an unsuccessful criminal proceeding which is done

maliciously and without reasonable and probable cause. FACTS: A theft had been committed in the defendant’s house. He informed the police that he

suspected the plaintiff for the same. Therefore the plaintiff was arrested by the police. A complaint was filed by the defendant but the plaintiff was subsequently discharged, by the magistrate as the final report showed that there was no evidence connecting the plaintiff with the theft. The plaintiff filed a suit for damages on the ground of malicious prosecution.

In the above case, which one of the following decisions is correct? (a) The plaintiff is entitled to claim damages from the defendant (b) The plaintiff is entitled to claim damages from the police (c) The plaintiff is entitled to claim damages from both (d) The plaintiff is not entitled to claim damages for malicious prosecution at all 159. PRINCIPLE: Nuisance as a tort means an unlawful interference with a person’s use or

enjoyment of land, or some right over, or in connection with it. FACTS: During the scarcity of potatoes, long queues were, made outside the defendant’s shop

who having a license to sell fruits and vegetables used to sell only 1 Kg. of potatoes per ration card. The queues extended on to the highway and also caused some obstruction to the neighbouring shops. The neighbouring shopkeepers brought an action for nuisance against the defendant. Which one of the following decisions will be correct in this suit?

(a) The defendant was liable for nuisance. (b) The defendant was not liable for nuisance. (c) The defendant was not liable under the principle of strict liability. (d) The plaintiff’s suit should be decreed in his favour. 160. PRINCIPLE: Whoever, intending to take dishonestly any movable property out of the

possession of any person without that person’s consent, moves that property in order to such taking, is said to commit theft.

FACTS: Mr. Mehra and Mr. Santo were cadets on training in the Indian Air Force Academy at

Jodhpur. Santo had been discharged from the Academy on the grounds of misconduct. Mehra was a cadet receiving training as a navigator and was due for a flight in a Dakota as part of his training . However, on the scheduled day, Mehra along with Santo took off, not in a Dakota, but a Harvard HT 822, before the prescribed time, without authorization, and without observing any of the formalities which were prerequisites for an air-craft flight. They landed at a place in

Pakistan about 100 miles away from the Indo-Pak border. Both of them were sent back to Delhi and arrested enroute in Jodhpur and prosecuted and convicted for theft.

(a) It was not a theft because there was an implied consent to the moving of the aircraft as the accused was a cadet who, in the normal course, would be allowed to fly an aircraft for purposes of training.

(b) It was a theft, because taking out of the aircraft in the present case had no relation to any such training.

(c) It cannot be labeled as theft because there was no proof in this case of any dishonest intention, which is an essential element of the theft.

(d) None of the above 161. PRINCIPLE: Where both the parties to an agreement are under a mistake as to a matter of fact

essential to the agreement, the agreement is void. FACTS: Mr. Ranjan, who owned 48 kanals 11 marlas of agricultural land in his village Patia,

Bhubaneswar, entered into a contact with Mr. B.D. Raut for sale of land at the raet of Rs. 24,000/- acre on 20th May 2008. At the time of the execution of the agreement, an amount of Rs. 75,000/- was paid to Mr. Ranjan as earnest Mr. Ranjan did not execute the sale deed in favour of the B.D. Raut in terms of the agreement, although Mr. Raut was ready to and willing to perform his part. District Judge in case of specific performance filed by Mr. Raut, was of the opinion that both the parties of the dispute suffered from a mistake of fact as to the area of the land which was proposed to be sold and also the price whether it was to be paid at the rate of per ‘Bigha’ or per ‘Kanal’. What according to you should be the judgement of the court?

(a) Mr. Ranjan should be held liable for the breach of contact. (b) Suit for specific performance filed by Mr. Raut must succeed. (c) IT was a case of mistake of fact because the area of land was as much essential to the

agreement as the price which, incidentally, was to be calculated on the basis of the area and hence the agreement is void.

(d) None of above. 162. PRINCIPLE: Nothing is an offence merely by reason of its being with the knowledge that it is

likely to cause harm, if it be done without any criminal intention to cause harm, and in good faith for the purpose of preventing or avoiding other harm to person or property.

FACTS: There persons Mr. William, Mr. Stephen and Mr. Roke alongwith Mr. Rankin, a boy, between 17 and 18 years of age, the crew of a registered English vessel, were cast away in a storm on high seas. They had no supply of water and food. On the 18th day they thought that it would be better to kill the boy who was in a critical condition, so that their lives could be saved, Stephen and William agreed to the act, but Roke dissented from it. William, with the consent of Stephen, went to the boy, who was extremely weakened by famine put a knife into his throat and killed him. The three men fed upon the body and blood of the boy for four days; after which the boat was picked up by a passing vessel, and they were rescued alive. Choose the right answer. a) William and Stephen cannot be held liable because if the men had not fed upon the body of

the boy they would probably not have survived. So this act was done out of necessity and to save the lie of three persons.

b) They cannot be held liable because the boy, being in a much critical condition, was likely to have died before them.

c) They are guilty of killing Rankin. To preserve one’s life is generally speaking a duty, but it may be the plainest and the highest duty to sacrifice it.

d) None of above. 163. PRINCIPLE: Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time of doing it,

is, by reason of intoxication, incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that he is doing what is either wrong, or contrary to law: provided that the thing which intoxicated him was administered to him without his knowledge or against his will. FACTS: Mr. Rathinam Mohanty, having voluntarily consumed LSD, had to illusion of descending to the center of the earth and being attacked by snakes. In his attempt to fight off these reptiles Rathinam struck his girlfriend Ms. Sukanti (also a drug addict on LSD “trip”) two blows on the head causing injuries to her brain and crammed some eight inches of bedsheet into her mouth causing her to die of aspyxia. He claimed to have had no knowledge of what he was doing and no intention to harm her. Choose the appropriate answer: a) He should be punished for the unlawful act of Manslaughter because he voluntarily consumed the LSD. b) He should not be held guilty of any offence because he had no knowledge of what he was doing and no intention to harm her.

c) He should be held responsible for the manslaughter because for the purpose of criminal responsibility there is not reason to distinguish between the effect of drugs voluntarily taken and drunkenness voluntarily induced. d) None of above.

164. PRINCIPLE: Whoever intentionally uses force to any person, without that person’s consent, in

order to the committing of any offence, or intending by the use of such force to cause, or knowing it to be likely that by the use of such force he will cause injury, fear or annoyance to the person to whom the force is used, is said to use criminal force to that other. FACTS: Satyam is sitting in a moored boat on a river. Ramesh unfastens the moorings, and thus intentionally causes the boat to drift down the stream. Ramesh intentionally causes motion to Satyam, and he does this by disposing substances in such a manner that the motion is produced without any other action on any person’s part. a) Ramesh is guilty of using criminal force intentionally and without the consent of Satyam. b) Ramesh is not guilty of using criminal force because there is no contact between both of them. c) Ramesh is guilty of committing assault. d) None of above.

165. PRINCIPLE: 1. You must take reasonable care to avoid acts or omissions which you can

reasonably foresee would be likely to injure your neighbour. 2. “Neighbour” is persons so closely and directly affected by your act that you ought reasonably to have them in contemplation as being so affected when you are directing your mind to the acts or omissions which are called in question. FACTS: A manufacturer of ginger beer had sold to retailer bottles of ginger beer in opaque bottles. The retailer sold one such bottle to A who gave it to his girl friend which contained the decomposed remains of a dead snail. The lady alleged that she became seriously ill on consuming a portion of the contents from the said bottle. Which one of the following conclusions is correct as to the liability in law of torts? a) The manufacturer of the ginger beer shall be liable for negligence. b) The manufacturer is not liable at all. c) The retailer will be liable to the lady as he sold the bottle. d) The lady is not entitled do damages due to her contributory negligence.

166. PRINCIPLE: volenti non fit injuria i.e. when a person consents to the infliction of some harm

upon himself; he has no remedy for that in Torts. FACTS: Mr. Ram went to see a motor car race being held at Brooklands on a track owned by the Suresh. During the race, there was a collision between two cars, one of which was thrown among the spectators, thereby injuring Mr. Ram. a) Ram can claim damages from the Suresh. b) Ram cannot claim damages from Suresh because he impliedly took the risk of such injury, the danger being inherent in the sport which any spectator could foresee. c) Ram had only knowledge of risk but he had not given his consent to inflict harm. d) None of above.

167. PRINCIPLE: (1). No title, not being a military or academic distinction, shall be conferred

by the State. (2). No citizen of India shall accept any title from any foreign State. FACTS: The government of India every year confers various awards namely, Bharat Ratna, Padma Vibhusan, Padma Bhusan and Padma Shri. These National Awards were formally instituted in January 1954 by two Presidential Notifications. The Presidential Notification also provide that any person without distinction of race, occupation, position or sex, shall be eligible for these awards and also that the decorations may be awarded posthumously. Now Mr. A challenged the validity of these National awards and requested the court to prevent Government of India from conferring these Awards. a) These awards are titles within the meaning of Article 18 of the Constitution and hence violative of Article 18. b) These national awards are being grossly misused and the purpose for which they are instituted has been diluted and they are granted to persons who do not deserving them. c) The National Awards are not violative of the principle of equality as guaranteed by the Constitution. These awards do not amount to “titles” within the meaning of Article 18 and therefore not violative of Article 18. d) None of these.

168. PRINCIPLE: All laws in force within the territory of India immediately before the commencement of this Constitution, in so far as they are inconsistent with the provisions of Part III (i.e. Fundamental Rights), shall be the extent of such inconsistency be void. FACTS: Under a pre-constitutional law State Government was authorized to exclude all private motor transport operators from the field of transport business. Part of the Act became void from the commencement of the Constitution as it infringed the provision of Article 19(1) (g) and could not be justified under the provisions of clause (6) of Article which provides for the reasonable restrictions. Now State legislature amended the Act and removed that part. Choose the correct answer: 1. After the amendment the impugned Act ceased to be unconstitutional and become operative. 2. A pre-constitutional law inconsistent with a fundamental right become void. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 b) 2 only c) 1 only d) Neither 1 nor 2

169. PRINCIPLE: Subject to public order, morality and health and to the other provisions of

Part III, all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practice and propagate region. FACTS: During the morning assembly at school three students while respectfully standing during the recitation of the National Anthem, “Jana Gana Mana”, refused to sing it on the grounds that it is against the tenets of their religious faith which has been established in various countries. On the instruction of the Deputy Inspector of Schools these students were expelled from the school. Now they have filed a petition before the Supreme Court of India. a) The action of the school authorities is violative of their right to speech which includes right to silence as well. Their refusal, while so standing, to join in the singing of the National Anthem was neither disrespectful of it not inconsistent with the fundamental duties. b) The action taken by the school authorities was valid because they have shown disrespect to National Anthem. c) Freedom of religion is not a absolute right so restriction can be imposed and hence action of the authorities is valid. d) None of above.

170. Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution of India has 20 parts. 2. There are 390 Articles in the Constitution of India in all. 3. Ninth, Tenth, Eleventh and Twelfth schedules were added to the Constitution by the Constitution (Amendment) Acts. Which of the statements given above are correct? a) 1 and 2 b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3

171. What is meant by “Court of Record”?

a) The court that is competent to give directions and issue writs. b) The court that can punish for its contempt. c) The court that maintains records of all lower courts. d) The court that preserves all its records.

172. Which one of the following’ is not a Directive Principle of State Policy?

a) Organization of Village Panchayats b) Uniform Civil Code for citizens as well as non-citizens c) Right to work, to education and to public assistance in certain cases d) Participation of workers in management of industries

173. “Right to life includes right to die” was held in:

a) State v. Sanjay Kumar b) Maruti Sripati Dubal v. State of Maharashtra c) Jagdishwar v. State of Andhra Pradesh d) P. Rathinam v. Union of India

174. Which one of the following statement is correct? Right to free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years is:

a) a fundamental right enforceable in a court of law b) a fundamental duty c) a directive principle of state policy

d) a fundamental right which, however, can be enforced only if the State makes an enabling legislation

175. Consider the following passage and the linked multiple statements therein −

The power given by Art, 136 is, however, in the nature of a special or residuary power with is exercisable outside the purview of ordinary law in case where the needs of Justice demand interference by the Highest Court of the land. It vests in the Supreme Court plenary jurisdiction in the matter of entertaining and hearing appeals by granting special leave against: i. Any judgment, decree, determination or order ii. In any cause or matter iii. Passed or made by any Court or tribunal iv. Judgement of any court or tribunal relating to armed forces will not be governed by the above provision. The statement which is not correct is: a) Special leave to appeal may be granted even in case of an Administrative Tribunal b) The power to grant special leave is confined to judgement decrees or order of the High Courts only. c) There is no condition that the order of the Court against which special leave to appeal is sought, should be a final order d) Special leave to appeal may be granted against orders to determinations of all Courts in territory of India except those relating to the armed forces

176. Mr. David is severely hurt while working in his factory and fell unconscious. He was rushed to

hospital by his fellow workers. In the hospital (at emergency/casualty ward) the doctors opined that the shall be operated immediately. While conducting preliminary examinations, he is found to be HIV positive. The doctors are confused on the following matter- Give the appropriate answer- a) First doctors should operate b) Doctors should inform his family members c) Doctors should inform his employer d) Doctors should not inform anyone because it would violate patient’s right of privacy.

177. A shopkeeper displays the goods in shop with price chits attached to the goods. X entered into the shop and selected a good and paid the price attached to that good, but shopkeeper refused to sell that good on that price.

Give the correct answer: (a) Shopkeeper is bound to sell the goods on displayed price. (b) Shopkeeper has right to change the price at any stage. (c) Shopkeeper is not bound to sell the goods because display of goods with price chits is not

an offer but mere invitation to offer. (d) None of them 178. Jim makes an attempt to steal some jewels by breaking open a box and finds, after so opening

the box, that there is no jewel in it. Chose the appropriate answer: (a) Jim is not guilty of attempt because the box was empty. (b) Jim is guilty of attempt to commit theft. (c) Jim is guilty of trespass. (d) Jim is not guilty of any offence. 179. Ramesh and Rima were husband and wife living in Bangalore. Ramesh was Income-Tax

Officer and Rima was a school teacher. They had two sons studying in schools in Bangalore. Parents of Ramesh were also staying with them. Ramesh was transferred to Madras and he had to leave his family behind at Bangalore. He promised to send every month Rupees three thousand to meet family expenditure, to his wife. Ramesh did not send any money from Madras. If Rima filed a suit for specific performance of the contract, then which one of the following is correct?

(a) Family agreements are not contracts and hence, no order for specific performance can be ordered.

(b) It is valid contract. Specific performance is to be ordered. (c) This being an agreement without consideration, it is not an enforceable contract. (d) IT is a breach of family responsibilities, so specific performance order is called for. 180. The defendants by digging a coalpit in the land intercepted the water which affected the

plaintiff’s well at a distance of about one mile. The plaintiff brought a suit for damages against the defendants. Which one of the following maxims is applicable in the aforesaid case?

(a) Damnum sine injuria (b) Injuria sine damno

(c) Res ipsa loquitur (d) Volenti non fit injuria 181. A sells, by auction, to B, a horse which A knows to be unsound. A says nothing to B about the

horse being unsound. Give the correct answer: (a) A can be held liable for fraud. (b) A can be held liable for misrepresentation (c) A cannot be held liable, because he did not say anything positive about the soundness of

horse. (d) A cannot be held liable because it is the buyer who must be aware of the things. 182. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (a) The principle of master’s liability for the acts of a servant is based on the doctrine of

respondent superior (b) The rule of master’s liability for the acts of the servant is based on the maxim qui facit per

alium facit per se (c) Master’s liability for the torts of his servant is absolute and it is immaterial whether the tort

was committed in the course of his employment or not (d) The rule of master’s liability for the act of the servant is based on the capacity to pay; in

most of the cases, servant is not financially in good position to pay the damages. 183. X, a woman, who ran to well stating that she would jump into it, was caught before she could

reach it. Which one of the following statements is correct in this regard? (a) She is not guilty of an attempt to commit suicide although she intended to do so and

prepared to carry out that intention yet she might have changed her mind. (b) She is guilty of committing offence of attempt to commit suicide as she categorically

declared to do so (c) She is guilty of no offence as whatever was done by her did not amount to preparation for

committing suicide. (d) She is guilty of attempt to commit culpable homicide as she attempted to kill herself. 184. A minor enters into agreement representing himself to be a major. Consider the following

statements: 1. Minor commits fraud if the other party does not have personal knowledge of his age. 2. Such agreement is enforceable. 3. The doctrine of estoppel does not apply in minor’s case. 4. Other party is entitled to get back the benefit passed to minor; if innocent about his age. Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and (d) 2 and 4 185. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (a) Right of redemption Distributive Justice (b) Liability to penalty: Criminal Justice (c) Right to compensation: Civil Justice (d) Right to be heard: Natural Justice 186. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I List II A. Supreme legislation 1. Law based on discretion of the authority B. Executive legislation 2. Law enacted by authority other than legislature C. Delegated legislation 3. Law enacted by the legislature D. Conditional legislation 4. Law made by Judges while deciding the case A B C D

(a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 2 1 5 4 (c) 3 1 2 4 (a) 2 4 5 1 187. The following are enshrined in the Preamble to the Constitution of India: 1. Equality of status and of opportunity 2. Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship.

3. Justice-Social, economic and political 4. Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual 5. Unity and integrity of the Nation. Which one of the following is the correct order in which they appear in the Preamble? (a) 5 – 1 - 2 – 4 – 3 (b) 3 – 2 – 1 - 4 - 5 (c) 3 – 1 – 2 – 5 – 4 (d) 1 – 2 – 4 – 3 - 5 188. Which one of the following Pairs is not correctly matched? (a) T.S. Krishnamurthy: Former Chief Commissioner of India (b) K.C. Pant: Chairman, Tenth Finance Commissioner of India (c) A.M. Khusro: Former Chairman, Union Public Service Commission (d) R.C. Lahoti: Former Chief Justice of India 189. Consider the following statements: 1. The Mode of removal of a judge of a high court in India is same as that of removal of a

judge of the Supreme Court. 2. After retirement from the office, a permanent Judge of a High court can not plead or act

in any Court or before any authority in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 190. Consideration the following statement in respect of financial emergency under the Article 360 of

the Constitution of India: 1. A proclamation of financial emergency issued shall cease to operate all the expiration

of two months, unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by the resolution of both house of Parliament.

2. If any proclamation of financial emergency is in operation, it is competent for president of India to issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving in connection with the affair of the union but excluding the judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 191. Consider the following statements: 1. The chairman of the committee on public Accounts is appointed by the speaker of the

Lok Sabha. 2. The committee on Public Accounts Comprise Members of the Lok Sabha, Members of

Rajya Sabha, and a few eminent persons of the industry and Trade. Which of the statements given above /are correct? (a) 1 only (2) 2 only (3) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Directions for questions 192 to 200: The following 10 (Ten) items consist of two statements, one labeled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below: (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true 192. Assertion (A): The Council of Ministers in the Union of India of India is collectively responsible

both to the Lock Sabha and Rajya Sabha. Reason (R): The Members of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha are eligible to be the

Ministers of the Union. (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true 193. Assertion (A): Coalition politics has failed to strengthen Indian federalism. Reason (R): Region parties by asserting excessive power did not take ful advantage of

coalition era. (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true 194. Assertion (A): Plaintiff may sue one or all of the wrong doers jointly in same action and even if

sued jointly the judgement obtained against them may be executed in full against anyone of them.

Reason (R): Joint tort-feasors are jointly & severally laible for the whole damage resulting from the tort.

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is the false (d) A is false but R is true 195. Assertion (A): X; because of unsoundness of mind, not knowing the nature of the act, attacks

Y, who in self defence and in order to ward off the attack, hits him thereby causing him hurt. Y does not’ commit an offence.

Reason (R): Y had a right of private defence against X under Section 98 of the Indian Penal Code.

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is the false (d) A is false but R is true 196. Assertion (A): If A does some work of B, without his request or knowledge, he can still sue for

the value of his work. Reason (R): Acquiescence can be presumed from silence. (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is the false

(d) A is false but R is true 197. Assertion (A): In tort of negligence, the defendant must not only owe the plaintiff a duty of

care, he must be in breach of it. Reason (R): Negligence is the omission to do something which a reasonable man, guided

upon by those considerations which ordinarily regulate the conduct of human affairs, would do, or doing something which a prudent and reasonable man would not do. (a)

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(b) A is true but R is the false (d) A is false but R is true 198. Assertion (A): Ex-post-facto laws are void if they provide for punishment of an act that had

been lawful when done. Reason (R): Imposing or increasing penalty with retrospective effect for violation of a taxing

statute does not infringe prohibition against ex-post-facto laws (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is the false (d) A is false but R is true 199. Assertion (A): In the even of breach of contract the aggrieved party is entitled to recover

compensation for the loss or damage which is caused to him by the breach of contract.

Reason (R): The object of awarding damages to the aggrieved party is to put him same position in which he would have been if the contract had been performed. Damages are, therefore, assessed on that basis.

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is the false (d) A is false but R is true 200. Assertion (A): Every person shall have the freedom of speech and expression. Reason (R): If people are stopped from speaking their mind, mankind will become ignorant. (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is the false (d) A is false but R is true