1 OSTEOLOGY 1. TESTS 1. CS. An osteon is: A. Bony blades located around the diaphysis B. Bony blades located around the canal nutrient C. Bony blades located around the spinal canal D. Bony blades located around the canal Havers E. Bony blades located around the metaphysis 2. CS.Bone growth in thickness occurs due to: A. Hyaline cartilage B. Fibrous cartilage C. Periosteum D. Metaphysis E. Fascia 3. CS.Bone growth in length occurs due to: A. Endosteum B. Periosteum C. Articular cartilage D. Metaepiphyseal cartilage E. Perichondrium 4. CS. Primary ossification points appear: A. In the first half of intrauterine period B. Immediately after birth C. During the second half intrauterine period D.By the age of 8 E. After the age of 10 5. CS. Secundary ossification points appear: A. In the first half of intrauterine period B. Immediately after birth C. During the second half intrauterine period D.By the age of 8 E. After the age of 10 6. CS. Auxiliary points of ossification appear : A. In the first half of intrauterine period B. Immediately after birth C. During the second half intrauterine period D.By the age of 8 E. After the age of 10 7. CS.Bones protecting the viscera are: A. Tubular bones B. Spongy bones C. Flat bones D. Mixed bones E. Pneumatic bones 8. CS.Carpal and tarsal bones are: A. Tubular B. Spongy C. Flat D. Mixed E. Pneumatic 9. CS.Bones that form cavities of the trunk are: A. Tubular
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1
OSTEOLOGY
1. TESTS
1. CS. An osteon is:
A. Bony blades located around the diaphysis
B. Bony blades located around the canal nutrient
C. Bony blades located around the spinal canal
D. Bony blades located around the canal Havers
E. Bony blades located around the metaphysis
2. CS.Bone growth in thickness occurs due to:
A. Hyaline cartilage
B. Fibrous cartilage
C. Periosteum
D. Metaphysis
E. Fascia
3. CS.Bone growth in length occurs due to:
A. Endosteum
B. Periosteum
C. Articular cartilage
D. Metaepiphyseal cartilage
E. Perichondrium
4. CS. Primary ossification points appear:
A. In the first half of intrauterine period
B. Immediately after birth
C. During the second half intrauterine period
D.By the age of 8
E. After the age of 10
5. CS. Secundary ossification points appear:
A. In the first half of intrauterine period
B. Immediately after birth
C. During the second half intrauterine period
D.By the age of 8
E. After the age of 10
6. CS. Auxiliary points of ossification appear :
A. In the first half of intrauterine period
B. Immediately after birth
C. During the second half intrauterine period
D.By the age of 8
E. After the age of 10
7. CS.Bones protecting the viscera are:
A. Tubular bones
B. Spongy bones
C. Flat bones
D. Mixed bones
E. Pneumatic bones
8. CS.Carpal and tarsal bones are:
A. Tubular
B. Spongy
C. Flat
D. Mixed
E. Pneumatic
9. CS.Bones that form cavities of the trunk are:
A. Tubular
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B. Spongy
C. Flat
D. Mixted
E. Pneumatic
10. CS.Bones that perform functions of the levers:
A. Tubular
B. Spongy
C. Flat
D. Mixted
E. Pneumatic
11. CS. Diplöe is:
A. Spongy substance of the epiphyses
B. Spongy substance of the carpal bones
C. Spongy substance of the skull bones
D. Spongy substance of the sternum
E. Spongy substance of the vertebrae
12. CS. Structures located near the joints or inside the muscular tendons:
A. Bones of fontanelles
B. Flat bones
C. Sutural bones
D. Short spongy bones
E. Sesamoid bones
13. CS.Structures located inside the tendons:
A. Long tubular bones
B. Flat bones
C. Sutural bones
D. Short spongy bones
E. Sesamoid bones
14. CS.Bones that perform function of the speed levers:
A. Long tubular bones
B. Flat bones
C. Sutural bones
D. Short spongy bones
E. Sesamoid bones
15. CS. Bohes that have diaphysis are:
A. Long tubular bones
B. Flat bones
C. Sutural bones
D. Short spongy bones
E. Sesamoid bones
16. CS. Structures modeled in relation to the bones that contact are:
A. Articular surfaces
B. Protrusions of the bones
C. Fossae and grooves
D. Orifices and canals
E. Diaphyses
17. CS.Which of the cervical vertebrae does not have spinous process?
A. C 3
B. C 2
C. C 6
D. C 1
E. C 7
3
18. CS. Rudimentary vertebrae are:
A. Thoracic vertebrae
B. Cervical vertebrae
C. Lumbar vertebrae
D. Sacral vertebrae
E. Coccygeal vertebrae
19. CS.Vertebrae that have bean-shaped massive body:
A. Thoracic vertebrae
B. Cervical vertebrae
C. Lumbar vertebrae
D. Sacral vertebrae
E. Coccygeal vertebrae
20. CS. Small rounded vertebrae:
A. Thoracic vertebrae
B. Cervical vertebrae
C. Lumbar vertebrae
D. Sacral vertebrae
E. Coccygeal vertebrae
21. CS.Vertebrae forming a single bone in adolescence:
A. Thoracic vertebrae
B. Cervical vertebrae
C. Lumbar vertebrae
D. Sacral vertebrae
E. Coccygeal vertebrae
22. CS.Vertebrae with bifid spinous processes are:
A. Thoracic vertebrae
B. Cervical vertebrae
C. Lumbar vertebrae
D. Sacral vertebrae
E. Coccygeal vertebrae
23. CS.Vertebrae with long transverse cvazifrontal processes:
A. Thoracic vertebrae
B. Cervical vertebrae
C. Lumbar vertebrae
D. Sacral vertebrae
E. Coccygeal vertebrae
24. CS.Vertebrae with articular surfaces located in the sagittal plane:
A. Atlas
B. Axis
C. VI-th cervical
D. I-st thoracic
E. I-st lumbar
25. CS.Vertebrae that have carotid tubercle:
A. Atlas
B. Axis
C. VI-th cervical
D. I-st thoracic
E. Lumbar vertebrae
26. CS.Vertebrae that have superior and inferior costal hemifossae
A. Atlas
B. Axis
C. VI-th cervical
D. I-st thoracic
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E. II-nd lumbar
27. CS.Vertebrae that have superior articular surfaces located on the body of vertebra:
A. Atlas
B. Axis
C. VI-th cervical
D. I-st thoracic
E. I-st lumbar
28. CS.Vertebra without the body is:
A. Atlas
B. Axis
C. VI-th cervical
D. I-st thoracic
E. V-th lumbar
29. CS. Vertebra that has only half of costal fossa on its body is:
A. Th 1
B. Th 12
C. T 11
D. Th 10
E. Th 8
30. CS. Promontorium is formed by the:
A. The last cervical and Th1 vertebrae
B. The last thoracic and first lumbar vertebrae
C. The last lumbar and first sacral vertebrae
D. The last sacral and Co1 vertebrae
E. The Th6 and Th7
31. CS.One of functions of the spinal curvatures is:
A. Shock absorption
B. Consolidation of the vertebrae
C. Support
D. Fixation of the limb
E. Protection
32. CS.Which spinal curvature occurs at the age of 2-3 months of postnatal development?
A. Cervical lordosis
B. Thoracic scoliosis
C. Lumbar lordosis
D. Sacral kyphosis
E. Thoracic kyphosis
33. CS. Cartilage of which rib has two articular surfaces:
A. First
B. Fifth
C. Eleventh
D. Second
E. Twelve
34. CS. Rib that can not be palpated on alive person:
A. XI
B. IX
C. II
D. I
E. XII
35. CS.The thorax is flat:
A. In athletes
5
B. In brachimorphs
C. In senile people
D. In mesomorphs
E. In dolichomorphs
36. CS. Structure containing superior and inferior apertures:
A. Vertebral column
B. Sternum
C. Thoracic cage
D. Sacrum
E. Ribs
37. CS.Structure that has the base and apex:
A. Vertebral column
B. Sternum
C. Thoracic cage
D. Sacrum
E. XII-th ribs
38. CS.Structure that consists of the manubrium, body and xiphoid process:
A. Vertebral column
B. Sternum
C. Thoracic cage
D. Sacrum
E. XII-th ribs
39. CS.The intertubercular grove is located on the:
A. Scapula
B. Clavicle
C. Humerus
D. Radius
E. Ulna
40. CS. Coracoid process is located on the:
A. Scapula
B. Clavicle
C. Humerus
D. Radius
E. Ulna
41. CS. Conoid tubercle is placed on the:
A. Scapula
B. Clavicle
C. Humerus
D. Radius
E. Ulna
42. CS. Trapezoid line passes on the:
A. Scapula
B. Clavicle
C. Humerus
D. Radius
E. Ulna
43. CS. Trochlear notch is located on the :
A. Scapula
B. Clavicle
C. Humerus
D. Radius
E. Ulna
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44. CS. Acromion is a part of:
A. Scapula
B. Clavicle
C. Humerus
D. Radius
E. Ulna
45. CS.Groove of the ulnar nerve is located on the:
A. Scapula
B. Clavicle
C. Humerus
D. Radius
E. Ulna
46. CS. Ulnar notch is related to the :
A. Scapula
B. Clavicle
C. Humerus
D. Radius
E. Ulna
47. CS.Which are the sesamoid bones of the lower limb?
A. Talus
B. Patella
C. Cuboid bone
D. Medial cuneiform bone
E. Navicular bone
48. CS. What anatomical structure separates the sciatic notches?
A. Sciatic tuber
B. Pubic tubercle
C. Inferior posterior iliac spine
D. Sciatic spine
E. Gluteal tuberosity
49. CS. Descriptive elements of the femur:
A.Gluteal tuberosity
B.Medial lip
C. Pectineal line
D. Lateral lip
E. All above mentioned
50. CS. Sphenoid bone takes part in formation of the orifice:
A. Jugular
B. Occipital
C. Lacerate
D. Infraorbitar
E. Mastoid
51. CS.Anatomical structures located on the lateral parts of the occipital bone:
A. Jugul notch
B. Groove of the sigmoid sinus
C. Occipital condyles
D. Hypoglossal canal
E. All above mentioned
52. CS.All statements regarding the temporal pyramid are correct, except:
A. The groove of superior petrosal sinus passes on the superior border of pyramid
B. Jugular fossa is located on its posterior surface
C. Trigeminal impression is located near the apex of pyramid
D. External orifice of the carotid canal is located near the jugular fossa
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E. Styloid process is located laterally to the jugular fossa
53. CS.Which canal is not placed inside of temporal pyramid?
A. Carotid canal
B. Canal of the facial nerve
C. Tympanic canalicle
D. Canal of hypoglossal nerve
E. Canal of the greater petrosal nerve
54. CS.All statements regarding the temporal bone are correct, except:
A. Orifices of the facial and vestibulocochlear nerves and blood vessels are located on the floor of the internal
acoustic meatus
B. External aperture of the cochlear canal is placed on the posterior surface of pyramid
C. Groove of the occipital artery is placed medially to the mastoid notch
D. Mastoid antrum communicates with the tympanic cavity
E. Timpanosquamous fissure divides into 2 fissures: petrosquamous and petrotympanic
55. CS.Which canal is inferior continuation of the pterygopalatine fossa?
A. Infraorbitar
B. Greater palatine
C. Lesser palatine
D. Condylar
E. Carotid
56. CS. Orbit communicates with the pterygopalatine fossa through the:
A. Round foramen
B. Greater palatine
C. Inferior orbital fissure
D. Superior orbital fissure
E. Pterygoid canal
57. CS. Pterygopalatine fossa communicates with the orbit through the:
A. Superior orbital fissure
B. Inferior orbital fissure
C. Optic canal
D. Pterygomaxillary fissure
E. Petrosquamousfissure
58. CS.What are fontanelles?
A. Cartilaginous parts of the calvaria
B. Membranous parts of the calvaria
C. Sutures of the calvaria
D. Disorders of osteogenesis
E. Fissuresof the calvaria
59. CS.Bone that develops by desmal and chondral osteogenesis is:
A. Maxilla
B. Nasal bone
C. Temporal bone
D. Ethmoid bone
E. Inferior nasal concha
60. CS. Impressions of Pacchionian granulations are related to the:
A. Temporal bone
B. Occipital bone
C. Sphenoid bone
D. Frontal bone
E. Parietal bone
61. CS. Oval foramen is located on the:
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A. Temporal bone.
B. Occipital bone
C. Sphenoid bone
D. Frontal bone
E. Parietal bone
62. CS. Ethmoid notch is related to the:
A. Temporal bone
B. Occipital bone
C. Sphenoid bone
D. Frontal bone
E. Parietal bone
63. CS. Pterygoid canal is related to the:
A. Parietal bone
B. Temporal bone
C. Frontal bone
D. Sphenoid bone
E. Occipital bone
64. CS. Optic canal passes through the:
A. Parietal bone
B. Temporal bone
C. Frontal bone
D. Sphenoid bone
E. Occipital bone
65. CS.Groove of the inferior petrosal sinus is associated to the:
A. Parietal bone
B. Temporal bone
C. Frontal bone
D. Sphenoid bone
E. Ethmoid bone
66. CS.Structure located on the apex of the temporal is:
A.External carotid foramen
B.Internal acoustic porus
C. Internal carotid foramen
D.Pterygoid canal
E. Hypoglossal canal
67. CS.Frontal angle is related to the:
A. Parietal bone
B. Temporal bone
C. Frontal bone
D. Sphenoid bone
E. Occipital bone
68. CS.Facial canal opens into the external environment by:
A. Hiatus of the greater petrosal nerve canal
B. Internal acoustic porus
C. Stylomastoid foramen
D. Petrosquamous fissure
E. Spinous foramen
69. CS. Hypoglossal canal passes through the:
A. Parietal bone
B. Temporal bone
C. Frontal bone
D. Sphenoid bone
E. Occipital bone
9
70. CS. Contents of the fossula petrosa :
A. Facial nerve
B. Inferior orifice of the tympanic canalicle
C. Cranial nerves VII and VIII
D. Chorda tympani
E. Auricular branch of the vagus nerve
71. CS. Tympanic part is associated with the:
A. Temporal bone
B. Occipital bone
C. Sphenoid bone
D. Frontal bone
E. Parietal bone
72. CS. Structure located on the apex of the orbit is:
A. Zygomatic bone
B. Fossa of the lacrimal sac
C. Infraorbitar groove
D. Optic canal
E. Trochlear fossa
73. CS.Narrow space between the lateral and inferior orbital wall is called:
A. Incisive canal
B. Piriform aperture
C. Mastoid antrum
D. Inferior orbital fissure
E. All above mentioned are wrong
74. CS.Structure located on the base of the pterygoid process is:
A. Incisive canal
B. Piriform aperture
C. Mastoid antrum
D. Inferior orbital fissure
E. All above mentioned foramen are wrong
75. CS. Orifice delimited by the nasal notch of the maxilla is called:
A. Incisive canal
B. Piriform aperture
C. Mastoid antrum
D. Inferior orbital fissure
E. All above mentioned are wrong
76. CS. Structure located on the anterior end of the median palatine groove is:
A. Incisive canal
B. Piriform aperture
C. Mastoid antrum
D. Inferior orbital fissure
E. All above mentioned are wrong
77. CS. From jugular fossa starts:
A. Mastoid canalicle
B. Musculotubal canal
C. Canalicle of the chorda tympani
D. Tympanic canalicle
E. All above mentioned are wrong
78. CS.Structure starting from the fossula petrosa is:
A. Mastoid canalicle
B. Musculotubal canal
10
C. Canal of the chorda tympani
D. Tympanic canalicle
E. Craniopharyngeal canal
79. CS. Posterior opening of the nasal cavity is:
A. Mastoid canalicle
B. Musculotubal canal
C. Canal of the chorda tympani
D. Tympanic canalicle
E. Choanae
80. CS. Canals starting from the facial nerve canal are:
A. Mastoid canalicle
B. Musculotubal canal
C. Canalicle of the chorda tympani
D. Tympanic canalicle
E. Semicanal of auditory tube
81. CS.Orifices open on the superior border of temporal pyramid are:
A. Mastoid canalicle
B. Musculotubal canal
C. Canalicle of the chorda tympani
D. Tympanic canalicle
E. Condylar canal
82. CS. Structures formed by three bones: sphenoid, maxilla and palatine are:
A. Lacerate foramen
B. Canal of hypoglossal nerve
C. Round foramen
D. Jugular foramen
E. All above mentioned are wrong
83. CS. Apex of temporal pyramid is limited in front by:
A. Lacerate foramen
B. Canal of hypoglossal nerve
C. Round foramen
D. Jugular foramen
E. Pterygopalatine canal
84. CS. On the base of occipital condyle are located:
A. Lacerate foramen
B. Canal of hypoglossal nerve
C. Round foramen
D. Jugular foramen
E. Pterygopalatine canal
85. CS.On the maxillary surface of the greater wing of sphenoid bone are open:
A. Lacerate foramen
B. Canal of hypoglossal nerve
C. Round foramen
D. Jugular foramen
E. Pterygopalatine canal
86. CS.Temporal and occipital bones delimit:
A. Lacerate foramen
B. Canal of hypoglossal nerve
C. Round foramen
D. Jugular foramen
E. Pterygopalatine canal
11
87. CS. Ethmoid bulla bulges into:
A. Inferior nasal meatus
B. On the medial wall of the orbit
C. On the base of zygomatic process
D. On the pyramid of temporal bone
E. In middle nasal meatus
88. CS. Nasolacrimal canal opens into:
A. Inferior nasal meatus
B. Medial wall of the orbit
C. Base of zygomatic process
D. Pyramid of temporal bone
E. Middle nasal meatus
89. CS. Ethmoid orifices are associated with:
A. Inferior nasal meatus
B. Medial wall of the orbit
C. Base of zygomatic process
D. Pyramid of temporal bone
E. Middle nasal meatus
90. CS. Aperture of the sphenoid sinus opens into:
A.Middle nasal meatus
B.Sphenoethmoid recess
C. Pterygopalatine fossa
D.Middle cranial fossa
E. All above mentioned are right
91. CS. Mandibular fossa is associated with:
A. Maxilla
B. Temporal pyramid
C. Base of zygomatic process
D. Squama and tympanic part of the temporal bone
E. Zygomatic arch
92. CS. Groove of superior petrosal sinus relates to the:
A. inferior nasal meatus
B. Medial wall of the orbit
C. Base of zygomatic process
D. Pyramid of temporal bone
E. Middle nasal meatus
93. CS.Structure containing a separating plate (lamina) is:
A. Mastoid canalicle
B. Incisive canal
C. Musculotubal canal
D. Tympanic canalicle
E. Carotid canal
94. CS. Laterally to the sphenoid body is open:
A. Mastoid canalicle
B. Incisive canal
C. Musculotubal canal
D. Tympanic canalicle
E. Carotid canal
95. CS.Canals open into the tympanomastoid fissure are:
A. Mastoid canalicle
B. Incisive canal
C. Musculotubal canal
D. Tympanic canalicle
12
E. Carotid canal
96. CS.Nasal cavity communicates with the oral one through the:
A. Mastoid canalicle
B. Incisive canal
C. Musculotubal canal
D. Tympanic canalicle
E. Carotid canal
97. CS. Pterygopalatine fossa communicates with the nasal cavity through the:
A. Round foramen
B. Sphenopalatine foramen
C. Foramen ovale
D. Pterygomaxillariy fissure
E. Pterygoid canal
98. CS. Pterygopalatine fossa communicates with the oral cavity through the:
A. Sphenopalatine foramen
B. Pterygoid canal
C. Round foramen
D. Greater palatine foramen
E. Condylar canal
99. CS.Nasal cavity communicates with pterygopalatine fossa through the: A. Sphenopalatine foramen
B. Greater palatine foramen
C. Pterygoid canal
D. Round foramen
E. Posterior ethmoid canal
100. CS.Bones forming the inferior orbital wall are: A. Maxilla
B. Palatine bone
C. Os sphenoidale
D. Os lacrimale
E. Os incisivum
101. CS.Structure passing through the tympanic cavity is:
A. Mastoid canalicle
B. Incisive canal
C. Musculotubal canal
D. Tympanic canalicle
E. Carotid canal
102. CS. Frankfurt line refers to:
A. Thoracic cage
B. Skull
C. Pelvis
D. Vertebral column
E. Upper limb
103. CS. Angle of Camper refers to:
A. Thoracic cage
B. Skull
C. Pelvis
D. Vertebral column
E. Upper limb
104. CS. Line of Schoemacker refers to:
A. Thoracic cage
13
B. Skull
C. Pelvis
D. Vertebral column
E. Lower limb
105. CS. Tubercle of Chassaignac is associated with:
A. Ribs
B. Skull
C. Pelvis
D. Vertebral column
E. Upper limb
106. CS. Tubercle of Lisfranc is reffered to:
A. Thoracic cage
B. Skull
C. Pelvis
D. Vertebral column
E. Lower limb
107. CS. Line of Lange refers to:
A. Thoracic cage
B. Skull
C. Pelvis
D. Vertebral column
E. Lower limb
108. CS. Sphenoethmoid recess has openings of the:
A. Incisive foramen
B. Aperture of sphenoid sinus
C. Ethmoid infundibulum
D. Posterior cells of ethmoid bone
E. Nasolacrimal canal
109. CS. Angle of Louis is located on:
A. Thoracic cage
B. Skull
C. Pelvis
D. Vertebral column
E. Upper limb
110. CM. Bone functions are:
A.Hematopoiesis
B.Support
C. Protection
D. Locomotion
E. Lymphopoiesis
111. CM.Anatomical terms concerning to the morphofunctional unit of bone tissue are:
A. Ossein
B. Osteon
C. Red bony marrow
D. Osteocyte
E. Haversian system
112. CM.Notions related to the bony system are: A. Miotom
B. Osteon
C. Periostium
D. Red bony marrow
E. Ectoderm
14
113. CM. Biological functions of the bone as an organ are:
A. Growth
B. Hematopoiesis
C. Locomotion
D. Regeneration
E. Protection
114. CM. Portions of a long tubular bone in adult:
A. Metaphysis
B. Apophysis
C. Diaphysis
D. Cortex
E. Epiphysis
115. CM.Types of points (centers)of ossification are:
A. Tubercular
B. Secondary
C. Epicondylar
D. Primary
E. Auxilliary
116. CM.Spongy bony tissue is present inside:
A. Skull bones
B. Tarsal bones
C. Sternum
D. Diaphyses of tubular bones
E. Epiphysesof tubular bones
117. CM. In structure of the bone in adults may be revealed osteons as the follows:
A. In development
B. Fragmented
C. Mature
D. Deformed
E. In the state of resorption
118. CM.Structural elements of the bone are:
A. Cambial layer
B. Layer of osteons
C. Pericondrium
D. Endostium
E. Periostium
119. CM. Periosteum in children consists of the following layers:
A. Cambial
B. Endosteal
C. Adventitinal
D. Endochondral
E. Fibroelastic
120. CM.Position of osseous trabeculae corresponds to:
A. Axis of bone
B. Direction of muscular fibers
C. Direction of lines of pressure
D. Axes of movements in joint
E. Direction of lines oftraction
121. CM.There are the following types of osteogenesis:
A. Enchondral
B. Perichondral
C. Periosteal
D. Medullary
15
E. Desmal
122. CM.Axial skeleton consists of:
A. Skull
B. Bones of shoulder girdle
C. Ribs
D. Pelvis
E. Vertebral column
123. E
CM.Concerning long tubular bones:
A. Consist of body and two epiphyses
B. Take part in formation of body cavities
C. Contain cavities lining by mucosa
D. Have articular covered by cartilage
E. Play functions of the levers
124. CM.Primary bones are:
A. Vertebrae
B. Parietal bone
C. Mandible
D. Frontal bone (Squama)
E. Sternum
125. CM. Bones related to the skull are:
A. Tubular
B. Spongy
C. Flat
D. Mixted
E. Pneumatic
126. CM.Bones that consist of some parts different by their shape and structure:
A. Tubular bones
B. Spongy bones
C. Flat bones
D. Mixted bones
E. Pneumatic bones
127. CM. Small, flat and inconstant bones are:
A. Fontanel bones
B. Flat bones
C. Intrasutural bones (Wormian bones)
D. Short spongy bones
E. Sesamoid bones
128. CM. Structures determed by exerted muscular traction:
A. Articular surfaces
B. Bony projections
C. Fossae and grooves
D. Orifices and canals
E. Extremities
129. CM.Structures that serve for insertion of the tendons or ligaments, and as passage for tendons, vessels and
nerves:
A. Articular surfaces
B. Bony projections
C. Fossae and grooves
D. Orifices and canals
E. Extremities
130. CM.Structures that serve for passage of blood vessels:
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A. Articular surfaces
B. Bony projections
C. Grooves
D. Orifices and canals
E. Proximal and distal extremities
131. CM.Highlight morphological elements of the vertebrae
A. Articular processes of the vertebrae
B. Vertebral arch
C.Coronoid process
D.Body of vertebra
E. Styloid process
132. CM.The main elements of a vertebra are:
A. Arch
B. Styloid process
C. Body
D. Intervertebral foramen
E. Pedicles
133. CM.Choose the terms applied for vertebral processes
A.Styloid process
B. Spinous process
C.Superior articular process
D.Transverse process
E. Pyramidal process
134. CM. Typical cervical vertebrae are distinguished by:
A. Oval body
B. Round vertebral foramen
C. Presence of transverse foramina
D. Costotransversal processes
E. Long spinous processes
135. CM.Highlight the distinctive characters of the cervical vertebrae
A. Foramen of process transverse process
B. Lateral masses
C.Bifid spinous process
D.Mamillary processes
E. Grooves forspinalnerves
136. CM.Terms applied for structure of the first cervical vertebra
A. Lateral masses
B.Accessory process
C. Fovea dentis
D.Posterior arch
E. Carotid groove
137. CM.Distinctive characters of the axis:
A. Anterior arch
B. Apex dentis
C. Dens
D. Anteriorarticular surface
E.Superiorarticular surfaces
138. CM. Spinous processes are forked (bifid) in vertebrae:
A. C 1
B. C 2
C. C 3
D. C 5
E. C 7
17
139. CM.Distinctive characters of typical thoracic vertebrae are:
A.Superiorand inferiorcostal fossae
B.Costotransversal process
C.Costalfoveae of transverse process
D. Accessory process
E. Nutritinal foramen
140. CM.Vertebrae without orifice in transverse process:
A. Thoracic vertebrae
B. Cervical vertebrae
C. Lumbar vertebrae
D. Sacral vertebrae
E. Coccigeal vertebrae
141. CM.Fused vertebrae forming a single bone are:
A. Thoracic vertebrae
B. Cervical vertebrae
C. Lumbar vertebrae
D. Sacral vertebrae
E. Coccygeal vertebrae
142. CM.Thoracic vertebrae with complet costal fossae on the body:
A.First ( I)
B.Tenth (X)
C.Eleventh (XI)
D.Twelveth(XII
E. Ninth(IX)
143. CM. Highlight the specific terms used only for lumbar vertebrae.
A.Transverse process
B. Accessory process
C. Superior articular processes
D.Inferior articular processes
E. Mamillary process
144. CM. Highlight anatomic structures located on the dorsal surface of the sacrum
A. Median sacral crest
B.Transverse line
C.Sacral canal
D.Sacral hiatus
E. Inferior articular process
145. CM. What is appearance of anomaly „spina bifida aperta”?
A. Notch of the vertebral body
B. Notch of the vertebral arch
C. Notch of the vertebral arch, accompanied by infringement of integrity of soft tissue
D. Inconcrescence of the arch with vertebral body
E. Spinal hernia (meningomielocele)
146. CM. Highlight anomalies of transition of the vertebrae
A. Assimilation of the atlas
B. Spondylolysis
C. Sacralization
D. Lumbalization
E. All are right
147. CM.Vertebrae that do not have costal fossae /semifossae/ on their body are:
A. Thoracic vertebrae
B. Cervical vertebrae
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C. Lumbar vertebrae
D. Sacral vertebrae
E. Coccygeal vertebrae
148. CM. Vertebrae that carry the mamillary process:
A. Cervical vertebrae
B. XII-th thoracic
C. Lumbar vertebrae
D. Sacral vertebrae
E. Coccygeal vertebrae
149. CM. Structures related to the Atlas are:
A. Lateral masses
B. Anterior and posterior arches
C. Groove of the vertebral artery
D. Superior and inferior articular surfaces
E. Spinous process
150. CM. Structures related to the epistrofeus are:
A. Odontoid process
B. Grooves of the vertebral artery
C. Anterior and posterior articular surfaces
D. Bifid spinous process
E. Anterior tubercle
151. CM.Costal fossae are missing on the transverse processes of the vertebrae:
A. Th I
B. Th V
C. Th XI
D. Th X
E. Th XII
152. CM.Formations characteristic only for the thoracic vertebrae:
A. Spinous processes
B. Articular processes
C. Costal foveae on the body
D. Orifices on the transverse processes
E. Costal foveae on the transverse processes
153. CM. Intervertebral holes are bounded by the:
A. Articular processes
B. Inferior vertebral notch
C. Transverse processes
D. Superior vertebral notch
E. Vertebral arch
154. CM.Vertebrae carring the articular foveae on their body are:
A. C 3
B. Th 1
C. L 3
D. C 7
E. Th 11
155. CM. Which of the vertebrae have a special name (term)?
A. Th 5
B. C 1
C. L 4
D. C 7
E. C 2
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156. CM.The structures taking part in formation of the spinal canal are:
A. Articular processes
B. Transverse processes
C. Vertebral arch
D. Vertebral body
E. Vertebral pedicles
157. CM.Vertebral anomalies at the limitrophe regions between the divisions of the vertebral column:
A. Sacralization
B. Vertebral block
C. Asomia
D. Platyspondilia
E. Lumbalization
158. CM. Curvatures of the spine in the sagittal plane are:
A. Cervical lordosis
B. Thoracic scoliosis
C. Thoracic kyphosis
D. Lumbar lordosis
E. Cervical scoliosis
159. CM. Anomalies of the vertebrae are:
A. Spina bifida
B. Spondylolysis
C. Concrescence
D. Osteopoikilosis
E. Sirenomelia
160. CM.Highlight parts of the rib
A.Head of the rib
B.Neck of the rib
C.Body of the rib
D.Costal cartilage
E. Groove of the spinal nerve
161. CM.Location of the groove of subclavian artery on the first rib:
A. Posteriorly to the costal tubercle
B.Posteriorly to the tubercle of the anterior scalene muscle
C. Anteriorly to the tubercle of the anterior scalene muscle
D.On the costal tubercle
E. On the superior surface of the rib
162. CM.True ribs are:
A. VII-th rib
B. VIII-th rib
C. V-th rib
D. VI-th rib
E. IX-th rib
163. CM.False ribs are:
A. X-th rib
B. VI-th rib
C. VIII-th rib
D. XI-th rib
E. IX-th rib
164. CM.Head of which rib is missing the crest?
A. VII-th rib
B. X-th rib
C. I-st rib
D. XI-th rib
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E. XII-th rib
165. CM. Ribs carring a single articular surface on the head:
A. I-st rib
B. V-th rib
C. X-th rib
D. II-nd rib
E. XII-th rib
166. CM. Ribs without the costal tubercle are:
A. I-st rib
B. V-th rib
C. XI-th rib
D. II-nd rib
E. XII-th rib
167. CM. Ribs with 2 articular surfaces on the head:
A. I-st rib
B. V-th rib
C. X-th rib
D. II-nd rib
E. XII-th rib
168. CM.The first rib: A. It is atypic
B. It is the shortest one, wider and more curved
C. It is flattened in the superoinferior sense
D. Has one tubercle and 2 grooves on the inferior surface
E. Its anterior end is wider and thicker than the posterior one
169. CM. Articular surface is absent on the transverse process of the:
A. I-st rib
B. XI-th rib
C. X-th rib
D. XII-th rib
E. II-nd rib
170. CM. Sternal manubrium:
A. Is located at the level of the II-nd and III-rd thoracic vertebrae
B. Articular facet is located on its superior margin
C. Clavicular notches are located on its superolateral angles
D. 2 costal articular fossae are placed on its lateral margins
E. Inferior margin joins to the sternal body forming the sternal angle (Louis)
171. CM. Anatomical structures located on the sternal manubrium are:
A.Costal facets
B. Jugular notch
C. Clavicular notch
D. Costal notch
E. Clavicular facets
172. CM.Parts of the sternum are:
A. Sternal body
B. Styloid process
C. Sternal manubrium
D. Clavicular notch
E. Jugular notch
173. CM. Statements correctly applied to the sternal body:
A. Is the longest portion of the sternum
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B. It locates at the level of the vertebrae Th5 - Th8 ½ Th9
C. Is formed by fusion of 4 sternebrae
D. Articular surfaces for the ribs II –VII are located on its lateral side
E. Forms the subcostal angle together with the xyphoid process
174. CM. Location of the sternal angle:
A. At fusion of the manubrium with the sternal body
B. In union of the sternal body with the xiphoid process
C. In the middle of sternal body
D. At the level of jugular notch
E. At the level of the II-nd costal notches
175. CM. Bones delimiting the upper thoracic aperture are:
A. Clavicle
B. The I-st rib
C. Sternal body
D. Sternal manubrium
E. The I-st thoracic vertebra
176. CM. Structures bordering the superior thoracic aperture are:
A. VI-th rib
B. Xiphoid process of the sternum
C. Costal arch
D. VIII-th and X-th ribs
E. Body of the Th X-th vertebra
177. CM. Shape and dimensions of the thorax depend on:
A. Shape of the sternum
B. Age
C. Costovertebral joints
D. Gender
E. Constitutional type
178. CM. Structures that have not lordoses and kyphoses:
A. Vertebral column
B. Sternum
C. Thoracic cage
D. Sacrum
E. Ribs
179. CM. Bones of the shoulder girdle:
A. Humerus
B. Clavicle
C. Sternum
D. Scapula
E. I-st rib
180. CM. Statements correctly applied to the clavicle:
A. It is the single long bone in the body located horizontally
B. The entire its length is located subcutaneously
C. It is the first bone to begin ossification
D. Acromial end ossifys endesmally
E. It is the single long bone to ossify partly endesmally
181. CM. Lateral angle of the scapula carries:
A. Spine of the scapula
B. Subarticular (infraglenoid) tubercle
C. Coracoid process
D. Supraspinous fossa
E. Neck of the scapula
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182. CM. Anatomical structures located at the level of the lateral scapular angle
A. Acromial articular surface
B. Infraspinous fossa
C. Glenoid cavity
D. Supraglenoid tubercle
E. Clavicular articular surface
183. CM. The main components of the upper limb skeleton are:
A. Shoulder girdle
B. Arm
C. Hand
D. Skeleton of the free upper limb
E. Forearm
184. CM. Segments of the free upper limb
A. Forearm bones
B. Humerus
C. Bones of the hand
D. Arm
E. Phalanges of the fingers
185. CM. Bones of the shoulder girdle are:
A. Sternum.
B. Clavicle
C. Humerus
D. Scapula
E. First rib
186. CM. Structural elements of the shoulder girdle bone palpable on alive person:
A. Sternal end of clavicle
B. Supraglenoid tubercle
C. Acromial end of clavicle
D. Acromion
E. Body of the clavicle
187. CM. Structural elements located on the dorsal surface of the scapula
A. Acromial process
B. Supraspinous fossa
C. Coracoid process
D. Scapular spine
E. Glenoid cavity
188. CM. Structural elements located on the acromial end of the clavicle
A. Acromial articular surface
B. Conoid tubercle
C. Trapezoid line
D. Sternal articular surface
E. Clavicular articular surface
189. CM. Statements correctly pertain to the upper free limb skeleton:
A. Lateral epicondyle of the humerus is more prominent than the medial one
B. Head of the radius is disc-shaped
C. Ulna is shorter than radius
D. Supinator fossa located under the radial notch of the ulna is delimited posteriorly by the homonymous crest
E. Anterior surface of coronoid process is smooth
190. CM. Statements correctly pertain to the humerus: A. Anatomical neck separates the head of the humerus from the greater and lesser tubercles
B. Surgical neck is located in the middle part of the diaphysis of the humerus
C. 2 fossae: coronoid and olecranian are located proximally to the trochlea of the humerus
D. Medial epicondyle starts from the capitulum of the humerus, lateral one – from the trochlea
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E. Risc of traumatic injury of the radial and ulnar nerves exists in fractures of the humerus
191. CM. Anatomical structures located at the level of the upper end of the humerus
A. Anatomical neck
B. Lateral epicondyle
C. Intertubercular groove
D. Head of the humerus
E. Groove of the ulnar nerve
192. CM.Location of the groove of radial nerve?
A. Medial surface
B. Lateral surface
C. Anterior surface
D. Posterior surface
E. Lateral epicondyle
193. CM. Anatomical structures located at the level of the distal end of humerus
A. Trochlea of the humerus
B. Greater tubercle
C. Groove of the ulnar nerve
D. Olecranian fossa
E. Groove of the radial nerve
194. CM. Anatomical structures of the proximal end of humerus:
A. Greater tubercle
B. Crest of the lesser tubercle
C. Groove of the radial nerve
D. Anatomical neck
E. Head of the condyle of the humerus
195. CM. Anatomical structures of the distal end of humerus are:
A. Anatomical neck
B. Coronoid fossa
C. Intertubercular groove
D. Groove of the ulnar nerve
E. Groove of the radial nerve
196. CM. Elements of the humerus that may be palpated on alive person:
A. Anatomical neck
B. Medial epicondyle
C. Coronoid fossa
D. Lateral epicondyle
E. Surgical neck
197. CM.Which bones form the skeleton of forearm?
A. Radial bone
B.Humerus
C. Fibula
D. Ulna
E. Olecranon
198. CM. Anatomical structures situated at the proximal end of the ulna.
A. Olecranon.
B. Head of ulna.
C. Ulnar notch.
D. Trochlear notch.
E. Supinator crest.
199. CM. Anatomical structures located at the level of distal part of radial bone:
A. Neck of the radius
24
B. Head of the radius.
C. Ulnar notch
D. Styloid process
E. Radial tuberosity
200. CM. Which of the upper limb bones carries an articular circumference?
A.Humerus
B. Ulna
C. Clavicle
D. Radial bone
E. All above mentioned are right
201. CM. Which of the upper limb bones carries the styloid process?
A. Os hamatum
B. Humerus
C. Ulna
D. Radial. bone
E. Scapula
202. CM. Statements that pertain to the forearm bones:
A. Lateral surface of the radial bone continues distally by styloid process
B. Posterior border of the radial bone is seen better in its distal part
C. Proximal end of the ulna has 2 processes and 2 notches
D. Posterior border of the ulna has subcutaneous location
E. Nutritional orifice of the ulna is located on the proximal part of the anterior surface
203. CM. Elements of the upper limb bones that can be palpated on alive person:
A. Coronoid process of the ulna
B. Olecranon
C. Styloid process of the ulna
D. Styloid process of the radial bone
E. Interosseal margin of the radius
204. CM. Bones of the hand: A. Scaphoid bone is the biggest bone of the proximal row of the carpus
B. Pisiform bone is located inside the tendon of the radial flexor of the carpus
C. The first metacarpal bone is the shortest metacarpal bone
D. Each phalanx has 3 parts: base, body and head
E. Phalange of the thumb are thicker and longer than those of the other fingers
205. CM. What are the segments of the skeleton of the hand?
A. Metacarpus
B. Tarsus
C. Carpus
D. Phalanges of the fingers
E. Brachium
206. CM.Developmental abnormalities of the skeleton of the hand
A. Acheiria
B. Apodia
C. Polydactyly
D. Syndactyly
E. Sirenomelia
207. CM. Carpal bones:
A. Bones of the proximal row (in the lateral-medial sence) are located in the order: scaphoid, lunate, pyramidal,
pisiform
B. Each carpal bone has 6 articular surfaces
C. Proximal row of the carpal bones forms a structure that is convex proximally and concave distally
D. Distal row has one surface convex proximally and other rectiline distally
E. There are 4 prominent points of insertion and origin on the carpal bones: on the scaphoid, pisiform, trapezoid and
25
hamate bones
208. CM.In the metacarpal bones are distinguished:
A. Epicondyles
B. Base
C. Body
D. Neck
E. Head
209. CM.The following bones have the styloid process:
A. Scapula
B. Clavicle
C. Humerus
D. Radius
E. Ulna
210. CM.What bones form the distal row of the carpal bones?
A.Trapezoid
B. Lunate
C.Capitate
D. Hamate
E. Navicular
211. CM. Indicate parts of the metacarpal bone
A. Base
B.Neck
C.Body
D.Head
E. Epiphysis
212. CM.Bones that have the head and neck are:
A. Scapula
B. Clavicle
C. Humerus
D. Radius
E. Ulna
213. CM.Mark anomalies of the upper limb
A. Focomelia
B. Acheiria
C. Rachischisis
D. Syndactilia
E. Spondylolisis.
214. CM.Components of the lower limb skeleton are:
A. Femur
B. Brachium
C. Girdle
D. Skeleton of the free lower limb
E. Humerus
215. CM.Statements applied to the coxal bone:
A. Ilion is placed superiorly, pubic bone - anteroinferiorly, sciaticbone - posteroinferiorly
B. Tubercle of the pubic bone and anterior superior iliac spine are located in the frontal plane
C. Obturator foramen is delimited by the pubic bone anterosuperiorly, and by sciatic bone - posteroinferiorly
D. Posterior gluteal line is the longest of those 3 gluteal lines
E. The uppest point of the iliac is located at the level of the 4-th lumbar intervertebral disc
216. CM. Coxal bone consists of:
A. Pubic bone
26
B. Obturator foramen
C. Iliac bone
D. Iliac crest
E. Sciatic bone
217. CM. Of what bones the coxal bone consists?
A. Pubic bone
B. Sacrum
C. Sciatic bone
D. Ilium
E. Coccygeal bone
218. CM. Anatomical structures of the iliac bone.
A. Obturator groove
B. Auricular surface
C. Symphysial surface
D. Greater wing
E. Anterior gluteal line
219. CM. Anatomical structures located on the iliac crest
A. Iliac tuberosity
B. Anterior superior iliac spine
C. Spina iliaca posterior inferior
D. Arcuate line
E. Intermedial line
220. CM. Anatomical structures of the acetabulum
A. Lunate surface.
B. Acetabular fossa.
C. Acetabular notch.
D. Fovea of the head of femur.
E. Pubic tubercle
221. CM. Anatomical structures of the pubic bone:
A. Pubic tubercle
B. Obturator groove
C. Iliopubic eminence
D. Pubic crest
E. Auricular surface
222. CM. Structures of the hip bone palpabile on alive person are:
A. Iliac crest
B. Acetabulum
C. Anterior superior iliac spine
D. Sciatic tuber
E. Sciatic spine
223. CM. Pelvis as a whole: A. Superior aperture of the small pelvis is inclined anteroinferiorly
B. Angle of inclination from the horizontal plane is smaller in women than in men
C. Anterior iliac spines and sciatic tubers in anatomical position are located in the same frontal plane
D. Inferior pelvic aperture in female is larger than in men
E. True conjugate is the distance between the promontory and the most prominent posteriorly point of the pubic
symphysis.
224. CM. Statements correctly applied to the skeleton of the lower limb:
A. Lesser trochanter is located in the angle formed by the neck and body of the femur
B. Body of the femur is convex anteriorly
C. Femur can be palpated at the distal part only
D. Apex of the patella is directed upward
E. Patella has function of support
27
225. CM. Structures of the distal end of the femur are:
A. Neck of the femur
B. Popliteal surface
C. Gluteal tuberosity
D. Medial condyle
E. Lateral epicondyle
226. CM. Anatomical structures located at the level of proximal end of the femur
A.Greater trochanter
B. Medial condyle
C. Rough line (linea aspera)
D. Intertrochanteric line
E. Acetabulum
227. CM. Anatomical structures located at the level of distal end of the femur
A. Lateral epicondyle
B. Medial epicondyle
C. Popliteal surface
D. Patellary surface
E. Lunate surface
228. CM. Structural elements that can be palpated on alive person
A. Head of the femur
B. Medial epicondyle
C. Lesser trochanter
D. Greater trochanter
E. Lateral epicondyle
229. CM. Structures of the proximal end of the tibia:
A. Intercondilar eminence
B. Fibular articular surface
C. Medial intercondylar tubercle
D. Medial malleolus
E. Lateral intercondylar tubercle
230. CM. Which of the bones of the lower limb carry malleoli?
A. Tibia
B. Talus
C. Fibula
D. Calcaneus
E. Patella
231. CM. Structural elements of the proximal end of the tibia?
A. Anterior intercondylar area
B. Fibular articular surface
C. Fibular notch
D.Intercondylar eminence
E. Medial epicondyle
232. CM.Structural elements of the distal end of the tibia:
A. Line of the soleus muscle
B. Malleolar groove
C. Medial malleolus
D. Lateral malleolus
E. Fibular notch
233. CM. Structural elements of the leg bones that can be palpated on alive person:
A. Intercondilar eminence
B. Lateral maleola
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C. Medial malleolus
D. Tuberosity of the tibia
E. Head of the fibula
234. CM. Skeleton of the foot is subdivided into:
A. Carpal bones
B. Tarsal bones
C. Metacarpal bones
D. Metatarsal bones
E. Bones of the toes
235. CM.What bones of the foot form the proximal row of the tarsus?
A. Medial cuneiform bone
B. Navicular bone
C. Calcaneus
D. Talus
E. Lunate bone
236. CM. Anatomical structures situated at the level of the astragalus.
A. Trochlea tali
B. Medial malleolar surface
C. Head of the talus
D. Posterior articular surface of the calcanean bone
E. All above mentioned are right
237. CM. Anatomical structures located at the level of the calcaneus
A. Lateral malleolar surface
B. Sustentaculum tali
C. Middle talar articular surface
D. Navicular articular surface
E. Cuboid articular surface
238. CM. Bones of the distal row of the tarsus:
A. Astragalus (talar bone)
B. Cuboid bone
C. Medial cuneiform bone
D. Navicular bone
E. Lateral cuneiform bone
239. CM. Bones forming the solidar complex of the foot:
A. Calcaneus
B. Navicular bone
C. Astragalus (talar bone)
D. Cuneiform bones
E. Cuboid bone
240. CM. Plantar arches:
A. They are in humans and some higher vertebrates
B. Convexity of the transverse arch is more pronounced at the medial edge of the plant
C. Toes do not have supporting role
D. Plantar arches are supported by dome-shaped foot bones, ligaments, muscles and aponeuroses
E. The longest and highest longitudinal arch is the third one
241. CM. Amortizing structures (damping structures)of the lower limb:
A. Menisci
B. Synovial fluid
C. Leg bones
D. Patella
E. Plantar arches
29
242. CM. Bones of the cerebral skull are:
A. Sphenoid bone
B. Occipital bone
C. Vomer bone
D. Palatine bone
E. Etmoid bone
243. CM. Bones of the cerebral skull are:
A. Sphenoid bone
B. Occipital bone
C. Frontal bone
D. Parietal bone
E. All above mentionedare right
244. CM.Skull bones containing air cavities?
A. Mandible
B. Sphenoid bone
C.Frontal bone
D. Maxilla
E. Inferior nasal concha
245. CM.Mark the main parts of the frontal bone.
A. Squama
B. Frontal sinus
C. Orbital parts
D. Nasal part
E. Greater wing
246. CM.Structures located on the cerebral surface of the frontal bone
A. Groove of the superior sagittal sinus
B. Groove of the sigmoid sinus
C. Crista galli
D. Oval foramen
E. Crest of the frontal bone
247. CM.Anatomical structures located on the inner surface of the Squama of occipital bone
A. Groove of the inferior petrosal sinus
B. Groove of the transverse sinus
C. Superior nuchal line.
D. Groove of the superior sagittal sinus
E. Groove of thesigmoid sinus
248. CM.Anatomical structures located on the external surface of the Squama of frontal bone
A.Superciliary arches
B. Ethmoid notch
C. Glabella
D. Temporal line
E. Infraorbital foramen
249. CM. Mark the main parts of the occipital bone
A. Basilar part
B. Clivus
C. Occipital Squama
D. Greater occipital foramen (foramen magnum)
E. All mentioned above are right
250. CM. Anatomical structures located on the inner surface of the parietal bone
A. Temporal line
B. Parietal tuber
C. Arterial grooves
D. Groove of the superior sagittal sinus
30
E. Pits for pacchionian granulations
251. CM. Mark the main parts of the sphenoid bone A. Greater wing
B. Pterygoid process
C. Sphenoid sinus
D. Lesser wing
E. All mentioned above are right
252. CM. Terms that pertain to the base of the skull:
A. Anterior base
B. Posterior base
C. Exobase
D. Lateral
E. Endobase
253. CM. Bones of the facial skull are:
A. Mandible
B. Ethmoid bone
C. Zygomatic bone
D. Frontal bone
E. Nasal bone
254. CM. Odd bones of the skull are:
A. Maxilla
B. Mandible
C. Sphenoid bone
D. Vomer
E. Palatine bone
255. CM. Pneumatic bones are:
A. Coxal bone
B. Frontal bone
C. Humerus
D. Sphenoid bone
E. Maxilla
256. CM. Orifices of the exobase of the skull, formed by fusion of two or more bones:
A. Styloid
B. Lacerate
C. Round foramen
D. External orifice of the carotid canal
E. Jugular
257. CM. Skull-cap (calvaria) is formed by:
A. Frontal bone
B. Basilar part of occipital bone
C. Squama of temporal bone
D. Parietal bones
E. Body of sphenoid bone
258. CM. Structural elements of the frontal bone:
A. Zygomatic process
B. Supraorbital notch
C. Temporal line
D. Crista galli
E. Superciliary arches
259. CM. Portions of the occipital bone:
A. Basilar part
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B. Temporal part
C. Lateral part
D. Sphenoid part
E. Squama of the occipital bone
260. CM.Occipital bone takes part in formation of the orifices:
A. Round
B. Greater occipital
C. Jugular
D. Oval
E. Lacerate
261. CM. Indicate the frontal sinus opening?
A. Through ethmoid infundibulum
B. In the middle nasal meatus
C. In the inferior nasal meatus
D. In the superior nasal meatus
E. In the temporal fossa
262. CM.Divisions of the sphenoid bone:
A. Base
B. Body
C. Greater wing
D. Lesser wing
E. Pterygoid processes
263. CM. Canals of the sphenoid bone:
A. Musculotubar
B. Optic
C. Carotid
D. Pterygoid
E. Infraorbital
264. CM. Surfaces of the greater wing of the sphenoid bone:
A. Cerebral
B. Temporal
C. Zygomatic
D. Orbital
E. Infratemporal
265. CM. Structures pertaining to the body of sphenoid bone:
A. Hypophyseal fossa
B. Sphenoid sinus
C. Pterygopalatine groove
D. Anterior clinoid process
E. Carotid groove
266. CM. Pterygoid process contains:
A. Pterygopalatine groove
B. Pterygoid fossa
C. Sphenoid rostrum
D. Pterygoid notch
E. Pterygoid hook
267. CM. Divisions of the ethmoid bone:
A. Orbital plate
B. Ethmoid labirynth
C. Medial plate
D. Cribriform plate
E. Perpendicular plate
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268. CM. The main divisions of the ethmoid bone are:
A. Cribriform plate
B. Ethmoid labyrinth
C. Perpendicular plate
D. Ethmoid cells
E. Inferior nasal concha
269. CM. Which nasal conchae belong to the ethmoid bone?
A. Superior nasal concha
B. Inferior nasal concha
C. Middle nasal concha
D. Supreme nasal concha
E. All above mentioned are right
270. CM. Ethmoid cells open into:
A. Orbit
B. Superior nasal meatus
C. Anterior cranial fossa
D. Middle nasal meatus
E. Inferior nasal meatus
271. CM. Parts of the temporal bone:
A. Pyramid
B. Body
C. Mastoid part
D. Squamous part
E. Tympanic part
272. CM. Highlight the main divisions of the temporal bone.
A. Petrosal part
B. Mastoid process
C. Tympanic part
D. Squamous part
E. All above mentioned are right
273. CM. Anatomical structures having the openings of the ethmoid cells?
A. Middle nasal meatus
B. Common nasal meatus
C. Superior nasal meatus
D. Anterior cranial fossa
E. Pterygopalatine fossa
274. CM. Anatomical structures situated on the anterior surface of the temporal pyramid.
A. Arcuate eminence
B.Trigeminal impression
C. Petrosal fossa
D. Groove of the inferior petrosal sinus
E. Groove of the greater petrosal nerve
275. CM. Anatomical structures situated on the posterior surface of the temporal pyramid.
A. Tympanic roof (tegmen tympani)
B. External acoustic porus
C. External aperture of the vestibular aqueduct
D. Internal acoustic porus
E. Subarcuate fossa
276. CM. Anatomical structuressituatedon the inferior surface of the temporal pyramid.
A.Subarcuate fossa
B.Inferior aperture of the tympanic canalicle
C. Jugular foramen
D.External carotid foramen
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E. Petrosal fossa
277. CM. Processes of the temporal bone
A. Frontal process
B. Zygomatic process
C. Pterygoid process
D. Mastoid process
E. Intrajugular process
278. CM. Canals and canalicles of the temporal bone.
A. Carotid canal
B. Optic canal
C. Facial canal
D. Mastoid canalicle
E. Condylar canal
279. CM. Statements pertaining to the facial skull:
A. The hyoid bone is located at the level of the third cervical vertebra.
B. On the apex of the horns of hyoid bone are located tubercles.
C. Anterior portion of the superior nasal wall is formed by the ethmoid cribriform plate.
D. Bones that contribute to the nasal septum formation are: the nasal spine of the frontal bone, sphenoid rostrum,
nasal crests of the nasal, palatine and maxillary bones.
E. Posteroinferior part of the nasal septum is formed by the vomer.
280. CM. Statements pertaining to the facial skull cavities:
A. Medial walls of the orbits are parallel, those lateral form the right angle relative to each other
B. Optic canal is located at the level of the union of the upper wall of the orbit to the medial one.
C. Frontal sinus in some cases extends to the anteromedial part of the superior wall of the orbit.
D. Inferior wall of the orbit separates the orbit from the maxillary sinus.
E. Medial wall of the orbit is thicker and more durable of all orbital walls.
281. CM. Statements that pertain to the body of the maxilla:
A. Has 4 processes.
B. Infratemporal surface take part in formation of the infratemporal and pterygopalatine fossae.
C. The great palatine groove is located on its nasal surface.
D. The lacrimal groove lies in front of the maxillary hiatus.
E. It takes part informationof the orbit, nasal and oral cavities
282. CM. Statements that pertain to the mandible:
A. Anterior border of the branch of the mandible is thinner than the posterior one.
B. Submandibular fossa is located under the mylohyoid line, that sublingual–above it.
C. It is the most massive and most lasting bone of the facial skull.
D. The oblique line is located on the internal surface of the branch of mandible.
E. It is the second bone of the human body, it which ossification starts.
283. CM. Statements pertaining to the age changes of the mandible:
A. Both halves of the mandible fuse till the 2nd year of life.
B. Mental orifice in the newborns is located near the lower edge of the mandible.
C. Angle between the body and the branch in the newborn is obtuse - about 140˚and more.
D. The height of the mandibular body incrises in old people.
E. Mental orifice is located on midpoint of distance between the superior and inferior margins of the mandible in
adults .
284. CM. Anatomical structures that pertain to the palatine bone:
A. Orbital plate
B. Horizontal plate
C. Ethmoid plate
D. Perpendicular plate
E. Sphenoid plate
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285. CM. Medial wall of the orbit is formed by the:
A. Orbital surface of the greater wing
B. Lacrimal bone
C. Lesser wings
D. Orbital plate of the ethmoid bone
E. Frontal process of the maxilla
286. CM. Inferior wall of the orbit is formed by the:
A. Orbital surface of the zygomatic bone
B. Frontal process of the zygomatic bone
C. Orbital surface of the maxilla
D. Zygomatic process of the frontal bone
E. Orbital process of the palatine bone
287. CM. Lateral wall of the orbit is formed by the:
A. Lateral plate of the pterygoid process
B. Zygomatic process of the frontal bone
C. Orbital surface of the greater wing of the sphenoid bone
D. Frontal process of the maxilla
E. Frontal process of the zygomatic bone
288. CM. Orbit communicates with endobase of the skull through the:
A. Optic canal
B. Round foramen
C. Superior orbital fissure
D. Inferior orbital fissure
E. Ethmoid orifices
289. CM. Inferior orbital fissure is limited by the:
A. Orbital process of the palatine bone
B. Frontal bone
C. Orbital surface of the maxilla
D. Orbital plate of the ethmoid bone
E. Orbital surface of the greater wing of the sphenoid bone
290. CM. Orbit communicates with the nasal cavity through the:
A. Anterior ethmoid orifice
B. Greater palatine canal
C. Nasolacrimal canal
D. Posterior ethmoid orifice
E. Optic canal
291. 2 CM. Bones that take part in formation of the lateral orbital wall are:
A. Lacrimal bone
B. Maxilla
C. Ethmoid labirynth
D. Nasal bones
E. Palatine bone
292. CM. Nasal bony septum constitutes of the:
A. Nasal spine of the frontal bone
B. Frontal process of the maxilla
C. Perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone
D. Perpendicular plate of the palatine bone
E. Vomer
293. CM. Statements concerning the skull as a whole:
A. Base of the skull is more fragile than calvaria
B. Internal blade of the bones of calvaria is stronger than external one
C. Middle cranial fossa contains the temporal lobes of the cerebral hemisphere
D. Jugular foramen is placed behind the petrooccipital fissure.
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E. Spinous orifice communicates the middle cranial fossa with the infratemporal one.
294. CM. Statements that pertain to the anterior cranial fossa:
A. Cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone separates anterior cranial fossa from the nasal cavity.
B. It houses the foramen cecum and orifices of the anterior and posterior ethmoid canals.
C. Medial margins of the orbital parts of the frontal bone overlap the ethmoid labyrinths.
D. 3 bones take part in formation of the anterior cranial fossa .
E. Ethmoid canals are formed by junction of the lateral margin of the cribriform plate with the frontal bone.
295. CM. Statements that pertain to the middle cranial fossa:
A. In its central is placed the optic canal, chiasmatic groove and turkish saddle.
B. In the anterior part of the turkish saddle a tubercle is located, in that posterior – dorsum sellae, and in the middle –
hypophyseal fossa.
C. It is located in relation to the orbits anteriorly, to the temporal fossa - laterally, to pterygopalatine fossa - inferiorly.
D. Lacerate foramen is located posteromedially to the oval foramen.
E. It communicates with the orbit, pterygopalatine fossa and exobase of the skull.
296. CM. Statements that pertain to the posterior cranial fossa:
A. It is the largest and deepest of the three cranial fossae.
B. Laterally it is limited by the mastoid part of the temporal bone and mastoid angle of the parietal bone
C. Clivus is separated from the temporal pyramid by the petrooccipital fissure.
D. Mastoid foramen opens into the upper part of the groove of transverse sinus.
E. Anterior part of the greater occipital foramen is narrower than that posterior.
297. CM. Orifices of the posterior cranial fossa:
A. Jugular
B. Oval
C. Internal acoustic porus
D. Hypoglossal
E. Sphenopalatine
298. CM. Infratemporal fossa is limited by the:
A. Pterygoid process of the sphenoid bone
B. Palatine bone
C. Temporal bone
D. Zygomatic bone
E. Branches of the mandible
299. CM.Mark those 3 walls of the pterygopalatine fossa:
A. Anterior – tubercle of the maxilla
B. Lateral – pterygoid process
C. Posterior– the base of the pterygoid process
D. Medial – perpendicular plate of the palatine bone
E. Superior – zygomatic arch
300. CM. Statements pertaining to the structural features of the female skull:
A. Mental protuberance is well highlighted.
B. Mandibular angle is inverted.
C. Orbits are bigger, the distance between them is shorter
D. Superciliary arches are weakly pronounced.
E. Mastoid processes are weakly pronounced.
301. CM. Statements pertaining to the structural features of the male skull:
A. Mental protuberance is well highlighted.
B. Mandibular angle is inverted.
C. Ratio of the facial skull to cerebral skull is 1:4,04
D. Superciliary arches and glabella are well pronounced.
E. Mastoid process is weakly pronounced.
302. CM. Statement pertaining to the external acoustic meatus:
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A. It is limited by the tympanic part of the temporal bone.
B. It is open on the posterior surface of the temporal pyramid
C. It contains blood vessels and nerves.
D. Serves for transmition of the sound waves.
E. It is placed laterally to the tympanic cavity.
303. CM. Statement pertaining to the internal acoustic meatus:
A. It is placed in the tympanic part of the temporal bone.
B. It is open on the posterior surface of the temporal pyramid
C. It contains blood vessels and nerves.
D. Serves for transmition of the sound waves.
E. It is placed laterally to the tympanic cavity.
304. CM. Bones that develop by desmal ossification are:
A. Frontal bone
B. Parietal bone
C. Ethmoid bone
D. Inferior nasal concha
E. Squama of the occipital bone
305. CM. Bones that develop by chondral ossification are:
A. Lacrimal bone
B. Sphenoid bone
C. Maxilla
D. Mandible
E. Parietal bone
306. CM. Statements applied to the superior sagittal sinus:
A. It passes on the Squama of the frontal bone, sagittal margin of the parietal bone and Squama of the occipital bone
B. It finishes at the level of the jugular orifice.
C. It passes horizontally on the internal surface of the occipital Squama.
D. It is straight.
E. It finishes by the confluence of the sinuses
307. CM. Groove of the sigmoid sinus:
A. It passes horizontally on the internal surface of the occipital Squama.
B. It is straight.
C. It finishes at the level of jugular orifice
D. It is located on 3 bones: parietal, temporal and occipital
E. It is located onthe superior marginof the temporal pyramid.
308. CM. Groove of the superior petrosal sinus:
A. It is located on 3 bones: parietal, temporal and occipital
B.It is located on the superior margin of the temporal pyramid.
C. Passes on the Squama of the frontal bone, sagittal margin of the parietal bone and occipital Squama
D. It finishes at thelevel of sigmoid sinus
E.It passes horizontally on the internal surface of the occipital Squama.
309. CM. Groove of the transverse sinus:
A. It finishes at the level of jugular foramen.
B. It passes horizontally on the internal surface of the occipital Squama.
C. It is straight.
D. It finishes at the level of upper part of sigmoid groove.
E. It is located on 3 bones: parietal, temporal and occipital
310. CM. Structures related to the frontal bone:
A. Lesser wings.
B. Trochlear fossa.
C. Perpendicular plate.
D. Nuchal lines.
E. Consists of 4 parts
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311. CM. Temporal bone:
A. Is concerned with the hearing apparatus
B. Trochlear fossa.
C. Perpendicular plate.
D. Nuchal lines.
E. Carotid canal
312. CM. Occipital bone:
A. Clivus
B. Trochlear fossa.
C. Perpendicular plate.
D. Nuchal lines.
E. Consists of 4 parts
313. CM. Sphenoid bone:
A. Lesser wings.
B. Superior orbital fissure
C. Perpendicular plate.
D. Chiasmatic groove.
E. Carotid canal
314. CM. Ethmoid bone:
A. Lesser wings.
B. Trochlear fossa.
C. Perpendicular plate.
D. Crista galli
E. Carotid canal
315. CM. Ethmoid bone:
A. Pharyngeal tubercle.
B. Cribriform plate
C. Sphenoid angle.
D. Orbital plate
E. Optic canal.
316. CM. Sphenoid bone:
A. Infratemporal crest
B. Spinous foramen.
C. Sphenoid angle.
D. Orbital plate .
E. Optic canal.
317. CM. Temporal bone:
A. Articular tubercle.
B. Pyramid.
C. Jugular fossa.
D. Arcuate eminence
E. Optic canal.
318. CM. Occipital bone:
A. Pharyngeal tubercle.
B. Jugular notch
C. Sphenoid angle.
D. Orbital plate .
E. Groove of the sigmoid sinus
319. CM.Parietal bone:
A. Pharyngeal tubercle.
B. Pits for pacchionian granulations
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C. Sphenoid angle.
D. Groove of the sigmoid sinus
E. Optic canal.
320. CM. Body of the sphenoid bone:
A. Cribriform plate.
B. Carotid groove.
C. Groove of the superior sagittal sinus.
D. Posterior clinoid process.
E. Spinous foramen
321. CM. Squama of the occipital bone:
A. Cribriform plate.
B. Inion
C. Groove of the superior sagittal sinus.
D. Posterior clinoid process.
E. Inferior nuchal line.
322. CM. Temporal bone:
A. Cribriform plate.
B. Carotid canal
C. Groove of the sigmoid sinus
D. Posterior clinoid process.
E. External aperture of the vestibular aqueduct
323. CM. Parietal bone:
A. Cribriform plate.
B. Mastoid angle
C. Groove of the superior sagittal sinus.
D. Posterior clinoid process.
E. Sagittal margin
324. CM. Ethmoid bone:
A. Cribriform plate.
B. Supreme nasal concha.
C. Groove of the superior sagittal sinus.
D. Posterior clinoid process.
E. Inferior nuchal line.
325. CM. Palatine bone:
A. Ethmoid crest
B. Marginal tubercle.
C. Orbital process
D. Perpendicular plate.
E. Crest of the concha
326. CM. Processes of palatine bone:
A. Pyramidal process
B. Orbital process
C. Sphenoid process
D. Palatine process
E. Jugularprocess
327. CM. Vomer:
A. Wings.
B. Marginal tubercle.
C. It is a bone of the visceral skull
D. Perpendicular plate.
E. Forms nasal septum
328. CM.Maxilla:
39
A. Has a body and 4 processes
B. Marginal tubercle.
C. Infraorbital foramen
D. Infratemporal fossa
E. Lacrimal groove.
329. CM. Anatomical structures situated on the anterior surface of the body of maxilla.
A. Canine fossa.
B. Infraorbital groove.
C. Infraorbital foramen.
D. Tuber of the maxilla.
E. Alveolary ridge
330. CM. Processes of the maxilla are:
A. Palatine process.
B. Pyramidal process.
C. Frontal process.
D. Orbital process.
E. Sphenoid process.
331. CM.Concerning the mandible:
A. Wings.
B. Masseteric tuberosity
C. Lingula
D. Perpendicular plate.
E. Digastric fossa
332. CM. Anatomical structures situated on the body of mandible.
A. Foramen mandibulae.
B. Mental spine.
C. Digastric fossa.
D. Mylohyoid line.
E. Mental foramen.
333. CM. Anatomical structures located on the mandibular branch are:
A. Pterygoid tuberosity.
B. Mental foramen.
C. Coronoid process.
D. Mylohyoid groove.
E. Mandibular foramen.
334. CM. Anatomical structures located on the alveolary process of the mandible?
A. Dental alveolae (sockets).
B. Interalveolar septa.
C. Interradicular septa.
D. Alveolary ridges.
E. All above mentioned are right
335. CM. Concerning zygomatic bone:
A. Frontal process.
B. Marginal tubercle.
C. Temporal process
D. Perpendicular plate.
E. Orbital surface
336. CM. Surfaces of the zygomatic bone?
A. Medial.
B. Orbitalis.
C. Temporal.
D. Lateral.
E. Nasal.
40
337. CM. Groove of the sigmoid sinus crosses:
A. Temporal bone.
B. Occipital bone.
C. Sphenoid bone.
D. Frontal bone.
E. Parietal bone.
338. CM. Structures concerning to the maxilla:
A. Lacrimal groove
B. 2 processes: temporaland frontal.
C. 3 processes: lacrimal, maxillary, ethmoid.
D. Crest of the concha
E. Processes: frontal, alveolar, zygomatic, palatine.
339. CM. Anatomical structures of the mandible:
A. Body, 2 branches.
B. Pterygoid tuberosity
C. Has 3 processes: lacrimal, maxillary, ethmoid.
D. 2 wings.
E. Sublingual fovea
340. CM. Statements pertaining to the vomer:
A. Body, 2 branches.
B. There are 2 processes: temporal and frontal.
C. It forms anterosuperior part of the nasal septum
D. 2 wings.
E. It forms posteroinferior part of the nasal septum
341. CM. Statements pertaining to the anterior cranian fossa:
A. Lacerate foramen
B. Blind foramen (foramen cecum).
C. Pterygomaxillary fissure
D. Crista galli
E. Internal acoustic porus.
342. CM. What bones take part in formation of the anterior cranial fossa?
A. Frontal bone.
B. Ethmoid bone
C. Parietal.
D. Sphenoid.
E. Incisive bone
343. CM. Structures related to the middle cranial fossa:
A. Lacerate foramen.
B. Spinous foramen
C. Pterigomaxillary fissure
D. Round foramen
E. Internal acoustic porus.
344. CM. Mark orifices of the middle cranial fossa?
A. Spinous foramen.
B. Greater occipital foramen.
C. Lacerate foramen.
D. Jugular foramen.
E. Blind foramen (foramen cecum).
345. \ Communications of the middle cranial fossa with the orbit:
A. Optic canal.
B. Inferior orbital fissure.
41
C. Superior orbital fissure.
D. Oval foramen.
E. Sphenopalatine foramen
346. CM. Statements on the posterior cranian fossa:
A. Lacerate foramen.
B. Greater occipital foramen.
C. Pterigomaxillary fissure
D. Sphenopalatine foramen
E. Internal acoustic porus.
347. CM. Communications of the posterior cranial fossa with exobase of the skull.
A. Oval foramen
B. Jugularl foramen
C. External aperture of the vestibular aquaeduct.
D. Greater occipital foramen.
E. Spinous foramen.
348. CM. Concerning the infratemporal fossa:
A. Lacerate foramen
B. Inferior orbital fissure
C. Pterigomaxillary fissure
D. Sphenopalatine foramen.
E. Oval and spinous orifices
349. CM. Concerning the walls of infratemporal fossa
A. Lateral plate of pterygoid process
B. Medial plate of pterygoid process
C. Tuber of maxilla
D. Perpendicular plate of palatine bone
E. Zygomatic bone.
350. A CM. Communications of the infratemporal fossa with other skull cavities are:
A. Pterygomaxillariy fissure.
B. Inferior orbital fissure.
C. Sphenopalatine foramen.
D. Superior orbital fissure.
E. Condylar canal.
351. CM. Concerning the pterygopalatine fossa:
A. Lacerate foramen
B. Round foramen
C. Pterygomaxillary fissure
D. Sphenopalatine foramen
E. Pterygoid canal
352. CM. Anatomical structures that form the walls of pterygopalatine fossa are:
A.Perpendicular plate of palatine bone
B.Tuber of maxilla
C. Pterygoid process
D. Branch of mandible
E. Pyramidal process
353. CM.Structures related to the superior nasal meatus:
A. Incisive foramen
B. Aperture of sphenoid sinus
C. Ethmoid infundibulum.
D. Posterior ethmoid cells.
E. Nasolacrimal canal
42
354. CM.Concerning the middle nasal meatus:
A. Incisive foramen.
B. Aperture of the ethmoid sinus.
C. Ethmoid infundibulum
D. Anterior cells of ethmoid bone
E. Aperture of the maxillary sinus
355. CM. Concerning the inferior nasal meatus:
A. Incisive foramen.
B. Aperture of ethmoid sinus.
C. Ethmoid infundibulum.
D. Anterior cells of ethmoid bone
E. Nasolacrimal canal
356. CM. Concerning topography of the skull. Superior orbital wall:
A. Is formed by 3 bones: sphenoid, zygomatic and frontal
B. Contains the fossa of lacrimal gland
C. Has the infraorbital groove
D. Contains the optic canal
E. Has trochlear fossa
357. CM. Concerning the inferior orbital wall:
A. Is formed by 3 bones: sphenoid, zygomatic and frontal
B. Contains the fossa of lacrimal sac
C. Has infraorbital groove
D. Consists of orbital process of palatine bone
E. Has trochlear fossa
358. CM. Concerningthe lateral orbital wall:
A. Is formed by 2 bones: sphenoid and zygomatic
B. Contains the fossa of lacrimal sac
C. Has infraorbital groove
D. Has optic canal
E. Contains the zygomaticoorbital foramen
359. CM. Bones forming the lateral orbital wall are: A.Zygomatic bone
B.Sphenoid bone
C. Maxilla
D.Frontal bone
E. Palatine bone
360. CM.Bones forming the medial orbital wall are:
A. Ethmoid bone
B. Sphenoid bone
C. Maxilla
D. Lacrimal bone
E. Frontal bone
361. CM. Concerning the medial wall of the orbit:
A. Is formed by 3 bones: sphenoid, zygomatic and frontal
B. Has fossa of the lacrimal sac
C. Contains the infraorbital groove
D. Has posterior ethmoid orifice
E. Consists of the lacrimal bone
362. CM.Orifices located on the orbital walls are: A. Anterior ethmoid foramen
B. Oval foramen
C. Posterior ethmoid foramen
D. Zygomaticoorbital foramen
E. Spinous foramen
43
363. CM. Concerning the cavities oftemporal bone:
A. Incisive canal
B. Piriform aperture
C. Mastoid antrum
D. Inferior orbital fissure
E. Tympanic cavity
364. CM. Concerning the petrotympanic fissure:
A. Tympanic cavity
B. Inferior aperture of tympanic canalicle
C. Cranial nervesVII and VIII.
D. Chorda tympani
E. Auricular branch of the vagus nerve
365. CM. Concerning the stylomastoid orifice:
A. Facial nerve
B. Inferior aperture of tympanic canalicle
C. Cranial nerves VII and VIII.
D. Chorda tympani
E. Temporal bone
366. CM. Concerning the mastoid canalicle:
A. Temporal bone
B. Inferior aperture of tympanic canalicle
C. Cranial nervesVII and VIII.
D. Jugular fossa
E. Auricular branch of the vagus nerve
367. CM. Concerning the internal acoustic meatus:
A. Pyramid of temporal bone
B. Inferior aperture of the tympanic canalicle
C. Cranial nerves VII and VIII.
D. Posterior cranial fossa
E. Auricular branch of the vagus nerve
368. CM. Bones forming the nasal septum: A. Nasal bone
B. Vomer
C. Lacrimal bone
D. Ethmoid bone
E. Incisive bone
369. CM. Bones forming the lateral wall of the nasal cavity are: A. Lacrimal bone
B. Zygomatic bone.
C. Ethmoid bone
D. Palatine bone.
E. Vomer.
370. CM. Paranasal sinuses open into the middle nasal meatus are: A. Sphenoid sinus
B. Frontal sinus
C. Anterior and middle ethmoid cells
D. Posterior ethmoid cells
E. Superior sagittal sinus
371. CM. Bones forming the bony part of palatine are: A. Vomer
B. Palatine bone
44
C. Hyoid bone
D. Maxilla
E. Incisive bone
372. CM. Types of sutures of the calota (skull-cap): A. Dentate suture
B. Serrate suture
C. Plane suture
D. Squamous suture
E. Harmony suture (sutura armonia)
373. CM. Structural features of newborn skull
A. Presence of fontanels
B. Frontal and parietal tubers are well pronounced
C.Volume of paranasal sinuses is small
D. Lack of mastoid process
E. Presence of sphenooccipital synostosis
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OSTEOLOGY.
2. PROBLEM DE SITUAȚIE
1. As a result of trauma teenager suffered a fractured humerus at the midshaft. Radiogram, performed by a cast bandage
application demonstrates perfect reposition bone fragments and integrity metaphyses.
1. What could be the prognosis of this condition?
2. What elements of the bone take part in formation of the bone callus?
3. Will be affected subsequent growth of the humerus in length?
2. In the chair museum of osteology can be observed ribs tied in a knot. Such bone pliability can be achieved
through treating with acid solution.
1. What kind of substances were removed from the bone and what remained?
2. What mechanical properties of the bonea re provided by two kinds of substances?
3. Your colleague is hampered in solving tests. Among other subjects he do not know the correct answer on questions:
1. Name the one bone only of the shoulders, that is developed partly by membranous ossification.
2. Which of the tubular bones are called monoepiphyseal and why? Can you help him?
4. During X-ray examination of the patient the presence of suplimentary ribs united with the first lumbar vertebra were
revealed.
1. How are termed such suplimentary ribs?
2. Is it possible existence of additional ribs in other regions of the vertebral column? Explain where and how they are
called.
5. On the skeleton made recently is seen consolidation of the atlas with the skull, the sacrum consists of four vertebrae
only, and there is an additional lumbar vertebra.
1 What is the name of fusion the atlas with the skulll?
2. What is thename of revealed anomaly of the sacrum.
6. Many variations of the anatomical shape of the sternum are exhibited in the museum.
1. How to explaine polymorphism of the sternum from the ontogenetic point view?
2. What is the sternoschisis? What is genesis of this anomaly?
7. In the pleural puncture the needle is inserted only on the upper border of the rib.
1. Explain why?
2. Which of the 12 pairs of ribs does not have structure that argues your explanation.
8. During radiological examination of a boy of 10 years old was detected the presence of transparent areas between the
bodies of the sacral vertebrae.
1 How do you explain this picture?
2 How and when the sacral vertebrae become fused together?
9. Examination of a newborn showed no physiological curvature of the spine.
1. What is meaning of this pathology?
2. What are the physiological curvatures of the spine and terms of their development?
10. In treating fractures of the clavicle can be used osteosynthesis.
What structural features of the clavicle permit this procedure?
11. The right upper limb of the young man is shorter. At the age of ten he suffered a cervical fracture of the humerus
with fragments displacement on the metaepiphyseal line. Explain:
1. Where is located the surgical neck of the humerus?
2. Why the upper limb became shorter?
12. The presence of carpal ossification points allows age assessment of the children in forensic practice.
1. Name the carpal bones and explain the appearance of their ossification points.
2. What stages of development do these bones undergo?
13. A transparent areas around the acetabulum is observed on the radiologicalcliché of a child 8 years old.
1. Is this a disorder?
2. How do you explain that picture?
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14. During gynecological examination of a pregnant woman the following dimensions of the upper aperture of the small
pelvis where determed: true conjugate (gynecological) - 10 cm, transverse diameter - 13 cm, oblique diameter - 12
cm.
1. Can be caused the size of true conjugate by wearing high heels shoes until the age of 16?
2. Up to what age the final formation of the pubic boneoccurs?
15. A young man playing football suffered trauma resulting in the fracture of distal fibula.
1. How is called this part the fibula?
2. What is the name of joint in which formation the distal epiphysis of the fibula takes part?
16. When examining a child 2.5 years doctor - pediatrician noticed excessive increase of the frontal and parietal tubers,
deflection of the costal arches, flat foot and lower limb deformity.
1. What disease this child suffers and what causes it?
17. Milk leakage occurs through the nose of a newborn during breastfeeding.
1. Defect of which bone may be?
2. What developmental abnormality is associated more often to this defect?
18. In traumatic head injury among other changes was affected the integrity of the parietal bone compact substance, the
fragments of its internal blade can crush the vessels of cerebral pachymeninx.
1. How is called this blade?
2. What is the name of spongy substance placed between the compact bone substance of the cranial vault.
19. In case of bleeding from the head and neck, its suspending can be obtained by compression of the carotid artery on
the homonymous tuber.
1. Where is located this tuber and what is its eponym?
2. List the structural features of the transverse cervical processes.
20. On the internal surface of the sagittal border of parietal bone can be seen arboriforme grooves and dimples.
1. How these grooves and pits are termed?
2. Call the structures that cause formation of the digitate impressions.
21. A trauma of the head caused lesion of the greater sphenoid wing, vessels and nerves penetrating its holes.
1. Name the holes located at the base of the greater sphenoid wing and anatomical structures passing through them.
2. Explain the location of these holes.
22. During the dissection of a cadaver was found that death occurred as a result of meningitis, caused by the spread of
infection to the cerebral meninges through the occipital emissary vein.
1. What is the name of the passage of the occipital emissary vein?
2. Where is located the external opening of this canal?
23. Inflammation of the mastoid cells mucous membrane (mastoiditis) presents a common complication in medical
practice of otolaryngologist.
1. What is the name of the largest mastoid cells?
2. Where is located this cell in relation to the tympanic cavity?
24. Inflammatory process in the pharynx can spread to the tympanic cavity through the auditory tube.
1. On what wall of the tympanic cavity the semicanal of auditory tube opens?
2. A constitutive part of which canal is this semicanal?
25. Complicated topography of the temporal pyramid is determined by its functional peculiarities and complexity of
anatomical structures in this region. Concerning this explain:
1. What is the name of the fossa located on the bony septum separating the jugular fossa from the external orifice of
the carotid canal?
2. Name the anatomical formation located in the fossa.
3. Which of the temporal bone structures takes part in formation of the temporomandibular joint?
26. Complexity of the internal structure of temporal pyramid is determined by the multiplicity of channels and ducts that
contains vessels and nerves.
Remember temporal bone structure and call the anatomical structures that are connecting between each other:
1. Caroticotimpanic tubules.
2. Channel facial nerve.
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27. Forensic examination found a lesion in the region lacerate foramen (foramen lacerum) resulting in damage to vital
anatomical structures found here.
Explain:
1. What are bones bounding this foramen?
2. Why lacerate foramen received this name?
28. The boxers often finds zygomatic arch fracture.
1. How zygomatic arch is formed?
2. Name the depression area limited by the zygomatic arch on the lateral side?
29. Fracture of the bones ofthe endobase in the region of posterior cranial fossa has serious consequences.
1. Name the bones (divisions or their components) involved in formation of the posterior cranial fossa and holes
located here.
2. What anatomical structures of the endobase that delimit the skull-cap in the posterior cranial fossa region?
30. Forensic examination of a corpse found the fracture of the occipital squama along the supreme nuchal line.
1. How do you think, was injured the skull-cap or base?
2. Name the anatomical structures on which the limitrophe line between the calvaria and the exobase of the skull
passes.
31. Late treated purulent process of the ethmoid bone, destroyed a part of the bone and spread to the anatomical
formations in orbit.
1. Which of the orbital wall was destroyed?
2. What bones participate in the formation of orbital wall?
32. In medical practice there are frequent cases when nasal mucosal inflammation of the lining of the maxillary
(haimorite) sinus spread because these cavities communicate with each other.
1. Call the opening of communication of the maxillary sinus and the nasal meatus into which it opens?
2. Which of the paranasal sinuses open into superior nasal meatus?
33. Damage to the upper part of the anterior surface of the maxilla can affect a nerve that passes through the
homonymous channel and innervates the upper lip and wing of the nose.
1. About what hole is it?
2. Name the canal that opens through the hole.
3. Call the groove that continues this channel posteriorly.