Question Booklet Series :– ç'u iqfLrdk fljht %& A Booklet Code No. :- iqfLrdk dksM la[;k %& 965728 ↑ Candidate must fill the above number correctly, in the OMR Sheet Time Allowed : 90 Minutes Total No. Questions: 120 vuqer le; % 90 feuV~ l Code-(AM-LEGAL)S-1,P-I ç'uksa dh dqy la[;k : 120 Roll No. : OMR Answer Sheet No. : vuqØekad % ________________________ vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk la[;k : _______________________ Name of the Candidate (in capital letters) : _____________________________________________________________ vH;FkÊ dk uke % Candidate's Signature Invigilator's Signature vH;FkÊ ds gLrk{kj _____________________ d{k fujh{kd ds gLrk{kj _____________________ IMPORTANT:– Read the following instructions carefully. Do not mark answers on the question booklet, otherwise you may be debarred from the selection process. 1. Before commencing to answer, check that the Question Booklet has 120 questions. Each Question Booklet will be in different series (combination of booklet code no. and series). You must write correct Booklet Code No. and Question Booklet Series on your OMR Answer Sheet. Further check that there is no misprinting, overprinting and/or any other shortcoming in it. If there is any shortcoming in the question booklet, intimate the same to your room invigilator and take a fresh question booklet. No complaint in this regard shall be entertained at any later stage. IMPORTANT NOTE: The OMR Answer Sheet will be evaluated with a combination of question booklet series and booklet code no. hence you must write correct question booklet series and booklet code no. Any mistake in filling any of them will lead to invalidation of your OMR Answer Sheet. Also in case of non filling of question booklet series and booklet code no. the OMR Answer Sheet will not be evaluated and its sole responsibility lies on the candidate. 2. There shall be negative marking. 1/3 mark will be deducted for wrong answer. Each question carries equal mark. Also refer OMR Sheet for detailed instruction. 3. Ask invigilator to sign on your admit card. If the same is not got signed by you, your candidature shall be liable to be rejected. 4. This is an objective type test in which each objective question is followed by four responses serialled (1) to (4). Your task is to choose the correct/best response and mark your response in the OMR Answer Sheet only as per the instructions given and NOT in the Question Booklet. 5. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for all your work on the OMR Answer Sheet. The ovals on the OMR Answer Sheet are to be completely filled by Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only. ANSWERS ONCE GIVEN CAN NOT BE CHANGED. 6. DO NOT scribble or do rough work or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. DO NOT wrinkle or fold or staple it. 7. Use of Calculators, Slide rules, Mobiles, calculator watches or any such devices and any other study/reference material is NOT allowed inside the examination hall. 8. Rough Work is to be done in the blank space provided in the Question Booklet, not on the OMR Answer Sheet. No other paper will be allowed/provided for rough work. 9. Return the complete Question Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator on completion of the test. Do not take this Question Booklet or any part thereof or OMR Answer Sheet outside the examination room. Doing so is a punishable offence. 10. Take care that you mark only one answer for each question. If more than one answer is given by you for any question, the same will not be evaluated. Cutting/overwriting the answers are not allowed. Further question paper is bilingual (Hindi/English). In case of any variation in Hindi version, English version will be taken as final for evaluation purposes. fgUnh esa vuqns”k vfUre i`’B ¼Back cover½ ij fn;k x;k gSA
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Question Booklet Series :– ç'u iqfLrdk fljht %& A
Booklet Code No. :- iqfLrdk dksM la[;k %&
9 6 5 7 2 8 ↑
Candidate must fill the above number correctly, in the OMR Sheet
Time Allowed : 90 Minutes Total No. Questions: 120vuqer le; % 90 feuV~l Code-(AM-LEGAL)S-1,P-I ç'uksa dh dqy la[;k : 120Roll No. : OMR Answer Sheet No. : vuqØekad % ________________________ vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk la[;k : _______________________ Name of the Candidate (in capital letters) : _____________________________________________________________ vH;FkÊ dk uke % Candidate's Signature Invigilator's Signature vH;FkÊ ds gLrk{kj _____________________ d{k fujh{kd ds gLrk{kj _____________________
IMPORTANT:– Read the following instructions carefully. Do not mark answers on the question booklet, otherwise you may be debarred from the selection process. 1. Before commencing to answer, check that the Question Booklet has 120 questions. Each Question Booklet will be
in different series (combination of booklet code no. and series). You must write correct Booklet Code No. and Question Booklet Series on your OMR Answer Sheet. Further check that there is no misprinting, overprinting and/or any other shortcoming in it. If there is any shortcoming in the question booklet, intimate the same to your room invigilator and take a fresh question booklet. No complaint in this regard shall be entertained at any later stage. IMPORTANT NOTE: The OMR Answer Sheet will be evaluated with a combination of question booklet series and booklet code no. hence you must write correct question booklet series and booklet code no. Any mistake in filling any of them will lead to invalidation of your OMR Answer Sheet. Also in case of non filling of question booklet series and booklet code no. the OMR Answer Sheet will not be evaluated and its sole responsibility lies on the candidate.
2. There shall be negative marking. 1/3 mark will be deducted for wrong answer. Each question carries equal mark. Also refer OMR Sheet for detailed instruction.
3. Ask invigilator to sign on your admit card. If the same is not got signed by you, your candidature shall be liable to be rejected.
4. This is an objective type test in which each objective question is followed by four responses serialled (1) to (4). Your task is to choose the correct/best response and mark your response in the OMR Answer Sheet only as per the instructions given and NOT in the Question Booklet.
5. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for all your work on the OMR Answer Sheet. The ovals on the OMR Answer Sheet are to be completely filled by Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only. ANSWERS ONCE GIVEN CAN NOT BE CHANGED.
6. DO NOT scribble or do rough work or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. DO NOT wrinkle or fold or staple it.
7. Use of Calculators, Slide rules, Mobiles, calculator watches or any such devices and any other study/reference material is NOT allowed inside the examination hall.
8. Rough Work is to be done in the blank space provided in the Question Booklet, not on the OMR Answer Sheet. No other paper will be allowed/provided for rough work.
9. Return the complete Question Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator on completion of the test. Do not take this Question Booklet or any part thereof or OMR Answer Sheet outside the examination room. Doing so is a punishable offence.
10. Take care that you mark only one answer for each question. If more than one answer is given by you for any question, the same will not be evaluated. Cutting/overwriting the answers are not allowed. Further question paper is bilingual (Hindi/English). In case of any variation in Hindi version, English version will be taken as final for evaluation purposes.
fgUnh esa vuqns”k vfUre i`’B ¼Back cover½ ij fn;k x;k gSA
APTITUDE1. You have recently joined as a manager in a public
sector organisation and reporting to Joint General manager who happened to be your ex-classmate. Your relation during college time had never been cordial with him. On joining new job he greeted you with warm and welcomed to the new organisation. Within seven days of joining he assigned you an official work of delivering a most confidential document to the General Manager of other organisation. Normally the official documents delivery is done by assistants who have been officially appointed for this work. The work assigned does not come within your job description . What shall be your course of action: (1) Shall ask your boss that you will not do such work. (2) Shall take up the assigned job and carry out the work
of delivering the documents. (3) Shall complain this to the General manager of your
organisation and brief him about your relation with your boss during college days.
(4) Shall show your boss the job description which is expected from the manager.
1. vki vHkh gky gh esa çca/kd ds in ij ,d lkoZtfud miØe esa
2. Creation of MUDRA bank was proposed in the recent budget proposal of the Government of India. MUDRA stands for: (1) Monetary Union Development Repay agency (2) Medium Units Development & Reconstruction Agency (3) Micro Units Development Refinance Agency (4) Multipurpose Undertakings Development Refinance
(1) Monetary Union Development Repay agency (2) Medium Units Development & Reconstruction Agency (3) Micro Units Development Refinance Agency (4) Multipurpose Undertakings Development Refinance
Agency
3. The preamble to our Constitution proclaims that ‘We the people of India have established: (1) A Sovereign, Socialistic, Secular, Democratic, Republic (2) A Sovereign, Democratic, Republic (3) A Sovereign, Secular, Democratic, Republic (4) None of the above incorrect
4. “To separate the judiciary from the executive” is mentioned in which article of the constitution of India: (1) Article 43 (2) Article 40 (3) Article 50 (4) None of these
4. ßdk;Zikfydk ls U;k;ikfydk dks i`Fkd djukÞ Hkkjrh; lafo/kku ds
5. Which of the following statement is wrong: (1) During a solstice there are unequal days and nights (2) A gulf is a large area of sea partly surrounded by land (3) A harbour is that portion of sea where ships can dock (4) Neap tide is caused by gravitational pull of the moon
and the sun together in the same direction
5. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk dFku xyr gS%
(1) v;ukar ds nkSjku fnu vkSj jkr vleku gksrs gSa
(2) [kkM+h leqæ dk og cM+k {ks= gksrk gS tks vkaf'kd :i ls tehu
6. RTGS in banking sector stands for: (1) Real Time Gross Settlement (2) Real Transactions Going Settlement (3) Ready Transfer Gross Settlement (4) Remittance Transfer Gross settlement
6. cSafdax {ks= esa RTGS dk rkRi;Z gS%
(1) Real Time Gross Settlement (2) Real Transactions Going Settlement (3) Ready Transfer Gross Settlement (4) Remittance Transfer Gross settlement
SET01P1 [9 6 5 7 2 8 ] AM/LGL [A–1]
7. You are working as a Deputy General manager of a Government undertaking. You find that one of your colleague’s son Mr Ravi has been placed under you as a manager. There are three more managers Shashi, Kamal and Shyamwho are working under you. Their Characteristics are as follows. A. Ravi is good in convincing seniors, gives less
attention to planning of project but puts a lot of efforts in execution of the project.
B. Shashi is good in convincing seniors, gives more attention towards planning of projects but lacks understanding of execution
C. Kamal is good in convincing seniors, gives less attention towards planning and less efforts towards execution.
D. Shyam lacks in convincing seniors, gives adequate attention towards planning and adequate understanding of execution of project also
Your organisation has got a prestigious project . If you wish to assign the project to one of the manager, you should assign this to.
(1) Ravi (2) Shashi (3) Kamal (4) Shyam
7. vki ,d ljdkjh miØe esa mi&egkçca/kd ds :i esa dk;Z dj jgs
8. The President of India is elected by the members of an electoral college comprising of – (1) The members of both Houses of the Parliament (2) The members of both Houses of the Parliament and
the Legislative Assemblies of the States (3) The elected members of both Houses of the
Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States
(4) The elected members of both Houses of the Parliament, the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States and the elected members of the local bodies
9. Lalbagh garden built by Hyder Ali is situated in: (1) Bangalore (2) Mysore (3) Mangalore (4) Lucknow
9. ykyckx m|ku] ftls gSnjvyh us cuok;k] dgk¡ fLFkr gS%
(1) caxykSj (2) eSlwj (3) eaxykSj (4) y[kuÅ
10. In Haber’s process for manufacture of NH3: (1) Iron is used as catalyst (2) Molybdenum is used as catalyst (3) Nickel is used as a catalyst (4) No catalyst
10. gScj fof/k }kjk NH3 ds fuekZ.k esa mRçsjd dkSu ls ç;ksx djrs gSa%
(1) vkbju dh Nhyu
(2) ekSyhfoMue dh Nhyu
(3) fufdy dh Nhyu
(4) dksbZ mRçsjd ugha
11. Which article of the constitution of India requires the constitution of a finance commission every five years or earlier: (1) Article 280 (2) Article 250 (3) Article 126 (4) None of these
13. You are departmental Head of an organisation. During the course of personnel appraisal and reviews for increment of salary and promotion of the employees, you find certain employees traits and performance as under: A. Mr Shubhash (Manager), Genius, Sincere and works
hard in the office, does not share the office work to the subordinates with a fear that he will lose importance, rarely absents from office.
B. Mr Diwakar (Manager), Intelligent, Sincere and Manages works well, Delegates works to subordinates, does not have fear of losing importance, Takes normal leaves
C. Mr Shashi (Manager), Wise, Sincere and manages work well, Delegates only non critical work to subordinates and keeps critical work and information to him for a fear that he will lose importance.
D. Mr Ashok (Manager), Intelligent, Sincere and manages work well, delegates work to subordinates and keep them informed of day today office developments, helps subordinates to learn by teaching them with his own experiences, No fear of losing importance, rarely absents from office
çfrfnu dh dk;kZy; fØ;k&dykiksa ls voxr djkrk gS ,oa
v/khuLFkksa dks vius vuqHko ls çf”kf{kr djds lh[kus esa enn
çnku djrk gS] mls egRo de gksus dk Mj ugha] dk;kZy; ls
dHkh&dHkkj gh vuqifLFkr jgrk gSA
fdls vki loksZPp vadu djsxsa%
(1) lqHkk’k (2) fnokdj (3) “k”kh (4) v”kksd
DIRECTIONS: Answer the following questions according to the instructions given.
A$B means A is not smaller than B A#B means A is not greater than B A@B means A is neither smaller nor equal to B A*B means A is neither greater than nor smaller than B A%B means A is neither greater than nor equal to B
14. STATEMENT: M@J, J$T, T*N CONCLUSION: I. N#J II. T%M III. M@N
(1) Only I and II are true (2) Only II is true (3) Only I and III are true (4) All are true
A$B dk rkRi;Z gS A] B ls NksVk ugha gS A#B dk rkRi;Z gS A] B ls cM+k ugha gS A@B dk rkRi;Z gS A] u rks B ls NksVk vkSj u gh B ds cjkcj gS A*B dk rkRi;Z gS A] u rks B ls cM+k vkSj u gh B ls NksVk gS A%B dk rkRi;Z gS A] u rks B ls cM+k vkSj u gh B ds cjkcj gS
14. dFku%
M@J, J$T, T*N fu’d’kZ%
I. N#J II. T%M III. M@N (1) dsoy I ,oa II lR; gS (2) dsoy II lR; gS (3) dsoy I ,oa III lR; gS (4) lHkh lR; gSa
15. STATEMENT: All boys are girls No girl is a father CONCLUSION: I. All girls are boys II. No boy is a father (1) Only I is true (2) Only II is true (3) Only I and II are true (4) None of them is true
15. dFku%
lHkh yM+ds yM+fd;k¡ gSA
dksbZ Hkh yM+dh firk ugha gS
fu’d’kZ%
I. lHkh yM+fd;k¡ yM+ds gSa ii. dksbZ Hkh yM+dk firk ugha gS
(1) dsoy I lR; gS (2) dsoy II lR; gS (3) dsoy I ,oa II lR; gS (4) buesa ls dksbZ Hkh lR; ugha gS
16. Who won Hockey India League–3 ? (1) Delhi Waveriders (2) UP Wizards (3) Punjab Warriors (4) Ranchi Rays
22. Harika Dronavalli relates to which game: (1) Chess (2) Cricket (3) Badminton (4) Table Tennis
22. gkfjdk æks.kkoYyh dk fdl [ksy ls lEcU/k gS%
(1) “krjat (2) fØdsV (3) cSMfeUVu (4) Vscy VSful
23. The wife of a senior bureaucrat in Ministry of Urban Development has just joined as General Manager (Projects) in the organisation and reporting to you (Executive director -Projects). You quite often meet the senior bureaucrat with reference to your official work (Sanction of funds to your project). The new General manager keeping in view of the official position of her husband, breaks official protocol quite often and sometimes behaves as if she is over and above your position and does not care for you. What shall you do in such a situation? (1) Shall report of her behaviour to the senior bureaucrat (2) Shall report of her behaviour to the Managing
director of your organisation (3) Shall talk to her regarding this and ask her to maintain
official protocol (4) Shall delegate the work of sanction of funds to the
26. India recently won gold in world Youth Under-16 Chess Olympiad against: (1) Ukraine (2) Russia (3) Turkey (4) Iran
26. Hkkjr us vHkh gky gh esa fo”o ;wFk vUMj&16 “krjat vksfYEi;kM esa
Lo.kZ fdl ns”k ds fo:) thrk%
(1) ;wØsu (2) :l (3) VdÊ (4) bZjku
DIRECTIONS: Select the most logical choice/choice which satisfies the relationship in the following questions. funsZ”k% ç”u esa fn;s x;s mu fodYiksa dks pqus tks lEcU/kksa dks lUrq’V djrs gSaA
28. A water tank is hemispherical below and cylindrical at the top. If the radius is 12 m and capacity is 3312π m3, the height of the cylindrical portion in metres is: (1) 12 (2) 13 (3) 15 (4) None of these
28. ,d ikuh dh Vadh uhps ls v/kZxksy rFkk “kh’kZ ij csyukdkj gSA ;fn
(1) x 4 π (2) π x 4 (3) 2 π x (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
DIRECTIONS: The questions are based on the following information. Out of the total 390 students studying in a college of Arts and Science, boys and girls are in the ratio of 7:6 respectively and the number of students studying Arts and Science are in the ratio of 3:7 respectively. The boys and girls studying Arts are in the ratio of 4:5 respectively. 30. How many boys are studying Science?
(1) 155 (2) 156 (3) 158 (4) None of these
funsZ”k% fuEufyf[kr ç”u fuEu lwpukvksa ij vk/kkfjr gSaA
31. Total expenses of a boarding house are partly fixed and partly varying linearly with the number of boarders. The average expense per boarder is Rs. 700/- when there are 25 boarders and Rs. 600/- when there are 50 boarder. What is the average expense per boarder when there are 100 boarders? (1) Rs. 560/- (2) Rs. 540/- (3) Rs. 550/- (4) None of these
32. Oxygen was discovered by: (1) Priestly (2) Boyle (3) Cavendish (4) None of these
32. vkWDlhtu dh [kkst fdlus dh%
(1) çhLVys (2) ck;y
(3) dkfoUMl (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
33. In the year 2000 a businessman started his business with ` 25,00,000. He spends ` 50,000 at the end of year 2005 and 2010. His total amount doubles in every five years. His amount in the year 2020 will be: (1) ` 48,50,000 (2) ` 1,30,00,000 (3) ` 3,94,00,000 (4) None of these
33. ,d O;kikjh us lu~ 2000 esa ` 25,00,000 ls ,d O;kikj vkjEHk
fd;kA lu~ 2005 vkSj 2010 ds çR;sd ds vUr esa og ` 50,000 O;; djrk gSA mldh dqy jde çR;sd ik¡p lky ij nksxquh gksrh gSA
36. fuEufyf[kr la[;kvksa esa ls U;wure la[;k dkSu&lh gS%
126 , 43 , 54 , 3
(1) 126 (2) 43 (3) 54 (4) 3
SET01P1 [9 6 5 7 2 8 ] AM/LGL [A–5]
37. A tyre has two punctures. The first puncture alone would have made the tyre flat in 9 minutes & the second alone would have done it in 6 minutes. If air leaks out at a constant rate, how long does it take in minutes both the punctures together to make it flat.
(1) (2) 213 (3)
211 (4) None of these
37. ,d Vk;j esa nks iaDpj gSaA igyk iaDpj vdsys Vk;j ls gok 9 feuV esa fudky nsrk gS rks nwljk vdsys bls 6 feuV esaaA ;fn gok dk fjlko lrr nj ij gks jgk gS rks nksuksa iDapjks ls ,d lkFk gok
fudyus ij fdrus feuV esa Vk;j lery gksxk%
(1) 533
533
(2) 213 (3)
211 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
38. Which of the following in the largest number?
(1) (2) (3) (4) 3/13 5/15 2/12 7/17
38. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lh lokZf/kd cM+h la[;k gS\
(1) (2) (3) (4) 3/13 5/15 2/12 7/17
39. In how many different ways the letters of the word 'DIGITAL' can be arranged so that the vowels always come together? (1) 720 (2) 480 (3) 144 (4) 360
40. Sunder travels 20 km. to the North, turns left and travels 8 km., and then again turns right, covers another 10 km. and then turns right and travels another 8 km. How far is he from the starting point. (1) 8 km. (2) 40 km. (3) 30 km. (4) 10 km.
41. Jatin said to Kajal, “That boy playing with the football is the younger of the two brother of the daughter of my father’s wife.” How is the boy playing related to Jatin? (1) Brother-in-law (2) Son (3) Brother (4) None of these
41. tfru us dkty ls dgk fd ßoks yM+dk tks QqVckWy [ksy jgk gS] og
42. In a certain code ‘PAISE’ is coded as ‘QBJTF’ and ‘CEASE’ is coded as ‘DFBTF’. How will ‘TRANGLE’ be coded in the same code? (1) USBOIMF (2) USBMHMF (3) USOBIMF (4) USBOHMF
43. There are two clocks, both set to show 10 pm on 21st January 2010. One clock gains 2 minutes in an hour and the other clock loses 5 minutes in an hour. then by how many minutes do the two clocks differ at 4pm on 22nd January 2010? (1) 126 minutes (2) 136 minutes (3) 96 minutes (4) 106 minutes
DIRECTIONS: Each of these questions consists of a pair of words bearing a certain relstionship. From amongst the alternatives, choose the alternative that best illustrates a similar relationship.
fuf”pr lEcU/k gSA fn;s fodYiksa esa ls ,sls gh laca/k n”kkZrs gq, tksM+s dks pqusaA
44. f=Hkqt % ‘kVHkqt
(1) “kadq % xksyk
(2) vk;r % v’VHkqt
(3) iapHkqt % lIrHkqt
(4) dks.k % prqHkZqt
45. If water is called food, food is called tree, tree is called sky, sky is called wall, on which of the following grows a fruit? (1) Water (2) Tree (3) Wall (4) Sky
48. The remedy in tort law is: (1) Unliquidated damages (2) Restoration of original petition (3) Liquidated damages (4) Either (1) or (3)
48. vid`R; fof/k esa mipkj gS%
(1) vifjfu/kkZfjr vid`R;
(2) ewy fLFkfr dh cgkyh
(3) ifjfu/kkZfjr vid`R;
(4) (1) vFkok (3)
49. Following are good defences to an action in tort: I. Volenti non fit injuria II. Scienti nonfit injuria III. Vis major
Choose the best option.
(1) I, II & III (2) II & III (3) I & III (4) III only
49. vid`R; esa dkjZokbZ esa fuEu mRre cpko gS%
I. Volenti non fit injuria II. Scienti nonfit injuria III. Vis major loksZRre fodYi dk p;u djsa
(1) I, II rFkk III (2) II rFkk III (3) I rFkk III (4) dsoy III
50. Defamation is: (1) Both a tort and a crime (2) Only a tort (3) Only a crime (4) None of these
50. ekugkfu gksrh gS%
(1) ,d vid`R; vksj vijk/k&&nksuksa
(2) dsoy ,d vid`R;
(3) dsoy ,d vijk/k
(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
51. Announcement of reward to the general public through newspaper to find the stolen good is: (1) An offer (2) A promise (3) A consideration (4) An agreement
55. Principle: A contract is an agreement enforceable by law. All agreements are contracts if they are made with free consent by parties competent to contract for a lawful consideration and with a lawful object. Fact: A, a 40 year old businessman of sound mind, agrees to sell his bungalow worth 40 lakhs for 1 lakh. The agreement is: I. Invalid due to inadequate consideration II. Valid as there is lawful consideration III. Valid as A entered into it with free consent IV. Valid because A has capacity to contract.
(1) I only (2) II and III only (3) III only (4) II, III, and IV
I. vi;kZIr izfrQy ds dkj.k voS/k gS II. oS/k gS D;ksafd dkuwuh izfrQy gS III. oS/k gS D;ksafd , us iw.kZ lgefr ls ;g lafonk dh gS IV. oS/k gS D;ksafd , lafonk djus ds fy, l{ke gS
(1) dsoy I (2) dsoy II rFkk III (3) dsoy III (4) II, III rFkk IV
56. The Latin Maxim ‘nemo dat quid non habet’ as contained in section 27 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 means: (1) An innocent and bona fide purchaser gets a proper
title as of a true owner (2) No man can pass a better title than he has (3) An innocent occupier of goods can pass a proper title (4) A finder of goods can pass a proper title
56. eky foØ; vf/kfu;e 1930 dh /kkjk 27 esa ;Fkkfufgr ^dksbZ Hkh O;fDr vius gd ls Åapk gd ugha varfjr dj ldrk ¼ftlds ikl
(4) eky dk ikus okyk ,d leqfpr gd varfjr dj ldrk gS
57. The rule of ‘caveat emptor’ as enunciated in section 16 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, means that: (1) The buyer must take a chance (2) The buyer must take care (3) The seller must take care (4) Both (1) and (2)
58. Section 125 of CrPC is applicable to: (1) Hindus (2) Muslims (3) Christians (4) All persons belonging to all religions
58. vkijkf/kd naM lafgrk dh /kkjk 125 fuEu ij ykxw gksrh gS% (1) fganw
(2) eqfLye
(3) bZlkbZ
(4) lHkh /keksZa ds lHkh yksx
59. ‘X’ & ‘Y’ go to murder ‘Z’. ‘X’ stood on guard with a spear in hand but did not hit ‘Z’ at all. ‘Y’ killed ‘Z’. (1) Only ‘Y’ is liable for murder of Z (2) ‘X’ & ‘Y’ both are liable for murder of ‘Z’ (3) ‘X’ is not liable as he did not perform any overt act (4) Both (1) & (3)
60. “Foreign Judgment” under C.P.C. means: (1) The judgment of a Criminal Court (2) The judgment of a Court of Jammu & Kashmir (3) The judgment of a Appellate Court (4) The judgment of a Foreign Court
60. lhihlh ds v/khu ^fons”kh fu.kZ;* dk vk”k; gS%
(1) nkf.Md U;k;ky; }kjk fu.kZ;
(2) tEew rFkk d”ehj U;k;ky; }kjk fu.kZ;
(3) vihyh; U;k;ky; }kjk fu.kZ;
(4) fons”kh U;k;ky; }kjk fu.kZ;
61. ASSERTION (A):- The President is a part of Parliament. REASON (R):- A bill passed by two Houses of Parliament cannot become law without the assent of the President. (1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A (2) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation
of A (3) A is true but R is false (4) A is false but R is true
62. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the “heart and soul of the Constitution?” (1) Right to property (2) Right to religion (3) Right to constitutional (4) All of these
62. fuEu esa ls dkSuls ewy vf/kdkj dks MkW- ch- vkj- vacsMdj us
63. A law, which abridges Fundamental Rights, is not a nullity but remains inoperative till the shadow of Fundamental Rights falls over such rights. This is known as doctrine of .............: (1) Pleasure (2) Pith and substance (3) Eclipse (4) Severability
og vizpfyr jgrh gSA ;g----------dk fl)kar dgykrk gS%
(1) izlkn
(2) lkj vkSj okLrfod vFkZ
(3) rstHkax
(4) foPNsnuh;rk
64. Which one of the following has been dropped from the list of personal freedoms enshrined in Article 19 of the Constitution: (1) Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms (2) Freedom to acquire, hold and dispose of property (3) Freedom to reside and settle in any part of the country (4) Freedom to carry on any profession, occupation, trade
or business.
64. lafo/kku ds vuqPNsn 19 esa izfr’Bkfir oS;fDrd Lora=rkvksa dh lwph esa
65. Article 23 of the Constitution does not prohibit: (1) Traffic in human beings (2) Beggar (3) Forced labour (4) Compulsory service for public purposes
66. Apart from the State of Jammu & Kashmir which is the state where on whole of it, C.P.C. does not apply: (1) Assam (2) Nagaland (3) Mizoram (4) Whole of North East
67. A proclamation requiring a person to appear must be published giving: (1) Not less than 30 days time to the person concerned (2) Not less than 60 days time to the person concerned (3) Not less than 90 days time to the person concerned (4) Not less than 15 days time to the person concerned
(1) lacaf/kr O;fDr dks de ls de 30 fnu dk le; (2) lacaf/kr O;fDr dks de ls de 60 fnu dk le; (3) lacaf/kr O;fDr dks de ls de 90 fnu dk le; (4) lacaf/kr O;fDr dks de ls de 15 fnu dk le;
68. The right of claiming the attached property or sale proceeds thereof by the proclaimed person flows from: (1) Section 82 of Cr.P.C (2) Section 83 of Cr.P.C (3) Section 84 of Cr.P.C (4) Section 85 of Cr.P.C
69. The power of issuing proclamation u/sec. 82 Cr.P.C: (1) With the Court of Magistrate (2) With the Court of Sessions (3) With the High Court (4) All the above
70. Personating a public servant is an offence: (1) Under section 169 IPC (2) Under section 170 IPC (3) Under section 171 IPC (4) Under section 173 IPC
74. The term of office for the Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners is: (1) Till they enjoy pleasure of the President of India (2) Five years (3) Till they attain the age of 65 years (4) Five years and superannuation age being 65 years,
75. A public servant absconding to avoid service of summons or other proceeding, shall be punished with: (1) Simple Imprisonment for 1 month (2) Fine of 500 rupees (3) Simple imprisonment for 1 month and fine of Rs. 500 (4) None of these
77. In which case the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is not a Part of the Constitution? (1) A.K. Gopalan case (2) In re, Berubari case (3) Minerva Mill case (4) A.K. Antony case
77. dkSu&ls ekeys esa loksZPp U;k;ky; us ;g fu.kZ; fn;k Fkk fd izLrkouk
lafo/kku dk ,d fgLlk ugha gS\
(1) ,- ds- xksikyu ekeyk
(2) cs:ckjh ekeys ds laca/k esa
(3) feuokZ fey ekeyk
(4) ,- ds- ,sUVksuh ekeyk
78. Which one of the following doctrine relates to the interpretation of the legislative conflicts between the Union and the States? (1) Doctrine of clear and present danger (2) Precautionary approach (3) Stare decisis (4) Pith and substance
78. fuEu esa ls dkSulk fl)kar la?k vkSj jkT;ksa ds chp fo/kk;h fooknksa ds
79. ASSERTION (A):- The President of India has the power to grant pardon, reprieve, respite or remission of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute sentence. REASON (R):- The President exercises not only executive functions but also judicial and legislative functions (1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A (2) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A (3) A is true but R is false (4) A is false but R is true
80. ASSERTION (A):- The President of India can issue a proclamation of emergency under Article 352(1) of Constitution on the advice of the Prime Minister. REASON (R):- Where a proclamation of emergency is in operation, the President may suspend the operation of all fundamental rights except Article 20 & 21 of Constitution. (1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A (2) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A (3) A is true but R is false (4) A is false but R is true
82. What is required to be established for bringing hearsay evidence within the ambit of ............. of Indian Evidence Act that it must be almost contemporaneous with the acts and there could not be an interval which would allow fabrication: (1) Section 5 (2) Section 7 (3) Section 6 (4) Section 8
83. Where the ocular evidence is very clear and convincing and role of accused person in the crime stands clearly established, establishment of motive is not a sine qua non for proving the prosecution case. This is decided by the Supreme Court in the case of: (1) Yunis Alias Kariya V. State of Madhya Pradesh (2) Bipin Kumar Mondel V. State of west Bengal (3) Wakker V. State of uttar Pradesh (4) None of these
84. The question is, whether A robbed B. The facts that, shortly before robbery, B went to fair with money in his possession, and that he showed it to third persons, are relevant facts under .......... of Indian Evidence Act: (1) Section 8 (2) Section 7 (3) Section 6 (4) Section 5
84. ç”u ;g gS fd A us B dks ywVkA ;s rF; fd ywVus ls FkksM+h nsj
igys] B vius dCts esa iSls ysdj esys esa x;k Fkk vkSj mlus og iSlk
85. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the constitution of India? (1) It contains the scheme of the distribution of powers
between the union and states (2) It allocates seats in the council of states (3) It contains the languages listed in the constitution (4) It contains the provisions regarding the administration
of tribal areas
85. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk dFku Hkkjrh; lafo/kku ds prqFkZ vuqPNsn
(3) lafo/kku esa lwfpr Hkk’kkvksa dks fufgr djrk gS
(4) ;g vkfnoklh {ks=ksa ds “kklu ls lEcfU/kr ls çko/kku djrk gS
86. The Indian Parliament consists of: (1) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and the President (2) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha (3) Lok Sabha and State assemblies (4) Lok Sabha only
86. Hkkjrh; laln ds vax gSa%
(1) yksd lHkk] jkT; lHkk ,oa jk’Vªifr
(2) yksd lHkk ,oa jkT; lHkk
(3) yksd lHkk ,oa jkT; fo/kku lHkk
(4) dsoy yksd lHkk
87. Indira Sawhney v. Union of India is a case dealing with: (1) Ram Janam Bhoomi- Babri Masjid (2) Right of religious minorities to run educational
institutes (3) Independence of Election Commission (4) Reservation for OBCs
88. If a person other than a proclaimed person has any interest in the attached property under section 83 of the criminal procedure code, he may prefer his claim or objection made to the attachment of his interest in such property within: (1) Six months from the date of attachment order (2) Three months from the date of attachment order (3) Four months from the date of attachment order (4) One year from the date of attachment order
90. Which of the following Article of Constitution of India entrusts parents with the responsibility of providing opportunities for education to their children? (1) Article 21(A) (2) Article 51(A) (3) Article 45 (4) Article 350(A)
90. fuEufyf[kr esa ls Hkkjrh; lafo/kku dk dkSu&lk vuqPNsn cPpksa dh
92. ‘Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment’ is mentioned in which of the following Articles: (1) Article 14 (2) Article 15 (3) Article 16 (4) Article 17
94. Fundamental Duties of citizens: (1) are contained in Schedule IX of the Constitution (2) lie scattered throughout the Constitution (3) are contained in Part IV A of the Constitution (4) None of these
94. ukxfjdksa ds ewy drZO;%
(1) lafo/kku dh vuqlph IX eas fufgr gS (2) lewps lafo/kku esa QSys gq, gSa
(3) lafo/kku ds Hkkx IV, esa fufgr gS (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
95. The executive power of the Union is vested in the: (1) Prime Minister (2) Union of India (3) President of India (4) None of these
95. la?k ds “kklh vf/kdkj fuEu esa fofgr gS%
(1) iz/kkuea=h
(2) Hkkjrh; la?k
(3) Hkkjr ds jk’Vªifr
(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
96. The maximum strength of Lok Sabha as envisaged by the constitution is: (1) 530 (2) 552 (3) 555 (4) 550
97. Which of the following Articles confer power on the Supreme Court to issue appropriate directions or orders or writs: (1) Article 226 (2) Article 137 (3) Article 32 (4) Article 140
97. fuEukafdr esa ls dkSu&lk vuqPNsn loksZPp U;k;ky; dks mi;qä
99. Point out the incorrect statement To qualify for the membership of Rajya Sabha, one has to. (1) Be a citizen of India (2) Be at least 30 years of age (3) Fulfils the qualifications of becoming a member of
parliament (4) Be a voter in any Lok Sabha constituency of India
102. A contract based on the happening or non-happening of a future event under Section 31 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872: (1) A contingent contract (2) A wagering contract (3) A contract marked with uncertainty and hence void (4) None of these
105. Under Section 11 of Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, the Arbitrator has to be appointed: (1) Within 30 days of the arbitration agreement (2) Within 30 days of arising of the dispute (3) Within 30 days of failure to resolve the dispute of their
own (4) Within 30 days from the receipt of request for
106. As per Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 provision for setting aside the arbitral award is laid down under: (1) Section 32 of the Act (2) Section 34 of the Act (3) Section 36 of the Act (4) None of these
107. A resides at Shimla, B at Bangalore and C at Delhi. A, B and C when being together at Jaipur, B and C make a joint promissory note payable on demand and deliver it to A. A can not sue B and C at: (1) Shimla (2) Bangalore (3) Delhi (4) Jaipur
107. A f”keyk esa] B caxykSj esa rFkk C fnYyh esa jgrk gSA A] B] C
t;iqj esa tc lkFk&lkFk gSa rc B ,oa C ,d la;qä opu ii=
cukdj A dks lqiqnZ djrs gSaA A fdl LFkku ij B ,oa C ds fo:)
eqdnek ugha dj ldrk gS%
(1) f”keyk
(2) caxykSj
(3) fnYyh
(4) t;iqj
108. State which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct: (1) The parties to a contract must be competent to contract (2) The agreement must have been made with free
consent of parties to agreement (3) The Agreement must be for a lawful considration and
with lawful object (4) All the above statements are true
109. What was held in Mohari Bibee VS Dharamdas Ghose: (1) Rule of privity of contract (2) A minor’s contract is void (3) Time is the essence of the contract (4) None of these
117. Public Interest Litigation does not insist on: (1) Violation of right by the petitioner (2) Violation of the right of respondent (3) Violation of constitutional right (4) Locus Standi of petitioner
117. tufgrokn fuEu ds fy, vkxzg ugha djrk%
(1) ;kfpdkdrkZ }kjk vf/kdkj dk mYya?ku
(2) izfroknh ds vf/kdkj dk mYya?ku
(3) laoS/kkfud vf/kdkj dk mYya?ku
(4) ;kfpdkdrkZ dh vf/kdkfjrk
118. Supreme Court can exercise power to do complete justice under ............ (1) Article 141 (2) Article 142 (3) Article 143 (4) Article 124 and Article 138
119. The appropriate writ issued by the Court to quash the appointment of a person to a public office is that of: (1) Certiorari (2) Prohibition (3) Quo Warranto (4) Mandamus
120. When a writ is issued to an inferior court or tribunal on ground of exceeding the jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice, it is called a writ of: (1) Quo Warranto (2) Certiorari (3) Mandamus (4) Habeas Corpus